National Defence Academy / Naval Academy
GENERAL ABILITY TEST
QUESTION PAPER 2025

ENGLISH

Directions : Each of the following items in this consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. Three parts have been labelled as P, Q, R and S. The parts are rearranged in four sequence, namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to select the most appropriate option that sequence the parts correctly and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

1. participate in the function
P
many of the people who had come to
Q
the auditorium was over-crowded
R
could not find a seat because
S
(a) PRQS
(b) PQRS
(c) QPSR
(d) SPRQ

2. lay outside her existing life
P
she knew that the answer
Q
somewhere in the back of her mind
R
to her question about life
S
(a) RPQS
(b) QSPR
(c) QPSR
(d) RQSP

3. works of literature
P
inside the pages of all good
Q
lies the truth about some of
R
the more challenging question posed by humanity
S
(a) PRQS
(b) QPRS
(c) QPSR
(d) RPSQ

4. takes on account of its economic successes
P
to address continuing social inequality
Q
for every stride of progress any nation
R
it takes two back if it is unable
S
(a) PRQS
(b) QPRS
(c) RPSQ
(d) RPQS

5. the book value of a loan or
P
an intangible asset over a set period of time
Q
used to periodically lower
R
amortisation is an accounting technique
S
(a) SRPQ
(b) RSPQ
(c) SRQP
(d) RPSQ

Directions : The following items have a blank space followed by four options. Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

6. There is more than ................. to get the job done.
(a) one way
(b) one ways
(c) any ways
(d) any way

7. The class decided to organise .................
(a) picnic
(b) a picnic
(c) picnics
(d) the picnic

8. The accused ................. before the judge.
(a) tried
(b) was trial
(c) sat trial
(d) stood trial

9. The manner in which the demolitions have been carried out ................. scrutiny by the High Court.
(a) was under
(b) under
(c) is under
(d) however under

10. I ................. consider the opinions of all stakeholders before taking a final decision.
(a) will not
(b) have
(c) will
(d) shall

Directions : Given below are sentences that use discourse markers/expressions to make them complete. Identify the most appropriate answer and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

11. ................. your transfer request is concerned, we’ll be discussing it at the next meeting.
(a) As far as
(b) To begin
(c) By the way
(d) Talking about

12. ................. did you know Ravi has a new job?
(a) For one thing
(b) By the way
(c) In the first place
(d) As a result

13. ................. the wind, it was getting stronger, and I was getting colder.
(a) To begin with
(b) By the way
(c) First of all
(d) Speaking of

14. ................. what are you doing in my room?
(a) On the other hand
(b) Excuse me
(c) Look there
(d) Eventually

15. ................. an happy childhood leads to criminal behaviour.
(a) Still if
(b) Even somewhat
(c) In some cases
(d) In progression

16. ................. the problem is nothing but a wrong assumption about processes.
(a) In the meanwhile
(b) Somewhat
(c) Engagingly
(d) In other words

17. Many, ................. , hesitate to publicly broach such questions for fear of nurturing discrimination.
(a) understandably
(b) despite
(c) until
(d) of course

18. ................. one notes that in the nineteenth century an important development of reflection and questioning gained momentum.
(a) Particularly speaking
(b) Generally speaking
(c) Otherwise
(d) Of course

19. ................. the situation has completely transformed over the past few years.
(a) Somewhat
(b) Believably
(c) Thus
(d) Predominantly

20. ................. the committee is of the opinion that all academic matters will be discussed in the Executive Body Meeting.
(a) Hence
(b) But
(c) Later
(d) Although

Directions : Given below are words, followed by their appropriate meanings. Identify the correct meaning and mark your answer on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

21. Cynosure :
(a) Person or thing that causes a change.
(b) Person or thing that attracts a lot of attention.
(c) Person or thing regarded as exact copy.
(d) Person or animal that lives in a particular place.

22. Coeval:
(a) Person of roughly the same age.
(b) Person or organisation that cooperates with others.
(c) Person employed to drive a private car.
(d) Person employed in taking.

23. Retrogression :
(a) Sudden sharp drop in price.
(b) Reverse pressure.
(c) Return to earlier state.
(d) Sudden occurrence of a past event.

24. Imprest :
(a) Surprise attack by people.
(b) Money used to manage small expense.
(c) Sudden occurrence of laughter.
(d) Sudden increase in activity.

