IBPS PO Mains Previous Year Question Papers PDF Free Download 2021 – Last 10 Years Solved Papers

IBPS PO Mains Previous Year Question Papers PDF Free Download 2022 – Last 10 Years Solved Papers

Que. 1 Direction: Read the given information carefully and answer the given question.

There are 12 persons visit a location in six different months and two different dates. Months are January,
March, June, September, November and December and dates are 13 and 18. They visit location according to
the given conditions:
1) Person have starting letter of their name before letter 'M' visit location in first three month of January to
June. Person have starting letter of their name after letter 'M' visit location in last three months of July to
December.
2) Person having even number of letters, visit the location in the month having odd number of day (31 days)
and person having odd number of letter in their name visit location in the month having even number of days
(30) in the month.
3) The number of letter in the given name is calculated based on the English alphabetical series.
The number of person between Beena and Pearl is one. Siya visits immediately after Tina. There are two
persons visits between Beena and Kaya. Number of personn visit before Kaya is one less the number of
person visit after Rekha. There is only one person Gagan and Nirav. The number of persons after Siya is
same as before Asha. Deep visits location somewhere before Vaibhav, but not immediately before. Esha visits
immediately after Deep.
Who visit on 13th September?
1. Pearl
2. Nirav
3. Vaibhav
4. Asha
5. Rekha
Que. 2 The number of persons between Deep and Gagan is same as number of persons between_____?
1. Esha and Beena
2. Esha and Asha
3. Nirav and Rekha
4. Tina and Rekha
5. Asha and Beena
Que. 3 Who visit the location at last.
1. Person who visit the location immediately after Tina.
2. Vaibhav
3. Tina
4. Rekha
5. Pearl
Que. 4 Which of the following statements are not true?
I. Nirav visit the location immediately after Pearl.
II. Kaya visit the location after Asha.
III. One person visits after Siya.
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Only III
4. Both I and II
5. All I, II and III.
Que. 5 How many persons visits after Vaibhav?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. Five
Que. 6 Directions: The critical reasoning question is based on a short passage, an argument, a set of
statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given and
explain why the chosen answer is the right fit.
Passage: Various studies have recently pointed out the importance of mental health, especially peace of
mind, for work productivity and efficiency. They have time and again stressed that sound work comes from a
sound mind. Company ABC has decided to go ahead and implement mandatory 15-minute meditation for all
employees prior to the start of work.
Which of the following assumptions hold?
1. Meditating for 15 minutes is enough to ensure peace of mind at workplace.
2. Employees resist mental health practices at workplace and consider it an intrusion on their freedom.
3. Not a single employee in the company is meditating in their own home.
4. Employees who work often get tired and complain about it.
5. Employees who meditate can sleep better than Employees who don't meditate.
Que. 7 Directions: In the question below, a passage is given followed by three assumptions numbered I, II
and III. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the
passage and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the passage.
Passage:
Every minute, more than 500 hours of video are uploaded to YouTube. YouTube has over 2 billion users,
almost one-third of all people on the Internet. The First YouTube Video was uploaded in April 2005,
featuring its co-founder Jawed Karim at the San Diego Zoo. YouTube is used to watch music videos, comedy
shows, how-to guides, recipes, hacks, and more.
Assumptions:
I: YouTube is a platform where people can upload videos about a variety of things.
II: YouTube is a subsidiary of Google.
III: YouTube is used by almost one-third of all people on the Internet.
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Only III
4. All except III
5. All follows
Que. 8 Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Rising concerns about pollution in major Indian cities have led to a dramatic increase in sales of home air
purifiers. The air purifier segment, which was earlier limited to select pockets of top metro cities, is firming
its foothold in smaller cities, and online channels are emerging as a key facilitator to meet the consumer
demand in such places. “The onset of winters, smog situation in various parts of the country and the current
concerns around air normally raise the alarm around deteriorating air quality and indoor air pollution. “An air
purifier makes the most sense now, owing to the alarming levels of increasing air pollution in major cities
around the country,” Eureka Forbes Managing Director and CEO Marzin R. Shroff said.
New Delhi, which has been called the most polluted city in the world by the WHO, is not only the biggest
buyer of air purifiers but is also the city that is seeing the fastest growth in sales of these devices.
Which of the following is/are definitely an effect(s) of the rising concern of pollution in the context of the
passage?
1. The highest demand for air purifiers is from Delhi and its nearby states.
2. Indoor air has been 10 to 30 times more polluted than outside air.
3. The concern of government towards citizen has increased
4. The sales of air purifiers has increased up to 200%.
5. Only 1 and 4
Que. 9 Directions: Study the following information carefully and the questions given below.
Eight people are sitting around a square table, four at the corners and four the middle of the sides. At
a distance of 6 m, there is a boundary of the at all four sides. At that boundary, eight people are sitting there,
four at the corners while four at the middle of the sides.
People sitting at the table are facing away from the centre while people sitting at the boundary are facing
towards the centre.
The person who is sitting second to the right of B is facing K. L is sitting at one of the corners. C is sitting
seventh to the right of D. M is sitting at the table. Neither E nor J is neighbour of B. F and E are facing each
other, but F is not a neighbour of D and R. C is third to the right of R. F is second to the left R. W is
neither sitting at the corner nor at the boundary. B is sitting at the table. G is sitting fourth to the right of B
and second to the right of W. W is facing K. E is not sitting at any corner. A is neither the neighbour of C nor
of H but sitting at the boundary. Two persons are sitting between E and J. I is facing the one who is sitting
next to the left of B. Three people are sitting between N and the one who is sitting third to the left of G. E is
facing F. H is sitting third to the left of the one who is facing W. M is neither facing H nor I. R is neither
neighbour of C nor D but sitting at the boundary.
Four of the following are similar somehow and thus forms a group. Which one of the following does not
belong to that group?
1. G
2. N
3. H
4. W
5. J
Que. 10 Which of the following statements is false?
1. There no one between the person who is facing G and the person who is facing N.
2. K is sitting third to the one who is facing N.
3. R is facing L
4. H and I are neighbouring F
5. None of the above
Que. 11 Which of the following statements is true?
1. G is sitting third to the left of the one who is facing C.
2. B is facing the one who is fourth to the right of R.
3. K is neighbouring the one who is facing G
4. There are two persons between N and J.
5. None of the above
Que. 12 Who is sitting third to the right of the one who is sitting fourth to the left of K?
1. N
2. D
3. H
4. A
5. E
Que. 13 Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follow:
The coding language used to indicate the positions of points is as follows:
P 20@ Q means P is 5 m north to the point Q
P 7$ Q means P is 22 m east to the point Q
P 30% Q means P is 15 m south to the point Q
P 9& Q means P is 24 m west to the point Q
P 3@ Q means P is 18 m north to the point Q
P 20$ Q means P is 5 m east to the point Q
P 20* Q means P is 5 m northeast to the point Q
P 17# Q means P is 2 m southwest to the point Q
A 28@B, B 9% C, C 7$ D, D 26%E, E 18& F, F 11&G, G 24& H.
Which of the following is true?
1. F 5* A
2. C 9@ B
3. A 7$ B
4. G 12@ D
5. None of the above
Que. 14 Directions: Study the following information and answer the questions given.
The coding language used to denote the relations between 2 persons is as follows:
P @ Q: P is the son of Q
P # Q: P is the father of Q
P $ Q: P is the mother of Q
P & Q: P is the husband of Q
P % Q: P is the sister of Q
P * Q: P is the daughter of Q
1. H # A # C % B, K & C, K # L, H & G % Z
2. A & D $ B, M % L * C, G $ A @ H
How A is related to M?
1. Mother
2. Father
3. Grandmother
4. Grandfather
5. Brother
Que. 15 Which of the following statement are needed to prove N is the daughter of E?
I. C * A, D $ C % B & E, F & N
II. B # N, B @ A @ G
Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is
not sufficient to answer the question.
1.
Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is
not sufficient to answer the question.
2.
3. Data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4. Data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
5. Data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Que. 16 Direction: In the question below are given a statement followed by two courses of action
numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for
improvement, follow-up or further action regarding the problem, policy, etc. Based on the information given
in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for
pursuing.
Statement:
In India, thousands of people die due to consumption of toxic alcohol. The government has taken certain
steps previously but none of them were effective. Faizal, who has been recently appointed as the officer of
narcotics department is given the project to suggest some of the schemes/ advice to stop the consumption of
toxic alcohol. After certain research, Faizal found that most of the toxic alcohol contains the XYZ
component. The XYZ component is mainly used to build certain types of medicines. The permit of XYZ
component is accessible to any small companies.
