IBPS PO Prelims 2022 Previous Year Question Paper Memory Based With free PDF Download link -Oct 15, 2022 Banking
IBPS PO Prelims Memory Based Paper Held On 16 October 2022 Shift 2
100 Questions
## Que.1 Directions: Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by choosing the correct/most appropriate options:
Coffee was first discovered in Eastern Africa in an area we know today as Ethiopia. A popular legend refers to a goat herder by the name of Kaldi, who observed his goats acting unusually frisky after eating berries from a bush. Curious about this phenomenon, Kaldi tried eating the berries himself. He found that these berries gave him energy. The news of this energy- loaded fruit quickly moved throughout the region. Coffee berries were transported from Ethiopia to the Arabian Peninsula and were first cultivated in what today is the country of Yemen. Coffee remained a secret in Arabia before spreading to Turkey and then to the European continent by means of Venetian trade merchants.
Coffee was first eaten as food though later people in Arabia would make a drink out of boiling the beans for its narcotic effects and medicinal value. Coffee for a time was known as Arabian wine to Muslims who were banned from alcohol by Islam. It was not until after coffee had been eaten as a food product, a wine, and a medicine that it was discovered, probably by complete accident in Turkey, that by roasting the beans a delicious drink could be made. The roasted beans were first crushed and then boiled in water, creating an unrefined version of the beverage we enjoy today. The first coffee houses were opened in Europe in the 17th Century and in 1675, the Viennese established the habit of refining the brew by filtering out the grounds, sweetening it, and adding a dash of milk. If you were to explore the planet for coffee, you would find about 60 species of coffee plants growing wild in Africa, Malaysia, and other regions. But only about ten of them are actually cultivated. Of these ten, two species are responsible for almost all the coffee produced in the world: Coffea Arabica and Coffea Canephora (usually known as Robusta). Because of ecological differences existing among the various coffee- producing countries, both types have undergone many mutations and now exist in many subspecies.
Coffee plants need special conditions to give a satisfactory crop. The climate needs to be hot- wet or hot temperate, between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn, with frequent rains and temperatures varying from 15 to 25 Degrees C. The soil should be deep, hard, permeable, and well irrigated, with well- drained subsoil. The best lands are the hilly ones or just- tilled woods. The perfect altitude is between 600 and 1200 meters, though some varieties thrive at 2000- 2200 meters. Cultivation aimed at protecting the plants at every stage of growth is needed. Sowing should be in sheltered nurseries from which, after about six months, the seedlings should be moved to plantations in the rainy season where they are usually alternated with other plants to shield them from wind and excessive sunlight.
## Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word.
He found that these berries gave him energy.
1. scrutinising
2. sustainable
3. renewed
4. overhauled
5. None of these
Correct Option - 3
Que. 2 Which of the following words is the synonym of the emboldened word in the given sentence? The roasted beans were first crushed and then boiled in water, creating an unrefined version of the beverage we enjoy today.
1. crude
2. primitive
3. improvised
4. unpurified
5. None of these
Correct Option - 1
Que. 3 What did people in Arabia initially use coffee for before discovering its potential as a beverage?
1. Medicinal purposes
2. Making a narcotic drink
3. Enhancing the flavor of food
4. Feeding it to livestock
5. Brewing a type of wine
Correct Option - 5
Que. 4 Which two species of coffee plants are primarily responsible for the majority of coffee production worldwide?
1. Coffea Arabica and Coffea Canephora
2. Coffea Robusta and Coffea Arabica
3. Coffea Canephora and Coffea Liberica
4. Coffea Excelsa and Coffea Arabica
5. Coffea Arabica and Coffea Liberica
Correct Option - 1
Que. 5 Which of the following words can replace the emboldened word in the given sentence? The news of this energy loaded fruit quickly moved throughout the region.
1. impeded
2. laden
3. burdened
4. bridled
5. None of these
Correct Option - 2
Que. 6 According to the passage, how did coffee first make its way from Ethiopia to the Arabian Peninsula?
1. Through the efforts of Venetian trade merchants
2. By the migration of coffee plants across regions
3. Due to the popularity of coffee houses in Europe
4. By the influence of Turkish coffee makers
5. Through the cultivation efforts of Arabian farmers
1. Western Africa
2. Southern Africa
3. Eastern Africa
4. Northern Africa
5. Central Africa
Correct Option - 3
Que. 8 Directions: In each of the questions given below, four words are given in bold. These four words may or may not be in their correct positions. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of words that replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it is, select '5' as your option.
