IBPS PO Prelims 2025 Previous Year Question Paper Memory Based With free PDF Download link -Aug 24, 2025
IBPS PO 2025 Prelims Memory Based Paper (Aug 24, 2025)
1. Either I or II follows
2. Only II follows
3. Neither I nor II follows
4. Only I follows
5. Both I and II follow
## Reasoning Ability
In each question, three or four statements are given followed by conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true even if they seem at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s), and select your answer using the same options: (1) Only I follows; (2) Only II follows; (3) Either I or II follows; (4) Neither I nor II follows; (5) Both I and II follow.
Ques. 1. Statements: All mangoes are fruits. Some fruits are vegetables. No vegetable is a root. Conclusions: I. Some mangoes are vegetables. II. No mango is a root.
1. Either I or II follows
2. Only II follows
3. Neither I nor II follows
4. Only I follows
5. Both I and II follow
Correct Option - 3
Ques. 2. Statements: Some rivers are lakes. All lakes are ponds. No pond is an ocean. Conclusions: I. Some oceans are rivers. II. No ocean is a river.
1. Neither I nor II follows
2. Both I and II follow
3. Only II follows
4. Only I follows
5. Either I or II follows
Correct Option - 5
Ques. 3. Statements: All chairs are tables. No table is a stool. Some stools are benches. Conclusions: I. No chair is a stool. II. Some stools are not benches.
1. Neither I nor II follows
2. Both I and II follow
3. Only I follows
4. Only II follows
5. Either I or II follows
Correct Option - 3
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. Six people - Ajay, Mohit, Sahil, Divya, Preeti and Komal - sit in Row 1 facing North, and six people - Shalini, Geeta, Naresh, Vaibhav, Ruchi and Sonal - sit in Row 2 facing South, such that each person in Row 2 faces exactly one person in Row 1 (same seat number). Seats in both rows are numbered 1 to 6 from left to right as seen by you (the reader); this fixed numbering is used for every reference to a position (such as 'immediate left/right', 'Nth from the left/right end', or 'between'), except where a question explicitly asks for a person's own left/right, which follows that row's own direction of facing. Sahil sits third from the left end of Row 1. Only four people sit to the right of Mohit in Row 1. Ajay sits immediately to the left of Mohit in Row 1. Divya sits immediately to the right of Sahil in Row 1. Only one person sits between Divya and Komal in Row 1. Preeti does not sit at either extreme end of Row 1. Naresh faces Sahil. Geeta sits second from the left end of Row 2. Shalini sits immediately to the left of Geeta in Row 2. Only two people sit between Geeta and Ruchi in Row 2. Sonal sits immediately to the right of Ruchi in Row 2. Vaibhav does not sit at either extreme end of Row 2.
Ques. 4. Who sits immediately to the right of Sahil in Row 1, as per Sahil's own direction of facing?
1. Mohit
2. Komal
3. Preeti
4. Divya
5. Ajay
Correct Option - 4
Ques. 5. How many people sit between Vaibhav and Shalini in Row 2?
1. Three
2. Four
3. Two
4. Five
5. One
Correct Option - 3
Ques. 6. Mohit faces which of the following persons?
1. Geeta
2. Vaibhav
3. Ruchi
4. Naresh
5. Shalini
Correct Option - 1
Ques. 7. Who sits second to the right of Ruchi, as per Row 2's own direction of facing?
1. Vaibhav
2. Geeta
3. Sonal
4. Naresh
5. Shalini
Correct Option - 4
Ques. 8. In each of the following pairs, the first- named person sits immediately to the second- named person's own right (as per that row's own direction of facing), except in one pair. Which pair does not follow this pattern?
1. Shalini-Geeta
2. Naresh-Vaibhav
3. Mohit-Ajay
4. Preeti-Divya
5. Divya-Preeti
Correct Option - 5
Ques. 9. Which of the following pairs of persons face each other?
1. Mohit-Vaibhav
2. Divya-Ruchi
3. Sahil-Naresh
4. Preeti-Sonal
5. Ajay-Naresh
1. 7m, North-East
2. 24m, North-East
3. 31m, North-East
4. 25m, North-West
5. 25m, North-East
Correct Option - 5
In the following question, the relations among the members of a family are coded as: 'P * Q' means P is the father of Q. 'P * Q' means P is the mother of Q.
'P ~ Q' means P is the brother of Q. 'P ? Q' means P is the sister of Q. 'P : Q' means P is the husband of Q. 'P : Q' means P is the wife of Q.
Given: C * E, C * F, D * E, D * F, C : D, E : G, H : F, E * I, G * I, H * J, F * J, I : K, L : J.
