PART-A
Directions (For the 10 items which follow):
(i) In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your response on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, (d) will signify a 'No error' response.
(ii) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. There may be a word missing or there may be a word which should be removed.
(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your response on the Answer Sheet.
1. [Not available in provided extraction]
2. [Not available in provided extraction]
3. [Not available in provided extraction]
4. Latin is not only hard to write but also to read. No error (a) (b) (c) (d)
5. In most villages the roads are rough; isn't it? No error (a) (b) (c) (d)
6. Despite of continuing pain she worked at her temporary summer job (a) (b) (c) (d)
7. As soon the film started I developed an irritating headache. No error (a) (b) (c) (d)
8. He applied for an employment in an office. No error (a) (b) (c) (d)
9. Though we drove fast, the train left, before we could reach the station. (a) (b) (c) (d)
10. One Indian virtue that has impressed me greatly and touched me deeply (a) (b) (c) (d)
11. The convict's INGENUOUS explanation brought tears in every eye.
(a) Candid (b) Secret (c) Insincere (d) Consistent
12. The ENORMITY of the population problem is irksome.
(a) Intensity (b) Vastness (c) Cruelty (d) Pragility
13. EXAGGERATION of facts would always lead to confusion.
(a) Simplification (b) Negation (c) Emancipation (d) Amplification
14. After his father's death, he became INSOLVENT.
(a) Rich (b) Poor (c) Bankrupt (d) Nonchalant
15. He INDUCES human beings to want things they don't want.
(a) Influences (b) Dictates (c) Persuades (d) Appreciates
16. His information is not AUTHENTIC.
(a) Real (b) Reliable (c) Believable (d) Genuine
17. He is not CUT OUT to be a teacher.
(a) Trained (b) Suited (c) Selected (d) Guided
18. The Chief Minister REPRIMANDED the officers for their methods of handling the public.
(a) Adulsted (b) Solded severely (c) Disapproved of (d) Suspended
19. Sin is the sole calamity that a wise man should APPRHEND.
(a) Give up (b) Discourage (c) Comprehend
20. We must be proud of our cultural HERITAGE.
(a) Things we make for ourselves (b) Things we have lost (c) Things we have from the past (d) Things we do for others
Directions (For the 10 items which follow):
Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words. Select the antonym of the word (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context.
21. The COMPLAINANT was not supportive of providing all facts in the court.
(a) Defendant (b) Advocate (c) Indulgence (d) Servant
22. Living in a SOLITARY place brings in some kind of satisfaction.
(a) Limited (b) Exotic (c) Healthy (d) Populous
23. They spent a DISTURBED night when hearing the tragic news.
(a) Restless (b) Sleepless (c) Mournful (d) Peaceful
24. We have CREATED a beautiful new house from out of the old ruin.
(a) Limited (b) Exotic (c) Healthy (d) Populous
25. A large number of designer clothes are REVOLTING.
(a) Inverting (b) Beautiful (c) Fashionable (d) Delightful
26. Though they are twins, they look very DIFFERENT.
(a) Things we make for ourselves (b) Things we have lost (c) Things we have from the past (d) Things we do for others
27. RECESSION is a major cause of unemployment.
(a) Regular (b) Same (c) Similar (d) Uniform (e) Indifferent (f) Unfamiliar
28. He finally CONCEDED that he was involved in smuggling.
(a) Acquisition (b) Inflation (c) Poverty (d) Computerization
29. [Not available in provided extraction]
30. [Not available in provided extraction]
Directions (For the 10 items which follow):
In the following items, some parts of the sentence have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R and S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence.