Course of Actions:
I. Faizal suggests allowing the usage of XYZ components to only Pharmaceutical companies.
II. Faizal suggests to publish an order that using XYZ components in alcoholic drinks would be punishable
by law.
1. Only I follows.
2. Only II follows.
3. Either I or II follows.
4. Neither I nor II follows.
5. Both I and II follow.
Que. 17 Directions: The question given below consists of a passage, followed by three arguments I, II and
III. You have to decide which of the arguments is/are 'strong' arguments and which of the
arguments are 'weak' arguments and accordingly choose your answer from the alternatives given below each
question.
Passage: The Union Cabinet has cleared the proposal to suspend Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC)
proceedings for bank defaulters for six months with a provision to extend the period for up to one year. This
will be applicable for NPAs (non-performing assets) after March 25, 2020. Along with that, there is an
exclusion of COVID-19 related debt/defaults from the definition of default under IBC.
Is this a good step from the Government?
Arguments:
I. Yes. The move will offer relief to a lot of companies affected by the COVID-19 crisis.
II. No. This will encourage borrowers to default on their debt obligations and create a bad credit culture in
society.
III. No. This will adversely affect loan recoveries of Banks and increase stress on the Banking system.
1. Only I and II are strong
2. Only I and III are strong
3. Only II and III are strong
4. Only I is strong
5. All the arguments are strong
Que. 18 Directions: Read the information given below carefully and answer the questions accordingly:
Seven people – A, B, C, D, E, F, and G live on separate floors of a seven-story building, but not in
the same order. The ground floor of the building is numbered 1, the floor above it 2, and so on until the
topmost floor is numbered 7. Each person likes different TV channels – Sony, Star, Zee, Mahua, 9XM,
Zoom, Zing but not necessarily in the same order. D lives on an even floor and just above the one who likes
the Zee channel. E likes the Mahua channel. The one who likes the Zoom channel lives on floor number 2.
Person A lives on the floor which is immediately above D and likes the Zing channel. F likes the 9XM
channel and lives on 4 numbered floors. G does not like Zee and Zoom channel. G does not live on the
bottommost and topmost floor. B lives on an even number floor and immediately above the E’s floor. There
are three floors between the one who likes Zoom and the one who likes Star.
Which of the following pair is true?
7
th floor – E – Zing 1.
2
th floor – B – Sony 2.
5
th floor – C – Zee 3.
1
th floor – A – Mahua 4.
3
th floor – G – Zee 5.
Que. 19 Who among the following lives on floor no. 6?
1. G
2. The one who likes Zee.
3. The one who likes 9XM.
4. The one who likes Star.
5. A
Que. 20 How many persons live between C and the one who likes the Zoom channel?
1. Five
2. Two
3. Three
4. None
5. One
Que. 21 On which of the following floors does A live?
7
1. th
4
2. th
3
3. th
1
4. th
5. Can’t be determined
Que. 22 Direction: Answer the questions based on the information given below:
Ramesh, Suresh, Mahesh, Yogesh, Dipesh and Paresh have different number of bikes. Ramesh has
more bikes than Dipesh and Mahesh. Suresh has more bikes than Paresh, who doesn’t have fewer bikes than
Ramesh. Suresh doesn’t have the highest number of bikes.
Who has 3rd highest number of bikes?
1. Yogesh
2. Mahesh
3. Paresh
4. Dipesh
5. Ramesh
Que. 23 Directions: Read the information carefully and answer the given questions.
There are some 12 persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K and L. They have holidays on different
Sundays atleast one and atmost three person can share the holiday on the same sunday. B's holiday is on 28th
June and there are four Sundays between B and E. The day before 28th June is Saturday. Holiday of E is after
B. E is the second last person. A and C have holiday on the same day. H, L and K have holiday on the same
day. Holiday start from 28th june. There is no Sundays between B and D. No one share the holiday with E.
The number of Sundays between B and A is same as between E and G. D is not share holiday with F or G. D
share his holiday with other two persons but not with J or I. There is gap of one Sunday between F, I and A.
There are one Sunday between J and H. H's holiday is after J. No one share holiday with B. G share holiday
only with J. There is no holiday on 12th July.
Who has holiday on 2nd August?
1. E
2. H
3. G
4. J
5. I
Que. 24 D share holiday with which of the following persons?
1. GJ
2. HK
3. AC
4. K
5. L
Que. 25 Which of the following month and date combination is true for H?
1. 11 - August
2. 9 - August
3. 10 - July
4. 20 - August
5. 27 - July
Que. 26 How many Sundays are there between G and B?
1. Two
2. One
3. Three
4. Four
5. Five
Que. 27 Directions: The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a set of statements, or a
plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given and explain why the
chosen answer is the right fit.
Statement: Desertification is a type of land degradation in drylands in which biological productivity is lost
due to natural processes or induced by human activities whereby fertile areas become increasingly arider. A
huge issue that many countries have is the fact that there are large pockets of land that are going through a
process that is known as desertification.
Which of the following statements is/are a possible reason for the increasing desertification?
1. Animal grazing is a huge problem for many areas.
2. Urbanization is providing fewer places for the plants to grow.
3. Desertification is reducing the agricultural lands and making them infertile.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. None of these
Que. 28 Direction: Read the given information carefully and answer the questions given below;
Eight boxes P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W of having a different flavour of cake – strawberry, mango,
vanilla, pineapple, chocolate, butterscotch, red velvet and caramel, are placed one above another but not
necessarily in the same order.
Box W is placed just above the Vanilla flavour box. There are more than three boxes between Pineapple and
Vanilla flavour box. There are two boxes between box S and Q and box S does not have Vanilla flavour cake.
There is only one box between box Q and W. There are three boxes between box V and W which are having
Chocolate flavour cake. There are two boxes between V and U which is having Red velvet flavour cake. The
butterscotch flavour cake box is placed just above V. There are more than three boxes between Caramel and
Vanilla flavour box. Pineapple flavour box is not on the Top. There is the same number of boxes between box
S and U and between box R and T. Strawberry flavour box is placed above the Mango flavour box. Box T is
neither Strawberry nor Butterscotch flavour. Box V is placed above W but W is not placed at the bottom.
How many box/boxes are placed between P and the one who like Red velvet?
1. Four
2. Five
3. One
4. More than four
5. Two
Que. 29 As many box above R as below box ____ ?
1. P
2. R
3. V
4. U
5. Q
Que. 30 Which of the following box Caramel flavour cake is placed in?
1. O
2. P
3. U
4. S
5. W
Que. 31 Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given question
In a code language
“he arrived fast here” is written as “nm st ow re"
“he like that hat” is written as “bt kx re dq”
“like that black color” is written as “bt ck ld dq”
What is the code for "hat"?
1. bt
2. kx
3. re
4. dq
5. cannot be determined
Que. 32 Which of the following statement can provide the code of "color"?
Statement I: In the coded language, “please come here” is coded as “nm as zh” and “go to market”
is coded as “qx vh pu”.
Statement II: In the coded language, “he arrived market” is coded as “st vh re” and “not like hat” is coded as
“bt kx fn”.
Statement III: In the coded language, “everyone like black” is coded as “ya ck bt” and “he is fair” is coded
as “lz re rf”.
1. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
2. If the data in statement I and statement II together is sufficient to answer the question.
3. If the data in statement I and statement III together is sufficient to answer the question.
4. If the data in statement III alone is sufficient to answer the question.
5. If the data in all the statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question.
Que. 33 Which of the following statement can provide the code of "fast"?
Statement I: In the coded language, “please come here” is coded as “nm as zh” and “go to market”
is coded as “qx vh pu”.
Statement II: In the coded language, “he arrived market” is coded as “st vh re” and “not like hat” is coded as
“bt kx fn”.
Statement III: In the coded language, “everyone like black” is coded as “ya ck bt” and “he is fair” is coded
as “lz re rf”.
1. If the data in statement II and statement III together is sufficient to answer the question.
2. If the data in statement I and statement III together is sufficient to answer the question.
3. If the data in statement I and statement II together is sufficient to answer the question.
4. If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question.
5. If the data in all the statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question.
Que. 34 Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the given question.
There are twelve people A, B, C, D, E, F, S, M, Q, W, N and P in a horizontal row. They lives in
seven house. Houses are numbered as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 from west to east and all the houses are facing
north. Minimum 1 person and maximum 3 person can live in a house.
F lives in house number 2. The number of people live between S and M is equal to the number of people
between M and D. There are only four people live to the west of D. S is to the west of M. W is an immediate
neighbor of M. G lives to the west of D but not with F. D lives in a prime numbered house. There are six
person between M and Q. Q lives in an even numbered house. P lives alone in an even numbered house. Only
one person live between C and N, who does not live in house that is at extreme end. A and B live together in
one of the house between W and Q.
