PART—A

SYNONYMS

Directions (For the 8 items which follow) :
Each of the following items consists of a word in capital letters, followed by four words or groups of words. Select the word or group of words that is most similar in meaning to the word in capital letters.

1. PESSIMISTIC
   (a) Indifferent (b) Ascetic (c) Unsettle (d) Not hopeful
2. ANALOGOUS
   (a) Unsuitable (b) Uncritical (c) Similar (d) Disproportionate
3. EXAGGERATE
   (a) Bluff (b) Overstate (c) Explain (d) Underestimate
4. EVIDENT
   (a) Prominent (b) Seen (c) Observed (d) Quite clear
5. PENALIZE
   (a) Persecute (b) Punish (c) Torture (d) Ruin
6. REMEDIAL
   (a) Punitive (b) Stringent (c) Corrective (d) Strict
7. TRIVIAL
   (a) Unimportant (b) Transparent (c) Important (d) Unexpected
8. INCREDIBLE
   (a) Hard to believe (b) Considerable (c) Inconsistent (d) Unsatisfactory

NDA previous Year Question Paper

ANTONYMS

Directions (For the 8 items which follow) :
Each of the following items consists of a word or group of words in capital letters, followed by four words. Select the word that is furthest in meaning to the word or group of words in capital letters.

1. RELUCTANT
   (a) Optimistic (b) Unwilling (c) Enthusiastic (d) Excited
2. SCARCITY
   (a) Plenty (b) Prosperity (c) Facility (d) Simplicity
3. THICK SKINNED
   (a) Thankless (b) Sensitive (c) Pliant (d) Resolute
4. BLEAK
   (a) Bright (b) Confusing (c) Uncertain (d) Great
5. STERN
   (a) Violent (b) Generous (c) Mild (d) Forgiving
6. SUPERFICIAL
   (a) Profound (b) Difficult (c) Secretive (d) Mystical
7. ELEGANCE
   (a) Balance (b) Indelicacy (c) Clumsiness (d) Savagery
8. COARSE
   (a) Pleasing (b) Rude (c) Polished (d) Soft

REARRANGING PARTS OF A SENTENCE

Directions (For the 8 items which follow) :
In the following items, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

1. About 200 years ago, in the south of India an old king ruled over a kingdom called Rajavarman
   P Q R S
   The correct sequence should be
   (a) Q-S-R-P (b) P-Q-R-S (c) Q-P-S-R (d) Q-S-P-R
2. his land a wooden plough the Indian peasant still uses to cultivate
   P Q R S
   The correct sequence should be
   (a) R-Q-P-S (b) Q-P-S-R (c) S-R-Q-P (d) R-Q-S-P
3. He was a man even if he had to starve who would not beg borrow or steal from anyone
   P Q R S
   The correct sequence should be
   (a) P-Q-R-S (b) P-R-Q-S (c) Q-R-S-P (d) Q-P-R-S
4. in the progress of universities play a crucial role our civilization in the present age
   P Q R S
   The correct sequence should be
   (a) S-Q-P-R (b) Q-R-S-P (c) Q-R-P-S (d) S-Q-R-P
5. far out into the sea for the next two weeks there were further explosions which hurled ashes and debris
   P Q R S
   The correct sequence should be
   (a) Q-R-P-S (b) R-S-P-Q (c) Q-R-S-P (d) S-R-P-Q

NDA previous Year Question Paper

1. William Shakespeare in his lifetime the great English dramatist wrote thirty-five plays and several poems
   P Q R S
   The correct sequence should be
   (a) P-Q-R-S (b) R-S-P-Q (c) Q-S-R-P (d) Q-R-S-P
2. Whenever I am with an old friend of mine in New Delhi to have dinner I always try
   P Q R S
   The correct sequence should be
   (a) S-Q-P-R (b) Q-S-R-P (c) R-P-S-Q (d) P-R-Q-S
3. I don’t know must have thought what people sitting next to me but I came away
   P Q R S
   The correct sequence should be
   (a) R-S-Q-P (b) R-Q-S-P (c) P-Q-R-S (d) P-R-Q-S

SPOTTING ERRORS

Directions (For the 8 items which follow) :
In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the separate Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, letter (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.

