NDA Previous Year Question Paper NDA 2023

GENERAL ABILITY | Free PDF Download Online

 

GENERAL ABILITY
PART - A: ENGLISH

FILL IN THE BLANKS

1. As the Southwest monsoon ________ through most of July, flash floods caused by the waters of the Narmada hit Jabalpur town.
(a) lashed
(b) flourished
(c) occupied
(d) dried

2. Given the scale of the challenges that ________ us today, our company proposes more viable plans for sustainability.
(a) supports
(b) conflict
(c) confronts
(d) convince

3. It is a really tough course, I am just worried that I won't be able to go the ________.
(a) way
(b) distance
(c) far
(d) route

4. The ________ of the advancement made in agricultural productivity in India has been remarkable.
(a) extent
(b) context
(c) distance
(d) syntax

5. This essay ________ and examines various systems for water appropriation and agricultural practices adapted by society in the arid conditions of Rajasthan.
(a) confuses
(b) enhances
(c) controls
(d) explores

6. India has been able to successfully ________ its population through family planning programmes.
(a) sterilise
(b) stabilise
(c) stratify
(d) establish

7. Adolescence is the ________ wherein a child enters adulthood.
(a) threshold
(b) position
(c) condition
(d) period

8. The British who ruled India for 200 years were here to ________ India's natural resources.
(a) spoil
(b) implore
(c) exploit
(d) drill

9. Endangered species have a fifty per cent or greater probability of ________ within five years or two generations whichever is longer.
(a) distinction
(b) extinction
(c) complication
(d) completion

10. The first law of thermodynamics states that where as energy can be ________ from one form into another, it cannot be created or destroyed.
(a) reduced
(b) induced
(c) performed
(d) transformed

SPOTTING ERRORS

11. Bread, butter and (a) / jam common breakfast items (b) / that are consumed by many households. (c) / No error (d)

12. Ten thousand dollars is (a) / the prize money being offered (b) / by the game show hosts. (c) / No error (d)

13. Three hundred and sixty five (a) / create up the number of days (b) / in a calendar year. (c) / No error (d)

14. The process of removing (a) / wool from the body of (b) / an animal is called sharing. (c) / No error (d)

15. Many people came (a) / from faraway places to prayed (b) / at the temple on the auspicious day. (c) / No error (d)

16. After reading foreword of (a) / the book on environmental issues in India, (b) / I decided to meet its author. (c) / No error (d)

17. The guidance from the mentors the (a) / and teachers facilitated the (b) / smooth conduct of elections to the Students' council. (c) / No error (d)

18. The Principal of our school (a) / felicitated the students in (b) / the prize distribution ceremony. (c) / No error (d)

19. If you were to (a) / come to Chennai to settle down (b) / it will be the best possible decision. (c) / No error (d)

20. They had promised to delivered (a) / the bags before mid-March (b) / to enable us to inaugurate the shop. (c) / No error (d)

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SYNONYMS

21. He is always captious.
(a) worried
(b) passionate
(c) faultfinding
(d) jovial

22. Geomorphologists ascertain several wonderful facts about our earth.
(a) verify
(b) invert
(c) increase
(d) omit

23. The Colonel ordered the Soldiers to meet him in the commissary.
(a) office
(b) field
(c) playground
(d) canteen

24. The doctor dismembered the patient's finger first and then cured the ailment.
(a) stitched
(b) dissected
(c) plastered
(d) splintered

25. Mr. Kumar works as a bursar in the sports academy.
(a) secretary
(b) accountant
(c) coach
(d) trainer

26. His intentions are insidious.
(a) pious
(b) inadvertent
(c) deceitful
(d) naive

27. Respect for other human beings is intrinsic to the teachings of all religions.
(a) inconsistent
(b) peripheral
(c) inherent
(d) existential

28. He completed the onerous task with relative ease.
(a) smooth
(b) complex
(c) risky
(d) wearying

29. Alfred was a potentate during the Middle Ages.
(a) Monarch
(b) lenient
(c) liberal
(d) democrat

30. I abandoned the task due to indolence.
(a) difficulty
(b) laziness
(c) ugliness
(d) helplessness

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USAGE OF PAIRED WORDS

31. 'Principal' and 'Principle'
(a) 'Principal' means belief system, and 'principle' means head of an educational institution
(b) 'Principal' means head of an educational institution, and 'principle' means original sum on which interest is charged
(c) 'Principle' means moral rule, and 'principal' means head of an educational institution.
(d) 'Principal' means original sum on which interest is charged, and 'principle' means head of an educational institution.

32. 'Plane' and 'Plain'
(a) 'Plane' means a flat surface, and 'plain' means something that flies.
(b) 'Plane' means the flat surface, and 'plain' means not elaborate.
(c) 'Plane' means something that flies, and 'plain' means flat surface.
(d) 'Plane' means not elaborate, and 'plain' means flat surface.

33. 'Pail' and 'Pale'
(a) 'Pale' means inferior or unimpressive, and 'pail' means faded.
(b) 'Pale' means faded or light in shade, and 'pail' means inferior or unimpressive.
(c) 'Pale' means faded or light in shade, and 'pail' means a bucket.
(d) 'Pale' means a bucket, and 'pail' means inferior or unimpressive.

