IBPS PO Prelims 2024 Previous Year Question Paper Memory Based With free PDF Download link -Oct 19, 2024 Banking
IBPS PO 2024 Prelims Memory Based Paper (Oct 19, 2024)
Directions (1- 5): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V sit around a circular table, facing either the centre or outside the centre (but not necessarily in the same order). T sits second to the right of R. U sits to the immediate left of T. V faces outside the centre. U also faces outside the centre. S sits third to the right of P. S also sits third to the right of V. T sits third to the right of S.
Que. 1. Who sits second to the right of Q?
(a) P
(b) R
(c) S
(d) T
(e) V
Correct Option - c
Que. 2. How many persons sit between P and S, when counted from P in the clockwise direction?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None of these
Correct Option - b
Que. 3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the direction they face and thus form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S
(e) T
Correct Option - e
Que. 4. Which of the following pairs of persons face the same direction?
(a) P, T
(b) Q, U
(c) R, V
(d) S, T
(e) Q, S
Correct Option - e
Que. 5. Consider the following statements:
I. Only two persons sit between R and V, when counted from R in the anticlockwise direction.
II. T sits third to the right of S.
III. U faces the centre.
Which of the above statements is/are true?
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only III
(d) Both I and II
(e) All I, II and III
Correct Option - d
Directions (6- 8): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:
M and N are a married couple. M is the father of O and R. N is the mother of O and R. O is the wife of S. R is the husband of T. U is the son of O and S. W is the daughter of R and T. There are three married couples in the family.
Ques. 6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of the family arrangement and thus form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?
(a) M
(b) R
(c) O
(d) S
(e) U
Correct Option - c
Ques. 7. Who among the following is the maternal uncle of U?
(a) M
(b) S
(c) R
(d) T
(e) W
Correct Option - c
Ques. 8. What is the relation of S with respect to N?
(a) Son
(b) Son- in- law
(c) Nephew
(d) Father
(e) None of the above
Correct Option - b
Ques. 9. If we form a four- letter meaningful word using the 2nd, 4th, 6th and 8th letters (from the left end) of the word 'COMPUTER', then which of the following will be the second letter of the meaningful word thus formed? If more than one such meaningful word can be formed, mark 'Z' as your answer. If no meaningful word can be formed, mark 'X' as your answer.
(a) T
(b) R
(c) P
(d) O
(e) Z
Correct Option - d
Directions (10- 14): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions: Seven persons - A, B, C, D, E, F and G were born on the same date and month but in different years - 1958, 1964, 1971, 1976, 1984, 1996 and 2001 (not necessarily in the same order). Their ages (in complete years) are calculated as on the base year 2026.
Only one person was born before B.
As many persons were born before D as after D.
C was born immediately after B.
The number of persons born between C and E is the same as the number of persons born between E and G.
F was born immediately before G.
D was born before E, and E was born before F.
A was born earliest among all the seven persons.
Ques. 10. Who among the following was born in the year 1971?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) F
Correct Option - c
Ques. 11. What is the age difference between B and F as calculated in the year 2026?
(a) 28 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 32 years
(d) 34 years
(e) 36 years
Correct Option - c
Ques. 12. E was born in which of the following years?
(a) 1976
(b) 1996
(c) 1984
(d) 1958
(e) 1971
Correct Option - c
Ques. 13. What is the sum of the ages (as in 2026) of A and G?
(a) 90
(b) 91
(c) 92
(d) 93
(e) 95
Correct Option - d
Ques. 14. If A is related to C and B is related to D in a certain way based on their ranks in the birth- year arrangement (from the oldest), then, following the same pattern, E is related to which of the following?
(a) F
(b) G
(c) D
(d) C
(e) None of these
Correct Option - b
Directions (15- 19): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions: In a certain code language, 'the sky is blue' is coded as 'zil tob nue ronk' 'birds fly in sky' is coded as 'fen dop mijq tob' 'the birds are happy' is coded as 'zil fen kael suv' 'blue birds fly high' is coded as 'ronk fen dop larv'
Quess. 15. What is the code for 'sky' in the given code language?