1. Inflation and shortages have made it very difficult for him to make his both ends meet. No error
   (a) (b) (c) (d)
2. The most studious boy in the class was made as the captain. No error
   (a) (b) (c) (d)
3. I am participating in the two-miles race tomorrow morning. No error
   (a) (b) (c) (d)
4. The sum and substance of his speech were essentially anti-establishment. No error
   (a) (b) (c) (d)
5. It has been such a wonderful evening, I look forward to meet you again after the vacations. No error
   (a) (b) (c) (d)
6. When the boy committed a mistake, the teacher made him to do the sum again. No error
   (a) (b) (c) (d)
7. Unless the government does not revise its policy of liberalization the growth of the indigenous technology will be adversely affected. No error
   (a) (b) (c) (d)
8. Supposing if you get a seat in the plane you will not take more than two hours to reach Mumbai. No error
   (a) (b) (c) (d)

NDA previous Year Question Paper

COMPREHENSION

Directions (for the 12 items which follow) :
In this section, you have three short passages. After each passage, you will find several questions based on the passage. First, read a passage and then answer the questions based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

PASSAGE—I
No doubt, the ‘green revolution’ has led to self-sufficiency in food production but it has also brought with it the formidable problem of poisoning of food grains and other eatables. This is caused by excessive use of chemicals on crops and pesticide residues. It has also created havoc by exterminating the species of useful parasites and viruses which keep pests under control. Scientists are now worried about the resurgence of such formidable pests in menacing proportions which seem to undermine all that they have achieved in agricultural production.

1. From the reading of the passage, which one of these statements do you think is correct?
   (a) The ‘green revolution’ has solved all problems in agriculture
   (b) Application of chemicals has resulted in everlasting preservation of grains
   (c) The ‘green revolution’ is a mixed blessing
   (d) Scientists are satisfied with achievements in agricultural production
2. The statement that “the green revolution has also created havoc by exterminating the species of useful parasites and viruses” means
   (a) all parasites and viruses keep pests under control
   (b) pesticides and chemicals kill parasites and viruses, which control pests
   (c) the pests are controlled by parasites
   (d) application of chemicals to grains has created havoc
3. Which one of the following statements best reflects the underlying implication of the passage?
   (a) Man’s effort to control nature to his advantage has always created unseen dangers side by side
   (b) Research in one area leads to a challenge for further research in the same field
   (c) At present, research in preservation of agricultural production is at the cross-roads
   (d) The excessive use of chemicals and pesticides is dangerous
4. Which one of these phrases best helps to bring out the precise meaning of ‘menacing proportions’?
   (a) To an extent which becomes threatening
   (b) Assuming dimensions that cause concern
   (c) Unimagined, dangerous proportion
   (d) Harmful size

PASSAGE—II
Water is the basis of life. Every animal and every plant contains a substantial proportion of free or combined water in its body, and no kind of physiological activity is possible in which this fluid does not play an essential part. Water is, of course, necessary for animal life, while moisture in the soil is equally imperative for the life and growth of plants and trees, though the quantity necessarily varies enormously with the species. The conservation and utilization of water is thus fundamental to human life. Apart from artesian water, the ultimate source in all cases is rain or snowfall.

1. Water is the basis of life, because
   (a) it is seen everywhere on the earth
   (b) it is obtained from the sea and rain
   (c) it helps living things to exist
   (d) it is necessary for the birth and growth of all living things
2. No kind of physiological activity is possible without water, because
   (a) water is a fluid
   (b) water plays very important role in it
   (c) water flows easily
   (d) water does not play any role at all
3. The passage is on
   (a) the use of water in day-to-day life
   (b) the use of water in agriculture
   (c) the use of wastewater
   (d) the importance of water in human life

NDA previous Year Question Paper

PASSAGE—III
The importance of early detection of tuberculosis (TB), regular treatment and nutritious food are just not known widely enough. Often TB victims discontinue the treatment when the symptoms disappear, without waiting for a complete cure; the next attack is more virulent from bacteria which have thus become drug-resistant.

Anti-TB drugs are produced in India. The capability to meet the country’s requirements of anti-TB drugs in full already exists. Yet millions of Indians suffer from TB and thousands of them die every year.

Voluntary organizations and government agencies are doing commendable work. But we have so far tackled only the fringe of the problem. What is now needed is a nation-wide determination to fight TB. India eradicated smallpox with a national campaign. We can eradicate TB too.