NOTE: If it is said that there are two person live between A and B then they cannot live with A and B. They
can live in different house or can live together in between A and B.
Who among the following live in house number 5?
1. A, B
2. P, A, B
3. Q, S
4. N, A, B
5. C
Que. 35 How many people live to the west of P?
1. Five
2. Six
3. Four
4. Seven
5. Three
Que. 36 What is true regarding arrangement?
1. S lives extreme left end
2. P lives in 2nd numbered house
3. C lives immediate west of Q
4. S and W live together
5. None of the given statement is true.
Que. 37 How many person live between S and Q?
1. Four
2. Five
3. Six
4. Seven
5. More than Seven
Que. 38 Directions: The question given below consists of a passage, followed by three arguments I, II and
III. You have to decide which of the arguments is/are 'strong' arguments and which of the
arguments are 'weak' arguments and accordingly choose your answer from the alternatives given below each
question.
Passage: Ministry of Railways has invited bids for operating of passenger train services over 109 routes,
using 151 modern trains on the existing rail infrastructure. It is the first step ever in the direction of private
investment for running passenger trains over the Indian Railways network. An estimated ₹30,000 crore
investment is expected, beginning from 2023.
Is this a good step from the Indian Railways?
Arguments:
I. Yes. An Expert Committee under the Chairmanship of Bibek Debroy had recommended the step in 2015.
II. Yes.This will improve the quality of services offered by Railways due to a higher focus on customer
satisfaction.
III. No. Losses of Private players in Passenger services will have to be cross-subsidized from freight carriage
profits of Indian Railways.
1. Only I and II are strong
2. Only II and III are strong
3. Only I is strong
4. Only II is strong
5. All the arguments are strong
Que. 39 Direction: Statement is given followed by two inferences I and II. You have to consider the
statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to
decide which of the given inferences, if any, follow from the given statement.
Statements:
India’s economy is characterised as a developing market economy. According to world ranking, it is 5th by
nominal GDP and 3rd by purchasing power parity. At the beginning of 21st century, annual average GDP
growth was 6% to 7%, and from 2014 to 2018. GDP growth moderated to 4.8 per cent from 2019-20, amidst
a weak environment for global manufacturing, trade and demand. India's GDP growth is expected to be in the
range of 6.0 to 6.5 per cent in 2020-21.
Which of the given inferences follows from the given statements?
India is in 5th rank by purchasing power parity. 1.
2. The annual average GDP of India was 8.1% in 1998.
3. India’s GDP is expected to grow in 2020-21.
4. India’s GDP is down due to global pandemic.
5. No inference is true.
Que. 40 Directions: Given below is a passage followed by a question. Select the option that best answers
the question.
Country B has reported cases of deaths and ailing patients due to an unrecognized disease. Country B has
been engaged in biological warfare with country A for 7 years. Country A had recently developed a
dangerous virus, Virus X, causing symptoms of severe flu for a week in the host body, eventually leading to
the death of the host. The virus only takes effect after 5 days of dormancy. The virus was deported to country
B two days ago by one of their special ops. Which of the following statements casts doubts on Virus X being
the cause of deaths in country B?
1. Country B has poor medical facilities.
2. The special ops assigned to the job deported the virus 4 days before the scheduled time.
3. One of the experimental facilities had exploded in country B.
4. The news of deaths was reported on the day the virus had been deported in country B.
5. None of these
Que. 41 Directions: The critical reasoning question is based on a short argument, a set of statements, or a
plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given and explain why the
chosen answer is the right fit.
Statement: Employers hire recruitment agencies to find suitable candidates for a particular job profile.
Agency recruiters do this by researching the open roles, identifying qualified people, screening the
candidates, and providing support to the employer during the selection of the new hire. Recruitment agencies
are commonly confused with employment agencies.
Which of the following statements weaken the difference between recruitment agencies and employment
agencies?
I: A Recruitment Agency works from the worksite/employer and an Employment Agency works from the
jobseeker.
II: A Recruitment Agency typically looks for skilled workers to suit the role available whereas an
employment agency will search for a job suitable for the candidate according to his resume.
III: Both recruitment and employment agencies connect the job seekers and the employers
1. Only I and II
2. Only II and III
3. Only III
4. All of the above
5. None of the above
Que. 42 Direction: Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions.
A word arrangement machine when given an input of words and numbers rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and arrangement (All the
numbers are two digits).
INPUT: 31 Except Unique 82 People 47 Doubts 66 Accept 68
STEP 1: Tccepa 31 Except Unique People 47 Doubts 66 68 81
STEP 2: Tccepa Soubtd 31 Except Unique People 47 66 67 81
STEP 3: Tccepa Soubtd Txcepe 31 Unique People 47 65 67 81
STEP 4: Tccepa Soubtd Txcepe Eeoplp 31 Unique 48 65 67 81
STEP 5: Tccepa Soubtd Txcepe Eeoplp Eniquu 32 48 65 67 81
This is the final arrangement and step 5 is the last step.
As per the rules followed in the given steps, answer the questions given below for the following input.
INPUT: 78 Unbound 52 Height 41 Accord 37 Modern Nobles 77
What is the position of ‘78’ in the 2nd step from the right?
1. Second
2. Third
3. Seventh
4. Fifth
5. Eighth
Que. 43 In the ultimate step, which of the following would be at 6th position from the right?
1. Soblen
2. Dnbounu
3. 38
4. 42
5. None of these
Que. 44 Which element is exactly in between ‘Teighh’ and ‘Nobles’ in the 2nd step?
1. 52
2. Unbound
3. 37
4. 41
5. Noderm
Que. 45 What would be the penultimate step of the given input?
1. Dccora Teighh Modern Soblen Unbound 37 42 51 78 77
2. Dccora Teighh Noderm Soblen Unbound 37 42 51 77 77
3. Dccora Teighh Noderm Soblen Unbound 37 42 51 78 77
4. Dccora Height Noderm Soblen Unbound 37 42 51 78 77
5. Dccora Teighh Noderm Nobles Unbound 37 42 51 78 77
Que. 46 What was the theme for Prabashi Bharatiya Diwas (NRI day) 2021?
1. Redefining engagement with the Indian diaspora
2. Contributing to Aatmanirbhar Bharat
3. Role of Indian Diaspora in building New India
4. Apna Bharat, Aatmanirbhar Bharat
5. None of the above.
Que. 47 Which of the following banks has launched “Signature Visa Debit Card” for the affluent/high net
worth individuals maintaining an average quarterly balance of ₹10 lakhs and above?
1. Axis Bank
2. Union Bank of India
3. Andhra Bank
4. Bank of India
5. Oriental Bank of Commerce
Que. 48 Which country will develop the world’s first wooden satellite by 2023.
1. Japan
2. China
3. India
4. Russia
5. None of the above
Que. 49
Which of the following bank has recently launched a digital banking mobile application called "iMOBILE
PAY"?(Dec)
1. Bandhan Bank
2. HDFC
3. ICICI
4. SBI
5. None of these
Que. 50 DakPay is a digital payment service, it aims to transform Banking Experience at the last mile, it is
launched by which of the following bank?
1. ICICI Bank
2. Canara Bank
3. IndusInd Bank
4. India Post Payments Bank
5. None of the above
Que. 51 Who chaired the International Jury of 50th International Film Festival of India?
1. Zhang Yang
2. Lucretia Martel
3. John Bailey
4. Robin Campillo
5. None of the above
Que. 52 ________ has introduced FX 4 U which allows all its Internet Banking users to deal without hassle
with forex transactions.
1. Central Bank of India
2. Punjab and Sind Bank
3. UCO Bank
4. Canara Bank
5. State Bank of India
Que. 53 World's largest floating solar project, is to be constructed in which of the following Indian
State/UTs? (January 2021)
1. Daman and Diu
2. Pondicherry
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Gujarat
5. None of the above
Que. 54 International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) (Banking) Regulations 2020 have been
recently approved. Where are the headquarters of IFSCA?
1. Mumbai
2. New Delhi
3. Bangalore
4. Gandhinagar
5. Bhopal
Que. 55 Which rate is known as overnight loan rate?
1. Bank rate
2. Repo rate
3. Reverse Repo Rate
4. Marginal Standing Facility Rate
5. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
Que. 56 Payout Links is lauched by:
1. Mobikwik
2. Phonpe
3. Paytm
4. Google Pay
5. None of the above
Que. 57 What is Neo banking?
1. 100% digital banking
2. Only for use of Women
3. Part of Cooperative Banking
4. Not part of online banking
5. None of the above
Que. 58 In India, where is the largest scooter factory located?
