SSC Previoius Year Solved Question Paper POLITY English (Amendments) 1995-2025 Free PDF Download
UPSC Prelims Polity – Historical Background & Basic Concepts
UPSC Prelims Polity – Historical Background & Basic Concepts
Questions + Options + Answers | No Explanations
Q.1 Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr Rajendra Prasad
took over? [2024]
(a) C. Rajagopalachari (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) T.T. Krishnamachari (d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Answer: (d)
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Q.2 By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the
Governor General of India? [2023]
(a) The Regulating Act (b) The Pitt’s India Act
(c) The Charter Act of 1793 (d) The Charter Act of 1833
Polity
Answer: (d)
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Q.3 In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided
into “Reserved” and “Transferred” subjects. Which of the following were treated as
“Reserved” subjects? (2022)
1. Administration of Justice
2. Local self-Government
3. Land Revenue
4. Police
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: (c)
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Q.4 The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is
based on the scheme provided in the: (2012)
(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909 (b) Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935 (d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
Answer: (c)
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Q.5 Who among the following was the chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the
Constituent Assembly? (2005)
(a) B.R. Ambedkar (b) J. B. Kripalani
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
Answer: (c)
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Q.6 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer: (2003)
List-I (Items in the Indian Constitution) List-II (Country from which it was derived)
A. Directive Principles of State Policy 1. Australia
B. Fundamental Right 2. Canada
C. Concurrent List in Union-State
Relations
3. Ireland
D. India as a Union of States with greater
powers to the Union
4. United Kingdom
5. United States of America
Codes:
(a) A-5, B-4, C-1, D-2 (b) A-3, B-5, C-2, D-1
(c) A-5, B-4, C-2, D-1 (d) A-3, B-5, C-1, D-2
Answer: (d)
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Q.7 In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean? [2023]
(a) The principle of natural justice
(b) The procedure established by law
(c) Fair application of law
(d) Equality before law
Answer: (a)
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Q.8 Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’
of a country ? [2023]
(a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
(b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
(c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
(d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security.
Answer: (c)
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Q.9 Which one of the following best defines the term 'State? (2021)
(a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of
external control and possessing an organised government
(b) A politically organised people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to
govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard
their means of sustenance
(c) A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time
with their own culture, tradition and government
(d) A society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an
executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary
Answer: (a)
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Q.10 Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal
democracy? (2021)
(a) A committed judiciary
(b) Centralization of powers
(c) Elected government
(d) Separation of powers
Answer: (d)
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Q.11 What is the position of the Right to Property in India? (2021)
(a) Legal right available to citizens only
(b) Legal right available to any person
(c) Fundamental Right available to citizens only
(d) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right
Answer: (b)
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Q.12 One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is (2020)
(a) the final goal of a stateless society
(b) class struggle
(c) abolition of private property
(d) economic determinism
Answer: (a)
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Q.13 In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for
bureaucracy? (2020)
(a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy
(b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism
(c) An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth
(d) An Agency for the implementation of public policy
Answer: (d)
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Q.14 In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its
social capital? (2019)
(a) The proportion of literates in the population
(b) The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines
(c) The size of population in the working age group
(d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society
Answer: (d)
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Q.15 Karl Marx explained the process of class struggle with the help of which one of the
following theories ? [2011]
(a) Empirical liberalism
(b) Existentialism
(c) Darwin's theory of evolution
(d) Dialectical materialism
Answer: (d)
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Q.16 With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following : [2010]
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Directive Principles of the State Policy
Which of the above provisions of the Constitution of India is/are fulfilled by the National
Social Assistance Programme launched by the government of India?
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
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Q.17 Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The word minority is not defined in the Constitution of India.
Reason (R): The Minorities Commission is not a constitutional body.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct? [1996]
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer: (b)
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Q.18 What is not explicitly stated in the Constitution of India but followed as a convention?
(1995)
(a) The Finance Minister is to be a Member of the Lower House
(b) The Prime Minister has to resign if he loses the majority in the Lower House.
(c) All sections of India are to be represented in the Councils of Ministers.
(d) If both the President and the Vice-President demit office simultaneously before the
end of the tenure, the Speaker of the Lower House of the Parliament will officiate as
the President.
Solution : (b)
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Q.19 If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which
one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022)
(a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
(b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
(c) This would convert that area into the Union Territory.
(d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.
Answer: (a)
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Q.20 Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is
federal in character? (2021)
(a) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded.
(b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.
(c) The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties.
(d) The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.
Answer: (a)
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Q.21 Consider the following statements: (2020)
1. The Constitution of India defines its basic structure in terms of federalism,
secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for 'Judicial review' to safeguard the citizens'
liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
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Q.22 Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private
parties for mining be declared null and void? (2019)
(a) Third Schedule (b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Ninth Schedule (d) Twelfth Schedule
Answer: (b)
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Q.23 The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime
ministership of: (2019)
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(c) Indira Gandhi (d) Morarji Desai
Answer: (a)
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Q.24 Right to vote and to be elected in India is a (2017)
(a) Fundamental Right (b) Natural Right
(c) Constitutional Right (d) Legal Right
Answer: (c)
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Q.25 Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying
the Cabinet form of Government : (2017)
(a) An arrangement for minimising criticism against the Government whose
responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose
responsibilities are increasing day by day.
(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of
the Government to the people.
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold
over the people is in a state of decline.
Solution : (c)
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Q.26 Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism? (2017)
(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
(c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
Answer: (d)
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Q.27 The main advantage of the parliamentary form of governments is that: (2017)
(a) the executive and legislature work independently.
(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
(c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
(d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.
Answer: (c)
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Q.28 The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are
made in order to: (2015)
(a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
(b) determine the boundaries between States
(c) determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
(d) protect the interests of all the border States
Answer: (a)
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Q.29 Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions
regarding anti-defection? (2014)
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
Answer: (d)
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Q.30 In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are, implied institutionally in the
parliamentary government ? (2013)
1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
3. The Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
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Q.31 Consider the following statements: (2005)
1. The Constitution of India has 20 parts.
2. There are 390 Articles in the Constitution of India in all.
3. Ninth, Tenth, Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules were added to the Constitution of India
by the Constitution (Amendment) Acts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
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Q.32 What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950 ? (2021)
(a) A democratic Republic
(b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
(c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
(d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
Answer: (b)
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Q.33 The Preamble to the Constitution of India, is: (2020)
(a) part of the Constitution but has no legal effect
(b) not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either
(c) a part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
(d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts
Answer: (d)
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Q.34 In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most
appropriate definition of liberty? (2019)
(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
(b) Absence of restraint
(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
Answer: (d)
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Q.35 Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and
liberty? (2018)
(a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
(b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
(c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
(d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
Answer: (b)
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Q.36 Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution
of India? (2017)
(a) Liberty of thought
(b) Economic liberty
(c) Liberty of expression
(d) Liberty of belief
Answer: (b)
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Q.37 The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
(2017)
(a) The Preamble
(b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) The Fundamental Duties
Answer: (a)
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Q.38 ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitutional has been provided
in : (2013)
(a) the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
(b) the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Rights and the Directive Principles of State
Policy
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
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Q.39 In the following quotation, (1997)
“WE THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly
resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign
Socialist Secular Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens:
JUSTICE, social, economic and political;
LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief faith and worship;
EQUALITY of status and of opportunity: and to
promote among them all; FRATERNITY assuring
the dignity of the individual and the unity and the integrity of the Nation.
In our Constituent Assembly this ‘X’ do hereby
adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution.”
‘X’ stands for:
(a) twenty-sixth day of January, 1950
(b) twenty-sixth day of November, 1949
(c) twenty-sixth day of January, 1949
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
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Q.40 With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021)
1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any
circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
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Q.41 A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to : [2024]
(a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.
(b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.
(c) the lower court prohibiting the continuation of proceedings in a case.
(d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.
Solutions: (c)
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Q.42 Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India has the Supreme Court of
India placed the Right to Privacy? [2024]
(a) Article 15 (b) Article 16
(c) Article 19 (d) Article 21
Ans: (d)
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Q.43 With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following
statements: (2022)
1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a
public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government
Company.
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of
Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
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Q.44 ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India? (2021)
(a) Article 15 (b) Article 19
(c) Article 21 (d) Article 29
Answer: (c)
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Q.45 A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and
uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates one of the
following Articles of the Constitution of India? (2021)
(a) Article 14 (b) Article 28
(c) Article 32 (d) Article 44
Answer: (a)
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Q.46 Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporate protection
against untouchability as a form of discrimination? (2020)
(a) Right against Exploitation (b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies (d) Right to Equality
Solution : (d)
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Q.47 Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of
India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human
Rights (1948)? (2020)
1. Preamble
2. Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
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Q.48 Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of
one’s choice ? (2019)
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 21
(c) Article 25
(d) Article 29
Answer:( b)
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Q.49 Consider the following statements : [2018]
1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in
a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down
by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a
Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of
Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State
Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
Answer: (b)
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Q.50 Consider the following statements: (2018)
1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the
Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court
and no judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
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Q.51 Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the "Rule of Law"? (2018)
1. Limitation of Powers
2. Equality before law
3. People's responsibility to the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (c)
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Q.52 Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which
of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above
statement? (2018)
(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution
(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV
(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution
Answer: (c)
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Q.53 Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution
of India? (2017)
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (c)
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Q.54 In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between
Rights and Duties? (2017)
(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the
citizen.
(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.
Answer: (a)
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Q.55 One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of: (2017)
(a) Privileges
(b) Restraints
(c) Competition
(d) Ideology
Answer: (a)
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Q.56 Which one of the following statements is correct? (2017)
(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.
(b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.
(c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.
Answer: (c)
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Q.57 In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority, what
special advantages is it entitled to? (2011)
1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community
to Lok Sabha.
3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Solutions:(c)
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Q.58 Consider the following : [2011]
1. Right to education
2. Right to equal access to public service
3. Right to food
Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under "Universal Declaration of
Human Rights" ?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
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Q.59 With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child, consider the
following:(2010)
1. The Rights of Development
2. The Right to Expression
3. The Right to Recreation
Which of the above is/are the Rights of the child ?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
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Q.60 Consider the following statements: (2005)
1. Article 301 pertains to the Right to Property.
2. Right to Property is a legal right but not a Fundamental Right.
3. Article 300 A was inserted in the Constitution of India by the Congress Government
at the Centre by the 44th Constitutional Amendment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 2 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution : (a)
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Q.61 Match List I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List II (Provision) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the lists:(2004)
List-I List II
A. Article 14 1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on
grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex place of birth or
any of term.
B. Article 15 2. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the
law or the equal protection of laws within the territory of
India.
C. Article 16 3. ‘Untouchability’ is abolished and its practice in any form is
forbidden.
D. Article 17 4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in
matters relating to employment or appointment to any
office under the State.