Ques. 11. How is I related to F?
1. Cousin
2. Grandson
3. Nephew
4. Uncle
5. Son
Correct Option - 3
Ques. 12. How is G related to C?
1. Daughter-in-law
2. Wife
3. Niece
4. Granddaughter
5. Daughter
Correct Option - 1
Ques. 13. How is J related to I?
1. Niece
2. Sister
3. Daughter-in-law
4. Aunt
5. Cousin
Correct Option - 5
14. In a certain code language, each letter of a word is replaced by the letter that occupies the mirrorimage position of that letter in the English alphabet (that is, A is replaced by Z, B by Y, C by X, and so on, with the alphabet folded exactly in half). What will be the code for the word 'GARDEN'?
1. TYIWWM
2. TZIWWM
3. TZIWWM
4. TZIWUM
5. TZIWWN
Correct Option - 2
In the following questions, the symbols β, δ, θ, λ and ρ are used with the following meanings, illustrated below: 'P β Q' means P is less than Q. 'P δ Q' means P is greater than Q. 'P θ Q' means P is equal to Q. 'P λ Q' means P is less than or equal to Q. 'P ρ Q' means P is greater than or equal to Q. Now, in each question, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II (if any) is/are definitely true, and select your answer accordingly: (1) if only conclusion I is true; (2) if only conclusion II is true; (3) if either I or II is true; (4) if neither I nor II is true; (5) if both I and II are true.
Quess.15. Statements:FpG A H O I B J Conclusions: I. G B J II. F 6 H
1. Only I is true
2. Neither I nor II is true
3. Either I or II is true
4. Both I and II are true
5. Only II is true
Correct Option - 1
Quess.16. Statements:K & L p M 0 N A O Conclusions: I. K & M II. K & N
1. Neither I nor II is true
2. Only II is true
3. Both I and II are true
4. Either I or II is true
5. Only I is true
Correct Option - 3
Quess.17. Statements:P & Q p R 0 S p T Conclusions: I. Q & T II. Q 0 T
1. Only II is true
2. Only I is true
3. Both I and II are true
4. Neither I nor II is true
5. Either I or II is true
Correct Option - 5
1. Five
2. Six
3. Two
4. Four
5. Three
Correct Option - 4
Eight friends - Tarun, Nikhil, Swati, Anita, Vishal, Pallavi, Sameer and Kabir - have different ages. Exactly one person is older than Kabir. Vishal is older than Kabir. Exactly two people are older than Sameer. Anita is younger than Sameer but older than Tarun. Exactly three people are younger than Tarun. Swati is younger than Tarun. Only two people are younger than Swati. Nikhil is older than Pallavi. Pallavi is the youngest of all.
Quess.18. How many people are younger than Anita?
1. Five
2. Six
3. Two
4. Four
5. Three
Correct Option - 4
Correct Option - 4
Quess.19. Who is the third oldest among the eight friends?
1. Tarun
2. Vishal
3. Kabir
4. Anita
5. Sameer
Correct Option - 5
Correct Option - 5
Quess.20. How many people are older than Tarun but younger than Kabir?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. None
Correct Option - 2
Correct Option - 2
Quess.21. Four of the following five persons are alike in a certain way based on whether they are older or younger than Tarun, and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?
1. Vishal
2. Swati
3. Anita
4. Sameer
5. Kabir
Correct Option - 2
Correct Option - 2
Quess.22. What is Sameer's rank when counted from the youngest?
1. Sixth
2. Fourth
3. Fifth
4. Seventh
5. Eighth
Correct Option - 1
1. Ritiika 2. Ashish 3. Naveen 4. Kunal 5. Suresh
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. Eight people - Naveen, Ashish, Kunal, Ritika, Kavita, Suresh, Anjali and Devika - sit in a single row containing eight seats, all facing either North or South (not necessarily the same direction, and not necessarily in equal numbers). The seats are numbered 1 to 8 from left to right as you view the row; every reference to a person's position (such as immediate left, 'to the right of, or 'extreme end') is with respect to this fixed left- to- right numbering, regardless of which direction that person individually faces. Devika sits at one of the extreme ends of the row and faces North. Only one person sits between Devika and Ritika, and that person is Kavita. Naveen sits immediately to the right of Ritika. Suresh sits immediately to the right of Naveen. Exactly two people sit between Suresh and Anjali. Ashish sits second to the left of Anjali. Kunal sits immediately to the left of Anjali. Exactly four people face North and exactly four face South. Kavita faces South. Naveen faces South. Suresh and Ritika face the same direction as each other. Ashish faces North. Kunal does not face the same direction as Ashish. Anjali faces South.