(a) zil
(b) nue
(c) tob
(d) fen
(e) dop
Correct Option - c
Quess. 16. If, in this code language, the code for 'blue' is 'ronk' and the code for 'birds' is 'fen', then what will be the code for 'blue birds'?
(a) ronk fen
(b) fen tob
(c) zil fen
(d) ronk dop
(e) nue fen
Correct Option - a
Quess. 17. What is the code for 'is' in the given code language?
(a) ronk
(b) tob
(c) zil
(d) nue
(e) mijq
Correct Option - d
Quess. 18. What will be the possible code for 'sky is high'?
(a) tob nue larv
(b) zil nue larv
(c) tob mijq larv
(d) tob nue dop
(e) fen nue larv
Correct Option - a
Quess. 19. Which word is coded as 'dop' in the given code language?
(a) sky
(b) in
(c) fly
(d) birds
(e) high
Correct Option - c
Directions (20- 24): Study the information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Six persons J, K, L, M, N and O sit in a row facing north, but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them likes a different fruit, namely Mango, Strawberry, Guava, Orange, Papaya and Kiwi, but not necessarily in the same order.
L sits at the extreme left end of the row and likes Kiwi. J sits immediate right of L and likes Mango. N sits immediate right of J and likes Guava. Only two persons sit between J and O, and O likes Strawberry. K sits immediate left of O and likes Orange. The person sitting at the extreme right end likes Papaya.
Ques. 20. Who among the following likes Guava?
(a) J
(b) K
(c) L
(d) N
(e) M
## Correct Option - d
Ques. 21. How many persons sit between the one who likes Kiwi and the one who likes Orange?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None
## Correct Option - b
Ques. 22. Who sits third to the left of the one who likes Papaya?
(a) J
(b) K
(c) L
(d) N
(e) O
## Correct Option - d
Ques. 23. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Three persons sit between L and M
(b) N sits exactly between J and K
(c) L sits second to the right of O
(d) The one who likes Papaya sits immediate right of the one who likes Kiwi
(e) K sits immediate left of J
## Correct Option - b
Ques. 24. Four of the following five pairs are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the arrangement (each pair shows a person and the fruit liked by the person sitting immediately to their right) and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?
(a) L-Mango
(b) J-Guava
(c) N-Orange
(d) K-Papaya
(e) O-Papaya
2. In four of the following five letter- groups, the first letter is the 3rd letter next to the second letter (in alphabetical order), and the third letter is the 2nd letter next to the first letter, following a common pattern. Find the letter- group that does NOT follow this pattern.
(a) EBG
(b) HEJ
(c) KHM
(d) NKP
(e) FCI
## Correct Option - e
Directions (26- 30): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:
Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F are placed one above another, not necessarily in the same order. Each box is made of a different material, namely Rubber, Glass, Copper, Tin, Plastic and Ceramic, but not necessarily in the same order.
Box C is placed at the bottommost position and is made of Rubber. Box A is placed immediately above Box C and is made of Glass. Box F is placed immediately above Box A and is made of Copper. Only two boxes are placed between Box A and Box B, and Box B is made of Plastic. Box D is placed immediately below Box B and is made of Tin. Box E is placed at the topmost position and is made of Ceramic.
Ques. 26. How many boxes are placed between the Copper box and Box E?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None
## Correct Option - b
Ques. 27. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT with respect to the arrangement?
(a) Box A is placed immediately above Box C
(b) Only one box is placed between Box F and Box B
(c) Box E is placed at the topmost position and is made of Ceramic
(d) Box B is placed immediately below Box E
(e) Box F is made of Copper and is placed immediately above Box D
## Correct Option - e
Ques. 28. Box D is made of which material?
(a) Rubber
(b) Glass
(c) Tin
(d) Plastic
(e) Ceramic
## Correct Option - c
Ques. 29. Box C is related to Box A in a certain way based on their positions in the arrangement (Box A is placed immediately above Box C). Following the same pattern, Box F is related to which of the following boxes?