Codes:
(a) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 (b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3 (d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
Answer: (c)
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Q.62 Which Article of the Constitution of India says, ‘No child below the age of fourteen years
shall the employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous
employment’ ?(2004)
(a) Article 24 (b) Article 45
(c) Article 330 (d) Article 368
Answer: (a)
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Q.63 Match List-I (Article of Indian Constitution) with List -II (Provisions) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the list:(2002)
List-I List -II (Provisions)
(Article of Indian Constitution)
A. Article 16 (2) 1. No person shall be deprived of his property save by the
authority of law
B. Article 29 (2) 2. No person can be discriminated against in the matter of public
appointment on the ground of race, religious or caste
C. Article 30 (I) 3. All minorities whether based on religion or language shall have
to establish and administer educational institutions of their
choice
D. Article 31 (I) 4. No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational
institution maintained by the State, or receiving State aid, on
grounds of religion, race, caste, language or any of them
Codes :
(a) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
(b) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(c) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(d) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
Answer: (a)
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Q.64 In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Equality is granted by five Articles. They are: (2002)
(a) Article 16 to Article 20
(b) Article 15 to Article 19
(c) Article 14 to Article 18
(d) Article 13 to Article 17
Answer: (c)
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Q.65 Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the heart and
soul of the Constitution?(2002)
(a) Right to Freedom of Religion
(b) Right to Property
(c) Right to Equality
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Answer: (d)
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Q.66 The Constitution of India recognises: (1999)
(a) only religious minorities
(b) only linguistic minorities
(c) religious and linguistic minorities
(d) religious, linguistic and ethnic minorities
Answer: (c)
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Q.67 A British citizen staying in India cannot claim the right to: (1999)
(a) Freedom of trade and profession
(b) Equality before the Law
(c) Protection of life and personal liberty
(d) Freedom of religion
Answer: (a)
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Q.68 Of the four forms of political protests mentioned below, which one is derived from the
name of the person who used it as a political weapon for the first time?(1996)
(a) Boycott (b) Gherao
(c) Bandh (d) Hartal
Answer: (a)
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Q.69 Consider the following statements:(1996)
No one can be compelled to sing the National Anthem since:
1. it will be violative of the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression
2. it will be violative of the Right to the Freedom of Conscience and practise and
propagation of religion
3. there is no legal provision obliging anyone to sing the National Anthem
(a) 1 and 3 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(d) none is correct
Answer: (c)
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Q.70 Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion etc. (Article 15 of the Constitution of
India) is a Fundamental Rights classifiable under:(1995)
(a) the Right to Freedom of Religion
(b) the Right against Exploitation
(c) the Cultural and Educational Rights
(d) the Right to Equality
Answer: (d)
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Q.71 Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates (2021)
(a) the Right to Equality
(b) the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) the Right to Freedom
(d) the Concept of Welfare
Answer: (b)
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Q.72 Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of a Welfare State? (2020)
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Preamble
(d) Seventh Schedule
Answer: (a)
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Q.73 With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of
the following statements is/are correct? (2020)
1. They shall be enforceable by courts.
2. They shall not be enforceable by any court
3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Solution : (d)
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Q.74 In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by [2020]
(a) the Preamble of the Constitution
(b) a Directive Principle of State Policy
(c) the Seventh Schedule
(d) the conventional practice
Answer: (b)
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Q.75 In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following
types of citizens? (2020)
1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs. 1,00,000.
2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs. 2,00,000.
3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs.
3,00,000.
4. All Senior Citizens
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 4 only
Solution : (a)
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Q.76 Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy
by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution ? (2017)
(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries
(c) Right to work, education and public assistance
(d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers
Solution : (b)
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Q.77 Consider the following statements :
With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy
constitute limitations upon (2017)
1. legislative function.
2. executive function.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : (d)
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Q.78 Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy: (2015)
1. The Principles spell out of the socio-economic democracy in the country.
2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
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Q.79 The ideal of 'Welfare State' in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its (2015)
(a) Preamble (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights (d) Seventh Schedule
Answer: (b)
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Q.80 In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in
the (2014)
(a) Preamble to the constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Ninth Schedule
Answer: (b)
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Q.81 According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the
governance of the country? (2013)
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
Answer: (c)
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Q.82 Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as
enshrined in the Constitution of India: (2012)
1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code.
2. Organizing village Panchayats.
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas.
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities.
Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive
Principles of State Policy?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b)
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Q.83 Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on
Education? (2012)
1. Directive Principles of State Policy.
2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies.
3. Fifth Schedule
4. Sixth Schedule
5. Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: (c)
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Q.84 Which of the following is/are included in the Directive Principles of the State Policy ?
(2008)
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Prohibition of consumption except for medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks and
of other drugs which are injurious to health
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code :
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : (b)
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Q.85 Consider the following statements:(2006)
1. Free and compulsory education to the children of 6-14 years age-group by the State
by the seventy-sixth Amendment to the Constitution of India.
2. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan seeks to provide computer education even in rural areas.
3. Education was included in the Concurrent List by the Forty-second Amendment, 1976
to the Constitution of India’.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
Solution : (c)
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Q.86 Consider the following statements: (2006)
1. There is no provision in the Constitution of India to encourage equal pay for equal
work for both men and women.
2. The Constitution of India does not define backward classes.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) I only (b) 2 only
(c) Both I and 2 (d) Neither I nor 2
Answer: (b)
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Q.87 The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principles of the State Policy in the Indian
Constitution is to establish:(2002)
(a) political democracy
(b) social democracy
(c) Gandhian democracy
(d) social and economic democracy
Answer: (d)
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Q.88 Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of State Policy deals with the
promotion of international peace and security? (2002)
(a) 51 (b) 48 A
(c) 43 A (d) 41
Answer: (a)
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Q.89 Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian
citizen? (2017)
1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
2. They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : (d)
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Q.90 "To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India" is a provision made in
the: (2015)
(a) Preamble of the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Fundamental Duties
Answer: (d)
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Q.91 Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the
Indian Constitution? (2012)
1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice.
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry.
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (c)
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Q.92 Under the constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty ?
(2011)
(a) To vote in public elections
(b) To develop the scientific temper
(c) To safeguard public property
(d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals
Answer: (a)
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Q.93 As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of
the Constitution by way of: [2024]
1. Addition 2. Variation 3. Repeal
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
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Q.94 In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be
enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights ? [2023]
(a) 1st Amendment (b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment (d) 86th Amendment
Solution : (a)
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Q.95 Consider the following statements: (2022)
1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President
of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is
obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
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Q.96 Consider the following statements: (2019)
1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the
election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of
India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
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Q.97 With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: (2019)
1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be
constitutionally invalid.
2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the
Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
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Q.98 Consider the following statements: (2013)
1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a
bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the
Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the
States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
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Q.99 Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments states that the total number of
Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed fifteen
percent of the total number of members of the House of the People? (2009)
(a) 90th (b) 91st
(c) 92 nd (d) 93 rd
Answer: (b)
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Q.100 Under which one of the following Constitution Amendment Acts, four languages were
added to the list of languages under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India,
thereby raising their number to 22 ? (2008)
(a) Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act
(b) Constitution (Ninety-first Amendment) Act
(c) Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Act
(d) Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act
Answer: (c)
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Q.101 Which of the following Constitution Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Councils of
Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15 per cent of the total number of
members in the Lok Sabha and the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly
of that State, respectively ? (2007)
(a) 91st
(b) 93rd
(c) 95th
(d) 97th
Answer: (a)
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Q.102 What does the 104th Constitution Amendment Bill relate to ? (2006)
(a) Abolition of Legislative Councils in certain states.
(b) Introduction of dual citizenship for persons of Indian origin living outside India.
(c) Providing quota to socially and educationally backward classes in private
educational institutions.
(d) Providing quota for religious minorities in the services under the central Government.
Answer: (c)
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Q.103The Constitution (98th Amendment) Act is related to:(2005)
(a) empowering the centre to levy and appropriate service tax
(b) the Constitution of the National Judicial Commission
(c) readjustment of electoral constituencies on the basis of the population census 2001
(d) the demarcation of new boundaries between States.
Answer: (b)
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Q.104Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of
Members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the States ? (2003)
(a) 6th and 22nd (b) 13th and 38th
(c) 7th and 31st (d) 11th and 42nd
Answer: (c)
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Q.105Which one of the following amendments to the Indian Constitution empowers the
President to send back any matter for reconsideration by the Council of Ministers ? (2002)
(a) 39th (b) 40th
(c) 42nd (d) 44th
Answer: (d)
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Q.106 The 93rd Constitution Amendment Bill deals with the : (2002)
(a) continuation of reservation for backward classes in government employment
(b) free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years
(c) reservation of 30 percent posts for women in government recruitments
(d) allocation of more number of parliamentary seats for recently created States
Solution : (b)
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Q.107 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:(2001)
List I (Amendments to the Constitution) List-II
A. The Constitution (Sixty-ninth
Amendment) Act, 1991
1. Establishment of state level Rent Tribunals
B. The Constitution (Seventy-fifth
Amendment) Act, 1994
2. No reservations for Scheduled Castes in
Panchayats in Arunachal Pradesh
C. The Constitution (Eightieth
Amendment) Act, 2000
3. Constitution of Panchayats in Villages or at
other local level
D. The Constitution (Eighty-third
Amendment) Act, 2000
4. Accepting the recommendations of the
Tenth Finance Commission
5. According the status of National Capital
Territory to Delhi
(a) A-5, B-1, C-4, D-2
(b) A-1, B-5, C-3, D-4
(c) A-5, B-1, C-3, D-4
(d) A-1, B-5, C-4, D-2
Answer: (a)
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Q.108The 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, 1992 refers to the: (2000)
(a) generation of gainful employment for the unemployed and the under employed
men and women in rural areas.
(b) generation of employment for the able bodied adults who are in need and desirous
of work during the lean agricultural season.
(c) laying the foundation for strong and vibrant Panchayati Raj institutions in the
country.
(d) guarantee of right to life, liberty and security of person, equality before law and
equal protection without discrimination.
Answer: (c)
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Q.109Which of the following are matters on which a constitutional amendment is possible only
with the ratification of the legislature of not less than one-half of the states? (1995)
1. Election of the President
2. Representation of states in Parliament
3. Any of the Lists in the 7th Schedule
4. Abolition of the Legislative Council of a State
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a)
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Q.110 If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the
Constitution of a particular State, then (2018)
(a) the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.
(b) the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the
authority of the Parliament.
(c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
(d) the President can make laws relating to that State.
Answer: (b)
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Q.111 Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the
President’s rule in a State? (2017)
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
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Q.112 Consider the following statements in respect of financial emergency under Article 360 of
the Constitution of India:(2007)
1. A proclamation of financial emergency issued shall cease to operate at the
expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been
approved by the resolutions of both Houses of Parliament.
2. If any proclamation of financial emergency is in operation, it is competent for the
President of India to issue directions for the reduction of salaries and allowances of
all or any class of persons serving in connection with the affairs of the Union but
excluding the Judges of Supreme Court and the High Courts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
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Q.113 Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides that ‘It shall be the
duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal
disturbance’? (2003)
(a) Article 215
(b) Article 275
(c) Article 325
(d) Article 355
Answer: (d)
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Q.114 The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must
come from:(2011)
(a) The President of India (b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Prime Minister of India (d) The Union Finance Minister
Answer: (b)
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Q.115 All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the
conduct of Government business are credited to the: (2011)
(a) Contingency Fund of India (b) Public Account
(c) Consolidated Fund of India (d) Deposits and Advances Fund
Answer: (c)
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Q.116 Constitutional government means : (2021)
(a) a representative government of a nation with federal structure
(b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
(c) a government whose Head enjoys real powers
(d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution
Answer: (d)
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Q.117 We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our
model differ from that model ? (2021)
1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the
power of the Parliament to legislate is limited.