Ques. 23. Who sits third to the right of Kavita?
1. Ritika
2. Ashish
3. Naveen
4. Kunal
5. Suresh
Correct Option - 5
Ques. 24. How many people sit between Devika and Ashish?
1. One
2. Two
3. Five
4. Four
5. Three
Correct Option - 4
Ques. 25. Four of the following five persons are alike in the direction they face, and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?
1. Kavita
2. Ashish
3. Devika
4. Suresh
5. Ritika
Correct Option - 1
Ques. 26. Who sits immediately to the left of Kunal?
1. Ashish
2. Anjali
3. Suresh
4. Naveen
5. Ritika
Correct Option - 1
Ques. 27. What is Naveen's position when counted from the right end of the row?
1. Seventh
2. Sixth
3. Third
4. Fourth
5. Fifth
Correct Option - 5
Ques. 28. How many people face South and sit to the right of Naveen?
1. One
2. Four
3. Two
4. Three
5. None
Correct Option - 3
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.Eight employees - Alok, Dinesh, Manisha, Rekha, Sandeep, Varun, Neha and Ishaan - have a meeting scheduled across four days of the same week - Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday and Thursday - with exactly two meetings on each day, one in the Morning and the other in the Evening (not necessarily in that order). Alok is scheduled in the very first slot of all, i.e., Monday morning. Only one person is scheduled between Alok and Manisha in the overall order (from Monday morning to Thursday evening). Dinesh is scheduled immediately after Alok. Rekha is scheduled immediately after Manisha. Only one person is scheduled between Rekha and Varun in the overall order. Sandeep is scheduled immediately before Varun. Ishaan is scheduled last of all, i.e., Thursday evening.
Ques. 29. How many people are scheduled between Manisha and Ishaan, in the overall order?
1. Three
2. Two
3. Five
4. Four
5. Six
Correct Option - 4
Ques. 30. Who is scheduled immediately before Sandeep, in the overall order?
1. Dinesh
2. Rekha
3. Manisha
4. Varun
5. Neha
Correct Option - 2
Ques. 31. On which day is Varun scheduled?
1. Monday
2. Tuesday
3. Cannot be determined
4. Wednesday
5. Thursday
1. Four
2. Three
3. Five
4. Seven
5. Six
Correct Option - 3
Ques. 33. Which of the following person- slot combinations is correct?
1. Sandeep-Evening
2. Alok-Evening
3. Rekha-Morning
4. Manisha-Morning
5. Dinesh-Morning
Correct Option - 4
Ques. 34. If all eight people are rearranged in English alphabetical order of their names (from position 1 to position 8 in that new order), who would now occupy the position that Varun originally held (position 6)?
1. Rekha
2. Neha
3. Manisha
4. Varun
5. Sandeep
Correct Option - 1
Ques. 35. In a class of 40 students, Kavya ranks 15th from the top. Siddharth ranks 9 places below Kavya's rank (counted from the top). If 6 students who rank below Siddharth leave the class, what will be Siddharth's new rank from the bottom?
1. 17th
2. 15th
3. 9th
4. 10th
5. 11th
Correct Option - 5
1. 13 seconds 2. 11 seconds 3. 13.5 seconds 4. 12.5 seconds 5. 12 seconds
## Quantitative Aptitude
Quests. 36. Two trains of length 240 m and 210 m are running on parallel tracks in opposite directions at speeds of 66 km/h and 54 km/h respectively. In how much time will they completely cross each other?
1. 13 seconds 2. 11 seconds 3. 13.5 seconds 4. 12.5 seconds 5. 12 seconds
Correct Option - 3
Quests. 37. A committee of 5 members is to be formed from 6 men and 4 women. In how many ways can this be done if the committee must include at least 3 women?
1. 72 2. 60 3. 66 4. 63 5. 69
Correct Option - 3
Quests. 38. A started a business investing Rs. 50,000. After 4 months, B joined him investing Rs. 60,000. After 8 months from the start (i.e., with 4 months left in the year), A increased his investment by Rs. 20,000. If the total profit at the end of the year is Rs. 1,45,000, what is B's share of the profit?
1. Rs. 65,000 2. Rs. 60,000 3. Rs. 55,000 4. Rs. 50,000 5. Rs. 70,000
Correct Option - 2
Quests. 39. The marked price of an article is Rs. 2,500. A shopkeeper allows two successive discounts of 20% and 10%, and still makes a profit of 20% on the cost price. What is the cost price of the article?
1. Rs. 1,550 2. Rs. 1,600 3. Rs. 1,650 4. Rs. 1,500 5. Rs. 1,520
Correct Option - 4
Quests. 40. The ratio of the present ages of X and Y is 4:5. Eight years ago, the ratio of their ages was 7:9. What will be the ratio of their ages after 8 years?