(a) Box B
(b) Box C
(c) Box D
(d) Box E
(e) Box A
Correct Option - c
Ques. 30. As many boxes are placed above Box D as are placed below which of the following boxes?
(a) Box A
(b) Box C
(c) Box F
(d) Box B
(e) Box E
Correct Option - c
Ques. 31. In the word 'DAUGHTER', how many pairs of letters have the same number of letters between them (both in forward and backward direction) in the word as they have between them in the English alphabet?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) More than four
Correct Option - d
Directions (32- 34): Study the information carefully answer the questions given below.
Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F have different weights (in kg). A is the heaviest among all and weighs 18 kg more than C. B's weight is 5 kg less than A. C is the third heaviest person and weighs 40 kg. Only two persons are lighter than D. D is heavier than E by 5 kg. F is the lightest person and E is heavier than F by 7 kg.
Ques. 32. What is the possible weight of D?
(a) 25 kg
(b) 28 kg
(c) 30 kg
(d) 32 kg
(e) 35 kg
Correct Option - c
Ques. 33. If B's weight is 5 kg less than A and 23 kg more than D, then what is the sum weight of A and D?
(a) 80 kg
(b) 84 kg
(c) 86 kg
(d) 88 kg
(e) 92 kg
Correct Option - d
Ques. 34. The number of persons heavier than C is same as the number of persons lighter than _____.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) D
(d) E
(e) F
3. If in the given word 'STATEMENT', if we replace all odd position letters (from left) with its just next letter and replace all even position letters (from left) with its just previous letter, then find how many letters are repeated there in the new arrangement?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None
## Correct Option - b
Directions (36- 43): Read the following passage and answer the given questions. Certain words are highlighted to answer some of the questions.
Over the past decade, India's payment landscape has undergone a transformation few anticipated even a generation ago. The Unified Payments Interface, launched in 2016 as a modest experiment in interoperable digital transfers, has since grown into the backbone of the country's retail economy, processing billions of transactions every month. This proliferation of real- time payments has been driven less by any single innovation than by a confluence of factors: affordable smartphones, cheap mobile data, and a regulatory framework willing to experiment with open, shared infrastructure rather than leaving the market to a handful of proprietary players.
The consequences for financial inclusion have been substantial. Millions of households that once operated entirely in cash now hold bank accounts linked to mobile numbers, allowing them to receive government subsidies, insurance payouts, and wages without the delays and leakages that plagued earlier disbursement systems. Small vendors, from tea stalls to vegetable carts, increasingly display QR codes rather than cash boxes, a shift that has also created a digital trail of income that some are now using to qualify for formal credit for the first time. Even so, this expansion has not been uniform; access remains markedly weaker in remote and hilly regions where network connectivity is unreliable and digital literacy is low.
The rapid pace of adoption has, however, outstripped the safeguards meant to accompany it. Fraud complaints involving phishing links and impersonation calls have risen sharply, and many first- time users, unfamiliar with the mechanics of one- time passwords and app permissions, remain vulnerable to social- engineering scams. Regulators have responded with tighter transaction limits for new payees, mandatory cooling- off periods for large transfers, and public awareness campaigns, but enforcement varies widely across states and remains an unfinished project.
Looking ahead, the central bank has signalled its intent to extend this impetus beyond payments into lending and insurance, hoping that the same shared infrastructure that made transfers instantaneous can eventually make credit assessment faster and fairer for borrowers who currently lack any formal financial history.
Ques. 36. According to the passage, which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
(I) The Unified Payments Interface was launched in 2016 and has grown into a major part of India's retail economy. (II) Small vendors' use of QR codes has, in some cases, helped them access formal credit for the first time. (III) Digital payment access is uniformly strong across all regions of India, including remote and hilly areas.
(III) Digital payment access is uniformly strong across all regions of India, including remote and hilly areas.
(a) Only I is true
(b) Both I and II are true
(c) Only III is true
(d) Both II and III are true
(e) All statements are true
## Correct Option - b
Ques. 37. Which of the following statements is incorrect based on the passage?