2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the
Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is correct : Indian Parliamentary system is based on constitutional
supremacy, hence power of the Parliament to legislate is limited. Whereas, the British
Model is based on Parliamentary sovereignty. So, as regards the legislation, the British
Parliament is supreme.
Statement 2 is correct: According to the Constitution, Parliament and the state
legislatures in India have the power to make laws within their respective jurisdictions. This
power is not absolute in nature. The Constitution vests in the judiciary, the power to
adjudicate upon the constitutional validity of all laws.
In India, the Supreme Court has judicial review powers and can examine the
constitutionality of parliamentary laws and amendments. Under Article 145(3), Cases
involving substantial constitutional questions can be referred to a Constitution Bench .
This also ensures that Parliament operates within constitutional limits and cannot amend
the Basic Structure (Kesavananda Bharati case, 1973).
In Britain, the scenario is different, here Parliament is supreme, and no court can question
or strike down its laws. Unlike India, there is no concept of judicial review over
parliamentary legislation, making Parliament's decisions final and legally
unchallengeable.
Additional Information:
Difference between INDIAN & BRITISH MODELS
INDIAN MODEL BRITISH MODEL
● Republican system: Head of State
(President) is indirectly elected.
● Monarchical system: Head of State
(King/Queen) is hereditary.
● Constitutional supremacy ● Parliamentary sovereignty
● The PM may be a member of any of
the houses.
● The PM should be a member of the Lower
House.
● A person who is not a member of any
house can be appointed as minister,
but only for six months.
● Usually members of parliament are
appointed as ministers.
● No system of legal responsibility of
ministers. Ministers are not required
to countersign the official acts.
● System of legal responsibility of the
minister. Ministers are required to
countersign the official acts.
● No Shadow Cabinet ● Shadow Cabinet by opposition: to
balance the ruling cabinet and prepare
its members for future ministerial office.
Answer: (c)
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Q.118 A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which : (2020)
(a) all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government
(b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it
(c) the Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them
(d) the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before
completion of a fixed term
Answer: (b)
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Q.119 A constitutional government by definition is a : (2020)
(a) government by legislature
(b) popular government
(c) multi-party government
(d) limited government
Answer: (d)
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Q.120 Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity (2017)
(a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
(b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership.
(c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision.
(d) a band of dedicated party workers.
Answer: (a)
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Q.121 There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the (2015)
(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
(b) Parliament can amend the Constitution
(c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha
Answer: (d)
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Q.122 Consider the following statements: (2014)
A Constitutional Government is one which
1. Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority.
2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual
liberty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
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Q.123 Consider the following statements : (2009)
1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon
the recommendation of the Governor of the concerned State.
2. As provided in Civil Procedure Code, High Courts have original, appellate and
advisory jurisdiction at the State level.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
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Q.124 Consider the following statements:(2009)
1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was set up during the Prime Ministership of Lal
Bahadur Shastri.
2. The Members of CAT are drawn from both judicial and administrative streams.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
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Q.125 With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements : (2009)
1. The number of Ministries at the Centre on 15th August 1947 was 18.
2. The number of Ministries at the Centre at present is 36.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
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Q.126 With reference to the Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct ? (2004)
(a) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of Parliament before it
can be enacted into law.
(b) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under the
appropriation made by the Appropriation Act.
(c) A Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no additional Bill/Act is
required for making changes in the rates of taxes which are already under
operation.
(d) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President.
Answer: (a)
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Q.127 Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India : [2023]
1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative
Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each
MLA of that State.
3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal
Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in
Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.
How many of the above statements are correct ?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four
Solution : (a)
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Q.128 Consider the following statements : [2023]
1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India,
all acts done by him/ her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President
before the date of decision become invalid.
2. Elections for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that
some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take
place.
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time
limits within which he/ she has to declare his/her assent.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (d)
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Q.129 With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements :
[2018]
1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of
MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
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Q.130 Consider the following statements : (2015)
1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex Officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
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Q.131 Consider the following statements: (2014)
1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business
of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said
business.
2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in
the name of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
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Q.132 According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be
laid before the Parliament which of the following? (2012)
1. The Recommendation of the Union Finance Commission.
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee.
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General.
4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (c)
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Q.133 Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President give his asset to the
ordinance on electoral reforms when it was sent back to him by the Union Cabinet without
making any changes (in the year 2002) ?(2003)
(a) Article 121 (b) Article 122
(c) Article 123 (d) Article 124
Answer: (c)
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Q.134 Under which Article of the Indian Constitution did the President make a reference to the
Supreme Court to seek the Court’s opinion on the Constitutional validity of the Election
Commission’s decision on deferring the Gujarat Assembly Elections (in the year 2002) ?
(2003)
(a) Article 142
(b) Article 143
(c) Article 144
(d) Article 145
Answer: (b)
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Q.135 Consider the following statements: (2003)
In the electoral college for Presidential Election in India,
1. the value of the vote of an elected Member of Legislative Assembly equals
2. The value of the vote of an elected Member of Parliament equals to total value of the
votes of all elected MLA’s and total number of elected MP’s
3. There were more than 5000 members in the latest elections.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) Only 3
Answer: (b)
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Q.136 In the Presidential election in India, every elected member of the Legislative Assembly of a
State shall have as many votes as there are multiples of one thousand in the quotient
obtained by dividing the population of the State by the total number of the elected
members of the Assembly. As at present (1997) the expression “population” here means
the population as ascertained by the:(1997)
(a) 1991 Census (b) 1981 Census
(c) 1971 Census (d) 1961 Census
Answer: (c)
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Q.137 Which one of the following is a part of the electoral college for the President but not the
forum for his impeachment ? (1996)
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) State Legislative Councils
(d) State Legislative Assemblies
Answer: (d)
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Q.138 Consider the following statements: (2013)
1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of
that House.
2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting
right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice
President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
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Q.139 Who among the following have held the office of the Vice- President of India ? (2008)
1. Mohammad Hidayatullah
2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
4. Shankar Dayal Sharma
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
Solution : (b)
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Q.140 The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the:(2004)
(a) Lok Sabha alone
(b) Either House of Parliament
(c) Joint Sitting of Parliament
(d) Rajya Sabha alone
Answer: (d)
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Q.141 The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment: (2012)
(a) Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must
become a member of one of the Houses within six months
(b) Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must
become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
(c) Must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament
(d) Must be a member of the Lok Sabha
Answer: (a)
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Q.142 With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements:(2009)
1. The Ministries and Departments of the Government of India are created by the Prime
Minister on the advice of the Cabinet Secretary.
2. Each of the ministries is assigned to a Minister by the President of India on the advice
of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
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Q.143 Assertion (A): The Council of Ministers in the Union of India is collectively responsible both
to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.(2007)
Reason (R) : The Members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be
the Ministers of the Union Government.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) BothA and Raretrue but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer: (d)
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Q.144 Consider the following statements:(2007)
1. Jawaharlal Nehru was in his fourth term as the Prime Minister of India at the time of
his death.
2. Jawaharlal Nehru represented Rae Bareilly constituency as a Member of
Parliament.
3. The first non-Congress Prime Minister of India assumed the office in the year 1977.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
(c) 1 only (d) 1 and 3
Answer: (d)
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Q.145 If the Prime Minister of India belonged to the Upper House of Parliament : (1997)
(a) he will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion
(b) he will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House
(c) he can make statements only in the Upper House
(d) he was to become a member of the Lower House within six months after being
sworn in
Answer: (a)
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Q.146 Which one of the following statements about the duties of the Prime Minister is correct ?
(1996)
(a) Is free to choose his minister only from among members of either House of the
Parliament.
(b) Can choose his cabinet after consulting the President of India.
(c) Has full discretion in the choice of persons who are to serve as ministers in his
cabinet.
(d) Has only limited power in the choice of his cabinet colleagues because of the
discretionary powers vested the President of India.
Answer: (c)
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Q.147 With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements : [2024]
1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister, lays the Annual Financial
Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant be made except on the recommendation
of the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Solution : (b)
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Q.148 With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements : [2024]
While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under
consideration.
1. He/she shall not preside.
2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.
3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
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Q.149 With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements : [2024]
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the
dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon
the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
Solutions: (b)
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Q.150 With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements : [2024]
1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the
Council of Ministers.
2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but
there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India, who, save in
exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
Ans: (c)
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Q.151 Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?
[2024]
1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by
the Lok Sabha.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
Solutions: (c)
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Q.152 Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are
correct? [2024]
1. Initially, it was an ad-hoc Committee.
2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to the unethical
conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
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Q.153 How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India
till December 2023? [2024]
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
Answer: (d)
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Q.154 With reference to the Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the
following statements: [2023]
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or
reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or
reject the Bill; it can only make recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is
no joint sitting for the Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for the
Finance Bill.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b)
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Q.155 With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements :
(2022)
1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of
Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker
of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same powers as of the Speaker when presiding over the
sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy
Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime
Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Statement 1 is correct : The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker.
While on the other hand the date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President.
The election date of the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha is not fixed in the Constitution.
However, according to Rule 8 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok
Sabha,
● The Speaker decides the date of election of the Deputy Speaker.
● The election usually happens after the Speaker's election, but there is no
constitutional or statutory time limit for it.
Statement 2 is incorrect : There is no such mandatory provision that the election of a
candidate, as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, shall be from either the principal opposition
party or the ruling party. It is only by convention that the position of Deputy Speaker is
offered to the opposition party in India.
Statement 3 is correct : In case of the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker
presides over the sessions of the Lok Sabha and conducts the business in the house,
during such time he/she enjoys the same power as the Speaker when presiding over the
sitting of the House.
Statement 4 is incorrect : Regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker, there is no such
parliamentary practice of moving motion by Speaker.
The appointment of the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is not initiated by the Speaker.
Instead, a member of the Lok Sabha moves the motion for the election, which is then put
to vote in the House. While the ruling party historically held this position, in recent
decades, a convention has developed of electing a member from the opposition. There is
no rule or convention requiring the Prime Minister to second the motion, and any member
of the House may do so.
Answer: (a)
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Q.156 Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha ? (2022)
1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency.
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.
3. To impeach the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
Answer: (b)
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Q.157 Consider the following statements : (2022)
1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four rank viz. Cabinet Minister,
Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister,
shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
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Q.158 Consider the following statements : (2021)
1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha
election from three constituencies.
2. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha
constituencies.
3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from
many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the
constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the
constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
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Q.159 With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development
Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct ? (2020)
1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable sets like physical infrastructure for
health, education, etc.
2. A specified portion of each MP fund must benefit SC/ST populations.
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be
carried forward to the next year.