1. 5:7 2. 8:9 3. 9:11 4. 7:9 5. 4:5
1. 10 km/h
2. 12 km/h
3. 11 km/h
4. 13 km/h
5. 14 km/h
## Correct Option - 5
Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow. The table shows the total number of units produced by five factories (M, N, O, P and Q) and the percentage of units among them that were defective. Some values are missing and must be calculated using the note given below the table.
Factory | Total Units Produced | Defective Units (%)
M | 800 | 5%
N | ? | 8% (64 defective)
O | 750 | ? (60 defective)
P | ? | 6% (54 defective)
Q | 900 | 10%
Note: In Factory N, the number of defective units (64) equals 8% of its total production. In Factory O, the number of defective units is 60. In Factory P, the number of defective units (54) equals 6% of its total production.
Ques. 42. What is the total number of units produced by all 5 factories (M, N, O, P and Q) together?
1. 4150
2. 4230
3. 4170
4. 4260
5. 4200
Correct Option - 1
Ques. 43. What is the total number of defective units produced by all 5 factories together?
1. 298
2. 288
3. 318
4. 308
5. 303
Correct Option - 4
Ques. 44. What is the respective ratio of the number of defective units produced by Factory M to the number of defective units produced by Factory O?
1. 4:5
2. 3:4
3. 1:2
4. 3:2
5. 2:3
Correct Option - 5
Ques. 45. What is the average number of units produced per factory, taking all 5 factories together?
1. 850 2. 830 3. 800 4. 840 5. 860
Correct Option - 2
Correct Option - 2
Ques. 46. The number of defective units in Factory Q is what percent more than the number of defective units in Factory M?
1. 115% 2. 100% 3. 130% 4. 140% 5. 125%
Correct Option - 5
Correct Option - 5
What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (Note: You are not expected to calculate the exact value.)
Ques. 47. 45.96% of 650.02 + (15.03)² - 89.98 = ?
1. 495 2. 465 3. 450 4. 480 5. 435
Correct Option - 5
Correct Option - 5
Ques. 48. 27.98% of 1200.05 - √(624.9×3.02) + 45.01 = ?
1. 350 2. 305 3. 320 4. 335 5. 290
Correct Option - 2
Correct Option - 2
Ques. 49. 63.97 × 24.02 + (18.03)² - 350.06 = ?
1. 1540 2. 1480 3. 1525 4. 1495 5. 1510
1. 470
2. 430
3. 490
4. 450
5. 510
Correct Option - 3
Quess.51. ∛(1727.9 × 12.02) + 168.98 ÷ 2.01 - 15.03 × 3.99 = ?
1. 138
2. 148
3. 128
4. 158
5. 168
Correct Option - 5
Quess.52. The difference between the compound interest (compounded annually) and the simple interest on a certain sum for 2 years at 12% per annum is Rs. 432. What is the sum?
1. Rs.33,000
2. Rs.25,000
3. Rs.28,000
4. Rs.27,000
5. Rs.30,000
Correct Option - 5
Each of the questions from 26 to 35 is an independent question on a different topic. Study each question carefully and calculate the answer.
Quess.53. Pipe A can fill an empty tank in 12 hours and Pipe B can fill it in 18 hours. Pipe C, a drain pipe, can empty the full tank in 9 hours. If all three pipes are opened together when the tank is empty, in how many hours will the tank be completely filled?
1. 32
2. 39
3. 42
4. 36
5. 45
Correct Option - 4
The bar graph below shows the number of two- wheelers sold by two showrooms, Showroom X and Showroom Y, over six months (January to June). Study the graph carefully and answer the questions that follow.
1. 1248
2. 1254
3. 1242
4. 1230
5. 1260
Two-Wheelers Sold by Showroom X and Showroom Y (Jan-Jun)
Jan: X=240, Y=276
Feb: X=300, Y=258
Mar: X=270, Y=318
Apr: X=360, Y=294
May: X=288, Y=336
Jun: X=342, Y=300
Ques. 54. What is the total number of two-wheelers sold by Showroom X and Showroom Y together in the months of March and April?
1. 1248
2. 1254
3. 1242
4. 1230
5. 1260
Correct Option - 3
Ques. 55. What is the average number of two-wheelers sold by Showroom Y over the six months from January to June?
1. 291
2. 288
3. 294
4. 297
5. 285
Correct Option - 4
Ques. 56. The number of two-wheelers sold by Showroom X in June is what percent more than the number sold by Showroom Y in the same month?
