Railway-RRB Technician 2025 Grade 3 Previous Year Question Paper and Answer Key Free PDF Download English (Mar 09, 2026)
RRB Technician Grade III
Test Date: 09/03/2026
Test Time: 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
Subject: RRB Technician Grade III
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.
1. Options shown in BOLD are correct.
2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.
Section : Mathematics
Q.5 A train moving at 72 km/h overtakes another train, 180 m long, running in the same direction at 36 km/h in 27 seconds. Find the length of the faster train.
Ans
A. 100 m
B. 90 m
C. 110 m
D. 80 m
Q.6 The mean of a data is 19 and its median is 51. The mode (using empirical relation) of the data is:
Ans
A. 115
B. 30
C. 130
D. 173
Q.7 During a sale, 40% of the goods are sold at a 17% profit; 25% of the remaining goods are sold at a 22% profit; and the rest are sold at a 10% loss. Assuming all goods have the same cost price, what is the overall profit percentage?
Ans
A. 6.2%
B. 5.8%
C. 6.8%
D. 5.6%
Q.8 Kirti starts a business with ₹35,000 and after 3 months, Vaishnavi joins Kirti as her partner. After a year, the profit is divided in the ratio 7:6. What is Vaishnavi's contribution in the capital?
Ans
A. ₹41,020
B. ₹40,000
C. ₹39,255
D. ₹38,240
Q.9 What is the value of sec²(60°) - 1?
Ans
A. 2
B. 1
C. 0
D. 3
Q.10 If 3^(2a - b) = 3^(a + b) = √27, find the value of b.
Ans
A. 3/2
B. 1/2
C. 1/4
D. 3/4
Q.11 If 8 : 12 = 20 : x, find the value of x.
Ans
A. 34
B. 28
C. 30
D. 32
Q.12 If the number 62A4 is divisible by 4, then the least possible value of A can be:
Ans
A. 0
X B. 6
X C. 4
X D. 2
Q.13 Simplify: 2 1/2 + 1 3/4 - 1 1/4
Ans
A. 3 1/4
B. 2 3/4
C. 3
D. 2 1
Q.14 In a test, B got 50 marks while A got 80 marks out of 120 maximum marks. What percentage of A's marks were B's marks?
Ans
A. 62.5%
B. 120%
C. 160%
D. 66.67%
Q.15 Ramesh deposits ₹24,000 in his account, which pays an annual interest rate of 12% compounded quarterly. Calculate the total amount in his account after six months
Ans
A. ₹25,461.60
B. ₹25,937
C. ₹25,678.60
D. ₹25,431
Q.16 A customer purchases a laptop that has a marked price of ₹50,000. The store offers a 10% discount on the laptop. In addition, there is a festival offer that provides an extra 12% discount on the already discounted price. If the customer pays with a credit card and gets an additional 5% cashback on the final price, then how much does the customer effectively pay?
Ans
A. ₹37,560
B. ₹37,620
C. ₹37,490
D. ₹37,430
Q.17 The area of a square is 225 cm². Its perimeter is equal to the perimeter of a regular hexagon. What is the area (in cm²) of the hexagon?
Ans
A. 136√3
B. 128
C. 184
D. 150√3
Q.18 Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 20 hours and 30 hours respectively, while pipe C can empty it in 15 hours. All three pipes are opened together, but after 4 hours pipe C is closed. Find the total time taken to fill the empty tank.
Ans
A. 10 5/6 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 5 hours
D. 6 1/3 hours
Q.19 Two numbers have HCF 7 and LCM 84. If one number is 21, find the other.
Ans
A. 42
B. 24
C. 28
D. 35
Q.20 Simplify:
[(18 ÷ 9 × 3) of {((18 ÷ (6 × 2)) ÷ 3) + (16 ÷ (5 + 3 - 6))}]
Ans
A. 34
B. 17
C. 51
D. 68
Q.21 The capacity of a cylindrical tank is 55440 cm³. If its base radius is 14 cm, then find the total surface area of the tank. (Use π = 22/7)
Ans
A. 9252 cm²
B. 9352 cm²
C. 9152 cm²
D. 9052 cm²
Q.22 In the expansion of (x + 9)(x - 6)(x + 5), what is the coefficient of x?
Ans
A. 33
B. 30
C. -39
D. -35
Q.23 The difference between the present ages of Lata and Smita is 84 years. Five years ago from now, the sum of their ages was 92 years. If Lata is older than Smita, find Smita's present age (in years).