25. Turgid :
(a) Determined or loyal
(b) Dirty or untidy
(c) Swollen or distended
(d) Excited or upset

Directions : In the following items, a sentence or a phrase is given with a word that is underlined, followed by four options. Select the most appropriate option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

26. The Constitution of India ensures proportionate representation from all regions.
(a) balanced
(b) partial
(c) unlikely
(d) suffragette

27. There is a feeling of disenchantment among the members of the group.
(a) delight
(b) disappointment
(c) idealism
(d) unrelenting

28. She believed that it was imminent that he would be chosen as the leader of the group.
(a) timely
(b) distant
(c) unlikely
(d) inevitable

29. The brave soldiers left an indelible impression on the people of the land.
(a) permanent
(b) fleeting
(c) hilarious
(d) eradicable

30. The manager always provides instantaneous replied to all queries.
(a) immediate
(b) delayed
(c) deliberate
(d) unwanted

Directions : In this section each item consists of six sentences that comprise a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6. The sequence of the middle four sentences has been jumbled up and labelled as P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

31. S1 : Although all sources of energy ultimately come from natural processes, non-renewable resources cannot be replaced naturally at the rate they are being used.
S6: The sustainable use of natural resources in a manner that provides the maximum benefit of these resources to humans over a period of time can be termed as conservation.
P : This will increase the time and cost of mining and once these resources are used up they cannot be replaced.
Q : Hence, we must remember that though our country is rich in mineral deposits, these resources are short-lived.
R : Extraction of these ores through the process of mining will soon become difficult and very expensive because these minerals have to be mined from greater depth over time.
S : Mineral resources can be said to be finite and non-renewable.
(a) QPRS
(b) SPQR
(c) SQRP
(d) SQPR

32. S1 : India, at present, has one of the largest road networks in the world.
S6 : It passes through Howrah, Delhi and Amritsar and terminates in Kabul (Afghanistan).
P : The importance of roads has been recognised in India since the ancient times.
Q : The Grand Trunk Road was built by Sher Shah Suri across the Indo-Gangetic plain, from Chittagong (Bangladesh) to Peshawar (Pakistan).
R : Kings such as Ashoka and Chandragupta built roads for easy transportation of goods and people.
S : Construction of roads continued as an important activity in the late medieval period.
(a) QPRS
(b) SPQR
(c) PQRS
(d) PRSQ

33. S1 : National highways connect one state with another and are of national importance.
S6 : These road system are also known as primary road systems and are laid and operated under the supervision of the National Highways Authority of India.
P : They are important because, whereas they constitute merely two per cent of the total road networks, yet they carry 40 per cent of the total road traffic.
Q : The road infrastructure of the country is therefore crucial, and their construction and maintenance is of critical importance.
R : They bear the load of traffic because these roads connect long distance and pass through major cities and towns.
S : Since they cover the length and breadth of the nation and connect cities and towns, these highways are the primary facilitators of trade and connectivity.
(a) PRSQ
(b) SPQR
(c) PRQS
(d) SQRS

34. S1 : The South African Constitution was inaugurated in December 1996.
S6 : A special constitutional court enforces the rights enshrined in the Constitution.
P : Its creation and promulgation took place at a time when South Africa still faced the threat of a civil war after the dissolution of the Apartheid Government.
Q : The South African Constitution says that its "Bill of Rights is a cornerstone of democracy in South Africa".
R : Apropos, it forbids discrimination on the grounds of "race, gender, pregnancy, marital status, ethnic or social origin, colour, age, disability, religion, conscience, belief, culture, language and birth".
S : The Bill of Rights grants perhaps the most extensive range of rights to the citizens.
(a) QSRP
(b) SPQR
(c) PQRS
(d) PQSR

35. S1: Our Constitution reminds us of the necessity of representation in a large democracy.
S6 : Elections have today become the most visible symbol of the democratic process.
P : This is why election become important.
Q : Therefore, representatives are elected by the people.
R : Whenever we think of India as a democracy, our mind invariably turns to our successful election.
S : All citizens cannot participate in taking every decision.
(a) QSRP
(b) SPQR
(c) PQSR
(d) SQPR

Directions : The following items have a sentence in direct or indirect speech with four options. One of the options converts direct or indirect speech into indirect or direct correctly. Select the correct option and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

36. Convert from direct speech to indirect speech : Charu said to her friend, "I want you to be here at 6:00 p.m. tomorrow for the meeting".
(a) Chrau told her friend that she wanted her to be there at 6:00 p.m. the next day for the meeting.
(b) Charu told her friend that she wanted her to be there at 6:00 p.m. tomorrow for the meeting.
(c) Charu requested her friend that she wanted her to be there at 6:00 p.m. tomorrow for the meeting.
(d) Charu told her friend that she will want her to be here at 6:00 p.m. the next day for the meeting.