1. Treatment is discontinued by TB victims, when
   (a) they think that the disease is completely cured
   (b) the apparent signs of TB are no longer visible to them
   (c) they run out of resources like money or medicine
   (d) they are attacked by drug-resistant bacteria
2. Millions of Indians suffer from TB, because
   (a) people discontinue the treatment too soon or do not start the treatment early enough
   (b) India does not produce anti-TB drugs of the required quality
   (c) anti-TB drugs are not available at a reasonable price
   (d) people do not have nutritious food
3. When the treatment of TB is discontinued too early
   (a) the old symptoms reappear
   (b) the patient gradually gets better, although slowly
   (c) the disease appears in a new, more dangerous form
   (d) the patient must get good, nutritious food
4. ‘The fringe of the problem’ means
   (a) the basic cause of the problem
   (b) the root of the problem
   (c) the side effects of the drugs
   (d) the edge of the problem, not the main point
5. Who or what become ‘drug-resistant’, according to the passage?
   (a) TB patients who are treated for a long time
   (b) People who do not want to take medicine for their illness
   (c) TB bacteria that have not been fully eradicated
   (d) Patients who have discontinued the treatment

REARRANGING SENTENCES INTO A PARAGRAPH

Directions (For the 6 items which follow) :
In the following items, each passage consists of six sentences. The first sentence (S₁) and the final sentence (S₆) are given in the beginning. The middle four sentences in each have been removed and jumbled up. These are labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

1. S₁ : Solar hot water systems that can supply hot water at an approximate temperature of 60 °C continuously, have recently been introduced.
   S₆ : Larger quantities of water can be heated by increasing the number of solar collectors.
   P : A similar 200-litre system, but with two collectors, ideal for a family of five or six, would cost around Rs 7,250.
   Q : A 100-litre per day system, suitable for a family of two or three, would cost around Rs 4,270.
   R : These rates, however, do not include the plumbing acquired to connect the system to the kitchen, bathroom or toilet of the building, transportation, installation and taxes.
   S : This includes the price of solar collector, a 100-litre insulated storage tank with fittings and an automatic water heater to be used during the monsoons or in an emergency.
   The proper sequence should be
   (a) R-P-Q-S (b) Q-S-P-R (c) S-R-Q-P (d) Q-P-S-R

NDA previous Year Question Paper

1. S₁ : Corruption has been accepted as a way of life in India.
   S₆ : I think no serious effort has been made to eradicate the wide-spread evil in India.
   P : It is quite rampant in our country.
   Q : But it is pity that no one hesitates to accept it when he gets a chance.
   R : They criticize and condemn others for taking bribe.
   S : It is not uncommon to find people talking against corruption.
   The proper sequence should be
   (a) P-Q-S-R (b) P-S-R-Q (c) S-P-Q-R (d) R-Q-S-P
2. S₁ : During college, Pamela Johnson had the opportunity to work with a famous anthropologist.
   S₆ : She earned a doctorate and today holds a key government position.
   P : When her son was three, she undertook the four-year hard work of post-graduate studies.
   Q : But then she married, had a baby and became a full-time mother.
   R : None the less, Pamela never lost sight of her desire to study and assist tribal people.
   S : She enjoyed the experience and decided to major in Anthropology.
   The proper sequence should be
   (a) Q-P-R-S (b) S-R-Q-P (c) R-S-Q-P (d) S-Q-R-P
3. S₁ : My friend Peter went to live in a village.
   S₆ : It did not like to work.
   P : But it was a very slow animal.
   Q : So Peter bought a donkey for five pounds.
   R : One day his new neighbour told him that he must buy a donkey.
   S : Every family there had a donkey to carry things for them.
   The proper sequence should be
   (a) S-R-Q-P (b) S-P-R-Q (c) Q-S-R-P (d) Q-R-S-P
4. S₁ : Miss Sullivan brought Helen Keller a doll.
   S₆ : Her heart was filled with pleasure and pride.
   P : After some efforts, she succeeded in making the letters correctly.
   Q : When she had played with it for some time, Miss Sullivan spelt into her hand the letters d-o-l-l.
   R : The child’s attention was arrested by the gentle movement of the finger on her hand.
   S : She tried to imitate the finger’s motion.
   The proper sequence should be
   (a) Q-R-S-P (b) R-Q-P-S (c) P-S-R-Q (d) S-R-Q-P
5. S₁ : When she was not yet an adult, Mother Teresa knew that she had a vocation to help the poor.
   S₆ : She received permission for this after two years.
   P : At the age of 18, she left her home to become a nun.
   Q : There she taught at a convent high school and became its Principal.
   R : She felt she must leave the job and go into slums to serve the poor.
   S : After training at Dublin, she was sent to Calcutta where she took her final vows.
   The proper sequence should be
   (a) S-R-P-Q (b) P-Q-S-R (c) R-S-Q-P (d) P-S-Q-R

PART—B

1. Consider the following statements with respect to the Radar Imaging Satellite (RISAT-2) :
2. This is the first Indian satellite with microwave imaging configuration on board.
3. The satellite will boost India’s defence capabilities.
4. It can take images of the earth day and night, even under rainy and cloudy conditions.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 only