Ans
A. 9
B. 12
C. 2
D. 19
Q.24 In triangle PQR, the angle bisector of ∠Q cuts PR at A. Find the length of PQ, if the lengths of PR, QA and AR are 12 cm, 4.2 cm and 3.8 cm, respectively. (Round off to one decimal place).
Ans
A. 11.4 cm
B. 10.9 cm
C. 7.8 cm
D. 8.2 cm
Q.25 What sum of money (in ₹) will yield ₹720 as simple interest in 2 years at 10% per annum?
Ans
A. ₹3800
B. ₹3100
C. ₹4000
D. ₹3600
Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning
Q.26 If 'I' stands for '+', 'J' stands for '×', 'K' stands for '÷' and 'L' stands for '-', then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?
45 L 21 K 7 J 6 I 33 J 9 L 15 I 69 K 3 L 29 = ?
Ans
A. 343
B. 392
C. 369
D. 303
Q.27 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets.
(Note: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 - Operations on 13 such as adding/subtracting/multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(5, 14, 6)
(9, 22, 14)
Ans
A. (10, 16, 8)
B. (7, 18, 10)
C. (8, 23, 15)
D. (6, 8, 16)
Q.28 KV 14 is related to MT 34 in a certain way. In the same way, GR 27 is related to IP 47. To which of the following is CN 35 related, following the same logic?
Ans
A. EL 55
B. DM 55
C. EM 45
D. DL 65
Q.29 B, C, D, E, G, H and I are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre of the table. Only two people sit between C and D, when counted from the left of D. G sits third to the left of I. B sits to the immediate right of I. B sits second to the left of C. H is not an immediate neighbor of G. Who sits third to the right of E?
Ans
A. G
B. H
C. B
D. D
Q.30 Raman starts from point Y and drives 15 km towards South. He then turns left and drives 21 km, takes a left and drives 69 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 42 km. He takes a left turn, drives 54 km, turns right and drives 26 km to stop at point Z. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach point Y again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
Ans
A. 49 km towards east
B. 45 km towards west
C. 51 km towards west
D. 47 km towards east
Q.31 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans
A. FHC
B. IMK
C. LPN
D. RVT
Q.32 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans
A. TW - RU
B. JM - HK
C. PS - NQ
D. IK - FH
Q.33 Seven boxes, G, H, I, J, O, K, and L, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in the same order. Only I is kept above O. Only G is kept between O and K. Only J is kept below L. How many boxes are kept between H and J?
Ans
A. Four
B. Two
C. One
D. Three
Q.34 In a certain code language, A + B means 'A is the sister of B' A - B means 'A is the brother of B' A x B means 'A is the wife of B' A ÷ B means 'A is the father of B' Based on the above, how is M related to R if 'M + K + L - P x R'?
Ans
A. Wife's father's mother
B. Mother
C. Sister
D. Wife's father's sister
Q.35 In a certain code language, 'FISH' is coded as '2815' and 'SHIP' is coded as '1352'. What is the code for 'P' in that language?
Ans
A. 8
B. 5
C. 1
D. 3
Q.36 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans
A. NHY
B. LNI
C. GID
D. OQL
Q.37 Refer to the following letter series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right.
(Left) R Y V O B I E A U K E H G B V T G R C S T (Right)
How many such vowels are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a vowel?
Ans
A. One
X B. None
X C. Three
X D. Two
Q.38 FGJL is related to JKNP in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, PQTV is related to TUXX. To which of the following is NORT related, following the same logic?
Ans
A. STWY
B. RSVX
C. RSWY
D. RSVP
Q.39 Each letter in the word LEMONY is changed to the letter immediately following it in the English alphabetical order and then all the letters thus formed are arranged in the English alphabetical order. Which of the following letters will be third from the right in the new group of letters thus formed?
Ans
A. N
B. O
C. M
D. P
Q.40 Each letter in the word KLATSCH is changed to the letter immediately following it in the English alphabetical order and then all the letters thus formed are arranged in alphabetical order. Which of the following letters will be fourth from the right in the new group of letters thus formed?
Ans
A. L
B. M
C. D
D. I
Q.41 In a certain code language, 'PART' is coded as '7642' and 'TWIN' is coded as '1356'. What is the code for 'T' in that language?