37. Convert from direct speech to indirect speech : Nitin said to his brother, "What a beautiful painting it is"?
(a) Nitin wondered to his brother that what a beautiful painting it was.
(b) Nitin wondered before his brother that it was a beautiful painting.
(c) Nitin exclaimed that it is a beautiful painting.
(d) Nitin asked his brother whether it was beautiful painting.

38. Convert from indirect speech to direct speech : The teacher asked her students why they had been quiet in the previous class.
(a) The teacher asked her students, "Why were they keeping quiet in the previous class"?
(b) The teacher said to her students, "Why were you quiet in the previous class"?
(c) The teacher said to her students, "Why had you been quiet in the previous class"?
(d) The teacher said to her students, "Why were you quiet in previous class"?

Directions : Following items have four sentences, one of which is correct. Find the correct option and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

39. Which one of the following sentences is correct?
(a) He is considered as the brightest intellectual in the country.
(b) He is considered as one among the brightest intellectual in the country.
(c) He is considered as one among the brighter intellectual in the country.
(d) He is considered as one of the intellectual in the country.

40. Which one of following sentence is correct?
(a) No other mountain is taller than the Himalayas.
(b) No other mountain is tall than the Himalayas.
(c) No other mountains taller than the Himalayas.
(d) No other mountain is taller then the Himalayas.

Directions : In the following items, a pair of words is provided. You are required to select the options that appropriately describe the meaning of both words and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

41. Confident and Confidant
(a) Confident means certain and confidant means close friend.
(b) Confidant means certain and confident means close friend.
(c) Confident means belief and confidant means an emissary.
(d) Confident means assurance and confidant means intimate person.

42. Broke and Brook
(a) Broke means abundance and brook means a flowing water body.
(b) Broke means bankrupt and brook means a stream.
(c) Broke means fractured and brook means nonsense.
(d) Broke means negotiate and brook means a stream.

43. Accept and Except
(a) Accept means apart from and expect means recognise.
(b) Accept means recognise and except means include.
(c) Accept means consent and except means apart from.
(d) Accept means allude and except means apart form.

44. Accord and Accrued
(a) Accord means collected and accrued means agreement.
(b) Accord means agreement and accrued means arrived.
(c) Accord means accepted and accrued means received.
(d) Accord means agreement and accrued means accumulated.

45. Guarantee and Warranty
(a) Guarantee is an agreement and warranty is a service contract.
(b) Guarantee is a business agreement and warranty is a service contract.
(c) Guarantee is a promise and warranty is a service contract.
(d) Guarantee is acceptance and warranty is a service contract.

Directions : Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow by selecting the correct option from the given options, based solely on the passage. Mark your answer on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

An attempt to determine the number of languages in the world is affected by other factors. A new language do continue to be discovered even these days, as unexplored regions of the world begin to be opened up. The discovery does not usually take place straight away. Often there are similarities with an already known language which makes the investigators assume that what they have found is just a dialect of that language. Only after a considerable period of contact does it transpire that the speech is so different that it has to be considered a different language. It takes a language survey to establish the facts, and there are still many countries where such surveys are incomplete or have not even begun. The people may be known, but the identity of their language may not be. Because many such people are bilingual or multilingual, and converse with outsiders in lingua franca, it may take a while before linguists come to realise that there is an ethnic language there at all.

46. Which one of the following is NOT the reason for the difficulty in estimating the number of language of the world ?
(a) New language continue to be discovered.
(b) There are still unexplored regions.
(c) New language are considered a dialect of a known language.
(d) People who speak the language do not claim their language.

47. Which one of following is a way to establish the discovery of a new language?
(a) By establishing contact over a period of time with speakers of the language.
(b) By finding the similarities of the language with other languages.
(c) By comparing with the lingua franca of the region.
(d) By conducting a survey of all languages of the region.

48. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(a) Language surveys have been conducted by all nations.
(b) There is hardly any language to be discovered in the world.
(c) All the languages are either complete language or dialects of other major languages.
(d) No new language needs to be discovered since all languages are known to the world.

49. "The people may be known, but the identity of their language may not be", means
(a) People are recognised as different ethnic group but not necessarily their language.
(b) People are recognised as different ethnic group and their language is recognised.
(c) People are not recognised as different ethnic group, and so are their languages.
(d) Because the people are not from different ethnic groups and their language is recognised.