1. 18%
2. 16%
3. 20%
4. 22%
5. 14%
Correct Option - 5
Ques. 57. What is the respective ratio of the total number of two-wheelers sold by Showroom X to that sold by Showroom Y over the six months?
1. 100:98
2. 101:100
3. 98:99
4. 99:100
5. 100:99
Correct Option - 5
Ques.58. In how many of the six months was the number of two- wheelers sold by Showroom X more than the number sold by Showroom Y?
1. 5 2. 4 3. 1 4. 3 5. 2
Correct Option - 4
Each question below contains a question and two statements, numbered I and II, giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and choose the answer as: (1) if Statement I alone is sufficient, but Statement II alone is not sufficient; (2) if Statement II alone is sufficient, but Statement I alone is not sufficient; (3) if either Statement I alone or Statement II alone is sufficient; (4) if Statement I and II together are necessary, but neither statement alone is sufficient; (5) if the data in both Statements I and II together are still not sufficient to answer the question.
Ques.59. What is Meena's present age?
Statement I: The present ages of Meena and her daughter are in the ratio 7:2, and the difference between their ages is 30 years.
Statement II: Five years hence, the sum of Meena's age and her daughter's age will be 64 years.
1. Both Statement I and Statement II together are necessary to answer the question
2. Statement II alone is sufficient, while Statement I alone is not sufficient
3. Both Statement I and Statement II together are not sufficient to answer the question
4. Statement I alone is sufficient, while Statement II alone is not sufficient
5. Either Statement I alone or Statement II alone is sufficient
Correct Option - 4
Ques.60. A shopkeeper sold an article for Rs.4,800, thereby earning some profit. What was the profit percentage?
Statement I: Had he sold the article for Rs. 4,600, his profit would have been 15% Statement II: The cost price of the article was Rs. 500 less than its marked price of Rs. 4,500.
1. Either Statement I alone or Statement II alone is sufficient
2. Statement II alone is sufficient, while Statement I alone is not sufficient
3. Statement I alone is sufficient, while Statement II alone is not sufficient
4. Both Statement I and Statement II together are necessary to answer the question
5. Both Statement I and Statement II together are not sufficient to answer the question
Correct Option - 1
Ques.61. What is the area of a rectangular field? Statement I: The length of the field is 4 / 3 times its breadth. Statement II: The perimeter of the field is 210 metres, and the length is 15 metres more than the breadth.
1. Statement I alone is sufficient, while Statement II alone is not sufficient
2. Statement II alone is sufficient, while Statement I alone is not sufficient
3. Both Statement I and Statement II together are necessary to answer the question
4. Either Statement I alone or Statement II alone is sufficient
5. Both Statement I and Statement II together are not sufficient to answer the question
Correct Option - 2
Ques. 62. Is the three- digit number N divisible by 6? Statement I: The sum of the digits of N is 18. Statement II: N is divisible by 4.
1. Statement I alone is sufficient, while Statement II alone is not sufficient
2. Both Statement I and Statement II together are necessary to answer the question
3. Statement II alone is sufficient, while Statement I alone is not sufficient
4. Either Statement I alone or Statement II alone is sufficient
5. Both Statement I and Statement II together are not sufficient to answer the question
Correct Option - 2
Ques. 63. A vessel contains a mixture of milk and water in the ratio 3:2. What is the quantity of water in the mixture?
Statement I: The quantity of milk in the mixture is more than 24 litres. Statement II: The quantity of milk in the mixture is less than 36 litres.
1. Both Statement I and Statement II together are not sufficient to answer the question
2. Both Statement I and Statement II together are necessary to answer the question
3. Statement II alone is sufficient, while Statement I alone is not sufficient
4. Statement I alone is sufficient, while Statement II alone is not sufficient
5. Either Statement I alone or Statement II alone is sufficient
Correct Option - 1
Ques. 64. A cylindrical tank of radius 7m and height 10m is completely filled with water. This water is then emptied into a cuboidal tank of length 22m and breadth 5m. What will be the height of the water level in the cuboidal tank? (Use π = 22 / 7)
1. 16m 2. 20m 3. 18m 4. 22m 5. 14m
Correct Option - 5
Ques. 65. A vessel contains a mixture of milk and water in the ratio 5:3. If 24 litres of this mixture is removed and replaced with pure water, the ratio of milk to water becomes 5:7. What was the initial quantity of the mixture in the vessel?
1. 84 litres
2. 64 litres
3. 80 litres
4. 76 litres
5. 72 litres
Correct Option - 5
In each of the following questions, two equations I and II are given. Solve both the equations and establish the relationship between x and y, then choose the correct option.