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Bihar
3. Jharkhand
4. Assam
5. None of the above
Que. 59 StashFin and SBM Bank India have announced the launch of their co-branded contactless prepaid
cards. StashFin is based in which country?
1. Indonesia
2. Laos
3. Singapore
4. Cambodia
5. Sweden
Que. 60 The Union Cabinet has given its approval for Atmanirbhar Bharat Rojgar Yojana. Cabinet has
approved an expenditure of how many rupees (in crores) for the entire Scheme period i.e. 2020-
2023?
1. 16,230
2. 18,310
3. 20,540
4. 22,810
5. 24,090
Que. 61 Which city hosted Australia Open 2020?
1. Melbourne
2. Sydney
3. Perth
4. Canberra
5. None of the above
Que. 62 NBFCs in India are companies that are registered under which of the following Act?
1. Companies Act 2013
2. RBI Act 1934
3. SEBI Act 2002
4. Government of India Act 1935
5. None of these
Que. 63 In Dec 2020, who among the following has become India’s 67th chess Grandmaster by winning the
third and final norm at a tournament in Italy?
1. Harsha Bharathakoti
2. Aryan Chopra
3. Nihal Sarin
4. Leon Mendonca
5. Abhimanyu Puranik
Que. 64 Where is Sri Guru Ram DassJee International Airport situated?
1. Ludhiana
2. Chandigarh
3. Patiala
4. Bhatinda
5. Amritsar
Que. 65 Where is Khelo India Winter Games 2nd edition held?
1. Srinagar
2. Anantnag
3. Ladakh
4. Gulmarg
5. None of the above
Que. 66 Which bank has started a scheme for women called as Atmanirbhar Women Gold Scheme?(Dec)
1. BOI
2. BOB
3. BOM
4. Union Bank
5. SBI
Que. 67 Who wrote "Trust Exercise"?
1. Susan Choi
2. Chetan Bhagat
3. William Shakespeare
4. William Faulkner
5. None of the above
Que. 68 Who among the following has written the book titled “Lockdown Liaisons: Leaving and Other
Stories”?
1. Chandrima Das
2. Sobhaa De
3. Amish Tripathi
4. Chetan Bhagat
5. Himanshu Goel
Que. 69 Which country topped in terms of the “total” inflow of new migrants to OECD countries during the
year 2018?
1. India
2. China
3. Singapore
4. Indonesia
5. Japan
Que. 70 SBI has launched the Rupay JCB Card in association with a financial entity that has been based in
which of the following countries?
1. USA
2. France
3. Japan
4. UAE
5. Germany
Que. 71 What is the youth age limit in Antyodaya Yojana?
1. 15 years
2. 25 years
3. 18 years
4. 16 years
5. 19 years
Que. 72 The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India has capped the amount of trans fatty acids (TFA)
in oils and fats to how much per cent for 2021?
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
5. 6
Que. 73 What is the name of the Indian-American who has been selected by the NASA in December 2020
among 18 astronauts to be trained for Nasa's Artemis moon landing program?
1. Ajay Bhatt
2. Raja Chari
3. Uday Singh
4. Vivek Kundra
5. V Mohan Reddy
Que. 74 Which of the following Municipal corporations in India has signed an MoU with UNDP to create
India's first social impact bond?
1. Pimpri Chinchwad
2. Jalandhar
3. Jaipur
4. Rourkela
5. Kanpur
Que. 75 Who won the ATP tournament 2020?
1. Rafael Nadal
2. Daniil Medvedev
3. Roger Federar
4. Novak Djokovic
5. None of the above/More than one of the above
Que. 76 The P.M. Rojgar Protsahan Yojana (PMRPY) scheme is targeted for workers earning wages upto
Rs _____per month.
1. 15000
2. 12000
3. 6000
4. 20000
5. None of the above
Que. 77 In India, OTT platforms are currently under the purview of ______.
1. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
2. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology.
3. TRAI
4. Film and Television Institute of India
5. None of the above
Que. 78 Which ministry has launched Sahakar Cooptube NCDC Channel initiative?
1. Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers
2. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
3. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
4. Ministry of Law and Justice
5. Ministry of Planning
Que. 79 Which bank is the first Urban Co-operative bank that has received an in-principal approval from
RBI to become Small Finance Bank? (Jan)
1. Sangli Urban Co-operative Bank
2. Bombay Mercantile Co-operative Bank
3. Janalaxmi Co-operative Bank
4. Akhand Anand Co-Op Bank
5. Shivalik Mercantile Co-operative Bank
Que. 80 With which among the following organisations/entities, SIDBI launched a comprehensive financial
education and one-stop knowledge platform for “MSMESaksham”? (Aug)
1. TransUnion CIBIL Limited
2. CRIF High Mark Credit Information Services
3. Experian
4. HDFC Credit Information Services
5. Equifax
Que. 81 Recently, the 40th Indian Scientific Expedition to Antarctica was flagged off from Mormugao Port.
This port is located in which state of India? (Jan)
1. Karnataka
2. Kerala
3. Goa
4. Gujarat
5. Telangana
Que. 82 Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) signed an agreement with
which of the following International Organizations to get advisory services for asset monetization?
1. World Bank
2. IMF
3. AIIB
4. ADB
5. UNICEF
Que. 83 Who will be the beneficiaries under ‘Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maandhan Scheme’?
1. Widows working in organized sector
2. Grade-D government employees
3. People working in unorganized sector
4. People working in organised sector
5. None of the above/ More than one of the above
Que. 84 India and which of the following countries have decided to create a special Task-Force to further
facilitate investments by its Investment Authority into India?
1. Iran
2. UAE
3. Qatar
4. Oman
5. Iraq
Que. 85 In November 2020, which of the following has tied up with NSDL Payments Bank Limited to offer
a range of general insurance products to the bank's customers?
1. ICICI Lombard General Insurance Company Limited
2. Tata AIG General Insurance Company Limited
3. HDFC ERGO General Insurance Company
4. Max Bupa Health Insurance Company Limited
5. IFFCO Tokio General Insurance Company Limited
Que. 86 Direction: Read the passage given below and answer the following questions.
India is the seventh-largest country in the world by geographical area which is located at
South Asia. Moreover, India is the second populous country and the second country which gets the most
frequent rainfalls. Then why is India experiencing a water shortage? Unfortunately, there is an ecological
unbalance on a global scale. India is one of the eight countries which is seriously facing a sharp increase
in water crisis that threatens humans, while a huge percentage of the world has no access to sanitation
and clean water. The average person only needs 20 or 30 liters of water, while every Indian uses a big
amount of water per day for different purposes than they are supposed to. Additionally, overpopulation and
pollution have also been a cause of water poverty in India. Therefore, young children under the age of five
make up the 75% of 37.7 million people who are affected by water-borne disease (Khurana 2008). The aim
of this project was to create three possible solutions, and finally, the most effective solution is recommended.
Thus, several ways to deal with the problem of water shortage in India include harvesting rainwater,
watershed management, and river interlinking.
Which is not one of the several ways to deal with water shortage in India?
1. Rainwater harvesting
2. River interlinking
3. Developing farm-based water conservation
4. Watershed management
5. None of the above
Que. 87 The line emboldened in the given passage may or may not have an error. If there is an error, find
the part that contains the error or choose no error as your answer.
India is one of the eight countries which is seriously (A)/ facing a sharp increase in water crisis that threatens
(B)/ humans, while a huge percentage of the world (C)/ has no access to sanitation and clean water. (D)
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error
Que. 88 Which is not one of the causes for water poverty in India?
1. Overconsumption
2. Overpopulation
3. Pollution
4. Overgrazing
5. None of the above
Que. 89 The line emboldened in the given passage may or may not have an error. If there is an error, find
the part that contains the error or choose no error as your answer.
India is the seventh-largest (A)/ country in the world by (B)/ geographical area which is (C)/ located at South
Asia (D)
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. No error
Que. 90 Direction: Read the passage given below and answer the following questions.
India’s economy could contract 7.7 percent in the financial year that ends on March 31, ________
mainly by the coronavirus pandemic and the weeks-long nationwide lockdown to contain the disease, Chief
Economic Advisor Krishnamurthy Subramanian has estimated in the Economic Survey 2020-21, tabled in
Parliament on Friday. Real GDP growth could be 11 percent in the next financial year, the survey said.
"Agriculture has remained the silver lining, while contact-based services, manufacturing, and construction
sectors were the worst hit by the COVID-19 pandemic,” said the survey. It predicted a V-shaped economic
recovery spurred by India's Covid-19 vaccination programme.