NDA previous Year Question Paper

(Hindi version of Q. 51–55 follows on alternate pages in original; English continued for clarity)

1. Consider the following statements about Astra :
2. This anti-aircraft missile is procured by India from Russia.
3. It is a single-stage, smokeless, solid-propelled missile.
4. It may be launched from different altitudes.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
5. Which one of the following is not a component of the scheme ‘Innovation in Science Pursuit for Inspired Research (INSPIRE)’ launched by the Union of India?
   (a) Scheme for early attraction of talents for science
   (b) Scholarship for higher education
   (c) Assured opportunity for research careers
   (d) Vocational training after higher education
6. Who among the following has been presented the Leontief Award, 2009 for his/her outstanding contributions to the field of economic theory?
   (a) Montek Singh Ahluwalia (b) Prof. Bina Agarwal (c) Prof. Amartya Sen (d) Jagdish Bhagwati
7. Areawise, which one of the following is the largest Lok Sabha constituency?
   (a) Kutch (b) Kangra (c) Ladakh (d) Patna Sahib
8. Indian Military Training Team (IMTRAT) imparts training to army officers of
   (a) Nepal (b) Bangladesh (c) Maldives (d) Bhutan
9. Consider the following statements :
10. The Green Governance Awards have been instituted by Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS).
11. Tata Chemicals has won the Green Governance Award, 2008 for its project on conservation of the whale shark.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
12. The tourism phrase Paradise Unexplored refers to
    (a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) North-East India (c) Chhattisgarh (d) Uttarakhand
13. Consider the following statements :
14. Muhammad Hamdulla Sayeed, elected from Lakshadweep parliamentary constituency, is the youngest MP in the 15th Lok Sabha.
15. Agatha K. Sangma is the youngest Union Minister in the 15th Lok Sabha who represents Shillong parliamentary constituency.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
16. Consider the following statements about the accident of AF 447, which crashed over the Atlantic Ocean on 1st June, 2009 :
17. The Airbus A330-200 was on its way to Rio de Janeiro from Paris.
18. The scheduled flight usually crosses the Tropic of Cancer on its way to its destination.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

NDA previous Year Question Paper

1. Which one of the following statements about Chandragupta II is not correct?
   (a) Kalidasa and Amarasimha were famous scholars in his court
   (b) He expanded his empire both through matrimonial alliances and conquests
   (c) He married a Naga princess, named Kubera Naga
   (d) He married his daughter Prabhavati to an Ahom prince
2. Mahatma Gandhi undertook ‘fast unto death’ against the Communal Award. He, however, discontinued the fast, because
   (a) the Congress leaders successfully prevailed upon Mahatma Gandhi to accept the Award
   (b) the British Government withdrew the Communal Award
   (c) of the conclusion of the Poona Pact
   (d) the weaker classes openly opposed the Award
3. Consider the following statements with regard to Champaran Satyagraha (1917) :
4. The Champaran Satyagraha marked Mahatma Gandhi’s first appearance in Indian politics as a leader of the masses.
5. Young nationalists like Rajendra Prasad and J. B. Kripalani had worked with Mahatma Gandhi at Champaran.
6. It was during this movement that Mahatma Gandhi formulated his philosophy of Satyagraha.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
7. The Passive Resistance Association was first formed by Mahatma Gandhi in South Africa in 1906 to organize a campaign against the introduction of
   (a) Poll Tax (b) Certificate of Registration (c) Legislations against Indian businessmen (d) Legislations to disenfranchise the Indians
8. What was the effect of the Government of India Act of 1935 on the national movement?
   (a) It strengthened the movement
   (b) It weakened the movement by satisfying the people
   (c) It weakened the movement, because separate electorate for the Muslims and Hindus created dissensions
   (d) It weakened the movement, because the Act introduced federal system
9. Which one of the following statements about ‘Trusteeship’ is not correct?
   (a) ‘Trusteeship’ provides a means of transforming the capitalist order of society into an egalitarian one
   (b) It is based on the faith that human nature is never beyond redemption
   (c) It does not recognize any right of private ownership of property, except so far as it may be permitted by society for its own welfare
   (d) It excludes legislative regulation of the ownership and use of wealth
10. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can resign his office by addressing his resignation to
    (a) the President (b) the Prime Minister (c) the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha (d) the Chief Justice of India
11. Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India?
    (a) Only Lok Sabha (b) Only Rajya Sabha (c) Either House of the Parliament (d) Any Legislative Assembly
12. The highest body that approves Five-Year Plans in India is
    (a) Planning Commission (b) National Development Council (c) Interstate Council (d) Union Cabinet
13. Which among the following is the exclusive jurisdiction of the State Government?
    (a) Corporation tax (b) Customs duty (c) Sales tax (d) Income tax