31. even when are well informed people engaged in a conversation
P Q R
the correct sequence should be
(a) QSPR (b) PRQS (c) SRQP (d) SQPR
32. a pressure cooker fits tightly on the top consists of a very strong vessel
P Q R
the correct sequence should be
(a) QSPR (b) RSPQ (c) QSPR (d) PQSR
33. is to convince your reader the aim of an argumentative essay
P Q R
[garbled]
34. there is only one way the world can be in which made safe from the war
P Q R S
The correct sequence should be
(a) RQSP (b) PRQS (c) PQSR (d) SPRQ
35. the conspiracy got wind of the Government against the king's life
P Q R S
The correct sequence should be
(a) PQRS (b) RQPS (c) PSQR (d) SPRQ
36. to death penalty is that in preventing the crime the important objection
P Q R
it has not succeeded
S
The correct sequence should be
(a) PRSQ (b) PSRQ (c) RPSQ (d) QSPR
37. choice carefully when you want to use make your
P Q R
a graphic representation for your data
S
The correct sequence should be
(a) QRSQ (b) SRQP (c) PRQS (d) QSRP
38. he would like to see some changes but as a junior lecturer
P Q
a graphic representation for your data
S
The correct sequence should be
(a) QRSQ (b) SRQP (c) PRQS (d) QSRP
39. he simply starves even when there are good crops but if the crops fail
P Q
he lives from hand to mouth
S
The correct sequence should be
(a) SQRP (b) PQRS (c) SRQP (d) SPRQ
40. providence had helped me to retain my true identity and
P Q
he lives from hand to mouth
S
changed the course of my life in the process
R S
The correct sequence should be
(a) PRQR (b) PRQR (c) RSQR (d) PRQS
Directions (For the 10 items which follow):
Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow each passage.
41. According to the passage, the great majority of people can satisfy their needs today by
(a) big industries
(b) concentrating on their work
(c) producing things for individual use
(d) living in communities
42. Exchange of goods becomes possible only when
(a) there is no specialization
43. Specialization and exchange began when men started
(a) big industries
(b) concentrating on their work
(c) producing things for individual use
(d) living in communities
44. Exchange of goods and services becomes necessary because
(a) man is a social being
PASSAGE-2
What interests many people is the possibility of finding an Earth-like planet, and many science fiction stories have been woven around the possibility of there existing a planet somewhere in the universe which is an exact replica of the Earth. There are too many variables to consider. What is possible, if planetary systems are common as they seem to be, is the existence of planets where the conditions are similar to conditions on the Earth and to which our form of life could rapidly adapt if it had the technology to reach such a planet. It is also possible that life could develop on some planets without our sort of needs. What sort of conditions is necessary for life as we know it to develop? First of all of course a suitable planetary body is essential. Given this, then two vital conditions must be satisfied. One is that the planet should have a suitable temperature range. Too hot or too cold may cause the organic molecules and never cold prevents activity from going on. Too much short-wave radiation also upsets living organisms. The other prerequisite is a suitable atmosphere sufficiently dense to give protection from radiation and meteorites and containing oxygen and water vapour in reasonable quantities.
45. This passage suggests that there
(a) cannot be another planet like the Earth
(b) are other planets like the Earth
(c) may be other planets like the Earth in this universe
(d) is a planet which is exactly like the Earth
46. The hypothesis about the possibility of another planet like the Earth derives its strength from the fact that
(a) scientists have discovered them
(b) both have been written about them
(c) the planetary system exists
(d) many people have shown interest in it
47. "If life had gained a foothold on such a planet" means that
(a) if there is life on the planet, it would be like ours
(b) if we go there, we can develop it like Earth
(c) even if we try, we cannot go and live there
(d) it is impossible for life to develop there
PASSAGE-3
"The doctor's coming in a minute, Inspector," said Miss Smith.
"Yes, thank you for phoning, Miss Smith. It was very kind of you ... the lady's name is Miss West, you say ..."
"Yes, that's right."
"And what about Mr. West?"
"Doctor West, Inspector."
"Oh, I see ... Well, Doctor West, then. Do you know where he is?"
"Not exactly, Inspector. He never told Mrs. West where he was going. You see, they hated each other."
"What do you mean?"
"Well, Doctor West thought that Mrs. West was in love with some other man, and everyone knows Doctor West is fond of ... another woman."