1) UPI's growth was driven by a combination of affordable smartphones, cheap data, and an open regulatory framework. 2) Households linked to mobile numbers can now receive government subsidies and wages with fewer delays than before. 3) Fraud complaints related to phishing and impersonation have increased alongside the growth of digital payments. 4) Regulatory enforcement of safety measures has been applied uniformly and effectively across every state. 5) The central bank intends to extend digital payment infrastructure into areas like lending and insurance.
## Correct Option - d
Ques. 38. According to the passage, which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
(I) First-time digital payment users are sometimes vulnerable to social-engineering scams due to unfamiliarity with security mechanics.
(II) Regulators have introduced measures such as transaction limits and cooling-off periods for large transfers.
(III) Digital literacy and network connectivity are consistently strong in remote and hilly regions.
(a) Only I is true
(b) Only II is true
(c) Both I and II are true
(d) Only III is true
(e) All statements are true
## Correct Option - c
Ques. 39. Which of the following words has the similar meaning as 'proliferation' (as used in the passage)?
(a) Decline
(b) Scarcity
(c) Rapid increase
(d) Stagnation
(e) Contraction
## Correct Option - c
Ques. 40. Based on the passage, which of the following can be logically inferred about financial inclusion in India?
(a) It has advanced unevenly, benefiting well-connected areas more than remote regions with poor connectivity and literacy.
(b) It has already been fully achieved for every household in the country.
(c) It has had no measurable link to how people receive government subsidies or wages.
(d) It has eliminated the need for any formal banking infrastructure altogether.
(e) It has proceeded at an identical pace in both urban and hilly regions.
## Correct Option - a
Ques. 41. Which of the following can be inferred about the relationship between digital payment adoption and consumer safety discussed in the passage?
(a) Consumer safety measures developed faster than the pace of digital payment adoption itself.
(b) The growth in digital payment usage has outpaced the safeguards designed to protect users, creating fraud risks.
(c) Fraud risks disappeared entirely once regulators introduced transaction limits.
(d) Only experienced digital users, not first-time users, are vulnerable to scams.
(e) Regulatory responses have made social-engineering scams impossible in every state.
2. What is the antonym of 'instantaneous' (as used in the passage)?
(a) Delayed
(b) Rapid
(c) Immediate
(d) Swift
(e) Quick
## Correct Option - a
Ques. 43. Choose the correct word to fill in the blank:
Looking ahead, the central bank has signalled its intent to extend this beyond payments into lending and insurance, hoping that the same shared infrastructure that made transfers instantaneous can eventually make credit assessment faster and fairer for borrowers who currently lack any formal financial history.
(a) Impetus
(b) Obstacle
(c) Decline
(d) Restriction
(e) Hesitation
## Correct Option - a
Directions (44- 45): In each of the following questions, a sentence with four highlighted words is provided. These highlighted words may be either misspelled or used inappropriately. Select the incorrect word as the answer, and if all the highlighted words are correct in spelling and usage, choose 'All are correct' as answer.
Ques. 44. Each of the employees were asked to submit their reports before the deadline expires.
(a) were
(b) submit
(c) before
(d) expires
(e) All are correct
## Correct Option - a
Ques. 45. The new manager's calm temperament helped him maintain discipline, and his colleagues often sought his advice before making there decisions.
(a) temperament
(b) maintain
(c) advice
(d) there
(e) All are correct
## Correct Option - d
Ques. 46. In the following questions, a few sentences are given. Identify the sentences that are grammatically and contextually correct.
(I) Despite of the heavy rainfall, the flight departed on time. (II) She has been working at this hospital since five years. (III) Neither of the two candidates was fully prepared for the interview. (a) Only I
(b) Both II and III
(c) Only III
(d) Both I and II
(e) All I, II and III
Correct Option - c
Ques. 47. In the following questions, a few sentences are given. Identify the sentences that are grammatically and contextually INCORRECT.