50. Which one of the following words from passage means 'come to be known' ?
(a) transpire
(b) lingua franca
(c) straight
(d) variant

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GENERAL STUDIES

Time: 1 hr 40 min
Total Marks: 400

Instructions

1. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
2. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in the Answer Sheet.
3. All items carry equal marks.
4. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet, the response to the various items in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions.
5. Penalty for wrong answers:
   THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS.
   (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
   (ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer, even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
   (iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question.

1. What happens when the sunlight travels through the Earth's atmosphere?
(a) The blue colour is scattered more compared to the red colour.
(b) The red colour is scattered more compared to the blue colour.
(c) Both the blue and the red colours are scattered equally.
(d) The blue colour is not scattered but the red colour is scattered the most.

2. When a solid body is partially or completely immersed in a fluid, the fluid exerts an upward force on the body. The magnitude of the force is equal to

1. The mass of the body
2. The weight of the displaced fluid by the body
   Which of the above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

3. If the length of a copper wire is increased by twice, then its resistivity will be
(a) doubled
(b) halved
(c) same
(d) one-fourth

4. Which one of the following is dimensionless quantity?
(a) Stress
(b) Strain
(c) Pressure
(d) Force

5. A system that does NOT allow exchange of heat with its surrounding is called
(a) Adiabatic system
(b) Non-adiabatic system
(c) Equilibrium system
(d) Non-equilibrium system

6. If the speed of light in carbon disulphide and vacuum is X and Y, respectively, then
(a) X < Y
(b) X > Y
(c) X ≥ Y
(d) X = Y

7. A current through a horizontal power line flow in east to west direction. What will be the direction of magnetic field at a point directly below when viewed from east end
(a) Clockwise in a plane perpendicular to the wire
(b) Anti-clockwise in a plane perpendicular to the wire
(c) Clockwise in a plane of parallel to the wire
(d) Anti-clockwise in a plane of parallel to the wire

8. Which one among the following elements is known to be discovered the earliest?
(a) Copper
(b) Gold
(c) Oxygen
(d) Uranium

9. When a light ray passes from air to water with a non-zero angle the ray will be
(a) bending towards the normal
(b) bending away from the normal
(c) propagating in straight line
(d) reflected towards the opposite direction

10. Which one of the following equations related to the motion of an objects is NOT correct? (Symbols carry their usual meanings)
(a) s = ut + ½at²
(b) u = v - at
(c) v² - u² = 2ax
(d) Distance travelled during nth second = u + ½a(2n-1)

11. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) An ammeter is always connected in series in the circuit to measure the current.
(b) A voltmeter is always connected to parallel in a circuit to measure the voltage.
(c) A voltmeter has a high resistance and an ammeter has a low resistance.
(d) A voltmeter has a low resistance and an ammeter has a high resistance.

12. Which one of the following is a non-conventional source of energy?
(a) Petroleum
(b) Natural gas
(c) Tidal energy
(d) Coal

13. If three resistors of 1 Ohm each, connect in parallel to each other, then resultant resistance is
(a) 1 Ohm
(b) ⅓ Ohm
(c) 3 Ohm
(d) 9 Ohm

14. We hear an echo due to
(a) Refraction of sound waves
(b) Reflection of sound waves
(c) Diffraction of sound waves
(d) Resonance due to sound waves

15. At uniform speed the acceleration is
(a) maximum
(b) minimum
(c) zero
(d) constant

16. An object is placed between infinity and the pole (P) of a convex mirror. The position of the image is
(a) between pole (P) and the focus (F), behind the mirror
(b) between the focus (F) and infinity, behind the mirror
(c) between the pole (P) and the infinity, in front of the mirror
(d) at the focus (F), behind the mirror

17. The work done in moving a charge of 2 coulombs (C) from point A to point B is 24 J. What is the potential difference between A and B?
(a) 48 V
(b) 6 V
(c) 12 V
(d) 0.08 V

18. Two conducting wires of the same material and of equal length and equal diameter are first connected in parallel and then in series in a circuit across the same potential difference. The ratio of heat produced in parallel and series combination is
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 4 : 1
(c) 1 : 2
(d) 1 : 4

19. The magnetic field inside a long, straight solenoid carrying current
(a) is zero.
(b) decreases as we move towards its end.
(c) increases as we move towards its end.
(d) is uniform inside the solenoid.

