IBPS PO Prelims 2024 Previous Year Question Paper Memory Based With free PDF Download link -Nov 30, 2024 Banking
IBPS PO Mains 2024 Memory Based Paper (Nov 30, 2024)
1. Conclusions:
I. Some hammers are drills.
II. No spanner is a hammer.
(a) Statements: All Drill is Hammer; Some Hammer is Spanner; No Spanner is Wrench
(b) Statements: All Hammer is Drill; All Spanner is Hammer; Some Wrench is Spanner
(c) Statements: All Drill is Hammer; No Hammer is Spanner; Some Spanner is Wrench
(d) Statements: Some Drill is Hammer; All Spanner is Hammer; No Hammer is Wrench
(e) Statements: No Drill is Hammer; No Hammer is Spanner; All Spanner is Wrench
Correct Option - c
Directions (2-6): A word/number arrangement machine, when given an input line of words and numbers, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and its rearrangement (elements not yet processed remain in the middle in their original left-to-right order until their turn comes):
Rule: In each step, among the numbers still in the middle the SMALLEST one is increased by 1 and shifted out to the leftmost vacant position; simultaneously, among the words still in the middle, the one that comes LAST in alphabetical (dictionary) order has its own letters rearranged into alphabetical order and is shifted out to the rightmost vacant position. Elements placed in earlier steps do not move again. This repeats for 5 steps (5 numbers, 5 words).
Input: harbor 34 meadow 71 cactus 12 yonder 58 biscuit 45 Step I: 13 harbor 34 meadow 71 cactus 58 biscuit 45 denory Step II: 13 35 harbor 71 cactus 58 biscuit 45 ademow denory Step III: 13 35 46 71 cactus 58 biscuit abhorr ademow denory Step IV: 13 35 46 59 71 biscuit accstu abhorr ademow denory Step V: 13 35 46 59 72 bicistu accstu abhorr ademow denory Based on the above example, rearrange the below input: Input: falcon 27 juniper 63 quartz 9 amber 48 windmill 84
Ques. 2. Which element is third to the right of '49' in Step V of the given input?
(a) acflno
(b) abemr
(c) eijnpru
(d) 64
(e) None of these
Correct Option - b
Ques. 3. What is the sum of all the odd numbers in Step II of the given input?
(a) 63
(b) 111
(c) 48
(d) 170
(e) None of these
Correct Option - a
4. What is the position of 'aqrtuz' with respect to 'ejinpru' in Step IV of the given input?
(a) 2nd to the left
(b) 1st to the right
(c) 3rd to the right
(d) Immediately to the left
(e) None of these
Correct Option - b
5. Find the square of the second-highest number in Step III of the given input.
(a) 3969
(b) 6889
(c) 2401
(d) 4356
(e) None of these
Correct Option - a
6. Which element is fourth from the right end in Step II of the given input?
(a) 84
(b) amber
(c) 48
(d) 63
(e) None of these
Correct Option - c
Directions (7-10): Read the given information carefully and answer the following questions based on it. Eight persons - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W - sit in a row facing north. On counting from the left end, persons sitting at even-numbered positions are managers, and persons sitting at odd-numbered positions are associates. Each of them likes a different colour, viz. Maroon, Peach, Coral, Ivory, Teal, Beige, Lilac and Amber, but not necessarily in the same order.
No one sits to the left of P.
Only two persons sit between P and S.
R sits second to the right of P.
The one who likes Ivory sits immediate right of R.
Q sits exactly between P and R.
Only one person sits between S and U.
Only one person sits between R and the one who likes Teal.
The one who likes Beige sits immediate right of the one who likes Teal.
The one who likes Amber sits at the extreme right end of the row, and V sits immediate left of W.
P likes Maroon, Q likes Peach and R likes Coral.
Ques. 7. How many managers sit to the right of the one who likes Teal?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None of these
Correct Option - b
8. What is the position of R with respect to the one who likes Beige?
(a) Second to the left
(b) Third to the left
(c) Fourth to the left
(d) Third to the right
(e) Second to the right
Correct Option - b
Ques. 9. Which of the following statements is correct?
I. Only three persons sit between Q and the one who likes Amber.
II. T is an associate who sits immediate left of the one who likes Beige.
III. The one who likes Lilac sits at the extreme right end of the row.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only III
(d) Both I and II
(e) None of these
Correct Option - b
Ques. 10. Choose the incorrect combination of person - colour - role.
(a) P - Maroon - Associate
(b) S - Ivory - Manager
(c) U - Beige - Associate
(d) V - Lilac - Associate
(e) W - Amber - Manager
Correct Option - c
Ques. 11. The below question is based on the following information:
A$B means A is mother of B A@B means A is daughter of B A#B means A is father of B A%B means A is brother of B A&B means A is wife of B A*B means A is sister of B
In which of the following expressions is G the grandmother of K?
I. G$H#K
II. G@M$K
III. G$N%K
IV. G$J$K
(a) Only I and III
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only I and IV
(d) Only IV
(e) Only I, II and III
Correct Option - c
1.2. Six persons - P, Q, R, S, T and U attend a workshop on six different days of the week starting from Monday to Saturday but not necessarily in the same order. Who among the following attends the workshop on Thursday?
Statement I: S attends the workshop on one of the days after Thursday. R attends the workshop one day after P.
Statement II: T attends the workshop immediately before S. Q attends the workshop three days after P.
Statement III: Q attends the workshop two days after R. Two persons attend the workshop between P and Q.
(a) Both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question whereas statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the question
(b) Only statement III alone is sufficient to answer the question whereas both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
(c) All the three statements together are not sufficient to answer the question
(d) Any two of the given statements are necessary to answer the question
(e) Only statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question whereas both statements II and III are not sufficient to answer the question
Correct Option - a
Ques. 13. Five boxes of different colours - Red, Blue, Green, Yellow and Pink are placed one above another on different shelves numbered 1 (bottommost) to 5 (topmost), but not necessarily in the same order. Which among the following boxes is placed immediately above the Green box?
Statement I: Only one box is placed between the Green box and the Pink box. The Red box is placed on a shelf below shelf number 2.
Statement II: The Blue box is placed on a shelf below shelf number 4. The Blue box is placed one shelf above the Red box.
Statement III: The Pink box is placed two shelves above the Green box. The Yellow box is placed immediately below the Pink box.
(a) Both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question whereas statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the question
(b) Only statement III alone is sufficient to answer the question whereas both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question
(c) All the three statements together are not sufficient to answer the question
(d) Any two of the given statements are necessary to answer the question
(e) Only statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question whereas both statements I and III are not sufficient to answer the question
Correct Option - b
Ques. 14. Six persons - A, B, C, D, E and F sit around an equilateral triangular table such that three of them sit at the three corners and face inside (towards the centre) while the other three sit at the middle of each of the three sides and face outside (away from the centre). Who among the following sits immediate right of A?
Statement I: F sits one position away from E in clockwise direction. A sits at a corner of the table and faces inside.
Statement II: B sits four positions away from D in clockwise direction. D sits five positions away from E in clockwise direction.
Statement III: D sits three positions away from A in clockwise direction. E sits five positions away from F in clockwise direction.
1) Both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question whereas statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the question 2) Only statement III alone is sufficient to answer the question whereas both statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question 3) All the three statements together are not sufficient to answer the question 4) All the three statements I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question 5) Only statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question whereas both statements I and III are not sufficient to answer the question
Correct Option - d
Ques. 15. In the given word 'COMPUTATION' if the vowels are changed with its just next letter and consonants are changed with its just previous letter. Then the letters which comes after 'M' in the alphabetical series are changed with just next letter and the letters which come before 'M' are changed with its just previous letter. Now, eliminate the repeating letters and arrange the remaining letters in alphabetical order from left to right then which of the following letter is second to the right of the letter which is third from the left end in the new arrangement?
(a) P
(b) M
(c) Q
(d) K
(e) W
Correct Option - a
Ques. 16. If we use the following alphabets from the words given in the options below:
* The 2nd consonant from the left end in the first word, * The 1st vowel from the left end in the second word, * The consonant which is 1st from the right end in the third word, * The vowel which is 1st from the right end in the fourth word, Then, which of the following options give a meaningful word?