Sarah moved (A) to the big city with successful (B) of becoming a dreams (C) singer, but she was met with harsh rejection (D) everywhere.
1. B-C
2. A-C
3. D-B
4. B-A
5. No Rearrangement
Correct Option - 1
Que. 9 Directions: In each of the questions given below, four words are given in bold. These four words may or may not be in their correct positions. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of words that replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it is, select '5' as your option.
Laura really wanted (A) to be a lawyer (B) but her father wanted her to join the family- business (C) of organized crime. (D)
1. C-A
2. C-B
3. D-B
4. A-D
5. No Rearrangement
Correct Option - 5
Que. 10 Directions: In each of the questions given below, four words are given in bold. These four words may or may not be in their correct positions. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of words that replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it is, select '5' as your option.
1. D-A
2. C-A
3. A-B
4. C-D
5. No Rearrangement
Correct Option - 1
Que. 11 Directions: In the question given below, four words are given in bold. These four words may or may not be in their correct positions. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of words that replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it is, select '5' as your option.
After being jilted by her altar (A) at the fiance, (B) Mariam decided (C) to move to a new city and get a fresh start. (D)
1. D-A
2. A-B
3. B-C
4. C-D
5. No Rearrangement
Correct Option - 2
Que. 12 Directions: In each of the questions given below, four words are given in bold. These four words may or may not be in their correct positions. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of words that replace each other. If the sentence is correct as it is, select '5' as your option.
Elinor wanted (A) to move to America in order to pursue (B) further studies, but her married (C) were adamant about getting her parents (D) early.
1. B-C
2. A-D
3. B-D
4. C-D
5. No Rearrangement
Correct Option - 4
Que. 13 Directions: Select the most appropriate word to fill in the blank.
1. Present
2. Recent
3. Consent
4. Insane
5. Absent
Correct Option - 3
Que. 14 The given question has one blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word for the given options that could fit in the blank correctly.
According to the latest official estimates, India's literacy rate has by approximately 500% since independence.
1. damage
2. taken
3. risen
4. carry
5. swing
Correct Option - 3
Que. 15 The given question has one blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word for the given options that could fit in the blank correctly.
China's computing machine is 20000 times faster than its international counterparts and may the processing power of supercomputers.
1. hinder
2. boost
3. decrease
4. diminish
5. destroy
Correct Option - 2
Que. 16 The given question has one blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the word for the given options that could fit in the blank correctly.
If the of investing in the stock market scares you, you are not alone.
1. song
2. view
3. source
4. thought
5. key
1. Perpetual
2. Ephemeral
3. Elegant
4. Nadir
5. None of these
Correct Option - 2
Q.18 Directions: The following sentences form a paragraph. The rest of the sentences are marked as A, B, C, D, E, and F. Sentence 'C' is in the correct place. The rest of the sentences are not given in their proper order. Read the sentences and answer the following questions.
A. It is scheduled to take place in Qatar from 20 November to 18 December 2022.
B. In addition, the tournament will be the last to involve 32 teams, with an increase to 48 teams scheduled for the 2026 tournament in the United States, Mexico, and Canada.
C. This will be the first World Cup ever to be held in the Arab world, and the second World Cup held entirely in Asia after the 2002 tournament in South Korea and Japan.
D. The final is due to be held on 18 December 2022, which also is Qatar National Day.
E. The 2022 FIFA World Cup is scheduled to be the 22nd running of the FIFA World Cup competition.
F. The first match played at the tournament will be contested between Qatar and Ecuador at Al Bayt Stadium, Al Khor.
Which sentence should be the SECOND sentence in the paragraph?
1. E
2. A
3. F
4. D
5. B
Correct Option - 2
Que. 19 Which sentence should be the FIFTH sentence in the paragraph?
1. F
2. B
3. E
4. D
5. A
Correct Option - 1
1. A
2. F
3. B
4. E
5. D
Correct Option - 5
Que. 21 Which sentence should be the FOURTH sentence in the paragraph?
1. B
2. A
3. E
4. F
5. D
Correct Option - 1
Que. 22 Which sentence should be the FIRST sentence in the paragraph?