NDA previous Year Question Paper

1. Which one of the following theories of Communism is not a doctrine of Karl Marx?
   (a) Dialectical Materialism (b) Historical Materialism (c) Class Struggle (d) Theory of New Democracy
2. Consider the following statements :
3. Report of the Administrative Reforms Commission, headed by late Morarji Desai, recommended the establishment of Lokpal and Lokayukta institutions.
4. Lokpal is the highest institution in India to investigate corruption at higher places in Government.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
5. Which among the following is an extraconstitutional growth in Indian democracy?
   (a) Attorney General of India (b) Autonomous Districts (c) Political Parties (d) Deputy Chairman of the Council of States
6. Socialism is opposed to
   (a) social security scheme (b) equal distribution of wealth (c) unrestricted competition (d) collective ownership and management
7. Who among the following was the first Muslim military commander who annexed Bihar and Bengal by overthrowing the Sena dynasty?
   (a) Mahmud Gawan (b) Bakhtiyar Khilji (c) Adil Shahis (d) Shams-ud-din
8. Which one of the following was the official language of Gupta period?
   (a) Pali (b) Magadhi (c) Prakrit (d) Sanskrit
9. The agenda for the Round Table Conferences held in London was to
   (a) discuss the report of the Simon Commission
   (b) form a Constitution for India
   (c) find a solution of the communal problem in India
   (d) find a solution for the problems of the ‘depressed classes’ of India
10. Freedom of the press in India is
    (a) available to the people under the law of the Parliament
    (b) specifically provided in the Constitution
    (c) implied in the right of freedom of expression
    (d) available to the people of India under executive order
11. Consider the following statements :
12. The vernal equinox falls on March 21.
13. On equinox, the sun is directly overhead at the equator.
14. The changes in the day length on equinox result from the changes in the tilt of the earth with respect to the sun.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3 only
15. Tropical cyclone of Philippines is termed as
    (a) Typhoon (b) Willy-willy (c) Hurricane (d) Baguio

NDA previous Year Question Paper

1. Chambal river is a part of
   (a) Sabarmati basin (b) Ganga basin (c) Narmada basin (d) Godavari basin
2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
   List-I (Industry) List-II (Location)
   A. Petrochemicals 1. Ranchi
   B. Aluminium 2. Hyderabad
   C. Electronics 3. Vadodara
   D. Heavy Engineering 4. Koraput
   Code :
   (a) A B C D 3 4 2 1
   (b) A B C D 1 2 4 3
   (c) A B C D 3 2 4 1
   (d) A B C D 1 4 2 3
3. Which one of the following separates North and South Islands of New Zealand?
   (a) Foveaux Strait (b) Bass Strait (c) Cook Strait (d) Torres Strait
4. Consider the following statements :
5. The earth’s rotation axis is not at 90° to its orbital plane.
6. The earth’s rotation axis is inclined at 23.5°.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
7. Consider the following statements :
8. The difference between the moisture-holding capacity of air and its actual humidity is called saturation deficit.
9. The temperature to which air has to be cooled in order to reach saturation is called dew point.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
10. What is the reason for India being a major producer of different varieties of fruits and vegetables?
    (a) Its large population size (b) Its large land area (c) Variation in its agro-climatic conditions (d) Diversity in socio-cultural phenomenon
11. Which one of the following is the correct order in which the gases from the atmosphere disappear as one moves away from the surface of the earth?
    (a) Carbon dioxide—Oxygen—Nitrogen (b) Oxygen—Nitrogen—Carbon dioxide (c) Carbon dioxide—Nitrogen—Oxygen (d) Nitrogen—Oxygen—Carbon dioxide
12. Which of the following regarding Revised Macro Management of Agriculture Scheme (2008-2009) is/are correct?
13. Allocate funds to States and Union Territories on a criterion based on gross cropped area and area under small and marginal holdings.
14. The assistance is provided to the States and Union Territories as 100% grant.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

