RRB Technician 2026 Grade 3 Railway Previous Year Question Paper and Answer Key Free PDF Download English October 7
Section 1: Mathematics (Q.1 – Q.25)
Q.1 A data set of 15 observations is arranged in ascending order as follows: 9, 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 23, z, 27, 29, 31, 33, 35, 37. 23 is the unique mode. If z is an integer, what is the value of z?
A. 27
B. 21
C. 25
D. 23 ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.2 If 20% of k is 10 less than 1800% of 10, then k is:
A. 850 ✓
B. 810
C. 830
D. 890
Correct Answer: A
Q.3 A man walks at 5/6 of his usual speed and reaches his destination 10 minutes late. What is the usual time (in minutes) taken?
A. 60
B. 40
C. 50 ✓
D. 70
Correct Answer: C
Q.4 The sum of the present ages of Nick and Stephen is 56 years. Four years ago, Stephen's age was half of Nick's age at that time. What is Nick's present age (in years)?
A. 31
B. 36 ✓
C. 26
D. 42
Correct Answer: B
Q.5 If x/y = (b+3)/(b–3), then find the value of (x² + y²)/(x² – y²).
A. 12b/(b² + 9)
B. 12b/(b² – 9)
C. 6b/(b² + 9)
D. (b² + 9)/6b ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.6 From an external point P, two tangents PA and PB are drawn to a circle with center O. A secant passing through P cuts the circle at points C and D such that PC = 4 cm and PD = 8 cm. If the radius of the circle is 6 cm, find the length of the tangent PA.
A. 4√3 cm
B. 4√2 cm ✓
C. 2√2 cm
D. √2 cm
Correct Answer: B
Q.7 Three partners invest in an AI analytics firm in the ratio 8 : 11 : 13. After 6 months, the second partner increases his investment by 25%, while the first partner reduces his investment by 20%. If the total profit after 12 months is ₹9,24,000, then what is the share of the third partner (in ₹, rounded off to the nearest integer)?
A. 3,36,000
B. 3,90,125
C. 3,68,749 ✓
D. 3,52,000
Correct Answer: C
Q.8 In a quadrilateral PQRS, ∠P = (4x + 8)°, ∠Q = (3x + 2)°, ∠R = 75° and ∠S = (x – 5)°. The shortest angle of the quadrilateral is
A. 40°
B. 35°
C. 30° ✓
D. 25°
Correct Answer: C
Q.9 A tank has two inlet pipes C and D, and one outlet pipe E. C fills the tank in 10 hours, D in 15 hours, and E empties it in 30 hours. If all pipes are opened together, how long will it take to fill the tank completely?
A. 7.5 hours ✓
B. 9.5 hours
C. 8.5 hours
D. 5.5 hours
Correct Answer: A
Q.10 If (cosθ + sinθ) : (cosθ – sinθ) = (√3 + 1) : (√3 – 1), 0° < θ < 90°, then the value of tan(θ + 30°)/sec(θ – 30°) is:
A. √3 / 2
B. 1
C. √3 / 3
D. √3 ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.11 Pipe M can fill a tank in 6 hours and Pipe N can fill the tank in 12 hours. If both are opened together, what fraction of the tank will be filled in 3.5 hours?
A. 1/6
B. 1/8
C. 3/4
D. 7/8 ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.12 The marks of 9 students are: 16, 20, 24, 27, 31, 36, 39, 42, 48. If the marks of the student who scored 48 are replaced by 52, what is the value of the new median?
A. 28
B. 30
C. 29
D. 31 ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.13 Find the least value of (4K² – 3) for which the six digits number 8768K6 must be divisible by 4.
A. 13
B. 33
C. 1 ✓
D. 24
Correct Answer: C
Q.14 The ratio of the number of boys to girls in a school of 102 students is 9:8. How many more girls should be admitted to make the ratio of boys to girls 1:2?