(a) BLANKET, APRON, TRUCK, TABLE
(b) SILVER, OCEAN, PLANT, MOUSE
(c) CANDLE, ISLAND, STORM, GRAPE
(d) FLOWER, UMBRELLA, CHALK, RIVER
(e) MARKET, ELEPHANT, BLOCK, SMOKE
Correct Option - a
Ques. 17. If in the given word 'KNOWLEDGE' vowels are replaced with their immediately succeeding letter and consonants are replaced with just preceding letter and in the word 'PARLIAMENT' the letters which come after 'L' are changed to their immediately succeeding letter and the letters which come before 'L' are changed to their immediately preceding letter then both the words are combined (second word is arranged after first word) then repeated letters are removed after combining both the words then which letter is 5th from the right end?
(a) H
(b) N
(c) Z
(d) S
(e) L
Correct Option - a
Directions (18-21): Read the following information carefully and answer the following
ight persons- Farhan, Girish, Harsha, Ishita, Jatin, Kabir, Lavanya and Mihir- are sitting in a circular arrangement, all facing the center. Each of them has a unique card number ranging from 2 to 9. Each person holds a distinct card number ranging from 2 to 9.
Note: The difference between the card numbers of persons sitting adjacent to each other is more than 1.
1. Ishita sits second to the right of the person whose card number is a prime number.
2. The person whose card number is a multiple of 5 is an immediate neighbour of Harsha.
3. Kabir sits opposite to Girish, and Lavanya does not sit opposite to Farhan.
4. The person who has card number 9 sits opposite to Harsha.
5. One person sits between the person who has card number 4 and Kabir.
6. The difference between the card numbers of Farhan and Girish is equal to the card number of Kabir.
7. The person whose card number is 6 is not an immediate neighbour of Girish.
8. Jatin's card number is two more than Girish's card number.
9. Harsha sits third to the right of Mihir, whose card number is a multiple of 3.
10. Two persons sit between the person who sits second to the right of Farhan and Kabir.
11. Ishita is not an immediate neighbour of Kabir.
12. The person whose card number is 8 sits immediately to the left of Ishita.
13. Lavanya's card number is two more than Jatin's card number.
14. The person whose card number is 2 is an immediate neighbour of Mihir.
Ques. 18. Who sits third to the right of the person who has card number 7?
(a) Farhan
(b) Girish
(c) Harsha
(d) Mihir
(e) Kabir
Correct Option - d
Ques. 19. What is the sum of the card numbers of Girish, Jatin, and Mihir?
(a) 16
(b) 17
(c) 18
(d) 19
(e) 20
Correct Option - c
Ques. 20. How many persons sit between the person who has card number 3 and Ishita when counting in the anticlockwise direction from the person who has card number 3?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) Four
Correct Option - b
Ques. 21. Which of the following pairs are adjacent and have card numbers differing by less than 4?
(a) Harsha-Ishita
(b) Jatin-Kabir (c) Girish-Harsha (d) Mihir-Farhan (e) Kabir-Lavanya
Correct Option - c
Ques. 22. Statement: The Rajasthan government announced in July 2026 a new subsidy scheme providing 50% cost support to farmers who install drip irrigation systems on farms below 5 acres, aiming to reduce groundwater depletion in the state's arid districts. The scheme has an initial budget allocation of Rs 800 crore for the current fiscal year.
Conclusions:
Conclusions:I. Some farmers in Rajasthan own farms below 5 acres.II. The Rajasthan government is concerned about groundwater depletion in its arid districts.III. All farmers in Rajasthan will install drip irrigation systems this year.Which of the above conclusions logically follows from the statement?
Which of the above conclusions logically follows from the statement?
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Only III follows
(d) Only I and II follow
(e) Only II and III follow
Correct Option - d
Ques. 23. Statement: Cyber fraud complaints related to fake instant-loan mobile apps rose by over 40% in Tier-2 and Tier-3 cities of India during the first half of 2026, according to a national consumer helpline report. Most victims reported being lured through unsolicited SMS messages offering instant loans without any documentation.
Courses of Action:
I. The government should direct telecom operators to strengthen filters that block bulk unsolicited SMS from unregistered or unverified senders.
II. All lending activity in India should be banned immediately to prevent further fraud.
III. Financial literacy campaigns should be conducted in Tier-2 and Tier-3 cities to educate people on verifying loan apps before applying.
Which of the above courses of action logically follows from the statement?
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Only I and II follow
(d) Only I and III follow
(e) All I, II and III follow
Correct Option - d
Ques. 24. Statement: The National Testing Agency introduced a new mandatory online proctoring protocol for a major entrance exam in 2026, requiring candidates to complete a device and network check 24 hours before their exam slot. Following the first exam cycle under this protocol, the agency reported a 15% decline in technical-glitch-related complaints compared to the previous cycle.
Inferences:
Inferences:I. The new proctoring protocol contributed to reducing technical-glitch complaints.II. Technical glitches during the exam have been completely eliminated.III. Some candidates still faced technical glitches even after the new protocol was introduced.
Which of the above inferences may be drawn from the statement?
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only III follows
(c) Only I and II follow
(d) Only I and III follow
(e) Only II and III follow
Correct Option - d
Ques. 25. Read the two statements and decide the relationship between them.
Statement I: The retail price of onions in several north Indian mandis rose sharply by around 30% in the first week of August 2026.
Statement II: Unseasonal heavy rainfall damaged standing onion crops in key growing regions of Maharashtra during the last week of July 2026.
(a) Statement I is the cause, and Statement II is its effect
(b) Statement II is the cause, and Statement I is its effect
(c) Both statements are independent causes
(d) Both statements are effects of a common cause
(e) None of these
Correct Option - b
Directions (26-27): Read the following information carefully and answer the following questions.
Six persons - P, Q, R, S, T and U - were born on different dates in June - 12, 13, 14, 15, 16, 17, 18 and 19 - of the same year, but not necessarily in the same order. No two persons share the same birth date. (Only six of the eight given dates are used.)
P was born on an even-numbered date before the 13th of the month, and was born before all the other five persons.
T was born on the 18th of June.
Only one person was born between P and R.
Q was born immediately before R.
S was born on an odd-numbered date, and exactly two persons were born after S.
Only one person was born before Q.
R's date of birth is exactly midway between the dates of birth of P and T.
Ques. 26. Which among the following person-date combinations is incorrect?
(a) P - 12th
(b) Q - 14th
(c) R - 16th
(d) S - 17th
(e) T - 18th
Correct Option - c
Ques. 27. How many persons were born between the birth dates of Q and U?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None
Correct Option - c
Directions (28-29): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions below:
A%B → A is the father-in-law of B A@B → A is the brother of B A\(B\)→\(A is the son of B A*B\)→\(A is the wife of B A#B\)→\(A is the mother of B A&B\)→\(A is the sister-in-law of B\)
Relation: F%L, F%M, L*H, K*M, H@K, G#H, D#H, K#I
Ques. 28. How is D related to F?
(a) Daughter (b) Sister-in-law (c) Son (d) Grandson (e) Granddaughter
Correct Option - d
Ques. 29. If D is married to I, then how many male members are there in the family?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
(e) None of these
Correct Option - b
Direction (30-34): Study the following information to answer the questions.
Five persons - Aakash, Bhavna, Chetan, Diya and Esha have five different ships - Falcon, Garuda, Hansa, Ibis and Jaguar docked at five different ports - Mumbai, Chennai, Kochi, Kandla and Vizag. All the information is not necessarily in the same order.
Aakash doesn't have Ship Garuda and Ship Hansa.
Aakash doesn't have Ship Garuda and Ship Ibis.
Esha doesn't dock at Chennai Port and Kochi Port.
Esha doesn't dock at Chennai Port and Vizag Port.
The person having Ship Jaguar doesn't dock at Chennai Port and Kochi Port.
Bhavna doesn't dock at Chennai Port and Vizag Port.
Bhavna doesn't have Ship Falcon and Ship Ibis.
Chetan doesn't have Ship Garuda and Ship Jaguar.
Chetan doesn't dock at Chennai Port and Kandla Port.
The person having Ship Hansa doesn't dock at Kandla Port and Vizag Port.
Diya doesn't have Ship Garuda and Ship Jaguar.
The person whose ship is docked at Kochi Port doesn't have Ship Hansa and Ship Jaguar.
Diya doesn't dock at Mumbai Port and Chennai Port.
Ques. 30. Which ship is docked at Chennai Port?
(a) Falcon
(b) Garuda
(c) Hansa
(d) Ibis
(e) Jaguar
Correct Option - a
Ques. 31. Which among the following combination of person-ship-port is correct?