(I) If he had studied harder, he would have passed the exam. (II) The number of accidents on this highway have increased alarmingly this year. (III) She is one of the few employees who always meets the deadline. (a) Only I (b) Both II and III (c) Only III (d) Both I and II (e) All I, II and III
Correct Option - b
Ques. 48. In the following questions, a few sentences are given. Identify the sentences that are grammatically and contextually correct.
(I) The manager, along with his team members, is reviewing the quarterly report. (II) Each of the students have submitted their assignment on time. (III) By the time the guests arrive, we would have finished decorating the hall. (a) Only I (b) Both II and III (c) Only III (d) Both I and II
Correct Option - a
Directions (49- 53): Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(A) As a result, several vulture species faced a catastrophic decline of over ninety percent within a decade. (B) In the early 2000s, wildlife scientists discovered that a common veterinary drug used on cattle was fatally toxic to vultures that fed on the carcasses. (C) To reverse this trend, conservationists established dedicated breeding centres where vultures could reproduce safely away from the contaminated food chain. (D) After years of careful breeding, the centres successfully hatched hundreds of chicks and gradually built up a genetically healthy captive population. (E) Once the birds reached maturity, they were fitted with satellite tags and released into protected zones free of the harmful drug. (F) Today, conservationists report that the released vultures are breeding in the wild, marking a rare victory for a species once thought to be heading toward extinction.
Ques. 49. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(a) C
(b) B
(c) E
(d) A
(e) None of these
Correct Option - b
Ques. 50. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) A
(c) F
(d) C
(e) None of these
Correct Option - b
Ques. 51. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(a) E
(b) D
(c) C
(d) F
(e) None of these
Correct Option - c
Ques. 52. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) B
(b) D
(c) E
(d) F
(e) None of these
Correct Option - b
Ques. 53. Which of the following should be the LAST sentence after rearrangement?
(a) E
(b) C
(c) D
(d) F
(e) None of these
Correct Option - d
Ques. 54. In the following questions, a few sentences are given. Identify the sentences that are grammatically and contextually correct.
(I) The teacher, as well as her students, was excited about the upcoming field trip.
(II) Had I known about the traffic, I would leave earlier.
(III) The price of vegetables have risen sharply due to the drought.
(a) Only I
(b) Both II and III
(c) Only III
(d) Both I and II
(e) All I, II and III
Correct Option - a
5. In the following questions, a few sentences are given. Identify the sentences that are grammatically and contextually INCORRECT.
(I) Not only did the team win the championship, but they also broke the tournament record.
(II) Every one of the workers were given a bonus this month.
(III) The committee has submitted it's report to the board.
(a) Only I
(b) Both II and III
(c) Only III
(d) Both I and II
(e) All I, II and III
## Correct Option - b
Directions (56- 57): In each of the following questions, a sentence with four highlighted words is provided. These highlighted words may be either misspelled or used inappropriately. Select the incorrect word as the answer, and if all the highlighted words are correct in spelling and usage, choose 'All are correct' as answer.
Ques. 56. The chief guest praised the volunteers for their dedication and wished them a happy vacation.
(a) praised
(b) volunteers
(c) dedication
(d) vaccination
(e) All are correct
## Correct Option - d
Ques. 57. The committee will announce the results after a thorough evaluation of all submissions.
(a) committee
(b) announce
(c) evaluation
(d) submissions
(e) All are correct
## Correct Option - b
Directions (58- 62): In each of the following sentences, a word is missing and replaced by a blank. Choose the best word from the given options that can fit into the sentence without altering the intended meaning.
Ques. 58. Despite losing her job and facing severe financial hardship, Neha remained ___, bouncing back within months to start her own venture.
(a) Fragile
(b) Resilient
(c) Indifferent
(d) Arrogant
(e) Reluctant
## Correct Option - b
Ques. 59. The auditor's __ examination of the company's accounts uncovered discrepancies that had gone unnoticed for years.
(a) Careless
(b) Meticulous
(c) Hasty
(d) Generous (e) Casual
## Correct Option - b
Ques. 60. The minister's ____ statement on the new tax policy left journalists uncertain about whether the rates would actually be reduced.