A. 60 ✓
B. 62
C. 48
D. 54
Correct Answer: A
Q.15 If a square has a side of (11x – 9) cm, then the area of the square (in cm²) is:
A. 121x² – 198x + 81 ✓
B. 121x² + 99x + 81
C. 121x² – 99x – 81
D. 121x² + 99x – 81
Correct Answer: A
Q.16 The volume of a cylinder is 3080 cm³ and the radius of its base is 7 cm. What is the curved surface area of the cylinder? (Use π = 22/7)
A. 860 cm²
B. 900 cm²
C. 840 cm²
D. 880 cm² ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.17 A shopkeeper offers two successive discounts of 15% and y% on the marked price of an article. If the final selling price is 68% of the marked price, what is the value of y?
A. 10
B. 15
C. 25
D. 20 ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.18 Let p be a prime number greater than 3. Which of the following expressions is always divisible by 24 and necessarily by 48?
A. p² – 1
B. p² + 1
C. p² – p
D. p⁴ – 1 ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.19 On a circular path of 2655 m, Afiya and Sushmita start walking from the same point but in the opposite directions at the speed of 4.6 m/s and X m/sec, respectively, they will meet for the first time after 177 seconds. Find the value of X.
A. 18.3
B. 10.4 ✓
C. 17.9
D. 10.7
Correct Answer: B
Q.20 An article is sold at a 20% profit. If its selling price is reduced by ₹40, the seller incurs a 10% loss. Find the cost price (rounded off to 2 decimal places) of the article.
A. ₹100.24
B. ₹124.63
C. ₹133.33 ✓
D. ₹80.44
Correct Answer: C
Q.21 A man has invested ₹57500 at a rate of 12% per annum simple interest for 3 years. Find the amount (in ₹) that he will receive after 3 years.
A. 20700
B. 78200 ✓
C. 79200
D. 21700
Correct Answer: B
Q.22 Ruchi invested a certain amount at a compound interest rate of 32% per annum, compounded semi-annually, for a duration of 1 year and 6 months. If the total amount received by Ruchi at the end of the period was ₹48,778, then what was the initial investment (in ₹)?
A. 30,000
B. 31,000
C. 30,250
D. 31,250 ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.23 The average number of cars sold per day by a dealer during the month of March, excluding Saturdays and Sundays, is 168. The average number of cars sold per day on Sundays is 119. If the first Saturday falls on 3rd March and the average number of cars sold per day during the entire month is 177, what is the average number of cars sold per day on Saturdays?
A. 262
B. 263 ✓
C. 261
D. 260
Correct Answer: B
Q.24 A principal is invested at a certain annual rate of interest, compounded annually, for 3 years. The ratio (Compound Interest – Simple Interest) to Simple Interest is 7:12. What is the annual rate of interest?
A. 50% ✓
B. 40%
C. 60%
D. 30%
Correct Answer: A
Q.25 By selling an article for ₹113, a man loses 30%. At what price (in ₹) should he sell it to gain 40%?
A. ₹246
B. ₹216
C. ₹236
D. ₹226 ✓
Correct Answer: D
Section 2: General Intelligence and Reasoning (Q.26 – Q.50)
Q.26 Seven people, H, I, J, D, E, V and R, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only five people sit to the right of H. Only one person sits between L and H. R is the immediate neighbour of J and L. D sits to the right of V but left of L. How many people sit between E and D?
A. Two
B. Four
C. One
D. Three ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.27 Refer to the following letter series and answer the question. Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) G V C T H Y B E R K H V E V B M P U F B J I O X (Right) How many such vowels are there each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a vowel?
A. Two
B. One ✓
C. Three
D. None
Correct Answer: B
Q.28 If 'A' stands for '+', 'B' stands for '×', 'C' stands for '÷', and 'D' stands for '–', what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 28 A 36 B 27 C 32 D 44 = ?
A. 8
B. 7
C. 9 ✓
D. 5
Correct Answer: C
Q.29 A, B, C, D, E and F live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 6. E lives on an even numbered floor but not 6. The sum of floors on which D and F live is 7. A lives immediately above E. The sum of floors on which F and C live is 3. How many people live between C and E?
A. 2
B. 1 ✓
C. 4
D. 3
Correct Answer: B
Q.30 What should come in place of '?' in the given series? 29, 32, 38, 47, 59 ?