(a) Bhavna - Hansa - Kochi
(b) Chetan - Hansa - Mumbai
(c) Diya - Jaguar - Vizag
(d) Esha - Ibis - Kandla
(e) Aakash - Garuda - Chennai
Correct Option - b
Ques. 32. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false?
I. Bhavna's ship Garuda is docked at Kochi Port.
II. Esha's ship Jaguar is docked at Vizag Port.
III. Diya's ship Ibis is docked at Vizag Port.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only III
(d) Both I and II
(e) None of these
Correct Option - b
Ques. 33. Who among the following persons docked the ship at Kandla Port?
(a) Aakash
(b) Bhavna
(c) Chetan
(d) Diya
(e) Esha
Correct Option - e
Ques. 34. In which among the following ports is Ship Ibis docked?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Chennai
(c) Kochi
(d) Kandla
(e) Vizag
Correct Option - e
Directions (35-36): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Series: 9 K & 15 R # 3 @ M 22 ! T % 7 © L ^ 11 * D 18 $ Q 5
STEP I: All the numbers which are immediately preceded by a letter are increased by 2. All the numbers which are immediately preceded by a symbol are decreased by 2. (The first element of the series, if a number, remains unchanged as it has no element to its left.)
5. Which number is 4th to the right of the 6th element from the left end in Step II?
(a) 20
(b) 9
(c) 7
(d) 24
(e) None of these
Correct Option - d
Ques. 36. How many letters are either immediately followed or immediately preceded by a prime number in Step I?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None of these
Correct Option - b
Directions (37-40): Read the given information carefully and answer the questions based on it:
Four machines (J, K, L and M) are arranged in a production line to manufacture a specific product. Each machine has distinct operational rules and performs a different function in the manufacturing process.
The factory works from 9:00 AM to 6:00 PM every day, and each product must pass through the machines in a specific order (J -> K -> L -> M) to be completed. Each machine has a fixed processing time per product, but machines cannot process more than one product at a time.
Here is the information about the machines:
Machine J: Takes 8 minutes to process a product. The products enter at 10-minute intervals starting at 9:00 AM.
Machine K: Takes 10 minutes to process a product.
It starts working only if Machine J has completed its task and sends the product forward.
Machine L: Takes 12 minutes to process a product.
It requires a 4-minute cooldown period before processing the next product.
Machine M: Takes 9 minutes to process a product.
It can only start processing a product if it receives it before or exactly on the half-hour mark (that is, the :00 or :30 mark of any hour). Otherwise, the product must wait until the next such mark.
The factory stops accepting new products for processing at 12:00 Noon.
Ques. 37. Find the total number of products fully manufactured (i.e. that finish processing on Machine M) by 6:00 PM?
(a) 15
(b) 16
(c) 17
(d) 18
(e) None of these
Correct Option - c
3. 38. What are the number of products entering Machine J?
(a) 17(b) 18(c) 19(d) 20(e) None of theseCorrect Option - c
Correct Option - c
3. 39. Find the exact time the last product completes processing in Machine L?
(a) 2:02 PM(b) 2:10 PM(c) 2:18 PM(d) 2:26 PM(e) None of theseCorrect Option - c
Correct Option - c
4. 40. At what time does the 5th product finish processing in Machine K?
(a) 9:48 AM(b) 9:58 AM(c) 10:08 AM(d) 9:38 AM(e) None of theseCorrect Option - b
Correct Option - b
Directions (41-42): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Nine persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I - sit in two different cars: Car 1 and Car 2. The maximum number of persons sitting in a car is five, and the minimum number of persons sitting in a car is four. All the information is not necessarily in the same order.
Note: The letters that come immediately before a vowel in the English alphabet do not sit in the same car. A and B sit in the same car. C sits in Car 2. E does not sit in Car 2. F sits in the same car as G. Only three other persons sit with G in that car. I sits with A. D sits in the same car as C.
4. 41. Who among the following persons sits in Car 2?
(a) A(b) E(c) D(d) I(e) None of theseCorrect Option - d
Correct Option - d
4. 42. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their car seating and so form a group. Find the one which does not belong to that group?
(a) A(b) B(c) H(d) I(e) DCorrect Option - d
Correct Option - d
Directions (43-45): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. In a certain coded language: X@NY means X is N m north of Y. X%NY means X is N m south of Y. X#NY means X is N m east of Y. XSNY means X is N m west of Y. Conditions: K@5J (K is 5m north of J) L#8K (L is 8m east of K) M%5L (M is 5m south of L) N$12M (N is 12m west of M) O@6N (O is 6m north of N) P#9O (P is 9m east of O) Q%10P (Q is 10m south of P) R@4Q (R is 4m north of Q) Quess. 43. What is the direction of point R with respect to point L? (a) North-East (b) South-West (c) North-West (d) South-East (e) None of these Correct Option - b Quess. 44. If Point S is 6m north of Point M, then what is the total distance between Point S and Point K? (a) √61 m (b) √59 m (c) √65 m (d) √34 m (e) None of these Correct Option - c Quess. 45. What is the shortest distance between Point J and Point P, and Point J is in which direction with respect to Point O? (a) √59 m, South-West (b) √61 m, South-East (c) √65 m, North-East (d) √34 m, South-East (e) None of these Correct Option - b Quess. 46. As per the RBI's August 2026 bi-monthly Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) statement, at what level was the policy repo rate held? (a) 4.75% (b) 5.00% (c) 5.25%
4.7. The RBI reduced the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) in phases during 2025, bringing it down from 4% to what level, which it has since described as the 'new normal' for effective liquidity management?
(a) 2.50% (b) 3.00% (c) 3.50% (d) 3.75% (e) 4.50%
Correct Option - b
Ques. 48. What is the current Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) prescribed by the RBI for scheduled commercial banks?
(a) 16.00% (b) 17.00% (c) 18.00% (d) 19.50% (e) 20.00%
Correct Option - c
Ques. 49. Who is the current Governor of the Reserve Bank of India, who took charge in December 2024?
(a) Shaktikanta Das
(b) Urjit Patel
(c) Sanjay Malhotra
(d) M. Rajeshwar Rao
(e) T.T. Rammohan
Correct Option - c
Ques. 50. Under RBI's Priority Sector Lending (PSL) norms, what is the overall PSL target for domestic scheduled commercial banks, expressed as a percentage of Adjusted Net Bank Credit (ANBC)?
(a) 30% (b) 35% (c) 40% (d) 45% (e) 50%
Correct Option - c
Ques. 51. As per RBI's revised regulatory framework, urban co-operative banks (UCBs) with deposits above a specified threshold were directed to raise their minimum Capital to Risk-weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR) to what level?
(a) 9% (b) 10% (c) 11% (d) 12% (e) 15%
Correct Option - d
52. The Reserve Bank of India commenced its operations under the RBI Act, 1934, headquartered in which city?
(a) New Delhi(b) Kolkata(c) Chennai(d) Mumbai(e) NagpurCorrect Option - d
Correct Option - d
Quess. 53. In which year was the Imperial Bank of India nationalised and renamed as the State Bank of India (SBI)?
(a) 1949(b) 1955(c) 1959(d) 1969(e) 1980Correct Option - b
Correct Option - b
Quess. 54. NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) was established in which year as India's apex development bank for agriculture and rural development?
(a) 1975(b) 1980(c) 1982(d) 1990(e) 1998Correct Option - c
Correct Option - c
Quess. 55. IRDAI, the statutory regulator for the insurance sector in India, has its head office located in which city?
(a) Mumbai(b) New Delhi(c) Hyderabad(d) Bengaluru(e) ChennaiCorrect Option - c
Correct Option - c
Quess. 56. Who currently serves as the Chairman of IRDAI (Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India)?
(a) Debasish Panda(b) Tuhin Kanta Pandey(c) Ajay Seth(d) Subhash Chandra Khuntia(e) M. Rajeshwar RaoCorrect Option - c
Correct Option - c
Quess. 57. Which regulatory body, established under the PFRDA Act, 2013 (with the authority itself set up in 2003), regulates the National Pension System (NPS) and Atal Pension Yojana (APY) in India?
(a) SEBI(b) IRDAI
(c) PFRDA
(d) NABARD
(e) RBI
Correct Option - c
Ques. 58. Who currently holds the position of Chairman of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)?