48. The conversation appears to be taking place
(a) in a street where an envelope has just been found
(b) in a hotel where Mrs. Smith suddenly became ill
(c) in Mrs. Smith's house where an inquiry into lady's murder is being conducted
(d) in Mrs. West's house where a theft has taken place the night before
49. The questions the Inspector asks are
(a) inquisitive (b) irritating (c) disturbing (d) searching
50. "You see, they hated each other." "What do you mean?" The Inspector seems
(a) to know Doctor West's secret
(b) surprised to get the information
(c) not to have understood Miss Smith
(d) not impressed by Miss Smith's information
PART-B
Directions: The following 49 items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers using code given below:
Code:
(a) Both statements are individually true and Statement II is correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both statements are individually true but Statement II is not correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
51. Statement I: In the year 1946, the Council of the Muslim League accepted the Cabinet Mission Plan.
Statement II: The Muslim League proposed to join the Interim Government.
52. Statement I: The blue colour of copper sulphate crystals disappears when it is heated strongly.
Statement II: Due to heating, water of crystallization of crystal is lost.
53. Statement I: When a piece of sodium is dropped in water, the colour of the solution becomes blue.
Statement II: Phenolphthalein produces pink colour in acidified sodium.
54. Statement I: At high temperature, hydrogen can reduce PbO to elemental lead.
Statement II: Hydrogen has great affinity to oxygen.
55. Statement I: Conversion of blue copper sulphate crystals to white on heating is a physical change.
Statement II: A change in which chemical change is not accompanied by change of physical change.
56. Statement I: Water is a high boiling point.
Statement II: Hydrogen bonding in water is responsible for high boiling point.
57. Statement I: Convex mirror is used as a driver.
Statement II: Image formed by convex mirror are diminished in size.
58. Statement I: Glass window is made of double-walled glass bottles.
Statement II: Metals are good conductors while glass is poor conductor of heat.
66. What are cold-blooded animals?
(a) Animals with blood without haemoglobin
(b) Animals who are not ferocious
(c) Animals whose body temperature remains constant
(d) Animals whose body temperature changes according to the temperature of atmosphere
67. Sickle-cell anaemia is a disease caused due to the abnormality in
(a) white blood cells
(b) red blood cells
(c) thrombocytes
(d) blood plasma composition
68. Carbohydrates are stored in plants and animals in the form of
(a) cellulose and glucose respectively
(b) starch and glycogen respectively
(c) starch and glucose respectively
(d) cellulose and glycogen respectively
69. Which of the following statements regarding oxidation and reduction are correct?
1. In oxidation, loss of electron takes place whereas in reduction, gain of electron takes place.
2. In oxidation, gain of electron takes place whereas in reduction, loss of electron takes place.
3. Oxidising agent decreases the oxidation number but reducing agent increases the oxidation number.
4. Oxidising agent increases the oxidation number but reducing agent decreases the oxidation number.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
70. Which among the following is/are isoelectronic?
20Ca2+, 17Cl-, 18Ar, 19K+
(a) They are isotopes of each other
(b) They are isobars of each other
(c) They are isoelectronic with each other
(d) All of the above
71. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
1. Isotopes: atoms with same atomic number but different atomic mass.
2. Isobars: atoms with same number of neutrons but different atomic number.
3. Isotones: atoms with same mass number but different atomic number.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 only
72. Sometimes, indigestion is caused by the secretion of too much hydrochloric acid in the stomach. To ease the pain caused, a tablet of antacid can be taken. The amount of acid present. Which among the following would be suitable as a major reactant in the tablet?
(a) CaCO3
(b) MgCO3
(c) NaOH
(d) MgOH2
73. Muhammad bin Tughlaq's change of capital from Delhi to Daulatabad could not succeed on account of
(a) rejection of token coins by the people
(b) shortage of copper for minting token coins
(c) large-scale minting of spurious coins
(d) poor quality of token currency
74. The Parliament can legislate on the subjects in the State List if
(a) the President issues an order authorizing it to do so
(b) Supreme Court gives authority to the Parliament in this regard
(c) Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds of its members present and voting to do so
(d) Prime Minister issues a special order
75. The writ of certiorari is issued by a
(a) an inferior court to stop further proceedings in a particular case
(b) an inferior court to transfer the record of proceedings in a case for review
(c) an officer to show his/her right to hold a particular office
(d) a public authority to produce a person detained by it before the court within 24 hours
76. Schemes run under the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act are sponsored
(a) by the Central Government alone
(b) partly by the Central Government and partly by the State Government
(c) by Centre, State and Panchayat bodies together
(d) on public-private partnership basis
77. The World Bank was created immediately after the Second World War. Its activities are focused on the developing countries. Which among the following are the activities of the Bank?