NDA previous Year Question Paper

1. Consider the following statements related to stratification of atmospheric layers :
2. All storms and cloudiness are restricted to stratosphere.
3. Cirrus clouds are formed on the top layers of troposphere.
4. Stratosphere is also an ‘isoclinal layer’.
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
5. What is the process that tends to build up the land surface by deposition of solid material in its lower areas, known as?
   (a) Abrasion (b) Agglomeration (c) Aggradation (d) Attrition
6. What is the sequential order of vegetation types observed while moving from Assam Valley to Rajasthan Plains?
   (a) Tropical Wet Evergreen—Tropical Moist Deciduous—Tropical Dry Deciduous—Tropical Thorn Forest
   (b) Tropical Thorn Forest—Tropical Dry Deciduous—Tropical Moist Deciduous—Tropical Wet Evergreen
   (c) Tropical Moist Deciduous—Tropical Wet Evergreen—Tropical Dry Deciduous—Tropical Thorn Forest
   (d) Tropical Dry Deciduous—Tropical Thorn Forest—Tropical Moist Deciduous—Tropical Wet Evergreen
7. (Diagram of mushroom rock) The above diagram is of a mushroom rock. In which of the points in the diagram is the intensity of wind strongest?
   (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
8. What does the imaginary line passing through Lake Ontario, Lake Erie, Lake Huron and Lake Superior represent?
   (a) The southern boundary of Canada (b) The northern limit of iron and steel industry of USA (c) The internal waterway route to USA (d) The internal waterway route to Canada
9. What is the reason for the major hot deserts of the world lying in the western part of the tropical latitude?
   (a) They are influenced by trade winds (b) They lie in the rain-shadow area of the mountains (c) They are influenced by monsoon winds (d) They are influenced by dry winds
10. Consider the following statements :
11. International Date Line is drawn zigzag to avoid landmass.
12. International Date Line is 180° W as well as 180° E of Greenwich.
13. A ship sailing westward from Greenwich when crossing International Date Line would put back the date by a day.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
14. The earth’s crust is the thinnest
    (a) under the mountain ranges (b) under continental masses (c) at ocean bottoms (d) at mid-oceanic ridges
15. Which one of the following African countries is not land-locked?
    (a) Benin (b) Chad (c) Lesotho (d) Mali
16. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through
    (a) Orissa (b) Tripura (c) Chhattisgarh (d) Rajasthan

NDA previous Year Question Paper

1. Which of the following crops would be preferred for sowing in order to enrich the soil with nitrogen?
   (a) Wheat (b) Mustard (c) Sunflower (d) Gram
2. Which of the following plants is referred to as a living fossil?
   (a) Ephedra (b) Cycas (c) Gingko (d) Adiantum
3. The major combustible component of gobar (cow-dung) gas is
   (a) methane (b) carbon dioxide (c) hydrogen (d) propane
4. Which one of the following vegetables is not obtained from wild cabbage?
   (a) Lettuce (b) Broccoli (c) Kale (d) Kohlrabi
5. Softening of mature ripe fruits is due to
   (a) dissolution of middle lamella (b) degradation of primary wall (c) delignification (d) removal of suberin deposits in the cell wall
6. Which part of saffron plant is used to obtain the spice ‘saffron’?
   (a) Dry stigma (b) Leaves (c) Fruits (d) Petals
7. Release of which one of the following chemicals is responsible for causing fatigue after muscular activity in human beings?
   (a) Glucuronic acid (b) Uric acid (c) Pyruvic acid (d) Lactic acid
8. Jaundice in human beings is the result of
   (a) incomplete metabolism of biliverdin (b) complete metabolism of biliverdin (c) incomplete metabolism of bilirubin (d) complete metabolism of bilirubin
9. Which of the following regions/cells in the human body is involved in controlling blood sugar level?
   (a) Pituitary gland (b) Islets of Langerhans (c) Hypothalamus (d) Spleen
10. The Haffkine Institute, Mumbai, is known for its work on the production of
    (a) plague vaccine (b) leprosy vaccine (c) tetanus vaccine (d) polio vaccine
11. The weight of a body is 9.8 N at the place where g = 9.8 m s⁻². Its mass is
    (a) zero (b) 9.8 kg (c) 10 kg (d) 1 kg
12. If a light body and a heavy body have equal momentum, then
    (a) the lighter body has greater kinetic energy than the heavier body
    (b) the lighter body has lesser kinetic energy than the heavier body
    (c) the kinetic energy of the lighter body is equal to the kinetic energy of the heavier body
    (d) the kinetic energy of both the bodies are independent of momentum