The survey sees headline inflation moderating going forward: a development that could open up room for the
Reserve Bank of India to resume monetary policy easing to complement fiscal measures to support the
economy, said a Bloomberg report.
The Economic Survey, presented in Parliament by the finance minister two days before the Union Budget,
analyses the trends in agricultural and industrial production, employment, money supply, and other sectors.
The Union Budget, to be presented by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on Monday, is expected to
increase spending on healthcare, raise levies on a range of imported goods, and likely introduce a Covid-19
cess. "Send me your inputs so that we can see a Budget which is a Budget like never before, in a way.
Hundred years of India wouldn't have seen a Budget being made post-pandemic like this," Finance Minister
Nirmala Sitharaman told a business summit in December.
Which is sector is expected to have more spending according to Union Budget?
1. Fishing
2. Agriculture
3. Healthcare
4. Manufacturing
5. None of the above
Que. 91 Choose the option that can complete the given sentence.
India’s economy could contract 7.7 percent in the financial year that ends on March 31, ________ mainly by
the coronavirus pandemic and the weeks-long nationwide lockdown to contain the disease, Chief Economic
Advisor Krishnamurthy Subramanian has estimated in the Economic Survey 2020-21, tabled in Parliament
on Friday.
1. Pulled down
2. Pulled on
3. Pulled for
4. Pulled in
5. Pulled up
Que. 92 Select the word that is close to 'spurred' highlighted in the passage given above.
1. Disapproved
2. Backfired
3. Triggered
4. Disclosed
5. None of the above
Que. 93 Direction: Read the passage given below and answer the following questions.
According to a report by Greenpeace, 22 out of 30 world’s most-polluted cities are in India. As per
recommendations, India requires a minimum of 4,000 air monitoring stations to check air quality. Currently,
there are approximately 160 air monitoring stations in India. This implies we have less than 5 percent of the
recommended number of air monitoring stations. This inadequacy is a hindrance to policymaking, harming
the potential to generate solutions. A base dataset is needed for everything from city planning to new drug
development. Air quality monitoring forms the base layer for a number of things, including human health.
Like Peter Drucker said: “If you cannot measure it, you cannot solve it”. AI can help solve this problem.
Accurate computation of air quality not only requires combining existing air monitoring infrastructure with
satellite data but also factoring in human activities such as traffic, construction, garbage burning, industrial
source apportionment, and population density. A feature engineered AI can be designed to utilise the above
factors to accurately compute a geospatial interpolation of air quality data. The advantage of such an
approach is that it provides a distributed coverage of high spatiotemporal resolution in near real time.
In Delhi, the number of air monitoring stations has increased in recent years. This has provided us with
research-backed sources of air pollution within a few parts of the capital. By understanding the sources of
pollution, AI can be further used to track and predict the growth and reduction of air pollution. For example,
we could monitor whether an increase in industrial production is directly proportional to air pollution, or a
decrease in vehicles is related to a reduction. These decisions could be evaluated by AI, allowing appropriate
actions to be initiated. AI can also help in modelling the chemical reactions between pollutants. Algorithms
like Atmospheric Transport Modelling System (ATMoS) helps understand PM2.5 concentrations.
Additionally, there are advanced algorithms that help in understanding and predicting smog, haze, visibility,
and observe meteorological interventions as well as manage air quality better.
What is causing hindrance in policy making to control air pollution?
1. Lack in satellite data system
2. Lack in the number of required air monitoring stations
3. Inaccurate geospatial interpolation
4. Improper location of air monitoring stations
5. None of the above
Que. 94 Which is not one of the human activities that affects accurate computation of air quality?
1. Traffic
2. Construction
3. Industrial location
4. Garbage burning
5. Population density
Que. 95 What is the advantage of accurately computing a geospatial interpolation of air quality data?
1. To analyze chemical reaction between pollutants
2. It provides a distributed coverage of high spatiotemporal resolution in near real time.
3. It provides a undistributed coverage of high spatiotemporal resolution in near real time.
4. To understand PM 2.5 concentrations
5. None of the above
Que. 96 What is the tone of the passage?
1. Diplomatic
2. Apologetic
3. Dogmatic
4. Sarcastic
5. Analytical
Que. 97 Read the given passage and choose the correct answer for the questions given below.
The impacts of our ever-growing economy have become so___1___ (stark, clear, opaque) and so
widespread that they are by any___2___(demented, sane, rough) measure, portents to catastrophe. Whether
it’s the fact that Antarctic ice is now melting three times faster than we thought or the unfolding
“biological___3___(destruction, construction, annihilation) ” that has already wiped out 50% of all
animals and up to 75% of all insects, or the fact that, in spite of all this, we are pumping out CO2 at record
levels, it takes willful ignorance or a blinding ideology to deny the severity of the crisis. This creates a
terrible paradox: Economic growth keeps economies stable today, but threatens not just future growth but
medium-term social and civilizational___4___(cohesion, solidarity, confusion) and ultimately the very
capacity of this biosphere to sustain life. A paper published in the Proceedings of the National Academy of
Sciences last year suggested that “the window for effective action is very short, probably two or three
decades at most.” And that even this dire___5___(triumph, prediction, plummet) is considered
“conservative” by the authors, “given the increasing trajectories of the drivers of extinction.” In terms of
practical politics, that means acting immediately, preferably yesterday. Most politicians deal with
this___6___(paradox, redux, coarse) by ignoring it. It’s by far the easiest option; one afforded every
incentive and reward by this political economy and the beliefs that underpin it. This belief system has been
dominant for a long time now. We are, as a society, deeply comfortable with it, which means many of its
core___7___(assumptions, beliefs, dearth) are considered unassailable–too obvious to question. The most
profound being this idea that growth is always good.
Choose the correct word/set of words to fill the 1st blank.
1. stark, clear
2. opaque
3. stark, clear, opaque
4. stark
5. clear, opaque
Que. 98 Choose the correct word/set of words to fill the 2nd blank.
1. demented
2. demented, sane
3. rough, demented
4. sane, rough
5. sane
Que. 99 Choose the correct word/set of words to fill the 3rd blank.
1. construction
2. destruction
3. destruction, construction, annihilation
4. annihilation, destruction
5. construction, annihilation
Que. 100 Choose the correct word/set of words to fill the 4th blank.
1. confusion, cohesion
2. cohesion
3. solidarity, cohesion
4. confusion
5. solidarity
Que. 101 Choose the correct word/set of words to fill the 5th blank.
1. plummet
2. prediction
3. triumph, prediction, plummet
4. plummet, prediction
5. triumph
Que. 102 Choose the correct word/set of words to fill the 6th blank.
1. paradox, redux, coarse
2. coarse
3. paradox
4. redux, paradox
5. coarse, redux
Que. 103 Choose the correct word/set of words to fill the 7th blank.
1. dearth, beliefs
2. beliefs
3. beliefs, assumptions
4. dearth, assumptions
5. assumptions, beliefs, dearth
Que. 104 Select the phrase/connector from the given three options which can be used to form a single
sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same as expressed in the
statement sentence.
Social issues are distinguished from economic issues. Some issues have both social and economic aspects.
1. When some issues
2. However some issues
3. Whenever social issues
1. Only 1
2. Only 2
3. Only 3
4. Both 2 and 3
5. Both 1 and 3
Que. 105 Select the phrase/connector from the given three options which can be used to form a single
sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same as expressed in the
statement sentences.
You should always help others. They are not your friends.
1. If they are
2. Even if they are
3. When you should
1. only 1
2. only 2
3. only 3
4. both 1 and 2
5. both 1 and 3
Que. 106 Select the phrase/connector from the given three options which can be used to form a single
sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same as expressed in the
statement sentence.
Varun died. It was an accident.
1) as a consequence
2) in contrast
3) as a result
1. Both 1 and 3
2. Only 2
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Only 3
5. Both 2 and 3
Que. 107 Select the phrase/connector from the given three options which can be used to form a single
sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same as expressed in the
statement sentence.
You can go anywhere. I will follow you.
1) whenever
2) wherever
3) until
1. Only 1
2. Only 2
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Both 2 and 3
5. Both 1 and 3
Que. 108 Read the passage and based on it choose one of the given inferences that you draw from it.
Television can increase our knowledge of the outside world, there are high-quality programs that
help us to understand many fields of study, science, medicine, the arts and so on. Moreover, television
benefits very old people, who can't often leave the house as well as patients in hospitals.
What is the tone of the passage?
1. Positive
2. Negative
3. Bellicose
4. Boastful
5. Sarcastic
Que. 109 Read the passage and based on it choose one of the given inferences that you draw from it.