20. A car has an initial velocity of 12 m/s and is brought to rest over a distance of 45 m. The acceleration of the car is.
(a) + 1.6 m/s²
(b) +3.2 m/s²
(c) - 1.6 m/s²
(d) -0.8 m/s²

21. The universal constant of gravitation G has the unit
(a) N
(b) m/s
(c) Joule
(d) Nm²/kg²

22. Two bodies of unequal masses are dropped from a tower. At any instant, they have equal
(a) Momentum
(b) Acceleration
(c) Potential energy
(d) Kinetic energy

23. The frequency (f), wavelength (λ) and speed (v) of a sound wave are related as
(a) f = vλ
(b) λ = vf
(c) f = λ/v
(d) v = λf

24. The length of a simple pendulum is increased four times to its previous value while the mass is doubled. What is the ratio of the new and previous time period of the pendulum?
(a) 3 : 1
(b) 2 : 5
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 3 : 2

25. Which one of the following is NOT a basic property of electric charge?
(a) Charges can be added.
(b) Charge is conserved.
(c) Charge on a body is always an integral multiple of an electron or a proton charge.
(d) Charges can be created and destroyed in an isolated system.

26. Gaja Dwar, Ashwa Dwar, Garuda Dwar, Makar Dwar, Shardula Dwar and Hamsa Dwar are located in a building at
(a) New Delhi
(b) Varanasi
(c) Aurangabad
(d) Thanjavur

27. Which dance form of India has been inscribed into UNESCO's Representative List of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity?
(a) Kathakali
(b) Garba
(c) Bhangra
(d) Odissi

28. Which ministry has initiated the “Dhara”: a special initiative dedicated to Indian Knowledge System (IKS)?
(a) The Ministry of Education
(b) The Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) The Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
(d) The Ministry of Culture

29. The scheme PRASHAD (Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual Heritage Augmentation Drive) provides assistance for
(a) e-Visa facility
(b) Multilingual Tourist Infoline
(c) The development of tourism infrastructure in States and Union Territories
(d) Promoting Dekho Apna Desh scheme

30. The joint venture named 'ASHINT' to develop nuclear power facility in India is between
(a) NPCIL and NTPC
(b) TMC and VECC
(c) HWB and BARC
(d) IGACR and NTPC

31. Which one of the following statements about 'REJUPAVE' is correct?
(a) It's a joint venture between Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) and the Government of India to promote organic farming.
(b) It's the name given to the lightest surveillance aircraft development by DRDO.
(c) It's a centrally sponsored flagship programme of the Ministry of Women and Child Development, Government of India.
(d) It's an indigenously developed road construction technology at high altitudes.

32. Which of the following statements about 'C-Bot' is/are correct?

1. It's an underwater vehicle to monitor coral reefs.
2. It has been developed by CSIR and NIO.
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

33. India's Gas Turbine Research Establishment (GTRE), part of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has developed an aero-engine, which will potentially make India self-reliance in aero-engine technology. What is the name of the engine?
(a) Ganga
(b) Yamuna
(c) Krishna
(d) Kaveri

34. Who among the following Presidents/Vice Presidents of the United States of America was awarded Nobel Peace Prize for work to find peaceful solutions to international conflicts, advance democracy and human rights, and to promote economic and social development?
(a) Jimmy Carter
(b) Woodrow Wilson
(c) Barack Obama
(d) Al Gore

35. Which of the following agencies releases report on 'SAFE' Accommodation; Worker Housing for Manufacturing Growth ?
(a) RBI
(b) NITI Aayog
(c) National Housing Band
(d) Housing and Urban Development Corporation

36. The lactic acid that gets accumulated in the muscle cells during rigorous exercise causing muscle cramps is produced from
(a) ATP
(b) Pyruvate
(c) Ethanol
(d) Glucose

37. A chain of peptide containing linear sequences of amino acid linked by peptide bonds best represent the
(a) Primary structure
(b) Secondary structure
(c) Tertiary structure
(d) Quaternary structure

38. Cambium is an example of
(a) Lateral meristem
(b) Apical meristem
(c) Intercalary meristem
(d) Permanent tissue

39. What happens when the fat and oil-containing food materials are left outside for a long time?
(a) Fats and oils in the food get oxidised.
(b) Fats and oils in the food get reduced.
(c) Fats and oils in the food get ice-covered.
(d) No reaction takes place.