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all work under implementation
every year.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Statement 1 is correct : The objective of the scheme is to enable MPs to recommend works
of developmental nature with emphasis on the creation of durable community assets
based on the locally felt needs to be taken up in their Constituencies.
Statement 2 is correct : M.Ps are to recommend every year, works costing at least 15% of
the MPLADS entitlement for the year for areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste population
and 7.5% for areas inhabited by S.T. population.
Statement 3 is incorrect : The released funds under the MPLAD scheme are non-lapsable
i.e. if the money is not utilised, it gets carried to the next year subject to the fulfillment of
certain criterion.
Statement 4 is correct : The district authority should visit and inspect at least 10% of the
works every year. It is also expected to involve the MPs in such activities.
Answer: (d)
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Q.160 Consider the following statements : (2020)
1. According to the Constitution of India a person who is eligible to vote can be made a
minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of
that State.
2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal
offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified
from contesting an election even after his release from prison.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
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Q.161 Consider the following statements : (2020)
1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such a place as
he/she thinks fit.
2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it
is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a
year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (c)
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Q.162 Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in (2020)
(a) the matter of creating new All India Services
(b) amending the Constitution
(c) the removal of the government
(d) making cut motions
Answer: (b)
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Q.163 Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the
Parliament which include "The Macro Economic Framework Statement”. The aforesaid
document is presented because this is mandated by : (2020)
(a) Long standing parliamentary convention
(b) Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India
(c) Article 113 of the Constitution of India
(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003
Answer: (d)
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Q.164 Consider the following statements: (2019)
1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from
disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
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Q.165 In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.? (2019)
1. Ad Hoc Committee set up by the Parliament.
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committee
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) 2 and 5
Answer: (a)
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Q.166 Consider the following statements: (2018)
1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra
Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was recognised for the first time in
1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader
cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Solution : (b)
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Q.167 With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary
Committees scrutinise and report to the House whether the powers to make regulations,
rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the
Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such
delegation ? (2018)
(a) Committee on Government Assurances
(b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
(c) Rules Committee
(d) Business Advisory Committee
Answer: (b)
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Q.168 Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct? (2018)
(a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to
imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
(b) A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the
Contingency Fund of India.
(c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency
Fund of India.
(d) A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any
guarantee by the Government of India.
Answer: (c)
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Q.169 For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by : (2017)
(a) anyone residing in India.
(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
(d) any citizen of India.
Answer: (c)
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Q.170 Consider the following statements: (2017)
1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at
least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the
Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the
Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
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Q.171 The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers
through (2017)
1. Adjournment motion
2. Questions hour
3. Supplementary questions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
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Q.172 With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements : (2017)
1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not
elected but only nominated by the President of India.
2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the
first time in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
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Q.173 The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the
national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the: (2016)
(a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
(b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership
(c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
(d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and
voting
Answer: (d)
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Q.174 Which of the following statements is/are correct ? (2016)
1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall
not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
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Q.175 Consider the following statements : (2015)
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
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Q.176 When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be
passed by (2015)
(a) a simple majority of members present and voting
(b) three-fourths majority of members present and voting
(c) two-thirds majority of the Houses
(d) absolute majority of the Houses
Answer: (a)
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Q.177 Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India : (2014)
1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
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Q.178 Which one of the following is the largest Committee of the Parliament ? (2014)
(a) The Committee on Public Accounts
(b) The committee on Estimates
(c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
(d) The committee on Petitions
Answer: (b)
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Q.179 Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat ? (2014)
1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
2. Secretariat assistance to Cabinet Committees
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
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Q.180 Consider the following statements (2013)
The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts :
1. Consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha.
2. Scrutinises appropriation and finance accounts of the Government.
3. Examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
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Q.181 Consider the following statements : (2013)
1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the
Parliament.
2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for
legislation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
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Q.182 What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha ? (2013)
(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the
recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
(c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
(d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill
Answer: (a)
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Q.183 The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing
International treaties: (2013)
(a) with the consent of all the States
(b) with the consent of the majority of States
(c) with the consent of the States concerned
(d) without the consent of any State
Answer: (d)
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Q.184 In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is [2012]
(a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance.
(b) to let opposition members collect information from the ministers.
(c) to allow a reduction of specific amounts in demand for grants.
(d) to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the
part of some members.
Answer: (a)
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Q.185 Consider the following statements: (2012)
1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election
disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and
the Rajya Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) None
Answer: (d)
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Q.186 Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements: (2012)
1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has
to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her
election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to
the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None
Answer: (b)
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Q.187 Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the
Constitution of India? (2012)
(a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State.
(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and
to create one or more All India Services.
(c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of
the President after his/her retirement.
(d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and determine the number
of Election Commissioners.
Answer: (b)
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Q.186 A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the
Parliament during the passage of (2012)
1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
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Q.188 Which reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:
(2012)
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or
State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
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Q.189 Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in
India? (2012)
1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament.
2. Withdrawal of money from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the
Appropriation Bill.
3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on accounts.
4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme macroeconomic forecasts
and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office.
5. Introducing the Finance Bill in the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: (a)
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Q.190 When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha : (2011)
(a) The Budget is modified and presented again
(b) The Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
(c) The Union Finance Minister is asked to resign
(d) The Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers
Answer: (d)
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Q.191 What is the difference between “vote-on-account” and “interim budget”? (2011)
1. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used by a regular Government, while an
“interim budget” is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
2. A “vote-on-account” only deals with the expenditure in the Government's budget,
while an “interim budget” includes both expenditure and receipts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
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Q.192 Who was the Speaker of the First Lok Sabha ? (2007)
(a) Hukum Singh (b) G.V. Mavalankar
(c) K. M. Munshi (d) U.N. Dhebar
Answer: (b)
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Q.193 Consider the following statements : (2007)
1. The Chairman of the Committee on Public Accounts is appointed by the Speaker of
the Lok Sabha.
2. The Committee on Public Accounts comprises Members of Lok Sabha, Members of
Rajya Sabha and few eminent persons of industry and trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
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Q.194 Consider the following statements : (2006)
1. The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interest
for the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List.
2. Resolutions approving the proclamation of Emergency are passed only by the Lok
Sabha.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
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Q.195 Consider the following statements:(2004)
1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on
prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House.
2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic
dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years,
even if no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President.
3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House
and until immediately before the first meeting of the House.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 .
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
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Q.196 Which one of the following statements is not correct ? (2004)
(a) In the Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is
based
(b) In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility
have been laid down in the Rules
(c) A motion of no-confidence once admitted, has to be taken up within ten days of the
leave being granted
(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no-confidence
Answer: (a)
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Q.197 With reference to Indian public finance, consider the following statements : (2004)
1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are subject to the Vote of the
Parliament.
2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a
Public Account and a Contingency Fund for each State.
3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the
same form of parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
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Q.198 The power to enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India with respect to any
matter included in the Union List of Legislative Powers rests with : (2003)
(a) The President of India
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Parliament
(d) The Union Ministry of Law, Justice and Company Affairs
Answer: (c)
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Q.199 Which one of the following statements is correct ? (2003)
(a) Only the Rajya Sabha and not the Lok Sabha can have nominated members.
(b) There is a constitutional provision for nominating two members belonging to the
Anglo-Indian community to the Rajya Sabha.
(c) There is no constitutional bar for a nominated member to be appointed as a Union
minister.
(d) A nominated member can vote both in the Presidential and Vice Presidential
election.
Answer: (c)
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Q.200 Consider the following statements:(2003)
1. The joint sitting of the two houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under
Article 108 of the Constitution.
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961.
3. The second joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament was held to pass the
Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill.
Which of these statements is correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
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Q.201 Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian
Parliamentary separately by special majority ? (2003)
(a) Ordinary Bill (b) Money Bill
(c) Finance Bill (d) Constitution Amendment Bill
Answer: (d)
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Q.202 Consider the following statements: (2003)
1. While members of the Rajya Sabha are associated with Committees on Public
Accounts and Public Undertakings, members of Committee on Estimates are drawn
entirely from the Lok Sabha
2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs works under the overall direction of the Cabinet
Committee on Parliamentary Affairs.
3. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs nominates Members of Parliament on
Committees, Councils, Board and Commissions etc. set up by the Government of
India in the various ministries.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
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Q.203 In the case of election to the Lok Sabha, the amount of Security deposited for general
category candidates and SC/ST category candidates respectively is : (2002)
(a) ₹5,000 and ₹2,500
(b) ₹10,000 and ₹2,500
(c) ₹10,000 and ₹5,000
(d) ₹15,000 and ₹7,500
Answer: (c)
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Q.204 The term of the Lok Sabha : (2002)
(a) cannot be extended under any circumstances
(b) can be extended by six months at a time
(c) can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency
(d) can be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation of emergency
Answer: (c)
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Q.205 In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration ? (2001)
(a) Through Parliamentary Committees
(b) Through Consultative Committees in various ministries
(c) By making the administrators send periodic reports
(d) By compelling the executive to issue writs
Answer: (a)
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Q.206 The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part India for implementing
international treaties : (2000)
(a) with the consent of all the State.
(b) with the consent of the majority of States.
(c) with the consent of the States concerned.
(d) without the consent of any State.
Answer: (d)
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Q.207 Which one of the following statements about a Money Bill is not correct ? (2000)
(a) A Money Bill can be tabled in either House of Parliament
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the final authority to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill
or not
(c) The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and send it for
consideration within 14 days.
(d) The President cannot return a Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration.
Answer: (a)
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Q.208 The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another member
speak. This phenomenon is known as : (2000)
(a) decorum (b) crossing the floor
(c) interpellation (d) yielding the floor
Answer: (d)
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Q.209 Consider the following statements : (1999)
An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the:
1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. State Legislature
4. President
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
Answer: (d)
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Q.210 Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R). (1997)
Assertion (A) : Reservation of thirty-three percent of seats for women in Parliament and
State Legislature does not require any Constitutional amendment.
Reason (R) : Political parties contesting elections can allocate thirty-three percent of
seats they contest to women candidates without any Constitutional amendment.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer: (d)
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Q.211 Which of the following is/are stated in the Constitution of India ? (1997)
1. The President shall not be a member of either House of Parliament.
2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and two Houses.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) Only 1
(d) Only 2
Answer: (b)
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Q.212 Which one of the following will fit in the place marked 'X'? (1995)
Council of States House of the People
Not more than 250 members Not more than 552 members
Not more than 238 representative of States
and Union Territories
Not more than 530 representatives of states
plus not more than 2 nominated AngloIndians plus X
(a) Ministers who are not members of Parliament but who have to get themselves
elected to either House of Parliament within six months after assuming office.
(b) Not more than 20 nominated members
(c) Not more than 20 representatives of Union Territories
(d) The Attorney General who has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of
either House of the Parliament
Answer: (c)
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Q.213 Who among the following have the right to vote in the elections to both the Lok Sabha
and the Rajya Sabha? (1995)
(a) Elected members of the Lower House of the Parliament
(b) Elected members of the Upper House of the Parliament
(c) Elected members of the Upper House of the State Legislature
(d) Elected members of the Lower House of the State Legislature
Answer: (d)
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Q.214 If the number of seats allocated to a state in the Lok Sabha is 42, then the number of
seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes in that state will be : (1995)
(a) 21
(b) 14
(c) 7
(d) 6
Answer: None of the above
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Q.215 Consider the following statements: [2023]
Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation
policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article
335 for the maintenance of efficiency of administration.
Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term ‘efficiency of
administration’.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Answer: (c)
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Q.216 Consider the following statements : (2022)
1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971
was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Court to punish
for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of
Court.
Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 3 only
Answer: (b)
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Q.217 With reference to India, consider the following statements : (2022)
1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate
lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and
recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
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Q.218 With reference to India, consider the following statements : (2022)
1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate
lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and
recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
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Q.219 With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the following statements : (2021)
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as
a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the
President of India.
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme
Court does.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
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Q.220 Consider the following statements : (2019)
1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of Indian cannot be rejected
by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity
and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of
India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires
the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a
majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total
members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer: (c)
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Q.221 With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibition or limitations or provisions
contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional
powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following? (2019)
(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties
cannot be challenged in any court of law.
(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws
made by the Parliament.
(c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can
declare a Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of
the Union Legislature.
Answer: (b)
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Q.222 Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India? (2015)
(a) The President of India
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
(d) The Supreme Court of India
Answer: (d)
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Q.223 The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in
(2014)
(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament
(c) The Chief Justice of India
(d) the Law Commission
Answer: (b)
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Q.224 The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the
States falls under its: (2014)
(a) advisory jurisdiction
(b) appellate jurisdiction
(c) original jurisdiction
(d) writ jurisdiction
Answer: (c)
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Q.225 Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
(2012)
1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States.
2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature
of a State.
3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory.
4. A dispute between two or more States.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Answer: (c)
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Q.226 What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India ? (2012)
1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the
Chief Justice of India.
2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which
the legislature does not have to vote.
4. All appointments of officers and staff of the Supreme Court of India are made by the
Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 124(2) and its interpretations in various SC judgments,
The judges of the SC are appointed by the President based on the recommendations of
the collegium system, which involves the Chief Justice of India and senior judges of the SC
( In case of elevating a HC judge, CJ of concerned HC is also consulted).
Statement 2 is incorrect: SC judge can be removed from his office by an order of
President. The President can order for removal of SC Judge only after an address by
Parliament has been presented to him in the same session for such removal.
Statement 3 is correct: The salaries, allowances and pensions of the judges and the staff
as well as all the administrative expenses of the SC are charges on the Consolidated Fund
of India. Thus they are non-votable by the Parliament.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Under Article 146 , The Chief Justice of India can appoint officers
and servants of the SC and can also prescribe their conditions of service.
Answer: (a)
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Q.227 Consider the following statements : (2008)
1. Justice V R Krishna Iyer was the Chief Justice of India.
2. Justice V R Krishna Iyer is considered as one of the progenitors of Public Interest
Litigation (PIL) in the Indian judicial system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
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Q.228 Consider the following statements: (2007)
1. The mode of removal of a Judge of a High Court in India is same as that of removal
of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. After retirement from the office, a permanent judge of a High Court cannot plead or
act in any court or before any authority in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
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Q.229 Assertion (A) : In India, every State has a High Court in its territory. (2006)
Reason (R) : The Constitution of India provides a High Court in each State.
Codes :
(a) Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are individually true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ’A’.
(b) Both ’A’ and ‘R’ are individually true but’ R’ is not the correct explanation of ’A’.
(c) ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is false.
(d) ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true.
Answer: (d)
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Q.230 Who was the Chief Justice of India when Public Interest Litigation (PIL) was introduced to
the Indian judicial system? (2006)
(a) M. Hidayatullah
(b) A. M. Ahmadi
(c) A. S. Anand
(d) P. N. Bhagwati
Answer: (d)
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Q.231 Consider the following statements: (2006)
1. A person who has held office as a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or
act in any court or before any authority in India except of the Supreme Court.
2. A person is not qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court in India unless
he has for at least five years held a judicial office in the territory of India.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
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Q.232 Consider the following statements: (2005)
1. There are 25 High Courts in India.
2. Punjab, Haryana and the Union Territory of Chandigarh have a common High Court.
3. The National Capital Territory of Delhi has a High Court of its own.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Answer: (a)
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Q.233 Consider the following statements : (2005)
1. The Parliament cannot enlarge the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India as its
jurisdiction is limited to that conferred by the Constitution.
2. The officers and servants of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed by
the concerned Chief Justice and the administrative expenses are charged on the
Consolidated fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
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Q.234 According to the National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who amongst the
following can be its Chairman? (2004)
(a) Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court
(b) Any serving Judge of the High Court
(c) Only a retired Chief Justice of India
(d) Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court
Answer: (c)
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Q.235 Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and
Nicobar Islands ? (2003)
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Kolkata
(c) Chennai
(d) Orissa
Answer: (b)
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Q.236 The salaries and allowances of the Judges of the High Court are charged to the : (2002)
(a) Consolidated Fund of India
(b) Consolidated Fund of the State
(c) Contingency Fund of India
(d) Contingency Fund of the State
Answer: (b)
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Q.237 The Supreme Court of India tenders advice to the President on a matter of law or fact:
(2001)
(a) on its own initiative
(b) only if he seeks such advice
(c) only if the matter relates to the Fundamental Rights of citizens
(d) only if the issue poses a threat to the unity and integrity of the country
Answer: (b)
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Q.238 Consider the following statements regarding the High Courts in India: (2001)
1. There are eighteen High Courts in the country.
2. Three of them have jurisdiction over more than one state.
3. No Union Territory has a High Court of its own.
4. Judges of the High Court hold office till the age of 62.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 4 only
Answer: (d)
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Q.239 Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as
Reason (R). (1997)
Assertion (A) : Wilful disobedience or non-compliance of Court orders and use of
derogatory language about judicial behaviour amount to Contempt of Court.
Reason (R) : Judicial activism cannot be practised without arming the judiciary with
punitive powers to punish contemptuous behaviour.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Answer: (b)
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Q.240 The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the
State falls under its: (1996)
(a) advisory jurisdiction
(b) appellate jurisdiction
(c) original jurisdiction
(d) constitutional jurisdiction
Answer: (c)
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Q.241 When the Chief Justice of a High Court acts in an administrative capacity, he is subject to:
(1996)
(a) the writ jurisdiction of any other judges of the High Court.
(b) special control exercised by the Chief Justice of India.
(c) discretionary powers of the Governor of the state.
(d) special powers provided to the Chief Minister.
Answer: (a)
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Q.242 In India, Judicial Review implies : (2017)
(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and
executive orders.
(b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the
Legislatures.
(c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are
assented to by the President.
(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or
different cases.
Answer: (a)
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Q.243 With reference to National Legal Services Authority consider the following statements:
(2013)
1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker section of
the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal
programmes and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is correct: The objective of National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is to
provide free legal services to weaker sections of society for securing justice and are not
denied to any citizen by reasons of economic or other disabilities.
Statement 2 is correct: In every State, there is a State Legal Service Authority to give effect
to the policies and directions of the NALSA and to give free legal services to the people
and conduct Lok Adalats in the State.
Additional Information
About NALSA:
● The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is a statutory body constituted under
the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
● The Chief Justice of India is the Patron-in-Chief of NALSA.
● In every State, the State Legal Services Authority has been constituted to give effect
to the policies and directions of the NALSA.
● In every District, District Legal Services Authority has been constituted to implement
Legal Services.
● The Legal Services Institutions under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 provide
legal aid and assistance in civil as well as criminal cases.
● Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 mentions intended beneficiaries
for free legal services.
● Beneficiaries: Women and children, Members of SC/ST, Industrial workmen Victims of
mass disaster, violence, flood, drought, earthquake, industrial disaster. Disabled
persons, Persons in custody, Persons whose annual income does not exceed Rs. 1
lakh (in the Supreme Court Legal Services Committee the limit is Rs.5,00,000/-),
Victims of trafficking in human beings or begar.
● Constitutional and Legal Provisions (Free Legal Aid):
○ Article 21: Ensures that no individual shall be deprived of life or personal liberty
except through a procedure established by law.
○ Article 39-A: Mandates the provision of equal justice and free legal aid to ensure
that no citizen is denied access to justice due to economic or other disabilities
(42nd Constitutional Amendment Act)
Answer: (c)
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Q.244 With reference to the Consumer Disputes Redressal at district level in India, which one of
the following statements is not correct ? (2010)
(a) A State Government can establish more than one District Forum in a district if it
deems fit.
(b) One of the members of the District Forum shall be a woman
(c) The District Forum entertains the complaints where the value of goods or services
does not exceed rupees fifty lakhs.
(d) A complaint in relation to any goods sold or any service provided may be filed with a
District Forum by the State Government as a representative of the interests of the
consumers in general.
Answer: (c)
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Q.245 With reference to Lok Adalats, which of the following statements is correct ? (2010)
(a) Lok Adalats have the jurisdiction to settle matters at pre-litigation stage and not
those matters pending before any court
(b) Lok Adalats can deal with matters which are civil and not criminal in nature.
(c) Every Lok Adalat consists of either serving or retired judicial officers only and not any
other person.
(d) None of the statements given above is correct.
Answer: (d)
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Q.246 With reference to Lok Adalats, consider the following statements : (2009)
1. An award made by a Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil court and no
appeal lies against it to any court.
2. Matrimonial/Family disputes are not covered under Lok Adalat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
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Q.247 How many High Courts in India have jurisdiction over more than one State (Union
Territories not included)? (2008)
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer: (b)
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Q.248 Consider the following : (2005)
1. Disputes with mobile cellular companies
2. Motor accident cases
3. Pension cases
For which of the above are Lok Adalats held?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
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Q.249 Consider the following statements : (2004)
1. The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Session Judge
2. The District Judges are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High
Courts.
3. A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge should be an advocate or
a pleader of seven years’ standing or more, or an officer in judicial service of the
Union or the State.
4. When the sessions judge awards a death sentence, it must be confirmed by the High
Court before it is carried out.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d)
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Q.250 According to the Constitution of India the term 'district judge' shall not include : (1996)
(a) chief presidency magistrate
(b) sessions judges
(c) tribunal judge
(d) chief judge of a small cause court
Answer: (c)
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Q.251 Consider the following statements: (2018)
1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases
to be a member of the assembly.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her
office immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is correct : The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly vacates his office in three
cases :
1. If he ceases to be a member of the assembly;
2. Speaker Resigns by writing to the deputy speaker and vice versa and
3. Removed by the resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the assembly.
Statement 2 is incorrect : Article 179 provided that, whenever the Assembly is dissolved,
the Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the
Assembly after the dissolution.
Answer: (a)
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Q.252 Consider the following statements : (2015)
1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the
Legislative Assembly of that particular State.
2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of the Legislative Council of that
particular State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is incorrect : As per Article 171, the maximum strength of the Legislative Council
of the state cannot be more than one third of total strength of assembly. However, the size
of the Legislative Council cannot be less than 40 members. The constitution has fixed the
maximum and minimum limits but actual strength is fixed by Parliament.