(a) Transparent (b) Emphatic (c) Ambiguous (d) Candid (e) Blunt
## Correct Option - c
Ques. 61. The sudden rise in fuel prices acted as a ____ for widespread protests across the region.
(a) Deterrent (b) Remedy (c) Catalyst (d) Hindrance (e) Souvenir
## Correct Option - c
Ques. 62. After the heated argument, the tone of the meeting turned ____, with both sides speaking in low, measured voices.
(a) Boisterous (b) Hostile (c) Subdued (d) Triumphant (e) Frantic
## Correct Option - c
Ques. 63. In the following question, a phrasal verb is given in bold, it is then followed by three sentences which has used the given phrasal verb. Choose the best set of alternatives from the five options given below which has correctly used the given phrasal verb without altering the meaning of the sentence.
## Bring about
(A) The new CEO's reforms brought about a significant improvement in employee morale.
(B) She brought about the heavy suitcase from the car to the room.
(C) The government's welfare policies brought about a sharp decline in unemployment rates.
(a) Both A & B (b) Only C (c) Both B & C (d) Only A (e) Both A & C
## Correct Option - e
Ques. 64. In the following question, a phrasal verb is given in bold, it is then followed by three sentences which has used the given phrasal verb. Choose the best set of alternatives from the five options given below which has correctly used the given phrasal verb without altering the meaning of the sentence.
Fall through
(A) The merger deal fell through at the last moment due to a lack of funding.
(B) The picnic plans fell through because of the sudden heavy rain.
(C) He fell through the weak floorboards in the attic and hurt his leg.
(a) Both A & B
(b) Only C
(c) Both B & C
(d) Only A
(e) All A, B, C
## Correct Option - a
Ques. 65. In the following question, a phrasal verb is given in bold, it is then followed by three sentences which has used the given phrasal verb. Choose the best set of alternatives from the five options given below which has incorrectly used the given phrasal verb without altering the meaning of the sentence.
## Look into
(A) The police promised to look into the complaint filed by the residents.
(B) She looked into the mirror for a long time before leaving for the party.
(C) The committee will look into the matter of delayed salaries next week.
(a) Both A & C
(b) Only B
(c) Both B & C
(d) Only A
(e) All A, B, C
## Correct Option - b
Directions (66- 70): Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below. The table shows the number of bikes sold jointly by two companies X and Y, the number of cars sold jointly by companies X and Y, and the number of bikes sold by company Y alone, across four cities P, Q, R and S. (Note: Some data have been deliberately left out. You need to calculate them wherever required, based on the additional information given in the individual questions.)
Cities | Bikes sold by (X and Y) | Cars sold by (X and Y) | Bikes sold by Y
P | 850 | 540 | 340
Q | 720 | 600 | 480
R | 960 | 900 | 390
S | 680 | 650 | 200
Ques. 66. In city P, the number of bikes sold by company X is 3/2 times the number of bikes sold by company Y. What is the difference between the number of bikes sold by X in city P and the number of bikes sold by Y in city Q?
(a) 25
(b) 40
(c) 20
(d) 30
(e) 35
## Correct Option - d
Ques. 67. In city Q, the number of cars sold by company X is 40% of the total cars sold by (X and Y) in that city. Find the ratio of cars sold by Y in city Q to bikes sold by Y in city Q.
(a) 4:3
(b) 2:3 (c) 3:4 (d) 5:4 (e) 3:5
## Correct Option - c
Ques. 68. In city R, the ratio of cars sold by X to cars sold by Y is 5:4. Find the difference between the total cars sold (X and Y) in city S and the cars sold by X in city R.
(a) 140
(b) 160
(c) 130
(d) 170
(e) 150
## Correct Option - e
Ques. 69. Bikes sold by X in city S is what percent more/less than the total cars sold (X and Y) in city Q? (Bikes sold by X in S = Bikes sold by (X and Y) in S - Bikes sold by Y in S)
(a) \(25\%\) less
(b) \(30\%\) less
(c) \(15\%\) less
(d) \(20\%\) more
(e) \(20\%\) less
## Correct Option - e
Ques. 70. Bikes sold by X in city R exceeds bikes sold by X in city Q by a certain number. Find bikes sold by X in city Q as a percentage of the sum of bikes sold by X in city R and city Q.