40. Which is the correct pairing found in a normal DNA molecule?
(a) Adenine pairs with thymine
(b) Adenine pairs with guanine
(c) Adenine pairs with cytosine
(d) Thymine pairs with guanine

41. Clotting of blood involves which one among the following clotting proteins?
(a) Pathogen
(b) Fibrinogen
(c) Macrophage
(d) Phagocytes

42. Initial discovery of antibiotic penicillin was done by
(a) Francis Crick
(b) Maurice Wilkins
(c) Charles Darwin
(d) Alexander Fleming

43. The vector of malaria parasites is
(a) Male Anopheles mosquito
(b) Male Culex mosquito
(c) Female Anopheles mosquito
(d) Female Culex mosquito

44. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

1. Malaria: Mycobacterium
2. TB: Plasmodium
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

45. Vitamin B1 is also known as
(a) Riboflavin
(b) Thiamin
(c) Retinol
(d) Tocopherol

46. Consider the following lines of longitude and latitude:

1. Prime Meridian
2. Tropic of Cancer
3. Equator
   Which of the above lines is/are a Great Circle?
   (a) 1, 2 and 3
   (b) 1 and 2 only
   (c) 1 and 3 only
   (d) 3 only

47. Which of the following is the correct ascending order of the given minerals in terms of their presence in the Earth's crust?

1. Amphibolite
2. Mica
3. Pyroxene
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 2, 3, 1
   (b) 1, 2, 3
   (c) 2, 1, 3
   (d) 1, 3, 2

48. Which of the following is/are the applied forces in mechanical weathering process?

1. Gravitational force
2. Expansion force
3. Force due to water pressure
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 2 only
   (c) 2 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

49. Which of the following is/are cold ocean current/currents?

1. Alaska Current
2. North Atlantic Drift
3. West Wind Drift
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 2
   (c) 2 and 3
   (d) 3 only

50. Which one of the following latitudes will experience a minimum angle of the Sun's rays when it is Summer Solstice in the Northern Hemisphere?
(a) Arctic Circle
(b) Equator
(c) Tropic of Cancer
(d) Tropic of Capricorn

51. Which of the following statements with reference to Coriolis force is/are correct?

1. Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the pressure gradient force.
2. At the equator, the Coriolis force is zero and the wind blows perpendicular to the isobars.
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

52. Which of the following statements with reference to sleet is/are correct?

1. Sleet is frozen raindrops and refrozen melted snow-water.
2. It occurs when a layer of air with the temperature below freezing point overlies a warm layer near the ground surface.
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

53. Humid subtropical climate is NOT experienced in which one among the following regions?
(a) Coastal South Africa
(b) East Coast of Australia
(c) South Japan
(d) South Argentina

54. Mahendragiri, the highest peak of the Eastern Ghats, is located in which one of the following states?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Odisha
(c) Telangana
(d) Tamil Nadu

55. Temperate forests of South India, known as 'Sholas' are found in which of the following hills?

1. Anaimalai
2. Nilgiris
3. Palani
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 2 only
   (c) 2 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

56. As per the Annual Report 2023-24 of the Ministry of Mines, Government of India, which of the following states are the major producer of copper in the country?
(a) Rajasthan and Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh
(c) Jharkhand and Rajasthan
(d) Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh

57. Which one among the following is NOT a major oil field located in Gujarat?
(a) Ankleshwar
(b) Kosamba
(c) Mehsana
(d) Moran

58. As per the Land Revenue Records, any land is categorised as Culturable Waste-Land if it is left fallow (uncultivated) for more than
(a) 2 years
(b) 3 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 5 years

59. Which one among the following is NOT included in the National Food Security Mission-Commercial Crops (NFSM-CC)?
(a) Cotton
(b) Coffee
(c) Jute
(d) Sugarcane

60. Consider the following statements with regard to a steel plant:

1. It was set up in 1964 with Russian collaboration.
2. It receives iron ore from the Rourkela region.
3. Water and hydel power is supplied by the Damodar Valley Corporation.
   Identify the steel plant on the basis of the above facts:
   (a) Bhilai Steel Plant
   (b) Bokaro Steel Plant
   (c) Rourkela Steel Plant
   (d) Durgapur Steel Plant

61. An offshore terminal at Vadinar has been developed to reduce pressure from which of the following major ports in India?
(a) Kandla Port
(b) Cochin Port
(c) Mormugao Port
(d) New Mangalore Port

62. As per the India State of Forest Report 2021, which one of the following Himalayan states has the highest percentage of its geographical area under forest?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Sikkim
(d) Uttarakhand

63. Which of the following statements with reference to L-Wave or Long Wave generated by an earthquake is/are correct?

1. They follow the Earth's circumference.
2. They travel at more or less at a constant rate.
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

64. Which one of the following is formed when volcanic ash is carried by running water and is deposited as a sedimentary layer?
(a) Basalt
(b) Lapilli
(c) Slate
(d) Tuff

65. Condensation of water vapour into water is influenced by which of the following factor/factors?

1. Volume of air
2. Humidity
3. Temperature
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 2 only
   (c) 2 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

66. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) The molecules of soap are sodium or potassium salts of long-chain fatty acids.
(b) The molecules of soap contain both hydrophobic and hydrophilic ends.
(c) Detergents are more effective than soaps in hard water.
(d) In micelles the ionic-end of the molecules is towards oil droplet while the other end faces outside.

67. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) A neutron is formed by combination of an electron and a proton. Therefore, it is neutral.
(b) The mass of an electron is about 1/2000 times that of a proton.
(c) An isotope of cobalt is used in the treatment of goiter.
(d) J.J. Thomson proposed that the nucleus of an atom contains only neutrons.

68. Which one of the following particles in the nucleus of an atom was discovered by J. Chadwick?
(a) Electron
(b) Proton
(c) Positron
(d) Neutron

69. Which one of the following findings is NOT observed in Rutherford's Nuclear Model of Atom?
(a) There is a neutral centre in an atom called nucleus.
(b) Nearly all the mass of an atom resides in the nucleus.
(c) The electrons revolve around the nucleus in a circular path.
(d) The size of a nucleus is very small as compared to the size of the atom.

70. Element X forms a chloride with the formula XCl₂, which is a solid with high melting point. X would most likely be in the same group of periodic table as
(a) Na
(b) Al
(c) Mg
(d) K

71. Which one of the following oxides is a neutral oxide?
(a) CO
(b) CO₂
(c) Na₂O
(d) MgO

72. Which one of the following is also known as dry ice in its solid form?
(a) SiO₂
(b) CO₂
(c) CaO
(d) MgO

73. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) A scale measuring hydrogen ion concentration in a solution is called pH scale.
(b) The higher the hydrogen ion concentration in a solution higher is its pH.
(c) We can measure pH generally from 0 to 14 on a pH scale.
(d) The 'p' in pH stands for 'potenz' in German meaning power.

74. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct ?
(a) Half mole of nitrogen gas is measured 11.2 litres at STP.
(b) 17 grams of ammonia gas contains 6.022 × 10²³ molecules at STP.
(c) 22.4 litres of CO₂ gas at STP contains 44 grams of molecules.
(d) 4 grams of hydrogen gas contains 6.022 × 10²³ molecules.

75. Which one of the following statements about a compound is NOT correct?
(a) A compound is a substance composed of two or more elements chemically combined in a fixed proportion.
(b) Properties of a compound are different from its constituent elements.
(c) A compound is an impure substance.
(d) The constituents of a compound can be separated only by chemical or electrochemical reactions.

76. Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the lists :

List I (Chemical Name)	List II (Chemical Formula)
A. Washing soda	1. CaOCl₂
B. Baking soda	2. NaHCO₃
C. Bleaching powder	3. Na₂CO₃·10H₂O
D. Gypsum	4. CaSO₄·2H₂O

Code:
(a) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(b) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(c) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(d) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

77. Which one of the following nitrogen oxides may dimerise?
(a) N₂O
(b) NO₂
(c) N₂O₃
(d) N₂O₅

78. Which one of the following statements regarding oxidation and reduction reaction is NOT correct?
(a) If a substance loses hydrogen during reaction, it is reduced.
(b) If a substance loses oxygen during reaction, it is reduced.
(c) If a substance gains hydrogen during reaction, it is reduced.
(d) If a substance gains oxygen during reaction, it is oxidised.

79. Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the lists :

List I (Physical Name)	List II (SI Unit)
A. Temperature	1. Kelvin
B. Weight	2. Kilogram
C. Mass	3. Pascal
D. Pressure	4. Newton

Code:
(a) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(c) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
(d) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

80. For acid rain, the pH of rain water should be less than
(a) 7.0
(b) 6.6
(c) 5.6
(d) 8.0

81. Which of the following main industry/industries was/were developed in the Second Industrial Revolution that took place after about 1850?
(a) Coal and iron
(b) Cotton spinning and weaving
(c) Chemical and electrical
(d) Steam engines

82. Which among the following materials was used in making the Harappan seals?
(a) Sandstone
(b) Lapis lazuli
(c) Jasper
(d) Steatite

83. Which one among the following Mahajanapadas in ancient India was an oligarchy?
(a) Vajji
(b) Kosala
(c) Gandhare
(d) Magadha