(a) Madhabi Puri Buch
(b) Ajay Tyagi
(c) U.K. Sinha
(d) Tuhin Kanta Pandey
(e) Ajay Seth
Correct Option - d
Ques. 59. India's Unified Payments Interface (UPI), operated by NPCI, recorded its highest-ever monthly transaction volume in July 2026. Approximately how many transactions did UPI process that month?
(a) 10.5 billion
(b) 16.7 billion
(c) 20.1 billion
(d) 23.66 billion
(e) 30 billion
Correct Option - d
Ques. 60. As per the Union Budget 2026-27, what is the fiscal deficit target set by the Government of India, expressed as a percentage of GDP?
(a) 3.8%
(b) 4.1%
(c) 4.3%
(d) 4.9%
(e) 5.1%
Correct Option - c
Ques. 61. As per the provisional estimates released by the National Statistical Office (NSO), what was India's real GDP growth rate for FY 2025-26?
(a) 6.4%
(b) 6.9%
(c) 7.2%
(d) 7.7%
(e) 8.5%
Correct Option - d
Ques. 62. In its July 2026 policy meeting, the U.S. Federal Reserve held its benchmark federal funds rate steady within which target range?
(a) 2.75%-3.00%
(b) 3.00%-3.25%
(c) 3.25%-3.50%
(d) 3.50%-3.75%
(e) 4.25%-4.50%
Correct Option - d
63. The RBI recently approved the merger of the National Co-operative Bank with which urban cooperative bank, as part of its consolidation of the co-operative banking sector?
(a) Saraswat Co-operative Bank(b) Cosmos Co-operative Bank(c) Shamrao Vithal Co-operative Bank(d) Abhyudaya Co-operative Bank(e) TJSB Sahakari Bank
Correct Option - b
Quess. 64. Under the PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana, eligible households installing rooftop solar can avail a central subsidy of up to how much, along with up to 300 units of free electricity per month?
(a) Rs. 30,000(b) Rs. 45,000(c) Rs. 60,000(d) Rs. 78,000(e) Rs. 1,00,000
Correct Option - d
Quess. 65. The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), which operates UPI, IMPS and RuPay, is headquartered in which city?
(a) New Delhi(b) Bengaluru(c) Mumbai(d) Hyderabad(e) Pune
Correct Option - c
Quess. 66. The NISAR satellite, a first-of-its-kind joint Earth-observation mission using dual-frequency synthetic aperture radar, was launched in July 2025 aboard which ISRO rocket from Sriharikota?
(a) PSLV-C60(b) GSLV-F16(c) LVM3-M4(d) SSLV-D3(e) GSLV Mk III-M2
Correct Option - b
Quess. 67. In September 2025, India successfully test-fired the Agni-Prime missile for the first time from a railbased mobile launcher. What is the primary category of this missile?
(a) Anti-satellite weapon(b) Intermediate-range ballistic missile(c) Submarine-launched cruise missile(d) Surface-to-air missile(e) Anti-tank guided missile
Correct Option - b
Quess. 68. India won the ICC Champions Trophy 2025 by defeating which team in the final held in Dubai?
(a) Australia(b) South Africa
(c) New Zealand
(d) England
(e) Pakistan
Correct Option - c
Quess. 69. India defeated Pakistan in the final of the Asia Cup 2025 (T20 format, held in the UAE) to win a record how-many-th Asia Cup title?
(a) 6th
(b) 7th
(c) 8th
(d) 9th
(e) 10th
Correct Option - d
Quess. 70. India won its maiden ICC Women's Cricket World Cup title in 2025 by defeating which team in the final?
(a) Australia
(b) England
(c) South Africa
(d) New Zealand
(e) West Indies
Correct Option - c
Quess. 71. Which state has been announced as the host of the Khelo India Youth Games 2026, the 8th edition of the event?
(a) Bihar
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Telangana
(d) Tamil Nadu
(e) Odisha
Correct Option - c
Quess. 72. The Nobel Peace Prize for 2025 was awarded to Maria Corina Machado for her work promoting democratic rights. She is an opposition leader from which country?
(a) Colombia
(b) Nicaragua
(c) Venezuela
(d) Ecuador
(e) Bolivia
Correct Option - c
Quess. 73. The 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics was jointly awarded to John Clarke, Michel H. Devoret and John M. Martinis for discoveries related to which field?
(a) Gravitational waves detection
(b) Macroscopic quantum tunnelling and energy quantisation in an electric circuit
(c) CRISPR gene editing
(d) Exoplanet detection methods
(e) Neutrino oscillation
Correct Option - b
4. The Booker Prize 2025 (for fiction originally written in English) was awarded to David Szalay for which novel?
(a) The Bee Sting
(b) Flesh
(c) Prophet Song
(d) Orbital
(e) Small Things Like These
Correct Option - b
Quess. 75. The International Booker Prize 2025 was won by Heart Lamp, a collection of short stories originally written in which Indian language, authored by Banu Mushtaq?
(a) Malayalam
(b) Tamil
(c) Kannada
(d) Telugu
(e) Marathi
Correct Option - c
Quess. 76. In 2025, an Indian organisation won the Ramon Magsaysay Award for the first time in the award's history. Name the organisation.
(a) Pratham Education Foundation
(b) Educate Girls
(c) Akshaya Patra Foundation
(d) Barefoot College
(e) Goonj
Correct Option - b
Quess. 77. At the Padma Awards announced on the eve of Republic Day 2026, the Padma Vibhushan was conferred posthumously on veteran actor Dharmendra and which former Kerala Chief Minister?
(a) Oommen Chandy
(b) E.K. Nayanar
(c) V.S. Achuthanandan
(d) K. Karunakaran
(e) A.K. Antony
Correct Option - c
Quess. 78. Who took charge as the Chairman of SEBI, succeeding Madhabi Puri Buch, in March 2025?
(a) Ajay Seth
(b) Tuhin Kanta Pandey
(c) Sanjay Malhotra
(d) Rohit Jain
(e) Debasish Panda
Correct Option - b
Quess. 79. Rohit Jain was appointed as a Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India for a three-year term starting from which date in 2026?
(a) 1 January 2026
(b) 3 May 2026
(c) 15 August 2026 (d) 1 April 2026 (e) 26 January 2026
Correct Option - b
Quess. 80. Justice Surya Kant was sworn in as the Chief Justice of India in November 2025, becoming which numbered CJI, succeeding Justice B.R. Gavai?
(a) 50th
(b) 51st
(c) 52nd
(d) 53rd
(e) 54th
Correct Option - d
Quess. 81. The India-UK Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA), described as a 'historic' free trade deal, was signed in 2025 during Prime Minister Modi's visit to which city?
(a) Manchester
(b) Birmingham
(c) London
(d) Edinburgh
(e) Liverpool
Correct Option - c
Quess. 82. India has assumed the chairmanship of BRICS for 2026 and will host the 18th BRICS Summit. Which country hosted the 17th BRICS Summit in 2025?
(a) Russia
(b) China
(c) South Africa
(d) Brazil
(e) United Arab Emirates
Correct Option - d
Quess. 83. The PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana, which provides subsidised rooftop solar installations to households, is implemented under which Union Ministry?
(a) Ministry of Power
(b) Ministry of Rural Development
(c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
(d) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
(e) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Correct Option - c
Quess. 84. At the Global Fintech Fest 2025, the RBI unveiled several new UPI-linked initiatives including IoT payments, Banking Connect, Reserve Pay and an AI-based tool. What is this AI-based tool called?
(a) UPI Assist
(b) UPI HELP
(c) UPI Sahay
(d) Digital Saathi
(e) UPI Genie
Correct Option - b
8. As per the WIPO Global Innovation Index (GII) 2025, what is India's overall rank among the countries assessed?
(a) 30th
(b) 33rd
(c) 38th
(d) 46th
(e) 52nd
Correct Option - c
Directions (86-90): In the following question, a sentence with two highlighted phrases are given which may or may not be grammatically correct. From the given alternatives, choose the most suitable pair of phrases that are grammatically and contextually correct to replace the incorrect phrases.
Ques. 86. The bank has announced yesterday that it will revise its interest rate structure from the next quarter.
(i) announced yesterday (ii) will have revised (iii) had announced yesterday (a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Only (iii) (c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) Only (i) (e) All (i), (ii), and (iii)
Correct Option - d
Ques. 87. Employees who works from home on Fridays must submitted their weekly report by 6 PM.