The author says that a sluggish growth in the world economy for the foreseeable future means that
India should take a look at its economic policy and consider replacing the premise on which the policies were
set. He concludes, by saying that India should increase its public investment in order to meet the growing
demands.
What is the tone of the passage?
1. Incendiary
2. Speculative
3. Introspective
4. Acerbic
5. Contentious
Que. 110 Read the passage and based on it choose one of the given inferences that you draw from it.
The author then goes further, by discussing the three questions.
What would happen if humans were truly capable of making the universe in the laboratory, ‘how we would
handle the theological implications and what moral responsibilities would come with fallible humans taking
on the role of cosmic creators?’ His encounters with physicists and a philosopher help in addressing the three
questions.
How could we describe the author's nature?
1. Enigmatic
2. Inquisitive
3. Profound
4. Subtle
5. Perplexing
Que. 111 Read the passage and based on it choose one of the given inferences that you draw from it.
A chimpanzee is one of the great apes and the nearest in intelligence to man. Scientists have
examined its mental capacities and sent it into space in anticipation of man?
Which word best describes chimpanzees?
1. Uncanny
2. Imbecile
3. Insightful
4. Inept
5. Asinine
Que. 112 In the given sentence a word has been emboldened. Select the best alternative for the bold
word from the given options. If none follows, select option 5 as your answer.
The security guard was very vigilant and yet did not see the attack coming.
1. Forgetful
2. Naive
3. Watchful
4. Negligent
5. None
Que. 113 In the given sentence a word has been emboldened. Select the best alternative for the bold
word from the given options. If none follows, select option 5 as your answer.
A lot of villages in India still follow the patriarchal system.
1. Matriarchal
2. Female-dominated
3. Male-dominated
4. Democratic
5. None
Que. 114 In the given sentence a word has been emboldened. Select the best alternative for the bold
word from the given options. If none follows, select option 5 as your answer.
The queen was known kingdom-wide for being generous.
1. Narcissistic
2. Miserly
3. Magnanimous
4. Malevolent
5. None
Que. 115 The following sentences form a paragraph. The second and the fifth sentence of the
paragraph are given. The rest of the sentences are numbered as P, Q, R and S and T. These
five parts are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences and choose the alternative that
arranges them in correct order.
P. Because a diamond is so hard, getting it ready for use in jewelry is quite a complicated and skillful process.
2. Two of the most interesting things about diamonds are their hardness and their brilliance.
Q. Possession of the famous Koh-i-noor (Mount of Light) was so greatly desired by the rulers of Asia that
practically all of the conquests of India from 1400 to 1828 were the result of it.
R. The Hope, an unusually blue diamond weighing about 44 carats, has also passed through many hands and
is said to bring misfortune to anyone who possesses it.
5. There are many diamonds that have been so valuable they have actually played a part in history.
S. Diamonds were formed by being 'squeezed together' and according to scientists, this happened about a
hundred million years ago.
T. A diamond is actually about five times as hard as the next hardest substance on earth.
Question:-
Which of the following should be the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement?
1. T
2. Q
3. S
4. P
5. R
Que. 116 The following sentences form a paragraph. The sentences are numbered as P, Q, R, S and T.
These sentences are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences and choose the
alternative that arranges them in the correct order.
P- Anorexia is a very serious eating disorder and mental health condition which can be life-threatening if it is
not recognised and treated in time, it has a huge negative impact on both the mind and the body.
Q- ‘Anorexia nervosa is interchangeable with the term anorexia, which refers to self-starvation and lack of
appetite’.
R- Someone who suffers from anorexia struggles to maintain a healthy weight, because of the psychological
impact it has on an individual they will experience the extreme need to continuously lose weight,
S- they develop a very negative perception of self-image and can experience extreme anxiety at the fear of
gaining weight.
T- The most common age for anorexia to start developing is adolescent years, sadly for some who are
anorexic, it becomes a way of life with no endpoint which has resulted in very young deaths as a result of
starvation and the body shutting down.
1. TSRQP
2. PQRST
3. PRTQS
4. STRQP
5. RTSPQ
Que. 117 Directions: In the sentence, certain words are in bold and numbered from A to E, which are
the possible pairs to be interchanged. Choose the pair(s) of words that need to be
interchanged to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.
The much-discussed and (A) connected Electronic Voting Machine in India has (B) survived intense
scrutiny over its use largely because of one (C) strong reason — the fact that this (D) standalone single-chip
device is not (E) debated to any network.
1. A-B
2. B-C
3. C-D
4. D-E
5. A-E
Que. 118 Directions: In the sentence, certain words are in bold and numbered from A to E, which are
the possible pairs to be interchanged. Choose the pair(s) of words that need to be
interchanged to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.
Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman made a (A) unprecedented effort to make good use of the lessons (B)
learned from the (C) brave global health crisis and an (D) ensuing economic setback to put lives and
livelihoods back on (E) track.
1. A-B
2. A-C
3. A-D
4. B-E
5. B-D
Que. 119 Directions: In the sentence, certain words are in bold and numbered from A to E, which are
the possible pairs to be interchanged. Choose the pair(s) of words that need to be
interchanged to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.
By (A) declaring President Win Myint, State Counsellor Aung San Suu Kyi and the rest of the ruling
National League for Democracy (NLD) leadership, and (B)arresting military rule under a state of (C)
emergency for at least a year, General Min Aung Hlaing has made it clear that it is the military that is in
charge, and he is not particularly (D) concerned about the opposition to or (E) condemnation of the move.
1. A-B
2. B-C
3. C-D
4. D-E
5. A-E
Que. 120 Direction: Read the passage given below and answer the following questions.
India’s economy could contract 7.7 percent in the financial year that ends on March 31, ________
mainly by the coronavirus pandemic and the weeks-long nationwide lockdown to contain the disease, Chief
Economic Advisor Krishnamurthy Subramanian has estimated in the Economic Survey 2020-21, tabled in
Parliament on Friday. Real GDP growth could be 11 percent in the next financial year, the survey said.
"Agriculture has remained the silver lining, while contact-based services, manufacturing, and construction
sectors were the worst hit by the COVID-19 pandemic,” said the survey. It predicted a V-shaped economic
recovery spurred by India's Covid-19 vaccination programme.
The survey sees headline inflation moderating going forward: a development that could open up room for the
Reserve Bank of India to resume monetary policy easing to complement fiscal measures to support the
economy, said a Bloomberg report.
The Economic Survey, presented in Parliament by the finance minister two days before the Union Budget,
analyses the trends in agricultural and industrial production, employment, money supply, and other sectors.
The Union Budget, to be presented by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on Monday, is expected to
increase spending on healthcare, raise levies on a range of imported goods, and likely introduce a Covid-19
cess. "Send me your inputs so that we can see a Budget which is a Budget like never before, in a way.
Hundred years of India wouldn't have seen a Budget being made post-pandemic like this," Finance Minister
Nirmala Sitharaman told a business summit in December.
Which is one of the sectors that is not affected by COVID-19 pandemic according to economic survey?
1. Contact-based services
2. Manufacturing
3. Construction sectors
4. Agriculture
5. None of the above
Que. 121 Examine the following pattern of the series carefully and answer the following question.
Example: Find the wrong number in the following series and following the pattern, find the
fourth term in the series starting with the wrong number.
32, 34, 36, 39, 40, 42
Here, the pattern of the series is the difference of 2.
Here the wrong number in the series is 39
So, starting with ‘39’ the series will be 39, 41, 43, 45
Therefore, the fourth term is 45.
Similarly, following the above pattern, find the second term in the 2nd series.
9, 19, 58, 229, 1166, 5831
1. 299
2. 409
3. 459
4. 1378
5. 369
Que. 122 Similarly, following the above pattern, find the third term in the 2nd series.
78, 80, 83, 88, 95, 104
1. 109
2. 106
3. 103
4. 112
5. 105
Que. 123 Similarly, following the above pattern, find the fourth term in the 2nd series.
88, 90, 94, 102, 108, 118
1. 122
2. 132
3. 108
4. 104
5. 114
Que. 124 In the following series, one of the terms given is wrong which is denoted by N.
Series : 85, 175, 355, 715, 1380
Find that term and mark the statement whose value is equivalent to + 1 and mark that as your answer. N
30
1. It is a prime number.
2. It is nearest to 40 which is closest multiple of 5.
3. Sum of digit is less than 9
4. Product of digits is more than 30
5. None of these
Que. 125 In a bag, there are 17 red balls, some green, and some blue balls. The probability of drawing a
green ball is (1/7)th more than that of a red ball. The probability of drawing a blue ball is
(1/21)th more than that of a red ball.