Ans
A. 6
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Q.47 In a certain code language, 'A + B' means 'A is the son of B', 'A @ B' means 'A is the sister of B', 'A # B' means 'A is the wife of B' and 'A ÷ B' means 'A is the father of B'. How is Q related to H if 'Q @ W + R # G ÷ H'?
Ans
A. Daughter
B. Sister
C. Mother
D. Wife
Q.48 What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation, if '+' and '-' are interchanged and '÷' and '×' are interchanged?
536 + 67 × 9 - 22 ÷ 283 = ?
Ans
A. 93
B. 102
C. 106
D. 97
Q.49 In a certain code language, A # B means 'A is the mother of B', A ÷ B means 'A is the daughter of B', A + B means 'A is the wife of B', and A @ B means 'A is the father of B'. How is A related to T if 'A ÷ B # H @ K + T'?
Ans
A. Wife's sister
B. Wife's father's mother
C. Wife's mother
D. Wife's father's sister
Q.50 Refer to the following letter series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right.
(Left) T J R M G K S M O X Z W Z D T B L N Z O L (Right)
How many such vowels are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and also immediately followed by a consonant?
Ans
X A. Two
X B. Three
X C. One
D. None
Section : General Science
Q.51 Which statement correctly explains the role of decomposers in an ecosystem?
Ans
A. They recycle nutrients by breaking down dead organisms into simple substances
B. They convert inorganic substances into complex organic compounds
C. They directly provide food to carnivores
D. They absorb sunlight to produce energy-rich compounds
Q.52 A 90 W electric bulb does how much work in 10 seconds?
Ans
A. 900 J
B. 9 J
C. 90 J
D. 9000 J
Q.53 The weight of a body on the moon is 3 N. What will be the weight of the body on Earth?
Ans
A. 3 N
B. 18 N
C. 0.5 N
D. 2 N
Q.54 If 12 J of work is done to move a charge of 2 C between two points, what is the potential difference between these points?
Ans
A. 6 V
B. 24 V
C. 14 V
D. 10 V
Q.55 Thomson's model is often referred to as the 'plum pudding model'. In this analogy, what does the 'plum' represent?
Ans
A. Neutrons
B. Protons
C. Electrons
D. Alpha particles
Q.56 Which of the following statements correctly explains the position of sodium (Na) in the activity series of metals?
Ans
A. Sodium is less reactive than copper and cannot displace it from salt solution.
B. Sodium is less reactive than hydrogen and hence placed below it.
C. Sodium is more reactive than hydrogen and displaces it from acid.
D. Sodium does not react with water, hence placed at the bottom of the series.
Q.57 Which of the following statement about a solution is correct?
Ans
A. A solution is a homogeneous mixture in which the solute particles are not visible to the naked eye.
B. A solution is a heterogeneous mixture of two or more substances.
C. The solute in a solution settles down on standing.
D. The solute in a solution is always present in a greater amount than the solvent.
Q.58 Which of the following compounds obeys the Law of Constant Proportions?
Ans
A. Brass
B. Air
C. Water
D. Soil
Q.59 An element X has two isotopes: X^12 and X^14. Both are electrically neutral and chemically identical, but one of them is unstable and radioactive. Which of the following statements best explains why X^14 is radioactive, even though both isotopes have the same number of protons and electrons?
Ans
A. Because X^14 has a smaller nucleus that cannot hold neutrons tightly, resulting in spontaneous decay
B. Because X^14 has excess neutrons, causing imbalance in nuclear forces
C. Because X^14 has equal numbers of protons and neutrons, making it energetically unstable
D. Because X^14 has more electrons than protons, leading to instability in electron distribution
Q.60 Which tissue in plants is primarily responsible for storage and basic metabolic functions in mature organs?
Ans
A. Sclerenchyma
B. Parenchyma
C. Collenchyma
D. Epidermis
Q.61 Which of the following is a characteristic feature of skeletal muscle?
Ans
A. Involuntary control
B. Non-striated appearance
C. Striated appearance
D. Single, central nucleus
Q.62 Which structural characteristic allows epithelial tissue to function as a protective layer?
Ans
A. Cells are connected exclusively by desmosomes.
B. Cells are long and multinucleated.
C. Cells are tightly packed with minimal intercellular space.
D. Cells are loosely arranged with abundant extracellular matrix.
Q.63 Read the following three statements and choose the correct option:
Statement I: Formula unit mass is applicable only to ionic compounds, not covalent ones.