(i) work from home (ii) must submit (iii) must have submitted (a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Both (i) and (ii) (d) Both (i) and (iii) (e) All (i), (ii), and (iii)
Correct Option - c
Ques. 88. The auditor pointed out several discrepancies in the accounts and has recommend stricter compliance measures for the next fiscal year.
(i) has pointed out (ii) recommended (iii) has recommended (a) Only (ii) (b) Only (iii) (c) Both (i) and (ii) (d) Both (i) and (iii) (e) All (i), (ii), and (iii)
Correct Option - a
8. The company is operating in over twenty countries since its inception in 1998.
(i) has been operating (ii) has operated (iii) from its inception (a) Only (i) (b) Only (ii) (c) Both (i) and (iii) (d) Only (ii) (e) All (i), (ii), and (iii)
Correct Option - a
Qu. 90. Candidates are advised to carry along their original documents and arrive to the venue at least thirty minutes before the interview.
(i) carry alongside (ii) arrive at (iii) arrive in (a) Only (ii) (b) Only (iii) (c) Both (i) and (ii) (d) Both (i) and (iii) (e) All (i), (ii), and (iii)
Correct Option - a
Directions (91): In the question below, some information is provided, followed by several alternatives. Select the most appropriate inference that can be drawn from the given information.
Qu. 91. A survey conducted across 420 mid-sized firms in the services sector found that 62% of employees working in a hybrid model reported higher job satisfaction than employees working entirely from the office. The same survey measured average productivity scores out of 100: fully remote employees, who made up only 18% of the sample, scored lowest at 58, compared to 74 for hybrid workers and 71 for office-based workers.
Separately, firms that had invested in structured onboarding programmes saw a 34% reduction in first-year attrition among new hires, whereas firms without such programmes reported attrition rates nearly double the industry average of 21%. Notably, none of the surveyed firms with onboarding programmes reported attrition above 25%, regardless of company size or sector.
I. Hybrid working arrangements are associated with both higher job satisfaction and higher productivity than fully remote arrangements.
II. Structured onboarding programmes are effective in reducing first-year attrition regardless of firm size.
III. Office-based employees reported higher productivity than fully remote employees but lower satisfaction than hybrid employees.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only III
(d) Both II and III
(e) All I, II and III
Correct Option - d
Directions (92-94): In the questions below, three sentences are provided. Select the most appropriate connectors to link (A)-(B) and (B)-(C) respectively to form a cohesive sentence without altering the given context.
Ques. 92. (A) The new payment gateway reduced transaction failures significantly (B) many customers continued to report delays during peak hours (C) the technical team decided to conduct a full system audit.
(i) Although (ii) Because (iii) Therefore (iv) Which (a) i, ii (b) ii, iii (c) i, iii (d) iv, ii (e) ii, iv
Correct Option - c
Ques. 93. (A) The HR department revised the leave policy last month (B) employees welcomed the added flexibility (C) a few raised concerns about the reduced carry-forward limit.
(i) and (ii) while (iii) because (iv) so (a) i, ii (b) ii, iii (c) iii, iv (d) i, iv (e) ii, iv
Correct Option - a
Ques. 94. (A) The airline reduced its domestic fares by twelve percent (B) demand for weekday flights rose sharply (C) many routes are now operating at full capacity.
(i) so (ii) although (iii) as a result (iv) whereas (a) i, ii (b) ii, iv (c) i, iii (d) iv, i (e) iii, iv
Correct Option - c
Directions (95): Read the given information and answer the question asked on it.
Ques. 95. Monday morning kicked off (i) with chaos at the regional office when the primary server ran into (ii) a critical fault just as the monthly reports were due. The IT lead sorted out (iii) the immediate access issue within minutes, restoring the shared drive, but a deeper configuration conflict still needed attention. By noon, a senior engineer had ironed out (iv) the remaining conflict after tracing it to a faulty update. Meanwhile, staff were reminded that they had backed up (v) their files earlier that week, which proved fortunate. Once the fix was verified, technicians shut down (vi) the affected server briefly to apply the patch before bringing it back online.
Choose the correct pair of phrasal verbs that has the same meaning.
(a) i-ii
(b) iii-iv
(c) ii-v
(d) i-vi
(e) iv-vi
Correct Option - b
Directions (96-97): Read the following conversation between X and Y, and answer the given question.
Ques. 96. X: The new dashboard design really seems to (A) compliment the workflow improvements we made last quarter.
Y: Thanks! I'll pass along your (D) complement to the design team. By the way, I think the caching plugin we (B) installed last week is having a negative (C) affect on load speed.
X: That's likely. This same update seems to (E) effect the login speed too, since users are reporting delays there as well.
Y: Let's (F) schedule a quick fix before the client demo tomorrow.
Which of the following is correct sequence of the words after the rearrangement?
(a) A-D and C-E
(b) A-C and D-E
(c) B-F and A-D
(d) A-E and C-D
(e) No swap required
Correct Option - a
Ques. 97. Which of the following is the synonym of the word 'schedule' (as used at F)?
(a) postpone
(b) arrange
(c) cancel
(d) delay
(e) forget
Correct Option - b
Directions (98-102): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
Telemedicine, the practice of consulting physicians through video calls, phone lines, or messaging apps rather than in a clinic, has moved from a niche convenience to a mainstream feature of healthcare delivery within the span of a single decade. Its proliferation across both metropolitan hospitals and rural health centres has been driven by a simple promise: that distance and time should no longer determine whether a patient receives timely medical attention. For families living hours away from the nearest specialist, a fifteen-minute video consultation can replace what was once a full day of travel, lost wages, and uncertain waiting-room queues.
Yet the very convenience that makes telemedicine attractive to patients also introduces constraints that traditional, face-to-face consultations do not carry. A physician examining a patient in person can observe posture, smell, skin tone, and subtle tremors that a grainy video feed often fails to capture, and can perform a physical palpation that no camera can replicate. Consequently, while telemedicine excels at follow-up visits, prescription renewals, and preliminary triage, it remains a poor substitute for conditions that demand hands-on examination, such as suspected fractures or abdominal pain of unclear origin.
This tension between accessibility and diagnostic depth places telemedicine in an unusual position: it simultaneously widens the reach of healthcare and narrows the range of ailments that can be safely treated through a screen. Hospital administrators who once viewed the technology purely as a cost-saving tool are now compelled to stratify cases carefully, routing only appropriate complaints to virtual queues while reserving in-person slots for anything requiring direct examination.
A further complication lies in the unevenness of digital access itself. Elderly patients unfamiliar with smartphone applications, and households in regions with unreliable internet connectivity, often find the supposed convenience of telemedicine transformed into an additional barrier rather than a bridge. Clinics that fail to offer a simple phone-call fallback risk excluding precisely the population that stood to benefit most from reduced travel.
Ultimately, telemedicine's promise will be fulfilled not by replacing physical clinics but by working alongside them, absorbing the routine and the urgent-but-simple cases so that scarce specialist time can be devoted to what a screen still cannot diagnose.
Ques. 98. What dual nature of telemedicine's influence on healthcare access is emphasized in the passage?
(a) Telemedicine widens the reach of healthcare while simultaneously narrowing the range of ailments that can be safely diagnosed through a screen.
(b) Telemedicine reduces treatment costs for hospitals while increasing costs for patients who must travel to clinics.
(c) Telemedicine improves diagnostic accuracy for all conditions while reducing the number of specialists required.
(d) Telemedicine eliminates the need for physical clinics while increasing dependence on smartphone technology among the elderly.
(e) Telemedicine expands access for urban patients while making healthcare entirely inaccessible to rural communities.
Correct Option - a
Ques. 99. How does in-person physical examination contrast with video consultation, as described in the passage?
(a) In-person examination allows a physician to observe posture, smell, skin tone and perform physical palpation, none of which a video feed can reliably capture.
(b) In-person examination is described as slower and less reliable than video consultation for diagnosing fractures.
(c) Video consultation is shown to be superior for detecting subtle tremors and abdominal pain of unclear origin.
(d) In-person examination is only useful for prescription renewals, while video consultation handles all physical diagnoses.
(e) Video consultation and in-person examination are described as equally effective for every category of ailment.
Correct Option - a
Ques. 100. Choose the most appropriate phrase to replace 'a poor substitute for' without altering the context.
(a) an inadequate replacement for
(b) an excellent alternative to
(c) a costly requirement for
(d) a preferred option over
(e) a temporary solution for
Correct Option - a
Ques. 101. Choose the most appropriate phrase to replace the highlighted phrase 'absorbing the routine and the urgent-but-simple cases'.