Statement 2 is incorrect : The members of the Legislative Council are indirectly elected.
The Chairman of the Legislative Council is elected by the members from amongst itself.
Answer: (d)
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Q.253 Consider the following statements : (2008)
The Constitution of India provides that :
1. The Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than 450 members
chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the State.
2. a person shall not be qualified to be chosen to fill a seat in the Legislative Assembly
of a State if he/she is less than 25 years of age.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
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Q.254 The state which has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in the
Lok Sabha is : (2000)
(a) Bihar
(b) Gujarat
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: (d)
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Q.255 Which one of the following States of India does not have a Legislative Council even
though the Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956 provides for it? (1995)
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Bihar
(c) Karnataka
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer: (d)
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Q.256 If in an election to a State legislative assembly, the candidate who is declared elected
loses his deposit, it means that : (1995)
(a) the polling was very poor
(b) the election was for a multi-member constituency
(c) the elected candidate's victory over his nearest rival was very marginal
(d) a very large number of candidates contested the election
Answer: (d)
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Q.257 With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following
statements : (2019)
1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the
commencement of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the
Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is correct : Article 176(1) states that, through the legislative powers of the
Governor, he can address the state legislature at the commencement of the first session
after each general election and the first session of each year.
Statement 2 is incorrect : Article 208 of the Indian Constitution empowers State
Legislatures to create rules for regulating their procedures and business. The state
legislature can formulate its own ad hoc rules or rely on the Speaker’s discretion for
procedural clarity. Each state's legislative assembly has its autonomy in procedural
matters, and there is no binding provision mandating the use of Lok Sabha rules unless
adopted by the state legislature itself.
Answer: (a)
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Q.258 Consider the following statements : (2018)
1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any
court during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished
during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is correct: As per Article 361, which deals with the ‘Protection of President and
Governors’, states that ‘no criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or
continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of
office’. However, after giving two months’ notice, civil proceedings can be instituted
against him during his term of office in respect of his personal acts.
Statement 2 is correct : As per Article 158, which deals with the ‘Conditions of Governor
Office’, states that ‘the emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be
diminished during his term of office’.
Answer: (c)
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Q.259 Consider the following statements: (2016)
1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is incorrect : The Chief Secretary is ‘chosen’ by the Chief Minister. As the
appointment of Chief Secretary is an executive action of the Chief Minister, it is taken in
the name of the Governor of the State.
Statement 2 is incorrect : Though the Administrative Reforms Commission, in its report on
State Administration in 1969, had recommended that a Chief Secretary should have a
minimum tenure of three to four years, there is no fixed tenure for the post of Chief
Secretary of a State.
Answer: (d)
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Q.260 Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State?
(2014)
1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule
2. Appointing the Ministers
3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the
President of India
4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Statement 1 is correct: Under Article 356, President’s Rule is imposed if the President, upon
receipt of the report from the Governor of the State or otherwise, is satisfied that a
situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in
accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. This comes under the discretionary
power of the Governor.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 164 (1) states that the Chief Minister and the other
Ministers on the advice of the Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor.
Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and the other Ministers shall be
appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister, and the Ministers shall hold
office during the pleasure of the Governor.
Statement 3 is correct: As per Article 200 the Governor of a state can use his legislative
power to reserve the bill for the consideration of the President.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Making the rules to conduct the business of the State
Government does not come under Governor’s discretionary power. In the Nabam Rebia
judgement (2016), the Supreme Court held that the exercise of Governor’s discretion
under Article 163 is limited and his choice of action should not be arbitrary or fanciful.
Answer: (b)
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Q.261 Which one of the following statements is correct? (2013)
(a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States
at the same time.
(b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of
the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President.
(c) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a
Governor from his/her post.
(d) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is
appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support.
Answer: (c)
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Q.262 Article 156 of the Constitution of India provides that a Governor shall hold office for a term
of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office: (1995)
Which of the following can be deduced from this?
1. No Governor can be removed from office till completion of his term
2. No Governor can continue in office beyond five years
Codes :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
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Q.263 Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India? [2024]
(a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.
(b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
(c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
(d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.
Answer: (c)
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Q.264 Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person
from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or
should not have taken part in politics in the recent past ? (2019)
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
Answer: (c)
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Q.265 The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is a : (2014)
(a) Tax imposed by the Central Government
(b) Tax imposed by the central Government but collected by the State Government.
(c) Tax imposed by the State Government but collected by the Central Government.
(d) Tax imposed and collected by the State Government.
Answer: (d)
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Q.266 Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the
Constitution of India ? (2006)
(a) Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields
(b) Agriculture
(c) Fisheries
(d) Public Health
Answer: (a)
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Q.267 Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive
power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of
the executive power of the Union ? (2004)
(a) Article 257
(b) Article 258
(c) Article 355
(d) Article 358
Answer: (a)
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Q.268 With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched ? (2004)
(a) Forests : Concurrent List
(b) Stock Exchange : Concurrent List
(c) Post Office Savings Bank : Union List
(d) Public Health : State List
Answer: (b)
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Q.269 Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in (2017)
(a) Federalism
(b) Democratic decentralisation
(c) Administrative delegation
(d) Direct democracy
Answer: (b)
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Q.270 Consider the following statements: (2016)
1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25
years.
2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the
remainder period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
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Q.271 With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are
correct? (2016)
1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases.
2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/re-conciliators.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is incorrect : The establishment, jurisdiction, and process in civil and criminal
proceedings are all outlined in the Gram Nyayalayas Act. As per the Gram Nyayalaya Act,
the Gram Nyayalayas can hear both the civil and criminal cases.
The Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 was enacted to establish Gram Nyayalayas at the
grassroots level, ensuring access to justice at citizens' doorsteps and preventing denial of
justice due to social, economic, or other barriers. The Gram Nyayalaya shall be a mobile
court and shall exercise the powers of both Criminal and Civil Courts. The Gram
Nyayalaya shall follow summary procedure in criminal trial.
Statement 2 is correct: The Court shall try to settle disputes via conciliation between the
parties and the court can make use of the conciliators(social workers) to be appointed for
this purpose.
Answer: (b)
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Q.272 The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the
following? (2015)
1. People's participation in development
2. Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralisation
4. Financial mobilisation
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Statements 1 and 3 are correct : The main idea behind the Panchayati Raj Institutions
(PRIs) is to promote grass root democracy and development. The main aim is to evolve a
system of democratic decentralisation and people’s participation with a view to ensure
rapid socio-economic progress and provide adequate justice.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Political accountability can be achieved in any system with
democratic rule and thus not the fundamental objective of PRIs.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Financial mobilisation was never the fundamental basis for the
establishment of PRI.
Answer: (c)
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Q.273 The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996.
Which one of the following is not identified as its objective ? (2013)
(a) To provide self-governance
(b) To recognize traditional rights
(c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
(d) To free tribal people from exploitation
The Panchayat (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA Act) was enacted to
extend the provisions of Part IX of the Constitution (related to Panchayati Raj) to the
Scheduled Areas listed under Schedule V of the Constitution. Its primary objectives
include:
1. To provide self-governance in tribal areas through Gram Sabhas.
2. To recognize traditional rights of tribal communities, particularly regarding
community resources.
3. To free tribal people from exploitation by empowering Gram Sabhas to regulate and
control resources, markets, and institutions in Scheduled Areas.
The creation of autonomous regions is not an objective of the PESA Act. Autonomous
regions are primarily a feature of Schedule VI of the Constitution, applicable to certain
tribal areas in the northeastern states, not the Schedule V areas targeted by PESA.
Answer: (c)
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Q.274 Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest
Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the
nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both ? (2013)
(a) State Forest Department
(b) District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
(c) Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal Revenue Officer
(d) Gram Sabha
Answer: (d)
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Q.275 In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996,
what is the role/power of Gram Sabha? (2012)
1. Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or
mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
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Q.276 The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the
Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following ? (2011)
1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.
3. Establishment of state Finance Commissions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
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Q.277 Consider the following statements : (2011)
In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee
1. Is constituted under the provisions of the constitution of India.
2. Prepares the draft development plans for the metropolitan area.
3. Has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in the
metropolitan area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
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Q.278 If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within: (2009)
(a) 1 month
(b) 3 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 1 year
Answer: (c)
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Q.279 In India, the first Municipal Corporation was set up in which one among the following ?
(2009)
(a) Calcutta
(b) Madras
(c) Bombay
(d) Delhi
Answer: (b)
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Q.280 Consider the following statements : (2005)
1. Part IX of the Constitution of India provisions for Panchyats and was inserted by the
Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1992.
2. Part IX A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for Municipalities and the
Article 243 Q envisages two types of Municipalities a Municipal Council and a
Municipal Corporation for every State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
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Q.281 Assertion (A) : The Central Rural Sanitation Programme was launched in 1986 to improve
the quality of life of rural people in India. (2004)
Reason (R) : Rural sanitation is a subject in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) (d) A is false but R is true
Answer: (c)
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Q.282 In which one of the following areas does the State Government not have control over its
local bodies ? (2001)
(a) Citizens’ grievances
(b) Financial matters
(c) Legislation
(d) Personnel matters
Answer: (a)
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Q.283 A college student desires to get elected to the Municipal Council of his city. The validity of
his nomination would depend on the important condition, among others, that : (2000)
(a) he obtains permission from the principal of his college
(b) he is a member of a political party
(c) his name figures in the voters’ list
(d) he files a declaration owing allegiance to the Constitution of India
Answer: (c)
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Q.284 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists: (2000)
List-I List-II
(Local bodies) (States as in 1999)
A. Zila Parishads at the sub-divisional level 1. Andhra Pradesh
B. Mandal Praja Parishad 2. Assam
C. Tribal Councils 3. Mizoram
D. Absence of Village Panchayats 4. Meghalaya
Codes :
(a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(c) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(d) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
Answer: (a)
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Q.285 In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1993, there are several fresh provisions
deviating from the past. Which one of the following is not one such provision ? (1999)
(a) A number of added responsibilities in the area of agriculture, rural development,
primary education and social forestry among others.
(b) Elections being made mandatory for all posts at the time they are due
(c) A statutory representation for women in the panchayats, up to a third of the strength
(d) Regular remuneration to the panchayat members, so as to ensure their punctuality
and accountability
Answer: (d)
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Q.286 Panchayat Raj was first introduced in India in October, 1959 in: (1998)
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Kerala
(d) Karnataka
Answer: (a)
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Q.287 Which one of the following was not proposed by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment in
the area of Panchayati Raj? (1997)
(a) Thirty percent seats in all elected rural local bodies will be reserved for women
candidates at all level
(b) The States will constitute their Finance Commissions to allocate resources to
Panchayati Raj institutions
(c) The Panchayati Raj functionaries will be disqualified to hold their offices if they have
more than two children
(d) The elections will be held in six months time if Panchayati Raj bodies are superceded
or dissolved by the State government
Answer: (c)
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Q.288 What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj set up? (1996)
(a) Single tier structure of local self government at the village level.