1. D
2. B
3. E
4. F
5. A
Correct Option - 3
Que. 23 Which of the phrases given in the below sentence should replace the word/phrase that is underlined in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, make 'No Correction required' as the answer. Less than 2 hours are left before the bomb explodes and annihilates the city and its inhabitants.
1. Less than 2 hour is left
2. More than 2 hours are left
3. Less than 2 hours is left
4. Less than 2 hours are left
5. No Correction Required
Correct Option - 3
Que. 24 Which of the phrases given in the below sentence should replace the word/phrase that is underlined in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, make 'No Correction required' as the answer.
1. Mary and me shall be going to the movies after we're done with the marathon.
1. Mary and me shall be going
2. I and Mary will be going
3. Me and Mary will be going
4. Mary and I will be going
5. No Correction Required
Correct Option - 4
Que. 25 Which of the phrases given below the sentence should replace the word/phrase given below in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark 'No correction required as the answer.
The transport corporation have been issuing monthly and daily passes with revised fares since August 2019 that have not further been revised.
1. has been issuing monthly and daily passes
2. has being issuing monthly and daily pass
3. have been issued monthly and daily passes
4. has been issued monthly and daily pass
5. No correction required
Correct Option - 1
Que. 26 A sentence/ a part of sentence is underlined. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the meaning of the sentence. Choose the correct alternatives. In case no improvement needed, click the option corresponding to 'No improvement'.
Health could be of varied types; physical, emotional, mental, social, spiritual, and sexual health are some of them.
1. could being of
2. can of
3. can be of
4. could been of
5. No improvement
Correct Option - 3
Que. 27 A sentence/ a part of a sentence is underlined. Four alternatives are given to the underlined part which will improve the meaning of the sentence. Choose the correct alternatives. In case no improvement needed, click the option corresponding to 'No improvement'.
To improve into one's health is one's own responsibility as a healthy mind can reside only in a healthy body.
1. in one's health
2. at one's health
3. to one's health
4. upon one's health
5. No improvement
Correct Option - 4
## Que. 28 Select the most appropriate sentence with respect to grammar and usage.
1. Artificial light at night can affect every aspect of insects' life.
2. The most familiar impact of light pollution is moths flapping around bulb, mistaking it for the moon.
3. Insects are important prey on many species.
4. Light pollution could have significant ramifications on the insect population, species or community level.
5. None of these
Correct Option - 4
## Que. 29 Select the most appropriate sentence with respect to grammar and usage.
1. The IHR are a legally binding instrument of international law that aims of international collaboration.
2. If productive capacity grows, an economy can produced progressively more goods, which raises the standard of living.
3. Marine animals can hear across entire ocean basins.
4. Underwater sound waves are far more violent to sound waves in air.
5. None of these
Correct Option - 3
## Que. 30 Select the most appropriate sentence with respect to grammar and usage.
1. The world's biggest oil companies are preparing to mark an end to the darker year with a return to profit.
2. The Rising demand for oil is likely to keeping prices high.
3. International oil companies are used to dealing with industry cycles.
4. The IEA dashed hopes that the coronavirus may have brought end to the world's rising appetite for oil.
5. None of these
Correct Option - 3
Que. 31 What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question? 11.92 + 3(- 2.18 × 2.97) - (17.98 ÷ 5.96) = ?
1. 9
2. -9
3. 7
4. -7
5. 5
1. 2140
2. 2460
3. 1980
4. 2230
5. 1860
Correct Option - 4
Que. 33 What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question? 1/3 of 785.99 - 11/8 of 1031.99 = ? - 13/4 of 527.98
1. 428
2. 559
3. 592
4. 487
5. 507
Correct Option - 2
Que. 34 What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question? (59.99% of 3499.99) + {(19.92% of 1224.95) ÷ 4.95} = ?
1. 2085
2. 2149
3. 2471
4. 2235
5. 2238
Correct Option - 2
Que. 35 What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) in the following question? {44.95 - (16.97 × 2.93 - 2.99 × 1.92)} = ?
1. 4
2. 0
3. -4
4. 7
5. -7
1. 2:7
2. 7:9
3. 4:7
4. 8:5
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 4
Reshmi and Rahul invested Rs. 6000 and Rs. 8000 in a business for 6 months and 8 months respectively. Rahul being an working partner earned 23 / 4% profit out of a total profit of Rs. 36000 and after this the rest of the profit was divided according to their investments. What is Rahul's profit amount?