A. 75
B. 76
C. 73
D. 74 ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.31 A, B, C, D, E and F live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered 6. E lives on an even numbered floor but not 6. The sum of floors on which F and E live is 7. C lives immediately above D. The sum of floors on which E and A live is 3. What is the sum of floors on which D and F live?
A. 7
B. 6
C. 8 ✓
D. 5
Correct Answer: C
Q.32 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster pair.)
A. HG-BD ✓
B. ML-HG
C. BA-WV
D. KJ-FE
Correct Answer: A
Q.33 In a certain code language, 'nail lamp tea' is coded as 'dy xv tn' and 'tea hall virus' is coded as 'xv tl yk'. How is 'tea' coded in the given language?
A. xv ✓
B. dy
C. tl
D. tn
Correct Answer: A
Q.34 23 is related to 138 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 16 is related to 96. To which of the following is 32 related, following the same logic? (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits.)
A. 122
B. 138
C. 192 ✓
D. 154
Correct Answer: C
Q.35 Refer to the following letter series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) W O N F H G U K M T G B E I C X D F H G U K T V U A (Right) How many such consonants are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a vowel and also immediately followed by a vowel?
A. Two
B. Three
C. One
D. None ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.36 N is the brother of C. Q is the sister of Z. T is the son of Z. Z is the wife of C. How is N related to Q?
A. Brother
B. Sister's husband's brother ✓
C. Sister's husband
D. Husband's brother
Correct Answer: B
Q.37 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. KON-PTS GKJ-LPO
A. YCB-DHG ✓
B. YBZ-DHG
C. YBZ-CGF
D. YCB-CHF
Correct Answer: A
Q.38 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. BDZ–ACY RTP–QSO
A. UVQ–TVR
B. UVQ–SUQ
C. UWS–TVR ✓
D. UWS–SVQ
Correct Answer: C
Q.39 In a certain code language, 'WACK' is coded as '3589' and 'CAKE' is coded as '5138'. What is the code for 'E' in the given code language?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 8
D. 1 ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.40 The position(s) of how many letters will remain unchanged if each letter in the word MAJORITY is arranged in the English alphabetical order?
A. 2
B. 1
C. 4
D. 3 ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.41 Ghr starts from Point A and drives 7 km towards West. He then takes a left turn and drives 4 km; and again turns right and drives 3 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 7 km. He takes a final right turn, drives 10 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
A. 5 km to the North
B. 2 km to the East
C. 3 km to the South ✓
D. 6 km to the West
Correct Answer: C
Q.42 Each consonant in the word MEDICAL is changed to the letter immediately preceding it in the English alphabetical order, and the vowel remains the same. If all the letters thus formed are rearranged in the English alphabetical order, then which of the following letters will be fifth from the right?
A. C ✓
B. I
C. E
D. B
Correct Answer: A
Q.43 In this question, a group of number/symbol is coded using letter codes as per the codes given below and the conditions which follow. The correct combination of codes following the conditions is your answer. Number/symbol: 3 @ # 1 % 6 & 9 $ 2 + 5 7 Code: K F A M H P B T W R D U L Q Conditions – (i) If the first, third and fifth elements are all odd numbers, code the third element as ©. (ii) If the second and fourth elements are even numbers, the fourth element is to be coded as the code of the second element. (iii) If the first element is a symbol, code the last element as ©. What is the code for the following group of numbers? 5 8 7 2 3
A. LA©AK ✓
B. LAQDK
C. LA©DK
D. LAQD©
Correct Answer: A
Q.44 A question is followed by two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Question: A, B, C, D and E are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. Who sits second to the right of A? Statements: (I) C sits to the immediate left of E. D sits to the immediate right of A. (II) D is the immediate neighbour of A and B. E sits second to the left of D.
A. Data in statements I and II together are NOT sufficient to answer the question.
B. Data in statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question. ✓
C. Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II is not.
D. Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I is not.
Correct Answer: B
Q.45 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster)
A. NPV ✓
B. LNR
C. TVZ
D. JLP
Correct Answer: A
Q.46 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? DGY HKC LOG PSK ?