(a) taking on straightforward and moderately urgent cases
(b) rejecting complicated and rare cases
(c) ignoring minor and routine complaints
(d) postponing urgent and complex cases
(e) duplicating specialist consultations unnecessarily
Correct Option - a
Ques. 102. Choose the most suitable synonym of 'proliferation' as used in the passage.
(a) expansion
(b) decline
(c) stagnation
(d) restriction
(e) uniformity
Correct Option - a
Directions (103-108): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been denoted by letters. For each blank, three words are suggested, one, two or all three of which may fit the blank appropriately. Following the words, five options are given. Choose the most appropriate set of words from the options that fits the blank appropriately.
Over the past few years, many organisations have (A) [I. rejected II. embraced III. adopted] remote work as a permanent feature of their operating model rather than a temporary arrangement. Surveys conducted across several sectors (B) [I. indicates II. suggesting III. indicate] that employees who work remotely report higher job satisfaction, although managers remain (C) [I. skeptical II. skepticism III. doubtful] about long-term productivity. Firms that (D) [I. invests II. invest III. investing] in collaborative software and transparent communication tend to retain talent better than those that simply (E) [I. mandates II. mandating III. mandate] a return to the office without addressing employee concerns. As hybrid arrangements become standard, human resource teams must (F) [I. reconsidering II. reconsidered III. reconsider] traditional performance metrics, shifting emphasis from hours logged to outcomes achieved.
Ques. 103. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (A)?
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Only (II)
(d) Both (I) and (III)
(e) Only (III)
Correct Option - b
Ques. 104. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (B)?
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Only (I)
(c) Both (II) and (III)
(d) Only (III)
(e) Only (II)
Correct Option - d
Ques. 105. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (C)?
(a) Only (II)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Only (I)
(d) Both (I) and (II)
(e) Only (III)Correct Option - b
Ques. 106. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (D)?
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) Only (II)
(d) Only (III)
(e) Both (II) and (III)
Correct Option - c
Ques. 107. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (E)?
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Only (III)
(e) Both (II) and (III)
Correct Option - d
Ques. 108. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (F)?
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Only (I)
(c) Only (II)
(d) Both (I) and (III)
(e) Only (III)
Correct Option - e
Directions (109-110): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
Ayurveda and Unani medicine, though frequently conflated by lay observers as interchangeable strands of India's indigenous healing heritage, rest upon epistemological foundations that diverge substantially. Ayurveda, codified in Sanskrit treatises composed over two millennia ago, posits that health is contingent upon the equilibrium of three humoral forces—vata, pitta, and kapha—whose imbalance precipitates disease; therapeutic intervention thus seeks to restore this triadic harmony through diet, herbal formulation, and regimented lifestyle. Unani medicine, by contrast, traces its lineage to Greco-Arabic scholarship transmitted through Persian and Arab physicians before being assimilated into the subcontinent during the medieval period, and it attributes physiological function to four humours—blood, phlegm, yellow bile, and black bile—whose proportions determine an individual's temperament. While both systems share a conviction that illness arises from internal disequilibrium rather than external pathogens alone, their diagnostic vocabularies and pharmacological repertoires remain distinct: Ayurvedic practitioners emphasize pulse diagnosis calibrated to the three doshas, whereas Unani hakims historically relied on urine and pulse examination framed within the Galenic humoral tradition. This divergence, often obscured by their shared emphasis on natural remedies, underscores that syncretism in popular perception belies genuine doctrinal distinctness.
Ques. 109. What distinguishes Ayurveda from Unani medicine, as explained in the passage?
(a) Ayurveda is rooted in a Sanskrit tradition of three humoral forces, while Unani derives from Greco-Arabic scholarship built around four humours.
(b) Ayurveda relies exclusively on herbal formulations, while Unani relies exclusively on dietary regulation.
(c) Ayurveda originated in the medieval period, while Unani predates it by two millennia.
(d) Ayurveda rejects the idea of internal disequilibrium, while Unani embraces it as the sole cause of illness.
(e) Ayurveda and Unani share identical diagnostic vocabularies but differ only in their geographic origins.
Correct Option - a
Ques. 110. What can be inferred about the relationship between 'popular perception' and 'doctrinal distinctness' in the passage?
(a) Popular perception tends to blur the genuine doctrinal differences between the two systems, even though those differences are substantial.
(b) Popular perception accurately reflects the doctrinal distinctness of both systems at all times.
(c) Doctrinal distinctness has been entirely eliminated by widespread popular perception over time.
(d) Popular perception and doctrinal distinctness are unrelated concepts never discussed together in the passage.
(e) Doctrinal distinctness is a myth invented by modern scholars to contradict popular perception.
Correct Option - a
Directions (111-112): Rearrange the following five sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the question given below.
Ques. 111. (A) However, this optimism is tempered by the fact that fewer than one in three respondents could correctly answer three basic questions on interest, inflation and risk diversification.
(B) A recent survey conducted across several developing economies revealed that nearly seventy percent of adults consider themselves confident about managing their household budgets.
(C) Financial institutions have therefore begun designing simplified, vernacular-language modules that explain compound interest and insurance using everyday examples rather than technical jargon.
(D) Educators argue that such gaps stem not from a lack of intelligence but from the absence of structured financial education during school years.
(E) Early results from pilot programmes suggest that even brief, story-based lessons can measurably improve participants' ability to plan for long-term expenses such as retirement or education.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of the five sentences to form a meaningful paragraph?
(a) BADCE
(b) BDACE
(c) ABDCE
(d) BADEC
(e) DBACE
Correct Option - a
Ques. 112. (A) Yet grid operators warn that without adequate storage capacity, this rapid influx of intermittent power can destabilize supply during periods of low sunlight or wind.
(B) Over the past decade, the cost of solar panels and wind turbines has fallen so sharply that renewables now compete directly with coal and gas on price alone.
(C) Consequently, several countries have begun mandating minimum battery storage alongside every new utility-scale solar installation to smooth out fluctuations.
(D) As a result, utility companies across the world have rushed to add gigawatts of clean capacity to their national grids each year.
(E) Early data from these mandates indicate a marked reduction in blackouts, encouraging other regions to adopt similar storage requirements.
Which of the following is the correct sequence of the five sentences to form a meaningful paragraph?
(a) BDACE
(b) BADCE
(c) DBACE
(d) BDCAE (e) BACDE Correct Option - a
Directions (113-120): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
Germany, long regarded as Europe's economic engine, is confronting a demographic reality that threatens the very foundation of its industrial strength: a rapidly aging population. By the early 2030s, official projections suggest that more than a fifth of the country's inhabitants will be aged sixty-five or above, while the pool of working-age citizens continues to contract year after year. This imbalance between retirees drawing pensions and a shrinking base of contributors has pushed policymakers to treat labour scarcity not as a cyclical inconvenience but as a structural emergency.
In response, Berlin has overhauled its immigration framework, easing visa requirements for skilled professionals from outside the European Union and streamlining the once-notoriously slow process of recognising foreign qualifications. The Skilled Immigration Act, expanded in recent years, now allows workers with vocational training - not merely university degrees - to qualify for long-term residency, reflecting an acknowledgment that the country's shortage spans hospitals, construction sites and machine shops alike.
This openness is not entirely new. Germany's post-war economic boom was itself sustained by the influx of socalled guest workers, recruited from Turkey, Italy and the former Yugoslavia during the 1960s to staff factories that could not find enough domestic labour. Many of these arrangements were designed as temporary, yet a substantial share of guest workers settled permanently, laying the demographic and cultural groundwork for the diverse workforce Germany now depends on.
Despite this precedent, integration remains uneven. Newly arrived professionals frequently describe bureaucratic attrition - months-long waits for document verification, inconsistent language requirements across federal states, and employers reluctant to hire candidates whose credentials were earned abroad. Officials counter that credential recognition has improved considerably, with dedicated agencies now processing applications within weeks rather than the year-long delays common a decade ago.
The economic stakes are considerable. Nursing homes, engineering firms and software companies alike report thousands of unfilled positions, and some economists warn that unaddressed workforce gaps could shave a full percentage point off annual growth within the decade. Regional governments have begun offering relocation subsidies and language-training stipends to make smaller towns, not just Berlin or Munich, attractive to newcomers.