(b) Two tier system of local self government at village and block levels.
(c) Three tier structure of local self government at the village, block and district levels
(d) Four tier system of local self government at the village, block, district and in the state
levels.
Answer: (c)
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Q.289 Which one of the following is incorrect in respect of Local Government in India? (1995)
(a) According to the Indian Constitution, local government is not an independent tier in
the federal system
(b) 30% of the seats in local bodies are reserved for women
(c) Local government finances are to be provided by a Commission
(d) Elections to local bodies are to be determined by a Commission
Answer: (b)
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Q.290 With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements : (2022)
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six
months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any timeframe within which the presiding officer has to
decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is incorrect: A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being
a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from
the date on which he takes his seat in the House. This means that he may join any political
party within six months of taking his seat in the House.
Statement 2 is correct: The law does not specify any time period for the Presiding Officer
to decide on a disqualification plea under the Tenth Schedule.
25. CONSTITUTIONAL BODIES
Answer: (b)
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Q.291 Consider the following organisations/bodies in India: [2023]
1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
2. The National Human Rights Commission
3. The National Law Commission
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four
Answer: (a)
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Q.292 Consider the following: [2023]
1. Demographic performance
2. Forest and ecology
3. Governance reforms
4. Stable government
5. Tax and fiscal efforts
For horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the
above as criteria other than population area and income distance ?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five
Answer: (b)
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Q.293 Consider the following statements : (2022)
1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the
Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of
India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his
resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither1 nor 2
Statement 1 is incorrect: Attorney General has the right to speak and to take part in the
proceedings of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of
which he is a member, but without a right to vote. He enjoys all the privileges and
immunities that are available to a Member of Parliament. While Solicitor General of India
and Additional Solicitor General of India have no such rights or privilege.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution and
also, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He
holds office during the pleasure of the president and conventionally, he resigns when CoM
resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice.
Answer: (d)
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Q.294 At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective
implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers
(Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006? (2021)
(a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
(b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
(c) Ministry of Rural Development
(d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Answer: (d)
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Q.295 Consider the following statements : (2017)
1. The Election Commission of India is a five member body.
2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of
both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized
political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
Statement 1 is incorrect : Strength of ECI is not specified in the Constitution, and it is
determined by the President. Currently, there are 3 Members.
Statement 2 is incorrect : The most important function of the commission is to decide the
election schedules for the conduct of periodic and timely elections, whether general or
bye-elections.
Statement 3 is correct : It grants recognition to political parties & allot election symbols to
them along with settling disputes related to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Answer: (d)
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Q.296 Consider the following statements: (2013)
Attorney General of India can1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3. speak in the Lok Sabha
4. vote in the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (c)
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Q.297 In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for the intended
purposes, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General
(CAG) ? (2012)
1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of
India declares a national emergency/financial emergency.
2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are
discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press
charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has
certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Statement 1 is incorrect : The CAG does not exercise exchequer control during
emergencies (whether national or financial). The Finance Ministry and the Department of
Economic Affairs are responsible for the management of the exchequer during such
emergencies. The CAG's role remains to audit and report on the use of public funds, but it
does not have direct control over financial matters during an emergency.
Statement 2 is correct: PAC’s chief function is to examine the audit report of Comptroller
and Auditor General (CAG) after it is laid in the Parliament. CAG acts as a guide, friend
and philosopher of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament.
Statement 3 is correct: Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating
agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing
public finances.
Statement 4 is incorrect : While dealing with the audit and accounting of government and
PSUs, CAG does not have certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the
law. CAG is merely an advisory body and has some quasi-judicial powers.
Answer: (c)
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Q.298 Which of the following is/are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of
the Thirteenth Finance Commission? (2012)
1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to
adherence to the proposed design.
2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with
India’s demographic dividend.
3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
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Q.299 With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is
correct ? (2011)
(a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development
(b) It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector
Undertakings
(c) It ensures transparency in financial administration
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
Answer: (d)
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Q.300 Which one among the following commission was set up in pursuance of a definite
provision under an Article of the Constitution of India?(2006)
(a) University Grants Commission
(b) National Human Rights Commission
(c) Election Commission
(d) Central Vigilance Commission
Answer: (c)
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Q.301 Consider the following tasks : (2004)
1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, state Legislatures and
the Office of the President and the Vice-President
3. Giving recognition to political parties and allotting election symbols to political
parties and individuals contesting the election.
4. Proclamation of final verdict in case of election disputes.
Which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: (a)
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Q.302 Consider the following statements:(2003)
The function(s) of the Finance commission is/are:
1. to allow the withdrawal of the money out of the Consolidated Fund of India
2. to allocate between the States the shares of proceeds of taxes
3. to consider applications for grants-in-aid from States
4. to supervise and report on whether the Union and State governments are levying
taxes in accordance with the budgetary provisions
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: (b)
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Q.303 Consider the following statements with reference to India : (2002)
1. The Chief Election Commission and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal
powers but receive unequal salaries
2. The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary as is provided to a
judge of the Supreme Court.
3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like
manner and on like grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court
4. The term of office of the Election Commissioner is five years from the date he
assumes his office or till the day he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 4
Answer: (b)
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Q.304 Which one of the following authorities recommends the principles governing the grantsin-aid of the revenues to the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India? (2002)
(a) Finance Commission (b) Inter-State Council
(c) Union Ministry of Finance (d) Public Accounts Committee
Answer: (a)
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Q.305 Which one of the following duties is not performed by Comptroller and Auditor general of
India?(2001)
(a) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India
(b) To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public
Accounts
(c) To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts
(d) To control the receipt and issue of public money, and to ensure that the public
revenue is lodged in the exchequer
Answer: (d)
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Q.306 Consider the following statements about the Attorney General of India:(2000)
(i) He is appointed by the President of India
(ii) He must have the same qualifications as are required for a judge of the Supreme
Court
(iii) He must be a member of either House of Parliament
(iv) He can be removed by impeachment by Parliament
(v) Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Answer: (a)
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Q.307 The primary function of the Finance Commission in India is to:(2000)
(a) distribution of revenue between the Centre and the States
(b) prepare the Annual Budget
(c) advise the President on financial matters
(d) allocate funds to various ministries of the Union and State Governments
Answer: (a)
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Q.308 Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election
process in India? (1995)
(a) The recommendation for election is made by the government and the notification
for election is issued by the Election Commission
(b) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the
notification for election is issued by the Home Ministry at the Centre and Home
Departments in the States
(c) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission and the
notification for election is issued by the President and Governors of the States
concerned
(d) Both the exercises of making a recommendation for election and that of issuing a
notification in respect of it are done by the Election Commission
Answer: (d)
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Q.309 Which of the following political parties is/are national political parties?(1995)
1. Muslim League
2. Revolutionary Socialist Party
3. All India Forward Block
4. Peasants and Workers Party of India
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 only (d) None
Answer: (d)
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Q.310 The Dinesh Goswami Committee was concerned with: (1995)
(a) de-nationalisation of banks
(b) electoral reforms
(c) steps to put down insurgency in the north-east
(d) the problem of the Chakmas
Answer: (b)
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Q.311 The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971.
Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the
following members? [2024]
1. Governor of the Constituent State
2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
4. The Home Minister of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a)
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Q.312 With reference to 'Quality Council of India (QCI)', consider the following statements : [2017]
1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry.
2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the
industry to the Government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
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Q.313 Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India? (2014)
1. The Finance Commission
2. The National Development Council
3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
5. The Parliament
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Statement 1 is incorrect: It is constituted by the President under Article 280 to give its
recommendations on the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States. It
defines the financial relations between the Centre and the States. Therefore, it is not
directly associated with "Planning" in the traditional sense.
Statement 2 is correct: Earlier, NDC served as “the highest decision-making authority” in
the country on development matters. NDC used to advise the Planning Commission on
planning.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The Union Ministry of Rural Development is entrusted with the
task of accelerating the socio-economic development of rural India.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Union Ministry of Urban Development is entrusted with the
formulation and administration of the rules and regulations and laws relating to the
housing and urban development in India.
Statement 5 is correct: Parliament is the supreme legislative institution of the Republic of
India. It is directly responsible to make laws and devise plans and strategies for the
welfare of the society. Therefore, it is indirectly associated with planning.
Answer: (c)
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Q.314 Consider the following statements: (2013)
1. The National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of
India.
3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of
preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Statement 1 is incorrect: National Development Council (NDC) and Planning Commission
(PC) have been abolished now. NDC was an advisory body and used to advise the
Planning Commission on planning and included all CMs and union ministers etc.
Statement 2 is correct: The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in
the Constitution of India.
Statement 3 is correct: Preparation of plans and implementation of plans for economic
development and social justice are one of the major powers and functions that comes
under Panchayat Raj Institution.
Answer: (b)
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Q.315 Who among the following constitute the National Development Council? (2013)
1. The Prime Minister
2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4. Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b)
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Q.316 Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution? (2013)
1. National Development Council
2. Planning Commission
3. Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
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Q.317 Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional and extralegal device(s) for securing
cooperation and coordination between the States in India?(1995)
1. The National Development Council
2. The Governor’s Conference
3. Zonal Councils
4. Inter-State Council
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 4 only
Answer: (a)
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Q.318 With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: (2021)
1. The N. Gopalaswamy Iyenger Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary
be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and
promoting it.
2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the
Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime
Minister’s charge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Statement 1 is incorrect: In the report ‘Reorganisation of the Machinery of Central
Government’ (1950) Sh. N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar, suggested the grouping of ministries,
improvement in the capabilities of the personnel, and also in the working of the
Organisation and Method(O&M) Division. It nowhere mentions that a minister and a
secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and
promoting it. Moreover, it was the 1st ARC that suggested a minister and a secretary be
designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
Statement 2 is correct: In 1970, on the basis of the recommendations of the Administrative
Reforms Commission, the Department of Personnel was set up.