A. TWO ✓
B. TER
C. TWE
D. TOW
Correct Answer: A
Q.47 Among 5 poles, B, E, G, O and P, each having a different height, which pole is the shortest? (I) P is taller than only two poles. O is taller than P but shorter than G. (II) B is taller than E.
A. Both statements I and II together are NOT sufficient to answer the question
B. Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I is not
C. Both statements I and II together (and not statement I alone or statement II alone) are sufficient to answer the question ✓
D. Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II is not
Correct Answer: C
Q.48 What should come in place of '?' in the given series? 32 16 48 24 72 ?
A. 36 ✓
B. 46
C. 16
D. 22
Correct Answer: A
Q.49 What will come in the place of '?' in the following equation, if '+' and '–' are interchanged and '÷' and '×' are interchanged? 312 + 6 × 5 – 32 ÷ 300 = ?
A. 180
B. 179
C. 192 ✓
D. 186
Correct Answer: C
Q.50 If '+' means '–', '–' means '÷', '×' means '+', '÷' means '×', then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 18 + 8 – 4 ÷ 2 × 2 = ?
A. 12
B. 16
C. 10
D. 14 ✓
Correct Answer: D
Section 3: General Science (Q.51 – Q.90)
Q.51 Why does magnesium form an Mg²⁺ ion rather than Mg⁺ during ionic bond formation?
A. Magnesium does not change its electron configuration during bonding.
B. Magnesium loses two electrons to achieve the stable electron configuration of a noble gas. ✓
C. Magnesium shares two electrons with another atom to become stable.
D. Magnesium gains one electron to balance its charge.
Correct Answer: B
Q.52 Which of the following practices should be avoided to maintain maternal health during pregnancy?
A. Getting enough sleep
B. Taking prescribed supplements
C. Consuming alcohol regularly ✓
D. Attending antenatal classes
Correct Answer: C
Q.53 How would the water cycle be affected if the condensation process in the atmosphere slowed down significantly?
A. Groundwater infiltration would increase rapidly
B. Cloud formation would decrease, reducing precipitation ✓
C. Evaporation from oceans would increase sharply
D. Clouds would form more frequently, increasing precipitation
Correct Answer: B
Q.54 What happens to the magnetic field at the center of a circular coil when the number of turns is increased to n, assuming the current remains the same?
A. The field becomes n² times stronger
B. The field stays the same
C. The field becomes n times larger ✓
D. The field becomes weaker
Correct Answer: C
Q.55 In designing a shaving mirror using a concave mirror, where should the face be placed to see a clear, upright, and larger image?
A. between the pole and the focus ✓
B. beyond the center of curvature
C. at the focus
D. at the center of curvature
Correct Answer: A
Q.56 A scientist discovers a unicellular organism that lives in extreme salt and has a rigid layer around its cell membrane. Which feature would most strongly show this layer is a plant-like cell wall?
A. The outer layer is made up of chitin molecules
B. The outer layer is composed mainly of cellulose fibers ✓
C. The outer layer shows a double lipid bilayer arrangement
D. The outer layer contains peptidoglycan structures
Correct Answer: B
Q.57 A student on a camping trip notices that the Sun is visible to him about 2 minutes after the actual sunset. Which concept best explains this observation?
A. Scattering of sunlight causes the delayed sunset.
B. The atmospheric refraction causes the delayed sunset. ✓
C. The apparent shape of the Sun causes the delayed sunset.
D. The Moon's reflection causes the delayed sunset.
Correct Answer: B
Q.58 The biological classification hierarchy is often compared to a house address system as:
A. Scientists use classification mainly for memorizing organism names.
B. Classification is used for finding locations, not for identifying organisms.
C. Both allow for accurate and specific identification within a large set. ✓
D. Classification uses numbers and letters just like house addresses.
Correct Answer: C
Q.59 Species is considered a more specific taxonomic category than a family as:
A. A species is a broader category than a family.
B. Organisms in a species are more similar than those in a family. ✓
C. A family contains organisms of only one species.
D. A species contains many families of organisms.
Correct Answer: B
Q.60 In a solar-powered calculator, which sequence best represents the conversion of energy forms from sunlight to calculation display?