NDA previous Year Question Paper

1. An object of mass 5 kg is attached to the end of a rope. If the rope is pulled upward with an acceleration of 0.30 m s⁻², what is the tension in the rope?
   (a) 30.5 N (b) 40.5 N (c) 50.5 N (d) 60.5 N
2. When a mass m is hung on a spring, the spring stretched by 6 cm. If the loaded spring is pulled downward a little and released, then the period of vibration of the system will be
   (a) 0.27 s (b) 0.35 s (c) 0.49 s (d) 0.64 s
3. A book is kept on the surface of a table. If the gravitational pull of the earth on the book is the force of action, then the force of reaction is exerted by
   (a) the book on the table (b) the book on the earth (c) the table on the book (d) the table on the earth
4. Kinetic viscosity of a given liquid is the ratio of
   (a) the coefficient of viscosity to the density (b) the coefficient of viscosity to the surface tension (c) the density to the coefficient of viscosity (d) the surface tension to the coefficient of viscosity
5. When oil floats on water, the surface tension of water
   (a) vanishes immediately (b) decreases considerably (c) increases considerably (d) remains unaffected
6. Consider two hollow glass spheres, one containing water and the other containing mercury. Each liquid fills about one-tenth of the volume of the sphere. In zero gravity environment
   (a) water and mercury float freely inside the sphere
   (b) water forms a layer on the glass, while mercury floats
   (c) mercury forms a layer on the glass, while water floats
   (d) water and mercury both form a layer on the glass
7. In the relation α = βt + λ, α and λ are measured in metre (m) and t is measured in second (s). The SI unit of β must be
   (a) m (b) m s (c) s (d) m s⁻¹
8. An object is kept 5 cm in front of a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. What will be the nature of the image?
   (a) Virtual, not magnified (b) Virtual, magnified (c) Real, not magnified (d) Real, magnified
9. The density of cast iron having specific gravity 7.20 is
   (a) 7.20 kg/m³ (b) 720 kg/m³ (c) 72 kg/m³ (d) 7200 kg/m³
10. What is the telescope designed to search for earth-size planets in the nearby region of our galaxy, termed as?
    (a) Hubble telescope (b) Kepler telescope (c) Copernicus telescope (d) Newton telescope

NDA previous Year Question Paper

1. (Graph of V vs I) A current I in a lamp varies with voltage V as shown in the figure given above. Which one of the following is the variation of power P with current I?
   (a) linear rising (b) rising curve (c) saturating curve (d) falling line
2. Net charge in a current-carrying conductor is
   (a) always positive (b) always negative (c) zero (d) either positive or negative
3. The audible frequency range of a human ear is
   (a) 20 hertz to 200 hertz (b) 2 hertz to 20 hertz (c) 200 hertz to 2000 hertz (d) 20 hertz to 20000 hertz
4. Which one of the following is the resistance that must be placed parallel with 12 Ω resistance to obtain a combined resistance of 4 Ω?
   (a) 2 Ω (b) 4 Ω (c) 6 Ω (d) 8 Ω
5. An electric iron of resistance 20 Ω takes a current of 5 A. The heat developed in joules in 30 s is
   (a) 5 kJ (b) 10 kJ (c) 15 kJ (d) 20 kJ
6. A house, served by a 220 V supply line, is protected by a 9 A fuse. What is the maximum number of 60 watt bulbs that can be turned on in parallel?
   (a) 11 (b) 22 (c) 33 (d) 44
7. An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm from a convex lens on its principal axis and a virtual image of certain size is formed. If the object is moved further 8 cm away from the lens, a real image of the same size as that of the virtual image is formed. Which one of the following is the focal length of the lens?
   (a) 15 cm (b) 16 cm (c) 18 cm (d) 20 cm
8. Different objects at different distances are seen by the eye. The parameter that remains constant is
   (a) the focal length of the eye lens (b) the object distance from the eye lens (c) the radii of curvature of the eye lens (d) the image distance from the eye lens
9. A spring has length ‘l’ and spring constant ‘k’. It is cut into two pieces of lengths l₁ and l₂ such that l₁ = n l₂. The force constant of the spring of length l₁ is
   (a) k(1+n) (b) k (c) k/(n+1) (d) k[(n+1)/n]
10. A vessel contains oil of density 0.8 gm/cm³ over mercury of density 13.6 gm/cm³. A homogeneous sphere floats with half of its volume immersed in mercury and the other half in oil. The density of the material of the sphere in CGS unit is
    (a) 3.3 (b) 6.4 (c) 7.2 (d) 12.8