Answer: (b)
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Q.319 Consider the following statements:(2007)
1. The nation-wide scheme of the National Child Labour Projects (NCLP) is run by the
Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
2. Gurupadswamy Committee dealt with the issues of child labour.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
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Q.320 Which Article of the Constitution provides that it shall be the endeavour of every state to
provide adequate facility for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of
education?(2001)
(a) Article 349
(b) Article 350
(c) Article 350-A
(d) Article 351
Answer: (c)
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Q.321 Which of the following is the State in which the Lok Ayukta Act includes the Chief Minister
in its ambit? (1995)
(a) West Bengal and Kerala
(b) Gujarat and Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh and Orissa
(d) Rajasthan and Karnataka
Answer: (d)
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Q.322 Which of the following are the objectives of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and
Prices (CACP) ? (1995)
1. To stabilize agricultural prices
2. To ensure meaningful real income level to the farmers
3. To protect the interest of the consumers by providing essential agricultural
commodities at reasonable rates through public distribution system
4. To ensure maximum price for the farmer
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a)
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Q.323 The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992, amends the Eighth Schedule to the
Constitution to include which of the following languages? [2024]
1. Konkani
2. Manipuri
3. Nepali
4. Maithili
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a)
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Q.324 Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains : Special provisions for the
administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States?(2008)
(a) Third
(b) Fifth
(c) Seventh
(d) Ninth
Answer: (b)
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Q.325 Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the
Constitution of India ? (2004)
(a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Union and the
States
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
Answer: (d)
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Q.326 The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by:(2003)
(a) First Amendment
(b) Eighth Amendment
(c) Ninth Amendment
(d) Forty Second Amendment
Answer: (a)
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Q.327 Which one of the following schedules of the Indian Constitution lists the names of states
and specifies their territories?(2003)
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
Answer: (a)
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Q.328 Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the
Constitution of India? (2001)
(a) It lists the distribution of powers between the Union and the states
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the provision regarding the administration of tribal areas
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
Answer: (d)
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Q.329 If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the following schedules of
the Constitution must be amended ? (2001)
(a) First (b) Second
(c) Third (d) Fifth
Answer: (a)
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Q.330 Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions
regarding the anti-defection Act? (1998)
(a) Second Schedule
(b) Fifth Schedule
(c) Eighth Schedule
(d) Tenth Schedule
Answer: (d)
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Q.331 Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam': [2024]
1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within
the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Answer: (c)
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Q.332 Consider the following statements : [2024]
1. It is the Governor of the State who recognises and declares any community of that
State as a Scheduled Tribe.
2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another
State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
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Q.333 Consider the following pairs: [2024]
Party Its Leader
1 Bhartiya Jana Sangh Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
2 Socialist Party C. Rajagopalachari
3 Congress for Democracy Jagjivan Ram
4 Swatantra Party Acharya Narendra Dev
How many of the above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four
Answer: (b)
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Q.334 Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India? [2024]
1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
2. Emergency provisions are given in part XVIII of the Constitution.
3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the
Constitution.
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
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Q.335 With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: [2023]
1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central
Government.
2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in the
maintenance of internal security.
3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing
Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some states.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
Answer: (b)
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Q.336 With reference to India, consider the following pairs: [2023]
Action
The Act under which it
is covered
1. Unauthorised wearing of the official police or Military
uniforms
The Official Secrets Act,
1923
2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise Interfering with a police
officer or military officer when engaged in their duties
The Indian Evidence
Act, 1872
3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety
of others
The Arms
(Amendment) Act, 2019
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
Answer: (b)
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Q.337 Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to
the Flag Code of India, 2002: [2023]
Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm × 400 mm.
Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (d)
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Q.338 Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day: [2023]
Statement-I: Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote
constitutional values among citizens.
Statement-II: On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting
Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution
of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c)
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Q.339 Consider the following statements: [2023]
1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect
States from internal disturbances.
2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a
person being held for preventive detention.
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act 2002, the confession of the accused
before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (b)
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Q.340 With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements: [2023]
1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an
Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the
lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the
Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
Answer: (b)
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Q.341 Consider the following statements : [2023]
Statement-I : In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules
and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
Statement-II : In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept
the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Answer: (a)
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Q.342 With reference to India, consider the following statements : [2021]
1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such
prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither I nor 2
Answer: (b)
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Q.343 With reference to India, consider the following statements: [2021]
1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate
and such accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to
interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
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Q.344 Consider the following statements: [2021]
1. ‘Right to the City’ is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the
commitments made by each country in this regard.
2. ‘Right to the City’ gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces
and public participation in the city.
3. Right to the City’ means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to
the unauthorized colonies in the city.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
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Q.345 With reference to casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements:
[2021]
1. All casual workers are entitled for Employees Provident Fund coverage.
2. All casual workers are entitled for regular working hours and overtime payment.
3. The government can by a notification specify that an establishment or industry shall
pay wages only through its bank account.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
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Q.346 Consider the following statements : [2020]
1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.
2. The state cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of
Aadhaar data.
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of
India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: (b)
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Q.347 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit
(Amendment) Act, 2017? [2019]
1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months postdelivery paid leave.
2. Enterprises with crèches must allow the mother a minimum six crèche visits daily.
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
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Q.348 Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in
India : [2019]
1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Answer: (c)
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Q.349 Consider the following statements: [2018]
1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food
Adulteration Act, 1954.
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of
Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family
Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
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Q.350 With reference to the 'Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)',
consider the following statements :[2017]
1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the
property is not aware of the transaction.
2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.
3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any
appellate mechanism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: (b)
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Q.351 With reference to consumers' rights/ privileges under the provisions of law in India, which
of the following statements is/are correct? [2012]
1. Consumers are empowered to take samples for food testing.
2. When a consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be
paid.
3. In case of death of a consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the
consumer forum on his/her behalf.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
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Q.352 India is home to lakhs of persons with disabilities. What are the benefits available to
them under the law ? [2011]
1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government-run schools.
2. Preferential allotment of land for setting up business.
3. Ramps in public buildings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
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Q.353 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists
: (2008)
List-I (Person) List-II (Position)
A. Nagendra Singh 1. Chief Election Commissioner of India
B. A. N. Ray 2. President, International Court of Justice
C. R. K. Trivedi 3. Chief Justice of India
D. Ashok Desai 4. Attorney General of India
Codes:
(a) A-1; B-4; C-2; D-3
(b) A-2; B-3; C-1; D-4
(c) A-1; B-3; C-2; D-4
(d) A-2; B-4; C-1; D-3
Answer: (b)
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Q.354 Consider the following statements:(2005)
1. Article 371 A to 371 I were inserted in the Constitution of India to meet regional
demands of Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal
Pradesh and Goa.
2. The Constitution of India and the United States of America envisage a dual policy
(The Union and the States) but a single citizenship.
3. A naturalized citizen of India can never be deprived of his citizenship.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 only
Answer: (d)
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Q.355 Under which one of the Ministries of the Government of India does the Food and Nutrition
Board work? (2005)
(a) Ministry of Agriculture
(b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
Answer: (b)
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Q.356 Consider the following events:(2004)
1. Fourth general elections in India
2. Formation of Haryana state
3. Mysore named as Karnataka state
4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full states
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above?
(a) 2, 1, 4, 3 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1
(c) 2, 3, 4, 1 (d) 4, 1, 2, 3
Answer: (a)
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Q.357 The Archaeological Survey of India is an attached office of the Department/Ministry of:
(2004)
(a) Culture
(b) Tourism
(c) Science and Technology
(d) Human Resource Development
Answer: (a)
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Q.358 Which one of the following is the correct sequence in the descending order of
precedence in the warrant of precedence ? (2004)
(a) Attorney General of India–Judges of the Supreme Court–Members the of
Parliament–Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Judges of the Supreme Court–Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha–Attorney General of
India–Members of the Parliament
(c) Attorney General of India–Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha–Judges of the Supreme
Court–Members of Parliament
(d) Judges of the Supreme Court–Attorney General of India–Deputy Chairman of Rajya
Sabha–Members of Parliament
Answer: (b)
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Q.359 Survey of India is under the ministry of: (2003)
(a) Defence
(b) Environment and Forests
(c) Home Affairs
(d) Science and Technology
Answer: (d)
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Q.360 Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?(2003)
(a) The Press Council of India is an autonomous quasi- judicial body established under
an Act of the Parliament.
(b) The Press Information Bureau provides accreditation to media persons so as to have
easy access to information from government sources.
(c) Among all the states of India, Maharashtra publishes the largest number of
newspapers.
(d) Press Trust of India is the largest news agency in the country.
Answer: (c)
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Q.361 As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of
precedence?(2003)
(a) Deputy Prime Minister
(b) Former Presidents
(c) Governor of a State within his State
(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Answer: (c)
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Q.362 The Consultative Committee of Members of Parliament for Railway Zones is constituted
by the:(2002)
(a) President of India
(b) Ministry of Railways
(c) Ministry of Parliament Affairs
(d) Ministry of Transport
Answer: (c)
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Q.363 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists : (2001)
List-I
(Article of the Constitution)
List-II
(Content)
A. Article 54 1. Election of the President of India
B. Article 75 2. Appointment of the Prime Minister
C. Article 155 3. Appointment of the Governor of a State
D. Article 164 4. Appointment of the Chief Minister and
Council of Ministers of a State
5. Composition of Legislative Assemblies
Codes:
(a) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 (b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-5
(c) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-5 (d) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
Answer: (a)
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Q.364 Consider the following statements regarding the political parties in India:(2001)
1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for the registration of political
parties
2. Registration of political parties is carried out by the Election Commission
3. A national level political party is one which is recognized in four or more states
4. During the 1999 general elections, there were six national and 48 state level parties
recognised by the Election commission
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d)
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Q.365 Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists: (2001)
List-I List-II
(Publisher) (Publication)
A. Ministry of Industry 1. Report on Currency and Finance
B. Central Statistical Organisation 2. Economic Survey
C. Reserve Bank of India 3. Wholesale Price Index
D. Ministry of Finance 4. National Accounts Statistics
Codes:
(a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1 (b) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(c) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2 (d) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
Answer: (b)
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Q.366 Consider the following functionaries: (2000)
1. Cabinet Secretary
2. Chief Election Commissioner
3. Union Cabinet Minister
4. Chief Justice of India
Their correct sequence in the Order of Precedence is:
(a) 3, 4, 2, 1 (b) 4, 3, 1, 2
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2
Answer: (c)
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Q.367 Consider the following statements about the recent amendments to the elections law by
the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act 1996: (1999)
1. Any conviction for the offence of insulting the Indian National flag or the Constitution
of India shall entail disqualification for contesting elections to Parliament and State
Legislatures for six year from the date of conviction
2. There is an increase in the security deposit which a candidate has to make to contest
the election to the Lok Sabha
3. A candidate cannot now stand for election from more than one Parliament
Constituency
4. No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b)
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Q.368 Consider the following statements regarding the National Human Rights Commission of
India:(1999)
1. Its Chairman must be a retired Chief Justice of India
2. It exists in each state as State Human Rights Commission
3. Its powers are only recommendatory in nature
4. It is mandatory to appoint a woman as a member of the commission
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
Answer: (d)
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Q.369 Which one of the following legislations does not deal with the protection of the
environment ? (1999)
(a) The Water (Cess) Act, 1977
(b) The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980
(c) The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
(d) The Port Laws Amendment Act, 1997
Answer: (d)
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Q.370 Match List I with List II and select the correct answer: (1997)
List-I List-II
(Functionaries) (Oaths or affirmations)
A. President of India 1. Secrecy of information
B. Judges of Supreme Court 2. Faithful Discharge of duties
C. Members of Parliament 3. Faith and Allegiance to the Constitution of India
D. Minister for the Union 4. Upholding the Constitution and the Law
Codes:
(a) A-3 ; B-4 ; C-1 ; D-2 (b) A-4 ; B-3 ; C-2 ; D-1
(c) A-3 ; B-4 ; C-2; D-1 (d) A-4; B-3; C-1; D-2
Answer: (c)
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Q.371 Which one of the following is not a principle of "Panchsheel"?(1997)
(a) Non-alignment
(b) Peaceful Co-existence
(c) Mutual respect for each other's territorial integrity and sovereignty
(d) Mutual non-interference in each other's internal affairs
Answer: (a)
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