1. Human development
2. Agriculture and rural development
3. Environmental protection and governance
4. Loans and grants to the member countries
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
78. [Hindi only]
79. [Hindi only]
80. [Hindi only]
81. A glass of water does not turn into ice as it reaches 0°C. It is because
(a) water does not solidify at 0°C
(b) a certain amount of heat must be taken out from water to change its state to solid
(c) a certain amount of heat must be taken out from the glass of water so as to solidify
(d) water solidifies at 0°C only
82. The main supply in India is at 220 V, whereas that in the US is at 110 V. Which one of the following statements in this regard is correct?
(a) 110 V is safer but more expensive to maintain
(b) 110 V is safer and cheaper to maintain
(c) 110 V leads to lower power loss
(d) 110 V works better at higher latitudes
83. The equatorial rain forest is also known as
(a) Savanna
(b) Campos
(c) Selva
(d) Llanos
84. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Port) | List-II (Special feature)
A. Kanha | 1. Deepest land-locked protected park
B. Kochi | 2. Located at mouth of lagoon
C. Vishakhapatnam | 3. Tidal port
D. Kolkata | 4. Inland riverine port
Code:
(a) A B C D
3 1 2 4
(b) A B C D
3 2 1 4
(c) A B C D
4 1 2 3
(d) A B C D
4 2 1 3
85. The Earth's surface receives 12 noon Sun's radiation. The maximum temperature near 12 noon. State which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Transformation of solar energy into heat requires some time.
2. The loss of energy through long-wave radiation from Earth's surface exceeds the energy received from the Sun.
3. Energy received by the Earth from solar radiations continues to exceed the energy lost by outgoing long-wave
radiations from the Earth's surface up to 4 p.m. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
86. Certain parts of a plant can be bent easily without breaking. This flexibility in the stems and leaf stalks can be attributed to the abundance of
(a) parenchyma
(b) collenchyma
(c) sclerenchyma
(d) xylem and phloem
87. Which of the following is not a micronutrient for a plant?
(a) Iron
(b) Magnesium
(c) Molybdenum
(d) Manganese
88. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Ligaments are highly flexible.
2. Ligaments connect muscles and bones.
3. Ligaments contain very little matrix.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
89. Cell membrane is selectively permeable because
(a) it is made up of selected organic molecules
(b) it allows some substances from region of higher concentration to the region of lower concentration
(c) movement of organic molecules occurs only at specific concentration
(d) it allows the movement of water and minerals in and out of the cell while the movement of other molecules is prevented
96. Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
1. The Speaker immediately vacates his/her office whenever the State Legislative Assembly is dissolved.
2. No Member of a State Legislative Assembly shall be liable to any proceeding in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him/her in the legislature.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
97. Consider the following statements about Cripps Proposals of 1942:
1. Provision was to be made for participation of Indian States in the Constitution-making body.
2. British Government undertook to accept and implement the Constitution.
3. All provinces of British India were to give an undertaking about the acceptance of the Constitution.
4. In the ongoing World War, no resources of British India would be used.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