Statement II: Formula unit mass is the sum of the atomic masses of all atoms in the empirical formula of an ionic compound.
Statement III: The formula unit mass of sodium chloride (NaCl) is 58.5 u.
Ans
A. Only I and II are correct.
B. All I, II and III are correct.
C. Only I and III are correct.
D. Only II and III are correct.
Q.64 Which of the following is a characteristic feature of all organic compounds?
Ans
A. They always form ionic bonds
B. They always contain carbon
C. They always contain oxygen
D. They always contain nitrogen
Q.65 Ethanoic acid reacts with sodium carbonate to produce:
Ans
A. Sodium hydroxide and CO2.
B. Sodium acetate, hydrogen, and water
C. Sodium acetate and carbon monoxide
D. Sodium acetate, carbon dioxide, and water
Q.66 The quality and taste of honey mainly depends on which of the following factors?
Ans
A. Age of the bees
B. Type of beehive
C. Type and availability of flowers
D. Number of worker bees in the colony
Q.67 In some plants, a meristematic tissue is found at the base of leaves or near the nodes, separating regions of a mature tissue. Which tissue is this?
Ans
A. Intercalary meristem
B. Differentiated tissue
C. Apical meristem
D. Lateral meristem
Q.68 Which of the following statements is/are INCORRECT about the loudness and softness of a sound wave?
(i) A loud sound has more amplitude as compared to a soft sound.
(ii) A loud sound has lesser energy associated with it as compared to a soft sound.
(iii) Loudness of sound wave is the measure of the response of our heart to the sound.
Ans
A. Both (ii) and (iii)
B. Only (i)
C. Both (i) and (iii)
D. Only (ii)
Q.69 Vibration, which produces sound, is defined as a kind of rapid
Ans
A. Single directional displacement
B. Linear forward motion
C. To and fro motion of an object
D. Slow lateral motion
Q.70 For a body moving with uniform acceleration, average velocity equals
Ans
A. Zero
B. (Initial velocity + Final velocity)/2
C. Initial velocity
D. Final velocity
Q.71 A concave mirror produces a virtual, erect and magnified image when the object is positioned
Ans
A. Between the centre of curvature and the focus
B. Beyond the centre of curvature
C. Between the focus and the pole
D. At the principal focus
Q.72 Which of the following can happen when non-biodegradable waste is dumped into water bodies?
Ans
A. It pollutes the water and harms aquatic life.
B. It helps aquatic plants grow.
C. It cleans the water.
D. It quickly dissolves in water.
Q.73 Sexual maturation in humans results in:
Ans
A. Loss of reproductive capacity and growth
B. Development of reproductive organs and secondary sexual characteristics
C. Decrease in hormone levels and loss of reproductive organs
D. Only physical growth
Q.74 Plastids, which are found only in plant cells, help in:
Ans
A. photosynthesis and storage
B. excretion
C. transport
D. respiration
Q.75 What is the audible frequency range for human beings?
Ans
A. 200 Hz to 200,000 Hz
B. 20 kHz to 200 kHz
C. 2 Hz to 200 Hz
D. 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz
Q.76 A device has a resistance of 75 Ω and carries a current of 4 A. The power dissipated is
Ans
A. 1200 W
B. 1400 W
C. 300 W
D. 18.75 W
Q.77 Which of the following are produced when a metal oxide reacts with an acid?
Ans
A. Salt and carbon dioxide
B. Salt and hydrogen gas
C. Salt and water
D. Salt and oxygen gas
Q.78 The gravitational force between two masses increases when
Ans
A. The product of their masses increases
B. They are kept in water
C. Their masses decrease
D. The distance between them increases
Q.79 A student notices that Hydra creates new organisms by developing small protrusions on its body, which eventually detach. What kind of reproduction is this?
Ans
A. Parthenogenesis
B. Regeneration
C. Budding
D. Sexual reproduction
Q.80 Which of the following distinguishes the Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum from the Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum?
Ans
A. RER stores lipids.
B. RER has ribosomes.
C. SER synthesizes proteins only.
D. SER is rich in ribosomes.
Q.81 Which of the following statements correctly describes the transportation of blood from the heart to the lungs?
Ans
A. Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the left ventricle to the lungs.
B. Oxygenated blood is carried from the lungs to the right atrium.
C. Oxygenated blood flows from the left ventricle to the lungs for purification.
D. Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventricle to the lungs.