1. 24780.30
2. 23785.20
3. 23885.20
4. 27785.20
5. None of these
Correct Option - 2
Kamal saves x% of her monthly income. When her monthly expenditure is increased by 20% and the monthly income is increased by 26% , then her monthly savings increased by 60% . What is the value of x?
1. 12
2. 15
3. 18
4. 16
5. 22
Correct Option - 2
The average score of top 6 batsmen of Indian cricket team in a match is 46. If the 7th batsman is included, the average becomes 50. If the 8 batsman comes and scores 34 runs, then find the ratio of the average scores of top 6 and top 8 batsmen.
1. 11:12
2. 20:17
3. 23:24
4. 5:7
5. 18:11
1. 14seconds
2. 10 seconds
3. 20 seconds
4. 16 seconds
5. 12 seconds
Correct Option - 5
Direction: Read the following table carefully and answer the following questions:
Table shows the percentage of male and female employees in different education in a company and total number of males and females:
Education/ Category | Male | Female
Undergraduate | 30% | 35%
Graduate | 55% | 45%
Postgraduate | 15% | 20%
Total | 16000 | 20000
Find the average number of Undergraduate employees in a company.
1. 6300
2. 6100
3. 5400
4. 5900
5. 6700
Correct Option - 4
Find the postgraduate employees of a company are approximately what percent of total employees of a company?
1. 12%
2. 22%
3. 15%
4. 26%
5. 18%
Correct Option - 5
Que. 43 Find the ratio between the number of female and male employees of postgraduate.
1. 1:1
2. 2:3
3. 3:2
4. 5:3
5. 4:3
Correct Option - 4
Que. 44 Find the number of Undergraduate male employees is approximately what percent less than the number of undergraduate female employees?
1. 31%
2. 21%
3. 27%
4. 24%
5. 34%
Correct Option - 1
Que. 45 The difference between Graduate female and male employees in the company.
1. 150
2. 100
3. 200
4. 250
5. 180
Correct Option - 3
Que. 46 A takes a loan of Rs. 1500 from a bank at the rate of 10% simple interest for 3 years and lends to B at the rate of 15% for the same time period. Find the overall profit of A in the whole transaction.
1. Rs. 375
2. Rs. 275
3. Rs. 225
4. Rs. 325
5. Rs. 250
Correct Option - 3
1. 30 litres
2. 45 litres
3. 60 litres
4. 15 litres
5. 32 litres
Correct Option - 4
Que. 48 The total area of a circle and a square is 5450 cm² . The diameter of the circle is 70 cm . What is the difference between the circumference of the circle and the perimeter of the square?
1. 120 cm
2. 60 cm
3. 75 cm
4. 50 cm
5. None of these
Correct Option - 2
Que. 49 There are 240 workers and an amount of Rs. 2880 is to be divided among them. The ratio of total amount received to men and women is 5:4 and the ratio of the amount given to each man and each woman is 5:8 . Find the number of men.
1. 120
2. 140
3. 160
4. 180
5. 200
Correct Option - 3
Que. 50 A tank can be filled by A in 60 minutes and emptied by B in 75 minutes. The tank is half filled and Ravi wants to fill the tank but opens B mistakenly and realizes after half hour and closed tap B. He then opens A and tank is completely filled in minutes.
1. 48
2. 54
3. 50
4. 64
5. None of these
Correct Option - 2
Que. 51
1. x² + 2x - 15 = 0 II. y² + 16y + 55 = 0 1. x > y 2. x < y 3. x ≥ y 4. x ≤ y 5. x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.
Correct Option - 3
Que. 52 In the given question, two equations numbered 1 and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
I. x² + 19x + 90 = 0
II. y² + 13y + 36 = 0
1. x > y
2. x < y
3. x ≥ y
4. x ≤ y
5. x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.
Correct Option - 4
Que. 53 In the given question, two equations numbered 1 and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
I. 2x² + 5x - 3 = 0
II. y² - 14y + 24 = 0
1. x > y
2. x < y
3. x ≥ y
4. x ≤ y
5. x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.
Correct Option - 2
Que. 54 In the given question, two equations numbered 1 and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
I. x² - 5x + 6 = 0
II. 2y² - 32y + 126 = 0
1. x > y
2. x < y
3. x ≥ y
4. x ≤ y
5. x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.