111. Arrange the following tropical forest groups in the correct order of descending area from the largest covered area:
1. Montane wet temperate forests
2. Tropical moist deciduous forests
3. Tropical wet evergreen
4. Semi-evergreen
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1-3-2-4
(b) 3-4-2-1
(c) 1-2-3-4
(d) 4-3-2-1
112. Which one among the following is the major reason for low agricultural productivity in dry regions of India?
(a) Constraints of financial
(b) Rural indebtedness
(c) Dependence on erratic monsoon
(d) Small size of landholdings
113. Which one among the following gases contributes largest share in global precipitation?
(a) Fog, Dew and Rain
(b) Air, Water and Soil
(c) Fog, Water and Soil
(d) Dew, Soil and Rain
114. Which one among the following is the most important source of fish catch?
(a) Deep-sea fisheries
(b) Coastal fisheries
(c) Inland natural fisheries
(d) Inland cultural fisheries
115. In which one among the following areas of South-East Asia, there is largest concentration of population?
(a) Areas of intensive shifting cultivation
(b) Areas where climate is cooler and healthier
(c) Cleared lowlands in forest areas
(d) Areas where grain farming is practised
116. The largest number of temperate cyclones originate mostly over the
(a) Indian Ocean
(b) North Atlantic Ocean
(c) North Pacific Ocean
(d) Arctic Ocean
117. Which one among the following statements is not correct?
(a) One-third of world's land surface is desert
(b) One-third of land surface is forest
(c) Floating plants (phytoplankton) in ocean produce over half of oxygen
(d) World's important deserts are located across equator
118. [Not available in provided extraction]
119. Consider the following statements relating to planning in India:
1. In 1938, National Planning Committee was set up in India under the chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru.
2. The First Five Year Plan was prepared by Indian Statistical Institute.
3. The Gandhian Plan was prepared by M.N. Roy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
120. Consider the following statements regarding Government of India Act, 1935:
1. Provincial Autonomy came into existence.
2. Bicameral legislatures were introduced in all provinces.
3. The principle of communal electorates and weightages were retained.
4. The States were compelled to enter Federation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 4
121. Consider the following statements relating to Jain literature:
1. The sacred books of Jain are known as Shruti/Srutis.
2. The language of the earliest Jain text is Prakrit.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
122. Which one among the following was a newspaper founded and edited by Raja Ram Mohan Roy?
(a) The Calcutta Gazette
(b) Mirat-ul-Akbar
(c) Harijan
(d) The Bharat Mitra
123. Which one among the following is produced by sexual mode?
(a) Budding
(b) Pollination
(c) Diffusion
(d) Reflection
124. A body attached to a spring balance weighs 10 kg on Earth.
The body is taken to a planet where acceleration due to gravity is half that of Earth. The weight will read
(a) 20 kg
(b) 10 kg
(c) 5 kg
(d) 2.5 kg
125. The resistance of a wire is 10 Ω. If it is stretched ten times, the resistance will be
(a) 1 Ω
(b) 10 Ω
(c) 100 Ω
(d) 1000 Ω
126. The focal length of the bifocal lens is 25 cm, then the power of lens is
(a) +4 dioptre
(b) -4 dioptre
(c) +0.04 dioptre
(d) -0.04 dioptre
127. The thermal conductivity of copper is 4 times that of brass. Two rods of copper and brass are of same length and cross-section are joined end to end. The free end of copper is at 0°C and the free end of brass is at 100°C. The temperature of the junction is
(a) 20°C
(b) 40°C
(c) 60°C
(d) 80°C
128. [Hindi only]
129. [Hindi only]
130. [Hindi only]
131. The Damuda series of Gondwana system has three stages, namely, Raniganj, Barren Rocks and Barakar. The middle stage is called Barren because
(a) it consists of coal and not iron
(b) it consists of iron and not coal
(c) it consists of neither coal nor iron
(d) it is a sedimentary layer consisting of shale and clay
132. The cyclonic storm occurring over the Caribbean Sea is known as
(a) Typhoon
(b) Willy-Willy
(c) Hurricane
(d) Cyclone
133. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Mountain pass) | List-II (State)
A. Zoji La | 1. Himachal Pradesh
B. Lipulekh | 2. Sikkim
C. Shipki La | 3. Uttarakhand
D. Nathu La | 4. Jammu and Kashmir
Code:
(a) A B C D
2 1 3 4
(b) A B C D
2 3 1 4
(c) A B C D
4 1 3 2
(d) A B C D
4 3 1 2
134. Where do you find the Isle of Youth?
(a) Near Cuba
(b) Near Bahamas
(c) Near Jamaica
(d) Near Saint Lucia
135. For which among the following house appliances, magnet is an essential part?
(a) Calling bell
(b) Fan
(c) Washing machine
(d) All of the above
136. Consider the following statements:
Hypermetropia is a defect of vision in which
1. a person cannot see the distant objects clearly
2. a person cannot see the near objects clearly
3. the near point of the eye gets shifted away from the normal position
4. the far point of the eye gets shifted towards the eye
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
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