1. x≥y
2. x≤y
3. Relationship between x and y cannot be determined
4. x>y
5. x<y
Correct Option - 5
Ques.67.1. x² - 11x + 30 = 0 II. y² - 9y + 20 = 0
1. x≤y
2. x≥y
3. x<y
4. x>y
5. Relationship between x and y cannot be determined
Correct Option - 2
Ques.68.1. x² - 7x + 12 = 0 II. y² - 6y + 8 = 0
1. x>y
2. x=y or the relationship between x and y cannot be determined
3. x≥y
4. x<y
5. x≤y
Correct Option - 2
Ques.69.1. x² - 13x + 42 = 0 II. y² - 15y + 56 = 0
1. x<y
2. x≥y
3. Relationship between x and y cannot be determined
4. x≤y
5. x>y
Correct Option - 4
Ques.70.1. x² - 25x + 156 = 0 II. y² - 19y + 88 = 0
1. x≥y
2. x≤y
3. Relationship between x and y cannot be determined
4. x>y
5. x<y
Correct Option - 4
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. F
5. D
## English Language
Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in a logical sequence to form a coherent and meaningful paragraph, and then answer the questions given below.
(A) Despite this growing evidence, access to quality green space remains starkly unequal within most cities, with wealthier neighbourhoods typically enjoying far more parkland per resident than lower-income districts.
(B) For much of the twentieth century, urban parks were often regarded as a pleasant amenity rather than a civic necessity, something a city might add once more pressing infrastructure needs had been met.
(C) Compounding this imbalance, the dense, built-up character of many city centres leaves little vacant land available for new parks, and what land does remain is often prohibitively expensive to acquire.
(D) This perception has shifted considerably in recent years, as researchers have documented the tangible role that trees and green cover play in lowering local temperatures during increasingly frequent heatwaves, a phenomenon known as the urban heat island effect.
(E) Faced with this constraint, a number of cities have instead begun converting disused infrastructure, such as old elevated rail lines and underused rooftops, into accessible green corridors.
(F) Beyond this cooling effect, epidemiological studies have also linked regular access to green space with measurable improvements in residents' mental health and levels of physical activity.
Ques. 71. Which sentence should come FIRST after the rearrangement?
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. F
5. D
Correct Option - 1
Ques. 72. Which sentence should come SECOND after the rearrangement?
1. D
2. A
3. C
4. B
5. F
Correct Option - 1
Ques. 73. Which sentence should come THIRD after the rearrangement?
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. F
5. D
Correct Option - 4
Ques. 74. Which sentence should come FOURTH after the rearrangement?
1. F
2. B
3. D
4. A
5. C
Correct Option - 4
1. F
2. D
3. C
4. B
5. A
## Correct Option - 3
In each sentence below, four words/phrases are labelled (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify which two labels must be interchanged for the sentence to be logically correct. If the sentence is already correct as it stands, select 'No interchange required'.
Ques. 76. The (A) award- winning wildlife photographer, who had spent fifteen years mastering low- light shots, used (B) a decade- old disposable camera with no zoom to capture a stunning, gallery- quality photo of a leopard mid- leap at midnight, whereas the (C) complete novice, holding a camera for the first time in her life, used (D) a state- of- the- art telephoto lens worth two lakh rupees to produce a blurry, unusable image of a stationary pigeon in broad daylight.
1. A-C
2. A-C and B-D (both)
3. A-D
4. B-D
5. No interchange required
Correct Option - 4
Ques. 77. The (A) outdated dial- up modem, still used in a handful of remote villages, needed (B) nearly three minutes to load a single low- resolution webpage, while the (C) modern fiber- optic connection, installed in most metropolitan offices, needed (D) under thirty seconds to download an entire high- definition film.
1. B-D
2. No interchange required
3. A-C
4. A-C and B-D (both)
5. A-D
Correct Option - 2
Ques. 78. The (A) heavy- duty tow truck, engineered to haul stranded eighteen- wheelers off the highway, struggled for (B) two full days to move a single empty bicycle parked in the driveway, whereas the (C) compact electric hatchback, designed mainly for short city commutes, needed only (D) a single afternoon to tow a fully loaded twelve- tonne cargo trailer across three states.
1. A-C
2. A-C and B-D (both)
3. B-D
4. A-D
5. No interchange required
Correct Option - 3
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Central banks in dozens of countries are now piloting digital versions of their national currencies, issued and backed directly by the monetary authority. Advocates argue that a central bank digital currency, or CBDC, could extend basic financial services to the millions of adults who remain unbanked, since a digital rupee or digital yuan would require nothing more than a mobile phone, bypassing the paperwork that often deters low- income households from opening a traditional bank account. Faster, cheaper cross- border remittances are frequently cited as a further benefit, since a CBDC transaction could theoretically settle within seconds rather than the days typically required by correspondent banking networks.