Q.82 Which of the following best defines reduction in a redox reaction?
Ans
X A. Loss of electrons only
X B. Gain of oxygen or loss of hydrogen
C. Gain of hydrogen or loss of oxygen
X D. Gain of both oxygen and electrons
Q.83 What factor primarily influences the quality and quantity of honey produced in bee farming?
Ans
X A. The size of the beehive used only
B. Flower types and their abundance for nectar gathering
X C. The colour of the bees
X D. The temperature inside the beehive alone
Q.84 The magnitude of force on a conductor in a magnetic field increases when ______.
Ans
X A. Magnetic field decreases
B. Current increases
X C. Length decreases
X D. Current decreases
Q.85 The motion of the moon around the earth requires a centripetal force, which is provided by ______.
Ans
X A. The thrust of the sun
X B. The inertia of the moon
C. The force of attraction of the earth
X D. The internal forces of the moon
Q.86 Which of the following metals forms an amphoteric oxide when reacting with air?
Ans
X A. Calcium
X B. Sodium
C. Aluminium
X D. Potassium
Q.87 In the chemical equation xPb(NO3)2(s) → yPbO(s) + zNO2(g) + wO2(g), what are the values of x, y, z and w?
Ans
X A. x = 2 ; y = 4 ; z = 2 ; w = 1
X B. x = 1 ; y = 2 ; z = 3 ; w = 2
X C. x = 2 ; y = 1 ; z = 4 ; w = 2
D. x = 2 ; y = 2 ; z = 4 ; w = 1
Q.88 Which of the following pairs of element names and symbols is correctly matched?
Ans
X A. Mercury – Me
X B. Lead – Ld
X C. Silver – S
D. Tin – Sn
Q.89 A body moves 6 km towards the east in 1 hour and then 8 km towards the west in the next 1 hour. The average velocity of the body for the whole journey is ______.
Ans
X A. 0
X B. 7 km/h east
X C. 1 km/h east
D. 1 km/h west
Q.90 A body covers a straight-line distance of 10 m from point A to B in 5 s and then covers back the distance from point B to point A along the same straight path in 5 s. How much will be the average speed of the body?
Ans
A. 2 m/s
B. 0.5 m/s
C. 5 m/s
D. 200 m/s
Section : General Awareness
Q.91 Where was the 30th Senior Women's National Football Championship - Rajmata Jijabai Trophy final match played?
Ans
A. Bilaspur
B. Narainpur
C. Raipur
D. Raigarh
Q.92 Which of the following cities experiences the retreat of Monsoon last?
Ans
A. Chennai
B. Mumbai
C. Jaipur
D. Ahmedabad
Q.93 Which of the following 1973 landmark judgments of the Supreme Court of India provided that Parliament cannot amend the 'basic structure' of the Constitution through amendments?
Ans
A. Champakam Dorairanjan Case
B. Minerva Mills Case
C. Kesavananda Bharati Case
D. Golakhmath Case
Q.94 The inaugural railway line in the Indian subcontinent was opened in 1853 between which two locations?
Ans
A. Patna and Gaya
B. Jaipur and Ajmer
C. Bombay and Thane
D. Surat and Bharuch
Q.95 Which of the following is NOT one of the valid ways to acquire Indian citizenship under the Citizenship Act, 1955?
Ans
A. By registration
B. By marriage
C. By birth
D. By descent
Q.96 The Ramosi Revolt was led by which tribal leader in 1822 against Britishers?
Ans
A. Chittur Singh
B. Bakshi Jagabandhu
C. Veer Surendra Sai
D. Kittur Chennamma
Q.97 Which agency has bagged a Transfer of Technology (ToT) deal, valued at ₹511 crore, from the Indian Space Research Organisation, to build and operate Small Satellite Launch Vehicles (SSLVs)?
Ans
A. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
B. Larsen & Toubro
C. Adani Defence
D. Bharat Dynamics Limited
Q.98 Which of the following classical music instruments did Ustad Bismillah Khan mostly popularise?
Ans
A. Veena
B. Shehnai
C. Sitar
D. Tabla
Q.99 In which state was the 22nd All India TDS Conference organised to review Income Tax Act amendments?
Ans
A. Rajasthan
B. Maharashtra
C. Gujarat
D. Madhya Pradesh
Q.100 On which date was Engineers' Day observed in India in 2025?
Ans
A. 14 September
B. 15 September
C. 16 September
D. 13 September
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