(a) \(29.6\%\) (b) \(33.3\%\) (c) \(25.9\%\) (d) \(30.5\%\) (e) \(27.4\%\)
## Correct Option - a
Directions (71- 75): Read the following line graph carefully and answer the questions given below. The line graph shows 1/3rd of the total items sold by five different shops (V, W, X, Y and Z) in two different years, 2019 and 2020.
1/3rd of total items sold by 5 shops in 2019 and 2020
Ques. 71. Total items sold by shop X in 2021 is approximately what percent less/more than the sum of total items sold by shop V in 2019 and 2020 together?
(a) \(12.5\%\) less
(b) \(20\%\) less
(c) \(16.9\%\) less
(d) \(18\%\) less
(e) \(14\%\) less
# Correct Option - c
Ques. 72. What is the ratio of total items sold by shop Z in 2019 to total items sold by shop Y in 2020?
(a) 19:21
(b) 7:6
(c) 21:19
(d) 20:19
(e) 3:2
# Correct Option - c
Ques. 73. What is the difference between the total items sold by all five shops together in 2019 and the total items sold by all five shops together in 2020?
(a) 20
(b) 40
(c) 60
(d) 30
(e) 50
# Correct Option - d
Ques. 74. Find the sum of total items sold by shops V, W and X together in 2021.
(a) 4500
(b) 4600
(c) 4536
(d) 4450
(e) 4400
Directions (81- 85): What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions (You are not expected to calculate the exact value).
Quess.81. \(6.98\%\) of \(149.9 + 9.03\%\) of \(260 = ?\)
(a) 24
(b) 29
(c) 34
(d) 39
(e) 44
Correct Option - c
Quess.82. \(\sqrt{624.98} +3 / 8\) of \(480.1 = ?\times 5.02\)
(a) 31
(b) 36
(c) 41
(d) 46
(e) 51
Correct Option - c
Quess.83. \(9.98^{3} - 89.97 = 19.89\%\) of \(601 + ?\)
(a) 745
(b) 765
(c) 785
(d) 805
(e) 825
Correct Option - c
Quess.84. \(45.02\%\) of \(799.9 / 2.02\div 1 / 5 = ?^{2} - 24.9\)
(a) 24
(b) 27
(c) 30
(d) 33
(e) 36
Correct Option - c
Quess.85. \((168.02 / 13.98\div 2.01 / 4.02) = ?\div 9.98\)
(a) 200
(b) 220
(c) 240
(d) 260
(e) 280
Correct Option - c
86. A, B and C together can complete a piece of work in 8 days. C alone can complete the same work in 24 days. If A is \(50\%\) more efficient than B, find the difference between the number of days A alone and B alone would take to complete the work.
(a) 5 days
(b) 8 days
(c) 10 days
(d) 12 days
(e) 15 days
## Correct Option - c
Quess. 87. The present ages of P and Q are in the ratio 3:5. R's present age is the average of the present ages of P and Q. Five years ago, the sum of the ages of P and R was 60 years. Find the sum of the present ages of P, Q and R.
(a) 110 years
(b) 115 years
(c) 120 years
(d) 125 years
(e) 130 years
## Correct Option - c
Quess. 88. A sum of Rs 85,000 is divided into two parts. The first part is invested at compound interest of \(10\%\) per annum for 2 years, and the second part is invested at simple interest of \(10\%\) per annum for 3 years. If the interest earned from both parts is equal, find the amount invested in the first part.
(a) Rs 35,000
(b) Rs 42,500
(c) Rs 45,000
(d) Rs 50,000
(e) Rs 55,000
## Correct Option - d
Quess. 89. A, B and C start a business. A invests Rs 24,000 for the entire year (12 months), B invests Rs 18,000 for x months, and C invests Rs 30,000 for 8 months. If the total profit at the end of the year is Rs 35,400 and C's share of the profit is Rs 12,000, find the value of x.