Find the total number of balls in the bag
1. 91
2. 84
3. 63
4. none of these
5. cannot be determined
Que. 126 Find the number of blue balls in the bag.
1. 27
2. 26
3. 20
4. none of these
5. cannot be determined
Que. 127 Directions: Study the chart carefully and the questions that follow.
The pie charts show the distribution of the total number of cookies sold by companies A, B, C,
and D and the distribution of chocolate flavor cookies sold by companies A, B, C, and D respectively. Also,
Total Cookies = Chocolate Cookies + Butterscotch flavor cookies.
Number of Butterscotch flavor cookies sold by A = 110
Number of Butterscotch flavor cookies sold by B = 30
What is the ratio of chocolate flavor cookies sold by company C to the total cookies sold by D?
1. 2 : 1
2. 3 : 2
3. 2 : 3
4. 1 : 2
5. None of these
Que. 128 Total cookies sold by A and B together is how much percentage more than the butterscotch
cookies sold by C?
1. 25%
2. 75%
3. 80%
4. 65%
5. None of these
Que. 129 If A sold (x + 15) chocolate flavor cookies and B sold (y – 25) chocolate flavor cookies, then
what the ratio of x : y?
1. 15 : 31
2. 31 : 15
3. 16 : 29
4. 29 : 16
5. None of these
Que. 130 The total number of Butterscotch cookies sold by all companies together is approximate how
much percentage more or less than the total number of chocolate cookies sold by all the
companies together?
1. 50%
2. 33.33%
3. 60%
4. 30%
5. None of these
Que. 131 Butterscotch cookies sold by D is approximate what percent of chocolate cookies sold by B and D
together?
1. 6.67%
2. 6.25%
3. 8.33%
4. 16.67%
5. None of these
Que. 132 Directions: Read the data carefully and answer the questions that follow:
The following line graph shows the percentage of total employees working as a manager in Alexis
Finance Limited, for the time period from the year 2003 to the year 2007.
(Note: Total number of employees = Managers + Workers)
The table shows the ratio of the number of male to female managers within the company.
Year Male ∶ Female
2003 3 ∶ 2
2004 2 ∶ 1
2005 5 ∶ 3
2006 2 ∶ 3
2007 8 ∶ 5
If it is known that the number of employees is the same for all the five years. Then what will be the
percentage decrease in the number of male managers from the year 2005 to the year 2006?
1. 12%
2. 25%
3. 42%
4. 60%
5. 50%
Que. 133 If the number of employees working in the company in 2005 is 1000. Also, it is known that the
number of male workers is the same as the number of female workers in 2005. Then what is the
difference between the number of female workers and the number of female managers in the year 2005?
1. 400
2. 200
3. 100
4. 300
5. None of these
Que. 134 If the number of male managers in the year 2003 is 480, and the number of female managers in
the year 2005 is 450. Then find the ratio of the number of employees in the company in 2003 and
that in the year 2005.
1. 3 ∶ 2
2. 4 ∶ 3
3. 2 ∶ 3
4. 3 ∶ 4
5. None of these
Que. 135 If the number of workers in the year 2008 is 1400, and the number of total workers in the
company has doubled since 2007; then find the number of managers in the company in 2007.
1. 1500
2. 1200
3. 1300
4. 1000
5. None of these
Que. 136 If the total number of workers remains the same in the year 2005 and the year 2006, then find the
ratio between the total number of male managers in these two years.
1. 32 ∶ 125
2. 10 ∶ 13
3. 13 ∶ 10
4. 25 ∶ 4
5. None of these
Que. 137 Directions: Consider the table below and answer the following question.
In the table given below, there are two columns namely A and B.
In column A, Three figures are given with certain information about them.
In column B, certain values are given.
A B
Figure 1: A cone is
mounted over a
hemisphere. The volume
of the figure is 2156 cm3
1) Radius = 7 cm
Figure 2: A cylinder is
shown with a volume of
1078 cm3
2) Radius = 14 cm
Figure 3: A hemisphere
with its circular
part facing upwards.
3) Circumference = 44
cm
The difference of height of the cone and cylinder will be greater than 20 cm when ______, the possible
combination from the above table is/are:
1. 1 -1, 2 - 2
2. 1 - 1, 2 - 3
3. 2 - 1, 1 - 3
4. Both (1) and (2)
5. All of the above
Que. 138 Directions: Consider the table below and answer the following question.
In the table given below, there are two columns namely A and B.
In column A, Three figures are given with certain information about them.
In column B, certain values are given.
A B
Figure 1: A cone is
mounted over a
hemisphere. The volume
of the figure is 2156 cm
1) Radius = 7 cm
Figure 2: A cylinder is
shown with a volume of
1078 cm
2) Radius = 14 cm
Figure 3: A hemisphere
with its circular
part facing upwards.
3) Circumference = 44 cm
For the ratio of the height of figure 1 to figure 2 to be 5 ∶ 1, and radius of hemisphere and height of cylinder
are equal. The possible combination from the above table is/are:
3
3
1. 1 - 1, 2 - 2
2. 2 - 1, 1 - 3
3. 1 - 2, 2 - 1
4. 1 - 3, 2 - 2
5. No combination will give the required result.
Que. 139 Direction: Following table shows the distribution of data of five villages in terms of literacy.
Study the following data and answer the following questions:
Village Total
population
% of
literates
% of literate
female
% of illiterate
male
P 44500 20 45 30
Q 35500 40 25 40
R 30200 30 60 50
S 25750 72 35 45
T 45000 83 55 35
Note: All values that are calculated are rounded off to the nearest whole number.
The government plans to educate the village. And as part of the program decides to educate all the illiterates
from villages Q, R, and T at village T. But 40% of the females from villages Q and R together could not
make it to village T. The males who came make what percentage of the total people who attended. (Round off
to nearest whole number )
1. 70%
2. 64%
3. 60%
4. 66%
5. 72%
Que. 140 The number of literate males is what percent more than literate females in village S?
1. 85%
2. 85.5%
3. 85.9%
4. 85.7%
5. 89%
Que. 141 If 65% of the literate females from village P decided to work in the 100 days wages scheme of the
government. If the wage given to each is Rs. 600. Find the total earnings of the females.
1. Rs. 15,23,940
2. Rs. 12,61,430
3. Rs. 15,61,950
4. Rs. 15,44,650
5. Rs. 14,35,350
Que. 142 In a survey conducted by the health department, it was found that the literates were more aware of
sanitation. So, the government decided to award the literates from village R with the free ration of
3 Kg rice and 2 Kg sugar, in a decision to promote literacy and sanitation in the village. Find the ratio of the
total amount of rice got by literate females to the amount of sugar by literate males of village R.
1. 3 ∶ 2
2. 11 ∶ 5
3. 9 ∶ 4
4. 2 ∶ 5
5. 6 ∶ 7
Que. 143 If 25% of illiterates in village Q became literates, find the ratio of percentage of literates to
percentage of illiterates in village Q.
1. 7 ∶ 4
2. 11 ∶ 7
3. 11 ∶ 9
4. 11 ∶ 13
5. 13 ∶ 11
Que. 144 Directions: The following question is accompanied by three statements (I), (II), and (III). You
have to determine which statements(s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the questions.
Find the principal amount.
Statement I: The compound interest obtained when a sum is invested at 25% rate for 2 years is Rs. 250 more
than the simple interest obtained when the same amount is invested at a 5% rate for 1 year.
Statement II: A sum gets two more than its triple when it is invested at 3.5% rate compounded annually.
Statement III: The difference of amount on a sum invested at 8% rate compounded annually and semiannually is Rs. 279.
The data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II and
statement III alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
1.
The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I and
III is not sufficient to answer the question.
2.
The data in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
3.
4. The data in all the statements I, II and III is not sufficient to answer the question.
The data in statements I and statement II are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
5.
Que. 145 Directions: The following question is accompanied by three statements (I), (II), and (III). You
have to determine which statements(s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the questions.
A person marks the price of an article as Rs. y. What is the cost price of the article?
Statement I: The marked price of the article is 80% more than its cost price and the person sells it at 2x%
discount.
Statement II: The person gains 8% if he sells the article at x% discount and his profit is Rs. 5y.
Statement III: The person loses 12% on selling the article at a discount of Rs. 217..
The data in statement I and statement II are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
1.
The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I and
III is not sufficient to answer the question.
2.
The data in statements I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
3.
4. The data in all the statements I, II and III is not sufficient to answer the question.
The data in statements I and statement II are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
5.
Que. 146 In an annual function of class 7th, total of 550 students attended the function. 40% of the
attendees are male, out of which, 10% participated in dancing. Out of the total, 33.33% of females
participated in dancing. The number of students participating in anchoring is 16.67% of the total number of
students who participated in dancing. Find the number of students who participated in anchoring.