This enthusiasm, however, has been met with pointed scepticism from commercial bankers and privacy advocates alike. If ordinary citizens can hold digital currency directly with the central bank, commercial banks fear a steady leakage of low- cost retail deposits, the very funds they currently rely on to finance loans; a sudden, large- scale shift toward CBDC holdings during a period of financial stress could, in theory, trigger the digital equivalent of a bank run. Privacy campaigners raise a separate objection: unlike physical cash, a digital currency issued by the state could, in principle, allow the central bank to trace every transaction an individual makes, raising the spectre of a level of financial surveillance that no democratic society has previously tolerated. In response, most central banks piloting these systems have opted for a cautious, two- tiered design: the central bank issues the currency, but commercial banks continue to manage customer- facing accounts, preserving their role as intermediaries. Several pilots also impose deliberate limits on the amount an individual may hold in digital currency, precisely to discourage the kind of mass deposit flight that alarms commercial bankers. Whether these design compromises will be sufficient to deliver the promised gains in financial inclusion without inviting the feared risks to bank stability and personal privacy is a question that will likely only be settled once a major economy moves from pilot to full- scale rollout.
Ques. 79. Which of the following best captures the central argument of the passage?
1. Privacy concerns are the only obstacle preventing the widespread adoption of CBDCs.
2. While CBDCs promise gains in financial inclusion and payment efficiency, they raise significant,
3. Central banks have abandoned all pilot programmes for digital currencies due to public opposition.
4. Commercial banks universally support the introduction of central bank digital currencies.
5. CBDCs have already replaced physical cash entirely in most major economies.
Correct Option - 2
Ques. 80. According to the passage, why do commercial banks fear a large- scale shift toward CBDC holdings during a period of financial stress?
1. Because CBDCs are illegal in most jurisdictions during financial stress
2. Because commercial banks are technologically incapable of supporting digital currencies
3. Because customers are legally barred from holding both bank deposits and CBDCs simultaneously
4. Because such a shift could trigger the digital equivalent of a bank run by draining low-cost retail
5. Because central banks charge commercial banks a fee for every CBDC transaction
Correct Option - 4
Ques. 81. It can be inferred from the passage that central banks' choice of a 'two- tiered design' is most directly a response to which concern raised earlier in the passage?
1. The concern that central banks lack the legal authority to issue currency
2. The concern that cross-border remittances take too long to settle
3. The concern that commercial banks charge excessive fees on remittances
4. The concern that commercial banks could suffer a damaging loss of retail deposits
5. The concern that mobile phones are not widely available in rural areas
Correct Option - 4
Ques. 82. Choose the word closest in meaning to 'pointed' as used in the passage ('met with pointed scepticism').
1. Sharp and direct
2. Flattering
3. Accidental
4. Pointless
5. Vague
Correct Option - 1
Quest. 83. Choose the word closest in meaning to leakage' as used in the passage (a steady leakage of low- cost retail deposits).
1. Careful investment
2. Increase
3. Sudden collapse
4. Gradual loss or outflow
5. Public announcement
Correct Option - 4
Quest. 84. Choose the word closest in meaning to 'spectre' as used in the passage (raising the spectre of a level of financial surveillance).
1. A minor inconvenience
2. A guaranteed outcome
3. A joyful celebration
4. A ghost costume
5. A worrying and threatening possibility
Correct Option - 5
Quest. 85. Which of the following statements is true according to the passage?
1. Physical cash allows central banks to trace every transaction an individual makes.
2. A CBDC transaction could theoretically settle within seconds, compared to the days often required by
3. Commercial bankers have universally welcomed CBDCs as a way to increase their retail deposits.
4. All central banks have completed full-scale rollout of digital currencies nationwide.
5. Privacy campaigners have raised no objections to the introduction of CBDCs.
Correct Option - 2
Quest. 86. What is the primary function of the second paragraph in the overall structure of the passage?
1. To provide statistical evidence proving that CBDCs increase financial inclusion
2. To introduce objections and risks that complicate the optimistic case presented in the first paragraph
3. To announce the final regulatory decision on CBDC adoption
4. To describe the history of central banking prior to the twentieth century
5. To summarise the entire passage and conclude the discussion
Correct Option - 2
Quest. 87. According to the passage, what specific design feature do several CBDC pilots use to discourage mass deposit flight from commercial banks?