A. Light energy to electrical energy to mechanical energy ✓
B. Thermal energy to sound energy to light energy
C. Chemical energy to mechanical energy to electrical energy
D. Electrical energy to thermal energy to light energy
Correct Answer: A
Q.61 Which of the following is an example of a physical change?
A. Rusting of iron
B. Melting of ice ✓
C. Burning of paper
D. Cooking of rice
Correct Answer: B
Q.62 Which method is best used to separate a mixture of salt and ammonium chloride?
A. Evaporation
B. Sublimation ✓
C. Filtration
D. Distillation
Correct Answer: B
Q.63 Which particle does NOT contribute significantly to the atomic mass of an atom?
A. Neutron
B. Proton
C. Electron ✓
D. Proton, Neutron and electron contribute equally
Correct Answer: C
Q.64 A block moving on a horizontal surface experiences a force of friction of 15 N in the opposite direction. If the displacement of the block is 5 m, how much work is done by the force of friction?
A. + 7.5 J
B. – 75 J ✓
C. – 7.5 J
D. + 75 J
Correct Answer: B
Q.65 Which of the following best describes what happens when ethanol undergoes complete combustion in air?
A. It forms carbon dioxide only.
B. It forms carbon monoxide and water only.
C. It forms carbon and water only.
D. It forms carbon dioxide and water only. ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.66 A light ray passes from air into glass with an angle of incidence of 45 degrees and an angle of refraction of 30 degrees. What is the closest approximate value of refractive index of glass relative to air, rounded to two decimal places?
A. 1.15
B. 0.68
C. 1.41 ✓
D. 1.25
Correct Answer: C
Q.67 In designing an experiment to verify Ohm's Law, a student uses a resistor, an ammeter, and a voltmeter. Which step is most essential to ensure that the data support Ohm's Law for the resistor?
A. Vary the applied voltage and record the resulting current at each step ✓
B. Measure only the power dissipated in the resistor at a fixed voltage
C. Replace the resistor with different materials during measurement
D. Keep the voltage constant while measuring the current
Correct Answer: A
Q.68 Metals like sodium and aluminium, placed at the top of the activity series, are extracted by:
A. They occur in native form without extraction
B. Roasting followed by reduction with carbon monoxide
C. Heating their oxides with carbon
D. Electrolytic reduction of molten salts ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.69 Which pair of atoms is an example of isotopes?
A. An atom with 12 protons and 12 neutrons, and one with 11 protons and 13 neutrons.
B. An atom with 11 protons and 12 neutrons, and one with 11 protons and 12 neutrons.
C. An atom with 11 protons and 12 neutrons, and one with 11 protons and 13 neutrons. ✓
D. An atom with 11 protons and 12 neutrons, and one with 12 protons and 12 neutrons.
Correct Answer: C
Q.70 ______ vascular tissue in plants contains specialised cells called sieve tube elements, and ______ is their primary function.
A. Xylem; transport of water and minerals
B. Phloem; transport of food through translocation ✓
C. Phloem; transport of oxygen to leaves
D. Xylem; transport of organic nutrients
Correct Answer: B
Q.71 Which of the following describes the correct way to write a scientific name by hand using binomial nomenclature?
A. Write both genus and species names in capital letters
B. Write both names in lowercase letters
C. Underline the genus and species names separately ✓
D. Italicize both genus and species names together
Correct Answer: C
Q.72 A farmer notices that a cereal crop produces very small, light pollen grains in large numbers, and its flowers have long, feathery stigmas. Which of the following is/are the most likely pollinating agent(s)?
A. Butterflies
B. Wind ✓
C. Birds
D. Water
Correct Answer: B
Q.73 A bus moves with a constant speed, represented by a straight line on a distance-time graph that rises from 0 m at 0 s to 90 m at 15 s. What is the speed of the bus?
A. 9 m/s
B. 4 m/s
C. 12 m/s
D. 6 m/s ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.74 A student observes the pattern formed by iron filings around a straight current-carrying conductor. The arrangement of filings demonstrates a property of magnetic fields. Which feature is illustrated by their pattern?
A. Radial lines from the wire
B. Circular symmetry of lines around the conductor ✓
C. Parallel lines along the wire
D. Random clusters at the ends
Correct Answer: B
Q.75 The process of movement of food through phloem is called ______.