Correct Option - 2
Que. 55 In the given question, two equations numbered I and II are given. Solve both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
I. x² - 25x + 156 = 0
II. y² - 20y + 96 = 0
1. x > y
2. x < y
3. x ≥ y
4. x ≤ y
5. x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.
Correct Option - 3
Que. 56 Direction: Study the given pie chart carefully and answer the following questions accordingly. Given pie chart shows the percentage of players taking part in six different games in an event.
Total number of Players = 1800
If the percentage of Golf players is increased by 50% and the percentage of Basketball players decreased by 25% , then what will be the new total number of Golf and Basketball players together?
1. 390
2. 379
3. 459
4. 480
5. None of these
1. 8:13
2. 7:13
3. 7:26
4. 26:7
5. None of these
Correct Option - 5
Que. 58 What is the difference between the total number of players taking part in Badminton and Boxing together and the total number of players taking part in Golf and Tennis together?
1. 352
2. 342
3. 643
4. 653
5. None of these
Correct Option - 2
Que. 59 What is the total number of players taking part in Athletics, Badminton and Tennis?
1. 1226
2. 1116
3. 1176
4. 998
5. None of these
Correct Option - 2
Que. 60 If two - ninth of the players taking part in Boxing is female, then the number of male Boxing players is approximately what percentage of the total number of players taking part in Athletics?
1. 57%
2. 42%
3. 63%
4. 69%
5. 51%
Correct Option - 1
Que. 61
A boat starts travelling from point P, travels to point Q then returns to point P. The boat takes 12 hours to complete the journey. The speed of the stream is 5 km/hour and the speed of the boat in still water is 10 km/hour. What is the distance between P and Q?
1. 45
2. 25
3. 35
4. 55
5. 60
Correct Option - 1
Que. 62 If a shopkeeper increases the selling price of an article by 10% and gets a profit of 37.5% on its cost price. If he increases the selling price by 25% above on old selling price then he gets a profit of ₹ 225 on his cost price. Find the cost price of the article?
1. 365
2. 320
3. 420
4. 400
5. 510
Correct Option - 4
Que. 63 The total sum of amounts of A and B at the end of 4 years and 2 years respectively on the same principal is Rs. 20,020. If A is charged Simple interest at the rate 10% and B is charged Compound interest at the rate 5% . The principal is?
1. Rs. 5,000
2. Rs. 7,500
3. Rs. 2,500
4. Rs. 8,000
5. Rs. 6,000
Correct Option - 4
Que. 64 A, B and C can complete a work in 10, 20 and 30 days respectively. If D can destroy the same work in 15 days. Find the time taken by all of them to complete the whole work.
1. 50/7days
2. 60/7 days
3. 20/3 days
4. 40/7 days
5. None of these
Correct Option - 2
1. 32 kmph
2. 30 kmph
3. 27.5 kmph
4. 36 kmph
5. 24 kmph
Correct Option - 5
Que.66 Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follows. Ten boxes A, C, D, G, J, L, M, P, Q, and Z are placed one above the other in any particular order. Box no. 1 is at the bottom and Box no. 10 is at the top. Three boxes are placed between box A and box L. Box Q is above box P but not at the top. Box L is placed at an even- numbered position. Box M is immediately below box A. Box G is at the bottom and box C is immediately above box G. Only one box is in between box L and box P. Box Z is between box L and box P. Box J is between box M and box Q. Box P is below box A.
Four of them are alike in a certain way and form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
1. Box M, J
2. Box L, Z
3. Box D, C
4. Box G, D
5. Box A, M
Correct Option - 4
Que.67 Which of the following statement is correct?
1. Box C is in the middle of box D and box G
2. Box P is immediately below box D
3. Box L is at the top
4. Four boxes are in between box M and box Z
5. None of these
Correct Option - 1
Que.68 How many boxes are placed between Box G and Box L?
1. 5
2. 1
3. 3
4. 2
5. 4
1. J
2. M
3. L
4. A
5. P
Correct Option - 3
Que. 70 Which boxes are placed in the middle of the arrangement?