1. They ban commercial banks from offering any interest on deposits
2. They require individuals to obtain a court order before opening a CBDC account
3. They impose deliberate limits on the amount an individual may hold in digital currency
4. They charge a penalty interest rate on all CBDC holdings above zero
5. They restrict CBDC use to government employees only
3. The newlly hired employee took a keen in the bank's new digital- lending platform during her first week, and later learned that customers who repaid their loans early were charged no additional on the outstanding amount.
1. concern
2. curiosity
3. appeal
4. attraction
5. interest
Correct Option - 5
Ques. 89. Before submitting the final report, the manager asked her assistant to prepare a rough for review, and later that afternoon the same assistant visited the bank to collect a payable to the vendor.
1. cheque
2. copy
3. summary
4. outline
5. draft
Correct Option - 5
Ques. 90. After months of practice, the gymnast could finally maintain perfect on the beam without wobbling, while her brother, a bank teller, spent the morning helping customers check their account at the counter.
1. savings
2. stability
3. balance
4. poise
5. equilibrium
Correct Option - 3
Each sentence below is divided into four parts, labelled (A), (B), (C) and (D). Read each sentence to find whether there is a grammatical error in any of the parts. If you find an error, select that part as your answer. If a sentence has no error, select 'No error'.
Ques. 91. The head chef of the newly renovated restaurant (A) / have spent the entire morning personally selecting the freshest ingredients (B) / from the local market (C) / before the critic's much- anticipated visit that evening. (D) / No error (E)
1. D
2. No error
3. C
4. A
5. B
Correct Option - 5
2. Ever since she signed up for her first marathon six months ago, (A) / the young runner trains every single day before dawn, (B) / gradually increasing her distance each week (C) / to prepare her body for the gruelling 42- kilometre race. (D) / No error (E)
1. A
2. B
3. D
4. C
5. No error
Correct Option - 2
Ques. 93. The head librarian spent the afternoon carefully cleaning the fragile pages, (A) / repairing the torn bindings, (B) / and to catalogue each manuscript's provenance (C) / before returning them to the climate- controlled archive. (D) / No error (E)
1. No error
2. D
3. A
4. B
5. C
Correct Option - 5
Ques. 94. Despite having flown this route hundreds of times before, the veteran pilot (A) / calmly reassured the anxious passengers (B) / that she was fully capable to handle (C) / even the most severe turbulence they might encounter. (D) / No error (E)
1. C
2. B
3. No error
4. D
5. A
Correct Option - 1
Ques. 95. After examining the injured golden eagle's wing carefully, (A) / the veterinarian concluded that the fracture, though serious, (B) / would heal completely within eight weeks (C) / provided that the bird remained in a controlled, stress- free environment. (D) / No error (E)
1. D
2. B
3. A
4. No error
5. C
Correct Option - 4
In the following passage, there are five blanks, each followed by a number corresponding to a question with five options. Choose the option that fits each blank most appropriately.
Ensuring reliable access to sufficient, nutritious food for a growing global population has become one of the most pressing challenges of this century. Climate change has made rainfall patterns increasingly erratic, and a single poor monsoon can now (1) crop yields across entire regions, pushing food prices sharply upward.
Governments have traditionally responded by maintaining large buffer stocks of staple grains, which can be (2) into the market during shortages to stabilise prices. Yet critics note that such stockpiling schemes are expensive to maintain and prone to storage losses from pests and spoilage. In recent years, policymakers have therefore begun to (3) investment toward improving cold- chain logistics and crop- resistant seed varieties, aiming to prevent post- harvest losses rather than merely stockpile surplus grain after the fact. Some economists argue that without parallel efforts to (4) farmers' incomes, these technical fixes will do little to address the deeper economic vulnerability that leaves smallholders exposed to a single bad season. Unless food policy becomes more (5) treating production, storage, and farmer welfare as a single interconnected system, gains made in one area will continue to be undermined by neglect in another.
Ques. 96. Choose the most appropriate word for blank (1).
1. publicize
2. calculate
3. reduce
4. improve
5. celebrate
Correct Option - 3
Ques. 97. Choose the most appropriate word for blank (2).
1. advertised
2. postponed
3. released
4. arrested
5. diagnosed
Correct Option - 3
Ques. 98. Choose the most appropriate word for blank (3).
1. exhaust
2. postpone
3. redirect
4. publicize
5. recall
Correct Option - 3
Ques. 99. Choose the most appropriate word for blank (4).
1. conceal
2. calculate
3. diminish
4. publicize
5. safeguard
Correct Option - 5
Ques. 100. Choose the most appropriate word for blank (5).
1. expensive
2. lenient
3. secretive
4. integrated
5. profitable
Correct Option - 4
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