84. Which one of the following sculptures found at Sanchi Stupa is NOT directly inspired by Buddhist ideas?
(a) Empty seat
(b) Shalbhanjika
(c) Tree
(d) Wheel

85. In British India, which one among the following Acts permitted detention without trial for up to two years?
(a) Regulating Act, 1773
(b) Rowlatt Act, 1919
(c) Pitt's Indian Act, 1784
(d) Government of India Act, 1935

86. Which one of the following statements about the Bhoodan Movement is correct?
(a) The target was to get one-sixth of cultivable land in India as donation.
(b) It was approved through a Central Government Act.
(c) It was ensured that the donated land was free from all litigation.
(d) The first donation of land was in Bihar.

87. The Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act provides for
(a) an elaborate system of establishing municipal self-government.
(b) an elaborate system of establishing panchayats as units of self-government.
(c) establishing a Commission for Linguistic Minorities.
(d) the creation of the Jharkhand State.

88. BHARATPOL portal has been developed by
(a) The Election Commission of India
(b) The Central Bureau of Investigation
(c) The Enforcement Directorate
(d) The Securities and Exchange Board of India

89. Which one of the following statements about the Parliament of India is correct?
(a) A majority of members of Rajya Sabha are elected by a system of proportional representation by mean of single transferable vote.
(b) The Deputy Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha is nominated by the President from among the members of the Rajya Sabha.
(c) The Lok Sabha cannot be dissolved before the completion of its five-year term.
(d) The members of Lok Sabha also vote in the election of the members of Rajya Sabha.

90. Which one among the following does NOT figure among the Five Principles of Panchsheel?
(a) Mutual respect for each other's territorial integrity and sovereignty
(b) Equality and mutual benefit
(c) Peaceful coexistence
(d) Nuclear non-proliferation

91. Maize (makka) was introduced in India in the seventeenth century via
(a) Portugal
(b) Africa and Spain
(c) China and Mongolia
(d) Turkey

92. Match List-I with List-II and select the answer using the code given below the lists:

List I (Five-Year Plan)	List II (Objective)
A. Fifth Five-Year Plan	1. Towards Faster and More Inclusive
B. Seventh Five-Year Plan	2. Garibi Hatao (Removal of Poverty)
C. Ninth Five-Year Plan	3. Food, Work and Productivity
D. Eleventh Five-Year Plan	4. Growth With Social Justice and Equality

Code:
(a) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
(b) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(c) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
(d) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

93. Which of the following statements about Srimanta Shankardeva is/are correct?

1. In the late fifteenth century Shankardeva emerged as one of the leading proponents of Vaishnavism in Assam.
2. He was the founder of Gaudiya Vaishnavism.
3. His teachings are known as Bhagavati Dharma.
4. He encouraged the establishment of Satra and Namghar.
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 2 and 3
   (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
   (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

94. At which one among the following places did the British East India Company found its factory in the year 1611?
(a) Madras
(b) Masulipatam
(c) Bombay
(d) Balasore

95. Chronologically arrange the following political events related to Indian National Movement beginning from the earliest.

1. Formation of Swaraj Party
2. Communal Award
3. Lucknow Pact
4. Simla Conference
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 3, 1, 2, 4
   (b) 1, 3, 2, 4
   (c) 2, 1, 4, 3
   (d) 1, 2, 3, 4

96. Which among the following Acts provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court of Justice at Calcutta for Europeans, their employees and the citizens of India?
(a) The Regulating Act of 1773
(b) The Charter Act of 1793
(c) The Charter Act of 1813
(d) Government of India Act of 1858

97. Who among the following introduced a resolution in 1882, which is also called the Magna Carta of Local Self-Government in India?
(a) Lord Macaulay
(b) Lord Canning
(c) Lord Ripon
(d) Lord William Bentinck

98. Which one of the following terms is associated with the practice of Sufism?
(a) Jizya
(b) Ijma
(c) Muqaddam
(d) Murid

99. Consider the following features:

1. Consent of the governed
2. Political equality
3. Accountability of the ruled to the ruler
   Which of the above feature/features outline democratic rule?
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 1, 2 and 3
   (d) 3 only

100. Placing the earliest first, arrange the following countries in the chronological order in which they granted universal adult franchise:

1. USA
2. Sri Lanka
3. Japan
4. India
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1, 2, 3, 4
   (b) 2, 3, 4, 1
   (c) 1, 3, 4, 2
   (d) 3, 4, 1, 2

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