Because Germany's predicament mirrors trends unfolding across South Korea, Italy and parts of Eastern Europe, its experiment in reconciling openness with integration is being closely watched abroad. Whether its reforms ultimately ease the labour crunch or merely soften its edges, Germany's approach offers a working case study for any economy where the retiring generation is not being replaced quickly enough by the one behind it.
Ques. 113. According to the passage, what does the phrase 'structural emergency' primarily emphasize in the context of Germany's labour situation?
(a) That the labour shortage is a temporary, cyclical dip that will correct itself once the economy recovers.
(b) That policymakers now view the shrinking workforce as a long-term systemic problem rather than a shortterm fluctuation.
(c) That the German government plans to declare a formal state of emergency to address unemployment.
(d) That structural changes to factory buildings are required to accommodate an aging workforce.
(e) That the emergency is confined to the pension system and does not affect other sectors.
Correct Option - b
Ques. 114. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage regarding the global relevance of Germany's demographic and policy experience?
(a) Germany's situation is unique and offers no useful lessons for other nations.
(b) Only Asian economies face similar demographic pressures to Germany.
(c) Other aging economies, such as South Korea and Italy, are observing Germany's reforms as a potential reference for their own responses. (d) Germany's reforms have already been fully replicated by every country facing similar demographic trends. (e) Global relevance is limited because Germany's guest worker history cannot be compared to any other country's experience.
Correct Option - c
Ques. 115. If the trend of unfilled positions in nursing, engineering and software firms continues unchecked, what might be inferred about Germany's economic outlook?
(a) Annual economic growth could weaken further, consistent with economists' warning of a potential percentage-point loss in growth.
(b) The pension system would immediately be abolished to compensate for lost tax revenue.
(c) Germany would stop offering relocation subsidies to newcomers entirely.
(d) The Skilled Immigration Act would be repealed within the decade.
(e) Smaller towns would become more attractive than Berlin or Munich regardless of labour shortages.
Correct Option - a
Ques. 116. Which of the following accurately reflects the strategies Germany has adopted, as described in the passage? (I) Easing visa requirements for skilled professionals from outside the EU. (II) Offering relocation subsidies and language-training stipends to attract newcomers to smaller towns. (III) Actively reducing the recruitment of foreign guest workers to protect domestic jobs.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Both I and II
(d) Both II and III
(e) I, II and III
Correct Option - c
Ques. 117. In the sentence below, four words have been labelled (A), (B), (C) and (D). Choose the correct interchange of words to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct, consistent with the passage.
The dedicated agencies improved credential (A) attrition considerably, even as newly arrived professionals continued to describe bureaucratic (B) recognition, amid an ongoing (C) influx of applications that strained national (D) workforce planning.
(a) A-B
(b) A-C
(c) B-D
(d) A-C and B-D
(e) A-D and B-C
Correct Option - a
Ques. 118. Choose the most suitable word which has the similar meaning as 'attrition' as used in the passage.
(a) Expansion
(b) Erosion
(c) Acceleration
(d) Recruitment
(e) Preservation
Correct Option - b
Ques. 119. Which of the following issues are identified as key challenges for Germany's integration efforts in the passage? (I) Months-long waits for document verification. (II) Inconsistent language requirements across federal states. (III) Employers' reluctance to hire candidates with foreign-earned credentials.
(a) Only I
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only II and III
(d) I, II and III
(e) None of the above
Correct Option - d
Ques. 120. What does the passage imply about the role of historical factors in shaping Germany's current workforce situation?
(a) Historical factors are irrelevant because Germany's current immigration policy was designed without reference to the past.
(b) Germany's post-war guest worker programmes of the 1960s permanently shaped the diverse workforce the country now relies on, showing continuity between past and present policy.
(c) The guest worker programmes of the 1960s were abandoned entirely and left no lasting demographic impact.
(d) Germany only began relying on foreign labour after the year 2000.
(e) Historical guest worker arrangements were exclusively temporary and none of the workers ever settled permanently.
Correct Option - b
Directions (121-126): Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given below. The table shows the total number of bikes manufactured, the total number of bikes sold, and the total number of bikes unsold by four companies - J, L, R and T. Some values are missing. Study the table and note carefully, then answer the questions that follow.
Company | Total manufactured | Total sold | Total unsold
J | M | K | -
L | M+120 | (3/5)N | -
R | 800 | 560 | 2N
T | - | 3K+90 | (M/4)+120
(i) Total bikes unsold by T is 1/4th of the total bikes sold by the company. (ii) Total bikes sold by all the four companies together is 1722.
Ques. 121. What is the sum of the total number of bikes manufactured by company J and company L together?
(a) 2M + 120 (b) 3K + 100 (c) N + 700 (d) K + 560 (e) M + N + 300
Correct Option - a
Ques. 122. What is the difference between the total number of bikes unsold by company L and the total number of bikes unsold by company J?
(a) K + 48 (b) M - 40 (c) 2N + 40 (d) 3K - 190 (e) N + 210
Correct Option - a
Ques. 123. A fifth company, E, manufactured 20% more bikes than company L manufactured. What is the total number of bikes manufactured by company E?
(a) M + K - 34 (b) 2N + 320 (c) 3K - 130 (d) M + N + 90 (e) K + 315
Correct Option - a
Ques. 124. A sixth company, F, sold a number of bikes equal to (total bikes sold by R) + (total bikes unsold by J). What is the total number of bikes sold by company F?
(a) 2K + 170 (b) M + 255 (c) 3N + 285 (d) K + 385 (e) M + K - 15
Correct Option - a
Ques. 125. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
I. Total bikes unsold by L is more than the total bikes unsold by R and T combined. II. Total bikes manufactured by T is more than the total bikes manufactured by J and L combined. III. Total bikes sold by F (as defined in Q124) is more than the total bikes sold by T.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only III
(d) Both I and III
(e) None of these
Correct Option - b
Ques. 126. Let Z = (Total bikes manufactured by R) - (Total bikes sold by L) - (Total bikes unsold by J). Which of the following is the correct value of Z?
(a) 2K + 118 (b) M + 200 (c) 3N + 205 (d) K + 350 (e) N + 485
Correct Option - a
Direction (127-130): Solve the given series and answer the following questions.
Series: a + 0 a + 2.5 a + 5.75 M
Note: (i) x and y are prime numbers less than 10. (y > x)
(ii) xy = a
(iii) 2a - 3x - y = 16
1. 10, 12.5, 15.75, 19.75, 24.5, 30 II. 8, 10, 12.5, 15.5, 19, 23 III. 20, 22.5, 25.5, 29, 33, 37.5 (a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Only III (d) Both I and II (e) Both II and III
Correct Option - a
Quess. 128. Find the 5th term of the given series.
(a) a + 12.25
(b) a + 14.5
(c) a + 13.75
(d) a + 15.25
(e) a + 11.5
Correct Option - b
Quess. 129. Find the value of M (the final term of the series).
(a) a + 18.5
(b) a + 19.25
(c) a + 20
(d) a + 21.5
(e) a + 22.75
Correct Option - c
Quess. 130. If 7 is added to the value of 2a, then the resultant is which of the following?
(a) A perfect square
(b) Divisible by 5
(c) A prime number
(d) Divisible by 9
(e) A multiple of 4
Correct Option - c
Quess. 131. A bus can cover x km distance with speed of p km/hr in 5 hours. The speed of stream is q km/hr and a boat covers x km distance in downstream & upstream (still-water speed p km/hr) in total 6 hours. If the boat takes 1 hour more to cover 24 km upstream than 18 km downstream, find the value of 'x'?
(a) 3(p² - q²) / p (b) 6(p² - q²) / p (c) 3(p² + q²) / p (d) (p² - q²) / 3p (e) 6p / (p² - q²)
Correct Option - a
Quess. 132. Which of the statement is/are not required to find the age of Rohan after 5 years?
(i) Ratio of present ages of Rohan and Mohan is 2:3
(ii) Sum of present ages of Rohan and Mohan is 50 years. (iii) 5 years ago, the ratio of ages of Rohan and Mohan was 3:5. (iv) Mohan's age after 5 years will be 35 years. (a) Only (iii) (b) Only (iv) (c) Both (iii) and (iv) (d) Only (i) (e) All four statements are required
Correct Option - c
Quess. 133. Find the difference between average temperature on Monday and Tuesday together and average temperature on Wednesday and Monday together.
(i) Temperature on Tuesday is 28°C (ii) Temperature on Wednesday is 24°C (iii) Average temperature of Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday together is 26°C.