NDA previous Year Question Paper

1. Water flows out of the hole of a bucket and follows a parabolic path. If the bucket falls freely under gravity, the water flow (ignoring air resistance)
   (a) follows a straight-line path relative to the falling bucket
   (b) follows a parabolic path relative to the falling bucket
   (c) stops
   (d) decreases but continues to flow
2. 1 gm of ice at 0 °C is mixed with 1 gm of steam at 100 °C. After thermal equilibrium, the temperature of the mixture is
   (a) 0 °C (b) 50 °C (c) 80 °C (d) 100 °C
3. Which one of the following elements exists in liquid state at room temperature?
   (a) Mercury (b) Lead (c) Sodium (d) Calcium
4. Aluminium is more reactive than iron but aluminium is less easily corroded than iron, because
   (a) oxygen forms a protective oxide layer (b) it is a noble metal (c) iron undergoes reaction easily with water (d) iron forms ions
5. According to which one of the following laws it is indicated that when two or more gases react with one another, their volumes bear a simple ratio?
   (a) Law of mass action (b) Law of multiple proportions (c) Law of reciprocal proportions (d) Law of combining volumes
6. Equal quantities (50 ml) of the following four samples of water are placed in four beakers of 100 ml capacity. Their boiling points are determined accurately using the same thermometer. Which sample of water will have the lowermost boiling point as compared to other three samples?
   (a) Distilled water (b) Bottled mineral water (c) Well water (d) Seawater
7. Dry ice is used for making cold-baths in laboratories by mixing with volatile organic solvents. Identify the form of dry ice from the following
   (a) Gaseous carbon dioxide (b) Liquid carbon dioxide (c) Solid carbon dioxide (d) Solid hydrogen oxide
8. Acid turns blue litmus red and base turns red litmus blue. A student tested a liquid with a red litmus paper which remained red with no change. This shows that the liquid
   (a) is not a base (b) is not an acid (c) is neither an acid nor a base (d) must be pure water
9. Arrange the following bases in increasing order of their basic strength :
10. Sodium hydroxide 2. Magnesium hydroxide 3. Aluminium hydroxide 4. Ammonium hydroxide
    Select the correct answer using the code given below :
    (a) 4-2-1-3 (b) 4-1-2-3 (c) 4-3-2-1 (d) 1-2-3-4

NDA previous Year Question Paper

1. Consider the following statements :
2. Soap cannot be used in acidic water.
3. Ionic part of a soap is —COO⁻.Na⁺.
4. Soap dissolves in water faster than detergent.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 1 only
5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
   List-I (Material) List-II (Important Ingredient)
   A. Cement 1. Sodium salt of fatty acids
   B. Glass 2. Carbon black
   C. Ink 3. Silica in the form of quartz
   D. Soap 4. Aluminates and silicates of calcium
   Code :
   (a) A B C D 4 3 2 1
   (b) A B C D 1 2 3 4
   (c) A B C D 1 3 2 4
   (d) A B C D 4 2 3 1
6. The concentration of hydrochloric acid in a given solution is 10⁻⁸ M. What is the value of pH for this solution?
   (a) 7 (b) > 7 but not 14 (c) < 7 (d) 14
7. Diamond is a
   (a) good conductor and soft (b) non-conductor and soft (c) non-conductor and hard (d) good conductor and hard
8. Consider the following statements regarding aluminium paint :
9. It is fairly good heat-resistant.
10. It possesses good electrical resistance.
11. It cannot be used for hot water pipe.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 only (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
12. Following statements are made in connection with carbon dioxide (CO₂) :
13. CO₂ is a poisonous gas.
14. CO₂ is an acidic oxide.
15. CO₂ turns limewater milky.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3
16. Which of the following is the best example of the law of conservation of mass?
    (a) When 12 gm of carbon is heated in vacuum, there is no change in mass
    (b) Weight of platinum wire is the same before and after heating
    (c) A sample of air increases in volume when heated at constant pressure but mass remains unchanged
    (d) 12 gm of carbon combines with 32 gm of oxygen to give 44 gm of carbon dioxide
17. Which one of the following is not a mixture?
    (a) Air (b) Mercury (c) Milk (d) Cement

NDA previous Year Question Paper

Assertion–Reason

Directions : The following three (3) items consist of two statements, one labelled as ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below :

Code :
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

1. Assertion (A) : The Americans refused to pay taxes imposed by the British Parliament during the American War of Independence.
   Reason (R) : The Americans had no representation in the British Parliament.
2. Assertion (A) : There was a country-wide agitation against the Simon Commission.
   Reason (R) : The members of the Simon Commission discontinued their work in face of the country-wide agitation.
3. Assertion (A) : On a wet floor of a bathroom, a small circular area around a pinch of foam appears to be dry.
   Reason (R) : Soap molecules reduce surface tension and increase surface area of the thin layer of water on the wet floor.

NDA Previous Year Question Paper 2009 -II shift 2

NDA 2009 Exam II shift I -Previous Year Question paper

NDA Previous Year Quetion Paper 2009

NDA Previous Year Question paper 2009 Exam 1

NDA 2009 to 2012 Previous Year Question paper