A. Translocation ✓
B. Transpiration
C. Diffusion
D. Absorption
Correct Answer: A
Q.76 If the acceleration of an object doubles while the mass of the object remains constant, what happens to the force required?
A. Force quadruples
B. Force remains same
C. Force doubles ✓
D. Force halves
Correct Answer: C
Q.77 The atomic number of an element 'X' is 12, the element will show a valency of ______:
A. –6
B. +6
C. +2 ✓
D. –2
Correct Answer: C
Q.78 A wildlife photographer uses a camera with a convex lens to capture an image of a rare bird perched on a branch. The bird is positioned further from the lens than twice its focal length, but the photographer wants the resulting image to be the same size as the real bird. Which lens adjustment would most effectively allow the photographer to achieve this goal, based on ray diagram principles?
A. Flip the lens and leave the bird at its original position
B. Move the lens farther so the bird is beyond twice the focal length
C. Move the lens closer so that the bird is between the focal length and twice the focal length
D. Move the lens so the bird is exactly at twice the focal length from the lens ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.79 Which of the following is an example of a compound with a ring structure?
A. Cyclohexane ✓
B. Butane
C. Propane
D. Methane
Correct Answer: A
Q.80 Which of the following is an effective method to prevent corrosion?
A. By adding strong acids to the metal surface
B. By exposing the metal to high temperatures only
C. By dissolving the metal in water
D. By methods like galvanising or painting the metal surface ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.81 Which process allows animals to obtain the nitrogen necessary for building proteins in their bodies?
A. Converting atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia inside their cells
B. Drinking water alone is sufficient for protein synthesis
C. Consuming plant or animal matter containing nitrogen compounds ✓
D. Directly absorbing nitrogen gas from the atmosphere
Correct Answer: C
Q.82 In a neutralisation reaction, the products formed are:
A. Acid and base
B. Salt and water ✓
C. Acid and salt
D. Base and water
Correct Answer: B
Q.83 Which of the following statements explains the way biological magnification impacts organisms at higher trophic levels in a food chain?
A. Energy is lost as heat, reducing toxin concentration at higher levels.
B. The amount of toxic substances decreases at each trophic level.
C. Toxic substances become more concentrated as they move up the food chain. ✓
D. Toxic substances break down faster at higher trophic levels.
Correct Answer: C
Q.84 Which feature is necessary for a wave to be classified as longitudinal?
A. Oscillation of particles is in the same direction as wave travel ✓
B. Oscillation of particles is in random directions
C. Oscillation of particles is in circular paths
D. Oscillation of particles is at right angles to wave direction
Correct Answer: A
Q.85 Why does incomplete combustion of hydrocarbons reduce energy efficiency?
A. Less energy is released per mole of fuel ✓
B. Only water is produced as product
C. More carbon dioxide is formed
D. More energy is released per mole of fuel
Correct Answer: A
Q.86 What does the amplitude of a sound wave primarily affect when heard by a human?
A. Quality of the sound
B. Pitch of the sound
C. Loudness of the sound ✓
D. Timbre of the sound
Correct Answer: C
Q.87 Which of the following combinations best describes the structure and function of muscular tissue in animals?
A. Muscular tissue is made of elongated cells and helps in movement of body parts ✓
B. Muscular tissue is made of branched cells and helps in transmitting signals
C. Muscular tissue is made of round cells and helps in storing fat
D. Muscular tissue is made of dense fibers and helps in connecting bones
Correct Answer: A
Q.88 Which method is most suitable for obtaining pure crystals of copper sulfate from its solution?
A. Crystallization ✓
B. Distillation
C. Filtration
D. Sublimation
Correct Answer: A
Q.89 Which of the following nutrients is strictly required by the thyroid gland to synthesize the hormone thyroxine?
A. Sodium
B. Iron
C. Iodine ✓
D. Calcium
Correct Answer: C
Q.90 While analyzing the dispersion of white light through a glass prism, a student wonders why the colors appear in a specific order from top to bottom on the screen. What is the main reason for this observed sequence?