1. 22
2. 27
3. 25
4. 34
5. 29
Que. 147 The difference between the age of mother and father is 3 years. After the marriage, a son was born
to them after 3 years. If the average age of the couple at the time of their son's birth is 35 years,
then the couple got married how many years ago if father's present age is 29 years?
1. 4 years 6 months
2. 5 years
3. 1 year 6 months
4. 3 years
5. 2 years
Que. 148 Direction: Study the direction and answer the following questions.
Train Shatabadi Express of length 180 meters can cross a tree in 12 seconds. Another train August
express of length 240 meters crosses the tree at the same time as the train Shatabadi. Both the trains entered a
bridge of length 270 meters at the same time moving in opposite directions.
Find out the train which will cross the bridge first and when it crosses the bridge completely then what will
be the distance that the other train needs to covers to cross the bridge?
1. Shatabadi, 50 m
2. August, 53 m
3. August, 67.5 m
4. Shatabadi, 67.5 m
5. August, 52 m
Que. 149 What will be the time taken by the Shatabadi train to cover a platform of length 0.55 km? If the
speed of the Shatabadi train is increased by 33 %.
1
3
1. 30 sec
2. 31 sec
3. 32 sec
4. 36.5 sec
5. 37 sec
Que. 150 Shatabadi train started from city P at 11:00 am and traveled towards city R and after two hours,
August started at R and traveled towards P. If the two trains met at 7:00 pm find the time taken by
Shatabadi to reach city R after the two trains met each other.
1. 7 h
2. 8 h
3. 9 h
4. 6 h
5. 5 h
Que. 151 What is the time taken by the two trains to cross each other? If the time taken by Shatabadi to
cross a tree is 66.67% more and the time taken by August to cross a tree is 150% more.
1. 24.7
2. 2.80
3. 2.90
4. 3.0
5. 3.2
Que. 152 If S is the normal speed of Shatabdi Express, and A is the normal speed of August Express; then
find the value of 4S – 3A.
1. 15
2. 0
3. 5
4. 10
5. None of these
Que. 153 A student goes shopping by bicycle and travels the distance of 10 km to reach the shop in 50
minutes. He buys a cylinder whose volume of 4620 m3
 and also buys a cone. The volume of the
cone is (1/7) times the volume of a cylinder and the height of the cone is 10 m. During returning from the
shop he takes 10 minutes less time than coming to shop.
How much speed did he increase during returning from the shop?
1. 3 km/hr
2. 2 km/hr
3. 4 km/hr
4. 5 km/hr
Que. 154 What is the slant height of a cone?
1. √(163) m
2. √(161) m
3. √(167) m
4. √(173) m
Que. 155 What is the curved surface area of cylinder if the height of cylinder is 30 meters?
1. 1310 m2
2. 1300 m2
3. 1320 m2
4. 1340 m2
155 Questions
Que. 1 Correct Option - 1
Que. 2 Correct Option - 2
Que. 3 Correct Option - 1
Que. 4 Correct Option - 3
Que. 5 Correct Option - 3
Que. 6 Correct Option - 1
Que. 7 Correct Option - 1
Que. 8 Correct Option - 1
Que. 9 Correct Option - 3
Que. 10 Correct Option - 3
Que. 11 Correct Option - 2
Que. 12 Correct Option - 4
Que. 13 Correct Option - 2
Que. 14 Correct Option - 4
Que. 15 Correct Option - 4
Que. 16 Correct Option - 5
Que. 17 Correct Option - 2
Que. 18 Correct Option - 3
Que. 19 Correct Option - 4
Que. 20 Correct Option - 2
Que. 21 Correct Option - 1
Que. 22 Correct Option - 3
Que. 23 Correct Option - 1
Que. 24 Correct Option - 3
Que. 25 Correct Option - 2
Que. 26 Correct Option - 3
Que. 27 Correct Option - 4
Que. 28 Correct Option - 1
Que. 29 Correct Option - 5
Que. 30 Correct Option - 2
Que. 31 Correct Option - 2
Que. 32 Correct Option - 4
Que. 33 Correct Option - 3
Que. 34 Correct Option - 4
Que. 35 Correct Option - 2
Que. 36 Correct Option - 1
Que. 37 Correct Option - 5
Que. 38 Correct Option - 1
Que. 39 Correct Option - 3
Que. 40 Correct Option - 4
Que. 41 Correct Option - 3
Que. 42 Correct Option - 1
Que. 43 Correct Option - 2
Que. 44 Correct Option - 4
Que. 45 Correct Option - 3
Que. 46 Correct Option - 2
Que. 47 Correct Option - 4
Que. 48 Correct Option - 1
Que. 49 Correct Option - 3
Que. 50 Correct Option - 4
Que. 51 Correct Option - 3
Que. 52 Correct Option - 4
Que. 53 Correct Option - 3
Que. 54 Correct Option - 4
Que. 55 Correct Option - 4
Que. 56 Correct Option - 3
Que. 57 Correct Option - 1
Que. 58 Correct Option - 1
Que. 59 Correct Option - 3
Que. 60 Correct Option - 4
Que. 61 Correct Option - 1
Que. 62 Correct Option - 1
Que. 63 Correct Option - 4
Que. 64 Correct Option - 5
Que. 65 Correct Option - 4
Que. 66 Correct Option - 2
Que. 67 Correct Option - 1
Que. 68 Correct Option - 2
Que. 69 Correct Option - 2
Que. 70 Correct Option - 3
Que. 71 Correct Option - 1
Que. 72 Correct Option - 2
Que. 73 Correct Option - 2
Que. 74 Correct Option - 1
Que. 75 Correct Option - 2
Que. 76 Correct Option - 1
Que. 77 Correct Option - 1
Que. 78 Correct Option - 1
Que. 79 Correct Option - 5
Que. 80 Correct Option - 1
Que. 81 Correct Option - 3
Que. 82 Correct Option - 1
Que. 83 Correct Option - 3
Que. 84 Correct Option - 3
Que. 85 Correct Option - 3
Que. 86 Correct Option - 3
Que. 87 Correct Option - 1
Que. 88 Correct Option - 4
Que. 89 Correct Option - 4
Que. 90 Correct Option - 3
Que. 91 Correct Option - 1
Que. 92 Correct Option - 3
Que. 93 Correct Option - 2
Que. 94 Correct Option - 3
Que. 95 Correct Option - 2
Que. 96 Correct Option - 5
Que. 97 Correct Option - 1
Que. 98 Correct Option - 5
Que. 99 Correct Option - 4
Que. 100 Correct Option - 3
Que. 101 Correct Option - 2
Que. 102 Correct Option - 3
Que. 103 Correct Option - 3
Que. 104 Correct Option - 2
Que. 105 Correct Option - 2
Que. 106 Correct Option - 1
Que. 107 Correct Option - 2
Que. 108 Correct Option - 1
Que. 109 Correct Option - 2
Que. 110 Correct Option - 2
Que. 111 Correct Option - 3
Que. 112 Correct Option - 3
Que. 113 Correct Option - 3
Que. 114 Correct Option - 3
Que. 115 Correct Option - 2
Que. 116 Correct Option - 3
Que. 117 Correct Option - 5
Que. 118 Correct Option - 2
Que. 119 Correct Option - 1
Que. 120 Correct Option - 4
Que. 121 Correct Option - 3
Que. 122 Correct Option - 1
Que. 123 Correct Option - 5
Que. 124 Correct Option - 1
Que. 125 Correct Option - 3
Que. 126 Correct Option - 3
Que. 127 Correct Option - 4
Que. 128 Correct Option - 2
Que. 129 Correct Option - 5
Que. 130 Correct Option - 2
Que. 131 Correct Option - 4
Que. 132 Correct Option - 4
Que. 133 Correct Option - 2
Que. 134 Correct Option - 2
Que. 135 Correct Option - 3
Que. 136 Correct Option - 4
Que. 137 Correct Option - 5
Que. 138 Correct Option - 2
Que. 139 Correct Option - 4
Que. 140 Correct Option - 4
Que. 141 Correct Option - 3
Que. 142 Correct Option - 3
Que. 143 Correct Option - 3
Que. 144 Correct Option - 1
Que. 145 Correct Option - 3
Que. 146 Correct Option - 1
Que. 147 Correct Option - 1
Que. 148 Correct Option - 3
Que. 149 Correct Option - 4
Que. 150 Correct Option - 2
Que. 151 Correct Option - 1
Que. 152 Correct Option - 2
Que. 153 Correct Option - 1
Que. 154 Correct Option - 1
Que. 155 Correct Option - 3

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