1. Box A, P
2. Box M, J
3. Box P, D
4. Box L, Z
5. Box L, Q
Correct Option - 4
Que. 71 Direction: In the following question assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is/are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
Statements: M = N ≥ O J < O A ≥ J > P
# Conclusions:
I. M > P II. O > P
1. Only II is True
2. Only I is True
3. Either I or II is True
4. Both I and II are True
5. Neither I nor II is true
Correct Option - 4
Que. 72 Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be True, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is / are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
Statements: M > A ≥ T > F = Y ≤ S < P
# Conclusions:
I. F < P
II. A > S
1. Only I is True.
2. Only II is True.
3. Both I and II are True.
4. Either I or II is True.
5. None is True.
Correct Option - 1
Que. 73 Directions: In the following question assuming the given statements to be True, find which of the conclusion among given conclusions is / are definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
Statements: U ≤ W ≥ R > S ; T > S = V
# Conclusions:
I. W < V II. T < V
1. Only I is true
2. Only II is true
3. Either I or II is true
4. Neither I nor II is true
5. Both I and II is true
Correct Option - 4
Que. 74 Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. Six persons- L, M, N, O, P, and Q are taking the vaccination in different months- January, May and November on different dates- 2nd and 9th. All of them were wearing different colour dresses- Red, Yellow, White, Green, Blue, Black but not necessarily in the same order. M takes the vaccine on three persons before the one who wears Black. The one who takes the vaccine while wearing black does not take in the last. Q takes three persons before the one who takes immediately after P. Q takes on any 2nd date of any month. There is a gap of one person between O and the one who wears Yellow colour. O takes the vaccine before Yellow. L takes the vaccine before N and only one person takes the vaccine between them. The one who wears Blue is taking the vaccine before the one who takes while wearing White and the same number of people who take the vaccine between N who wears White and the one who is wearing Blue is the same as between L and N. M does not wear red while taking vaccine.
Who took the vaccine on 9 May?
1. O
2. N
3. P
4. Q
5. L
Correct Option - 5
Que. 75 What colour of dress did P wear while taking the vaccine?
1. Red 2. Green 3. Yellow 4. Black 5. White
Correct Option - 4
Que. 76 How many people took the vaccine between the one who wore Black and M?
1. Four
2. Five
3. None
4. One
5. Two
Correct Option - 5
Que. 77 Four of five are the same in a certain way, find the odd one out?
1. O
2. M
3. L
4. N
5. Q
Correct Option - 4
Que. 78 The one who takes the vaccine while wearing the Yellow colour on which date?
1. 2 January
2. 9 November
3. 2 May
4. 9 May
5. 2 November
Correct Option - 3
Que. 79 How many pair of letters are there in the word "BEAUTIFUL" which has as many letters (in both forward and backward direction) between them as they have in English alphabet series?
1. 1
2. 3
3. 2
4. 0
5. 4
1. Only conclusion I follow
2. Only conclusion II follows
3. Conclusion I and II both follow
4. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
5. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
Correct Option - 5
Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
## Statements:
Some beds are sofas. Some sofas are chairs. All chairs are books.
## Conclusions:
I. Some beds are chairs. II. Some sofas are books.
1. Only conclusion I follow
2. Only conclusion II follows
3. Conclusion I and II both follow
4. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
5. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
Correct Option - 2
Direction: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
## Statements:
Some lions are men. Some men are women. Some women are goats.
## Conclusions:
I. Some lions are women. II. Some men are goats.
1. Only conclusion I follow
2. Only conclusion II follows
3. Conclusion I and II both follow
4. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follows
5. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follows
Correct Option - 4
Directions: In the question below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I, and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
## Statements
Only Science is Physics. Some Science is Bio. Only a few Bio is Hindi.
## Conclusions
I. All Hindi being Bio is a possibility. II. Some Physics can be Hindi.
1. Only I follows
2. Only II follows
3. Both I and II follows
4. Neither I nor II follows
5. Either I or II follows
Correct Option - 1
Que. 83 If it is possible to make a meaningful word with the second, fifth, seventh and eleventh letters of the word "EVAPORATION" which of the following will be third letter from left end of newly formed word? If more than one such word can be made, give X as answer and if no such word can be made, give Y as the answer.
1. V
2. O
3. X
4. Y
5. N
Correct Option - 3
Que. 84 Directions: Read the instructions carefully and answer the question below:
Seven persons T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting in a row some of them are facing towards north direction some of them are facing towards south direction. Only one person sits between Z and T, who doesn't sit at any corner. Number of persons to the right of V is same as number of persons to the right of U. W is not an immediate neighbor of V and T. X sits second to the left of the one who sits immediate left of T, who faces south direction. Only two persons sit to the left of Z, who faces in north direction. V is not a neighbor of T and sits second to the left of X. Neighbors of U faces in opposite directions. Person sitting at extreme ends faces the same direction.