(a) 8
(b) 9
(c) 10
(d) 12
(e) 15
## Correct Option - c
Quess. 90. Train A crosses a platform \(120\mathrm{m}\) long in 10 seconds, and Train B crosses a platform \(100\mathrm{m}\) long in 10 seconds. The speed of Train A to the speed of Train B is in the ratio 3:2 (Train A being faster). When running in the same direction, Train A crosses Train B completely in 30 seconds. Find the time Train A takes to cross a bridge \(450\mathrm{m}\) long.
(a) 15 seconds
(b) 18 seconds
(c) 20 seconds
(d) 22 seconds
(e) 25 seconds
1. The ratio of a boat's speed in still water to its upstream speed is 5:3. If the boat covers 84 km downstream in 6 hours, find the time it will take to cover 54 km upstream.
(a) 7 hours
(b) 8 hours
(c) 9 hours
(d) 10 hours
(e) 12 hours
## Correct Option - c
Ques. 92. An article is marked at \(40\%\) above its cost price. When it is sold at a discount of \(0\%\) , the seller earns a profit of \(12\%\) . If instead the article is sold at a discount of \(2\%\) , find the resulting profit or loss percentage.
(a) \(8\%\) profit
(b) \(4\%\) loss
(c) \(12\%\) profit
(d) \(16\%\) loss
(e) \(20\%\) loss
## Correct Option - d
Ques. 93. In mixture A, milk and water are in the ratio 7:3. Mixture B contains milk that is \(20\%\) more than the milk in mixture A, and water that is \(50\%\) less than the water in mixture A. If the sum of the water quantities in mixtures A and B is 90 litres, find the total quantity of mixture A.
(a) 150 litres
(b) 180 litres
(c) 200 litres
(d) 220 litres
(e) 240 litres
## Correct Option - c
Ques. 94. A class has 40 boys and 10 girls. The average weight of all 50 students is \(60\mathrm{kg}\) . If the girls are excluded, the average weight of the remaining boys becomes \(62\mathrm{kg}\) . Find the average weight of the girls in the class.
(a) 48 kg
(b) 50 kg
(c) 52 kg
(d) 55 kg
(e) 58 kg
## Correct Option - c
Ques. 95. The ratio of the area of a square to the area of a rectangle is 5:4. The side of the square is \(3\mathrm{cm}\) less than the length of the rectangle. If the perimeter of the rectangle is \(56\mathrm{cm}\) , find the breadth of the rectangle.
(a) 8 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) 12 cm
(d) 14 cm
(e) 15 cm
## Correct Option - b
Directions (96- 100): Read the following data carefully and answer the questions given below. The data shows the three different people (X, Y & Z) win or lose multiple games.
Total games win by Y is 60 and the ratio of games win by X and games lost by Y is 5:4. The ratio of total games lost by X to total games win by X is 3:2. The average of number of games lost by X and win by Y is 90. Total games win by Z is \(25\%\) more than total games loss of Y and the ratio of total games win to lose by Z is 5:6.
Ques. 96. What is the ratio of total games played by X to total games played by Z?
(a) 23:20
(b) 25:22
(c) 27:23
(d) 20:19
(e) None of these
Correct Option - b
Ques. 97. Total games lost by X is what percentage of the sum of total games won by X and total games won by Z?
(a) \(65\%\) (b) \(70\%\) (c) \(75\%\) (d) \(80\%\) (e) \(60\%\)
Correct Option - c
Ques. 98. What is the sum of total games won by Y and total games lost by Z?
(a) 148
(b) 152
(c) 156
(d) 160
(e) 164
Correct Option - c
Ques. 99. Total games won by D is \(20\%\) more than total games won by Z, and total games lost by D is \(25\%\) less than total games lost by X. What is the difference between total games won by D and total games lost by D?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 8
(e) 10
Correct Option - c
Ques. 100. What is the average of total games won by X, total games won by Y, total games won by Z and total games lost by Y?
(a) 68
(b) 69
(c) 70
(d) 71
(e) 72
Correct Option - d
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