A. The colors arrange naturally due to their energy levels
B. The glass prism only allows specific colors to pass through
C. Different wavelengths of light bend at different angles due to varying refractive indices ✓
D. All colors are deviated by the same angle but emerge in sequence due to glass thickness
Correct Answer: C
Section 4: General Awareness (Q.91 – Q.100)
Q.91 Operation HimSetu, conducted by the Indian Army in April 2026, was launched to rescue stranded civilians in which state?
A. Arunachal Pradesh
B. Uttarakhand
C. Himachal Pradesh
D. Sikkim ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.92 Which of the following locations hosted the India–Egypt Joint Special Forces Exercise, Cyclone - IV, in 2026?
A. Abu Dhabi, UAE
B. Anshas, Egypt ✓
C. Jaisalmer, India
D. Pokhran, India
Correct Answer: B
Q.93 Which of the following Ministries launched the 100-day Bal Vivah Mukt Bharat Campaign in December 2025?
A. Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
B. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
C. Ministry of Home Affairs
D. Ministry of Women and Child Development ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.94 What action did the Monetary Policy Committee take regarding the repo rate in June 2026?
A. They reduced the repo rate by 0.25%
B. They increased the repo rate to 5.5%
C. They kept the repo rate unchanged at 5.25% ✓
D. They set the repo rate at 6.0%
Correct Answer: C
Q.95 In June 2026, Defence Minister Rajnath Singh approved a revision in the Delegation of Financial Powers for the Defence Services primarily to achieve which of the following objectives?
A. Faster procurement and greater operational efficiency in the Armed Forces ✓
B. Introduction of a common budget for the three Armed Services
C. Expansion of overseas defence manufacturing partnerships
D. Centralisation of all procurement decisions at the Ministry of Defence
Correct Answer: A
Q.96 At the inaugural Indian Athletics Awards 2026 by the Athletic Federation of India, Shahnawaz Khan and Pooja were recognised in which category?
A. Best Male and Female Athletes of the Year
B. Rising Stars of Indian Athletics
C. Best Junior Male and Female Athletes
D. Best Emerging Male and Female Athletes ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.97 In May 2026, which organisation signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Reserve Bank Innovation Hub (RBIH) to strengthen collaboration in combating cyber-enabled financial frauds and curbing mule accounts?
A. Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) ✓
B. National Critical Information Infrastructure Protection Centre (NCIIPC)
C. Cyber Swachhta Kendra (CSK)
D. Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In)
Correct Answer: A
Q.98 Who wrote the memoir 'The Second Orbit: Belief of a Man… Dreams of 1.4 Billion Hearts', which was released by Air Chief Marshal Amar Preet Singh in June 2026?
A. Shubhanshu Shukla ✓
B. Angad Pratap
C. Rakesh Sharma
D. Amar Preet Singh
Correct Answer: A
Q.99 In September 2025, PM Modi launched Mukhyamantri Mahila Rojgar Yojana for which of the following states to transfer Rs 7,500 crore to 75 lakh women?
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Rajasthan
C. Bihar ✓
D. Uttar Pradesh
Correct Answer: C
Q.100 Which initiative of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj secured the Gold Award at the National Awards for e-Governance (NAeG) 2026 under the category "Digital Transformation by Use of Data Analytics in Digital Platforms by Central Ministries/States/UTs"?
A. AuditOnline Platform
B. Panchayat Advancement Index ✓
C. SVAMITVA Scheme
D. e-GramSwaraj Portal
Correct Answer: B
— End of Question Paper with Answer Key —
RRB Technician Grade III Examination | CEN 02/2026 ! Free PDF Download link
RRB Technician 2026 Grade 3 Railway Previous Year Question Paper and Answer Key Free PDF Download English October 7
RRB Railway Other important Question Paper:
RRB Technician 2026 Grade 3 Railway Previous Year Question Paper and Answer Key Free PDF Download English
RRB Railway CBT 1 and CBT 2 Previous Year Solved question Paper Free PDF Download link
RRB ALP 2018 CBT 2 Physics and Mathematics Railway Previous Year Question Paper and Answer Key Free PDF Download