Who sits third to the left of U?
1. V
2. Y
3. Z
4. W
5. T
1. Second to the right
2. Second to the left
3. Immediate right
4. Immediate left
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 2
Que. 86 How many person sits between U and Z?
1. Three
2. One
3. Two
4. Zero
5. Four
Correct Option - 3
Que. 87 Four of them are alike in a certain way to form a group. Determine the following which does not belongs to that group?
1. Y
2. V
3. U
4. Z
5. W
Correct Option - 2
Que. 88 Who sits immediate right of T?
1. Z
2. Y
3. U
4. X
5. None of the above
Correct Option - 4
Que. 89 Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below. There are nine members in the family - J, K, D, M, T, U, B, W and X. W is the son of M. J is the sister of U. T is the brother of M's sister K. B is the brother of W. X is the father of M who is not the son of U. U is the mother of T. D is the father of B.
How many female members are there in the family?
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five
5. Six
Correct Option - 3
Que. 90 How is B related to U?
1. Paternal grandson
2. Maternal grandson
3. Paternal uncle
4. Maternal uncle
5. Son
Correct Option - 2
Que. 91 How is D related to X?
1. Grandson
2. Father-in-law
3. Son-in-law
4. Brother-in-law
5. Uncle
Correct Option - 3
Que. 92 Direction: Study the following information and answer the following questions.
Five persons are working in a bank. Their designations are CEO, CFO, Manager, Clerk, and Peon. The sequence of the posts is as above i.e. CEO is the senior most and Peon is the junior most person. They have a different number of pens. No two persons have the same number of pens. Two persons are junior to T. The difference in the number of pens between Y and T is 14 and T has the least number of pens. The one who is just senior to the one who is Manager has 31 pens. V is just senior to the one who has 43 pens. There is one designation between the Manager and Y. V has 11 pens more and 9 pen more than S and M respectively. One designation lies between the one who has 31 pens and V.
How many total number of pens have by the persons who are on the post of CEO and CFO?
1. 62
2. 64
3. 66
4. 68
5. 70
Correct Option - 2
Que. 93 Find the correct Sequence from the following?
1. Manager-V-42
2. CEO-M-33
3. CFO-Y-43
4. Clerk-T-47
5. Peon-S-36
Correct Option - 2
Que. 94 How many post are between the person Y and M?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. None
Correct Option - 3
Que. 95 Who is on the post of CFO?
1. M
2. T
3. V
4. S
5. Y
Correct Option - 4
Que. 96 How many pens does Clerk have?
1. 40
2. 42
3. 44
4. 46
5. 48
Correct Option - 2
Que. 97 If 1 is added to each even digit and 2 is subtracted from each prime digit in the number 73384563, then what is the sum of digits which is 4th and 6th from left and right respectively?
1. 11 2. 8 3. 9 4. 10 5. 16
Correct Option - 4
Que. 98 Directions: Study the information given below carefully and answer the questions that follow. A person starts walking in north direction from point T, after walking 10m he reached point U, then he takes right turn and walks 5m to reach at point V after that he walks in south direction and walks 8m to reach point W. Point X is 6m east of point W. Point Y is 32m north of X. Point Z is 8m west of Y. What is the direction of Y with respect to person's initial position?
1. North
2. West
3. South-West
4. North-East
5. None of these
Correct Option - 4
Que. 99 What is the shortest distance between V and X?
1. 10
2. 15
3. 20
4. 25
5. None of these
Correct Option - 1
Que. 100 What is the direction of T with respect to X?
1. South-east
2. North-west
3. South-west
4. East
5. None of these
Correct Option - 3
IBPS PO Prelims 2022 Previous Year Question Paper Memory Based With free PDF Download link -Oct 15, 2022 Banking
Banking IBPS PO Other Previous Year Qustion Paper:
IBPS PO Prelims 2022 Previous Year Question Paper Memory Based With free PDF Download link -Oct 16, 2022 Banking
IBPS PO Prelims 2023 Previous Year Question Paper Memory Based With free PDF Download link -Oct 1, 2023 Banking
IBPS PO Prelims 2023 Previous Year Question Paper Memory Based With free PDF Download link -Sep 30, 2023 Banking