(a) 3°C (b) 1°C (c) 2°C (d) 4°C (e) 2.5°C
Correct Option - c
Directions (134-139): Read the following bar graph and line chart carefully and answer the questions given below. The bar graph shows total number of balls (Red, Green and Blue) in 5 different bags (A, B, C, D and E). The line graph shows the probability of picking a red ball from bag A and bag B, and the probability of picking a green ball from bag C and bag D each.
Bar Graph: Total Balls in Bags
Bag A: 150
Bag B: 180
Bag C: 200
Bag D: 160
Bag E: 220
Line Graph: Probability of Picking a Ball of Given Colour
P(Red | Bag A) = 0.40
P(Red | Bag B) = 0.35
P(Green | Bag C) = 0.30
P(Green | Bag D) = 0.25
134. Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?
I. Number of red balls in bag A is more than the number of green balls in bag D. II. Number of red balls in bag B is at least 90% of the number of green balls in bag C. III. Number of green balls in bag D is more than the number of red balls in bag A.
(a) Only I
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only II and III
(d) Only III
(e) All I, II and III
Correct Option - b
Quess. 135. If bag A contains 50 green balls, then find the probability of picking a blue ball from bag A.
(a) 4/15
(b) 7/30
(c) 1/5
(d) 2/15
(e) 3/10
Correct Option - a
Quess. 136. A hypothetical bag F contains a number of balls equal to the sum of red balls in bag A and green balls in bag C, increased by 50%. If the ratio of red : green : blue balls in bag F is 3:4:5, find the number of blue balls in bag F.
(a) 60
(b) 65
(c) 70
(d) 75
(e) 80
Correct Option - d
Quess. 137. Find the difference between the average number of red balls in bag A and bag B together, and the average number of green balls in bag C and bag D together.
(a) 10.5
(b) 11.5
(c) 12.5
(d) 9.5
(e) 13.5
Correct Option - b
Quess. 138. Find the ratio of the number of red balls in bag A to the number of green balls in bag D.
(a) 5:3
(b) 4:3
(c) 3:2
(d) 2:1
(e) 5:2
Correct Option - c
Quess. 139. If the number of green balls in bag E is 25 more than the number of green balls in bag D, find the probability of picking a green ball from bag E.
(a) 11/44
(b) 12/44
(c) 13/44
(d) 14/44
(e) 15/44
Correct Option - c
Ques. 140. X litres of mixture contain milk and water. Water is 30% in the mixture. Follow the steps one after another in the given order.
I. 20 litres of water is added, and the percentage of water in the mixture becomes 40%.
II. 20 litres of mixture is removed.
III. 5*b litres of milk are added.
Find the final quantity of the mixture after completing these three steps.
(a) 5b + 120 (b) 5b + 100 (c) 5b + 140 (d) 5b + 110 (e) 10b + 120
Correct Option - a
Directions (141-143): Solve the given equations and answer the question given below.
I. 2x² + 7x + 6 = 0 III. u² + 7u + 6 = 0
II. 2y² - 7y + 6 = 0 IV. v² - 7v + 6 = 0
Note: (i) Sum of co-efficient of x², x, y² and y is 4. (ii) Roots of all the equations are non-imaginary. (iii) Both A & B (leading coefficients of equations I and II) are positive integers.
Ques. 141. Find the difference between the larger root of equation I and the smallest root of equation III.
(a) 4
(b) 4.5
(c) 5
(d) 3.5
(e) 5.5
Correct Option - b
Ques. 142. Find the product of the larger root of equation II and the smaller root of equation IV.
(a) 1
(b) 1.5
(c) 2
(d) 3
(e) 2.5
Correct Option - c
Ques. 143. If 7 is subtracted from the smaller root of equation II and the resultant is added to the value of A (leading coefficient of equation I), then find the square of the resultant number.
(a) 10.25
(b) 11.25
(c) 12.25
(d) 13.25
(e) 9.25
Correct Option - c
Directions (144-148): Read the following bar graphs carefully and answer the questions given below. The bar graphs shows discount percentage given on marked price of four different items in 2021 and 2022.
Note: (i) The marked price of an item can be same or different in both years. (ii) The cost price of an item can be same or different in both the years.
Discount % on MP in 2021:
P: 20%
Q: 25%
R: 10%
S: 15%
Discount % on MP in 2022:
P: 15%
Q: 10%
R: 30%
S: 25%
Ques. 144. The marked price of item P in 2021 is Rs. 1200. After allowing the discount (as shown in the graph) on item P in 2021, the shopkeeper earns a profit of 20% on its cost price. The cost price of item R in 2022 is Rs. 200 more than the cost price of item P in 2021. If the shopkeeper earns a profit of 40% on item R in 2022 (after allowing the discount shown in the graph), find the marked price of item R in 2022.
(a) Rs. 1800
(b) Rs. 1900
(c) Rs. 2000
(d) Rs. 2100
(e) Rs. 2200
Correct Option - c
Ques. 145. If the marked price of item P in 2021 and the marked price of item Q in 2022 are in the ratio 4:5, find the ratio of their selling prices (after applying the respective discounts shown in the graph).
(a) 16:15
(b) 32:45
(c) 8:9
(d) 4:5
(e) 9:8
Correct Option - b
Ques. 146. The selling price of item R in 2021 and item S in 2022 are in the ratio 3:2. The shopkeeper earns a profit of 25% on item R in 2021 and 20% on item S in 2022. Find the cost price of item R in 2021 as a percentage of the cost price of item S in 2022.
(a) 120% (b) 130% (c) 135% (d) 144% (e) 150%
200% 20% 30% 25% 25% 25%
Que. 149. Institution N has 20% more students than institution J, and institution O has students equal to 60% of the students in institution M. In institution N, 55% of the students are boys and the rest are girls. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
I. Number of boys in institution N is more than the total number of students in institution O. II. Number of girls in institution N is less than the number of students in institution L. III. Total number of students in institutions N and O together is more than the total number of students in institutions K and L together.
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only III
(d) Both I and II
(e) None of these
Correct Option - b
Que. 150. Let Z be the difference between the number of students in institution M and institution K. What is the value of (Z / 20)²?
(a) 300
(b) 350
(c) 400
(d) 450
(e) 500
Correct Option - c
Que. 151. What is the average number of students in institutions J, L and M?
(a) 1800
(b) 1900
(c) 2000
(d) 2100
(e) 2200
1:2 (b) 2:3 (c) 1:3 (d) 3:4 (e) 2:1
Correct Option - c
Quess. 152. Find the ratio of the number of students in institution K to the total number of students in institutions J and M together.
(a) 1:2
(b) 2:3
(c) 1:3
(d) 3:4
(e) 2:1
Correct Option - a
Quess. 153. A man has two articles A and B. To find the selling price of article B, which statement or statements is/are required to answer the question?
A. The cost price of article A is Rs. 800, and he earns a profit of 25% on article A.
B. The total revenue (selling price) from selling both articles A and B together is Rs. 2560.
C. He earns a profit of 20% on article B, and the cost price of article B is Rs. 500 more than the cost price of article A.
(a) Either A and B together or A and C together are sufficient, but not B and C together
(b) Only A and C together are sufficient
(c) Only A and B together are sufficient
(d) All three statements together are required
(e) B and C together are sufficient
Correct Option - a
Quess. 154. The question is followed by three statements I, II and III. The slant height of a cone is x cm. If the side of a square is (x + 15) cm, then find the area of the square.
I. The ratio of radius to height of the cone is 3:4.
II. A cylinder with the same radius and height as the cone has a volume of 38808 cm (use pi = 22/7).
III. The total surface area of the cone is 3696 cm (use pi = 22/7).
(a) Either I and II or I and III together are sufficient, but not II and III alone
(b) Only I and II together are sufficient
(c) Only I and III together are sufficient
(d) II and III together are sufficient
(e) All three statements together are necessary
Correct Option - a
Quess. 155. Two containers A and B contain a mixture of milk and water. Which statement(s) is/are sufficient to find the total quantity of container A (in litres)?
I. The ratio of milk to water in container A is 5:3. If 6 litres of water is added to container A, the quantities of milk and water become equal.
II. Container B contains 60 litres of mixture with milk and water in the ratio 7:5. The quantity of milk in container A is 15 litres less than the quantity of milk in container B.
(a) Only statement I is sufficient
(b) Only statement II is sufficient
(c) Both statements together are necessary
(d) Either statement alone is sufficient
(e) Neither statement is sufficient
Correct Option - a
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