34. 'Metal' and 'Mettle'
(a) 'Metal' is a hard shiny material that is a good conductor, and 'mettle' means malleable metal.
(b) 'Metal' is a hard shiny material that is a good conductor, and 'mettle' means metallic substance.
(c) 'Metal' means mental resilience, and 'mettle' is a hard shiny material that is a good conductor.
(d) 'Metal' is a hard shiny material that is a good conductor, and 'mettle' means mental resilience.

35. 'Hail' and 'Hale'
(a) 'Hail' means pellets of frozen rain, and 'hale' means wind storm
(b) 'Hail' means pellets of frozen rain, and 'hale' means strong and healthy
(c) 'Hail' means pellets of frozen rain, and 'hale' means to greet with enthusiastic approval
(d) 'Hail' means strong and healthy, and 'hale' means pellets of frozen rain

36. 'Conscious' and 'Conscience'
(a) 'Conscious' means sense of right and wrong, and 'conscience' means awareness about something
(b) 'Conscious' means alert, and 'conscience' means presence of mind
(c) 'Conscious' means intent, and 'conscience' means unprincipled action
(d) 'Conscious' means aware, and 'conscience' means sense of right and wrong

37. 'Dissent' and 'Descent'
(a) 'Dissent' means having ideas different from general beliefs or official position, and 'descent' means movement towards a lower place
(b) 'Dissent' means having ideas different from general beliefs or official position, and 'descent' means being of acceptable standard
(c) 'Dissent' means being of acceptable standard, and 'descent' means movement towards a lower place
(d) 'Dissent' means being of acceptable standard, and 'descent' means ideas different from general beliefs or official position

38. 'Devise' and 'Device'
(a) 'Device' means to determine, and 'devise' means a piece of equipment meant for accomplishing a specific task.
(b) 'Device' means finding a new way to do something, and 'devise' means to determine
(c) 'Device' means a piece of equipment meant for accomplishing a specific task, and 'devise' means finding a new way to do something
(d) 'Device' means finding a new way to do something, and 'devise' means a piece of equipment meant for accomplishing a specific task.

39. 'Discrete' and 'Discreet'
(a) 'Discrete' means separate and distinct categories of objects, and 'discreet' means misuse of authority
(b) 'Discrete' means separate and distinct categories of objects, and 'discreet' means maintaining confidentiality
(c) 'Discrete' means being careful in what one says or does, and 'discreet' means separate and distinct categories of objects
(d) 'Discrete' means misuse of authority and 'discreet' means being careful in what one says or does

40. 'Eminent' and 'Imminent'
(a) 'Eminent' means important and famous, and 'imminent' means something about to happen
(b) 'Eminent' means something unpleasant about to happen, and 'imminent' means important and famous person
(c) 'Eminent' means important and famous person, and 'imminent' means inherent or existing within
(d) 'Eminent' means inherent or existing within, and 'imminent' means something about to happen

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ANTONYMS

41. Many metals are malleable in nature and property.
(a) hard
(b) strong
(c) tender
(d) weak

42. To neglect a warning is to invite danger.
(a) disregard
(b) ignore
(c) regard
(d) overlook

43. His ostentatious behaviour surprised everyone.
(a) tawdry
(b) modest
(c) gaudy
(d) apparent

44. The experience of Covid Pandemic was excruciating for much of the population.
(a) gnawing
(b) gruelling
(c) harrowing
(d) mild

45. A trip to the hills was refreshing.
(a) conniving
(b) wearying
(c) revivifying
(d) rejuvenating

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COMPREHENSION

People by and large are concerned with and pursue self-interest. They are unlikely to be motivated to use renewable resources in a prudent and sustainable fashion. They are unlikely to be motivated under the following conditions: if their resource catchments are vast, so that degradation of any particular portion affects them very little; or if they have open before them possibilities of substitution as any one resource element is depleted; or if their control over the resource base is tenuous, so that others may, at any time, deplete a resource they value, even if they use it in a restrained fashion. Indeed, exhaustive use is highly likely when any one of these three conditions obtains. It is only when people perceive their resource catchments as limited, possibilities of substitution of exhausted resource elements as not readily feasible, and their own control over the resource base as secure, will they be motivated to use the resources in a prudent fashion. People, rooted in a locality, and retaining control over their resource base are most likely to fulfill all three prerequisites for sustainable resource use; and therefore to behave in ways conducive to the conservation of biodiversity within their localities.

46. Why, according to the writer can't people be motivated to use a resource prudently?

1. They feel that others may overuse the resource
2. It is possible to substitute the resource
3. Abundance of the resource availability
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) 2 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

47. When do people use resources exhaustively?
(a) When the substitution of resource is felicitated by NGOs
(b) When the resource is about to expand
(c) When the resource use has little impact
(d) When they desire desperately for sustainable development

48. The self-interest of people affects the use of renewable resources
(a) positively
(b) erratically
(c) affirmatively
(d) indifferently

49. People rooted in a locality
(a) cause harm to available resources
(b) generate resources
(c) believe in conservation and reproduction of resources
(d) consume resources freely

50. Which among the following is closest in meaning with the word 'deplete'?
(a) exhaust
(b) complete
(c) replete
(d) desperate

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PART- B: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

51. The streaming of light beams coming from the Sun through trees is said to have suggested that light travels in straight line. The particles on the path of light beams are visible to us because
(a) dust particles in the air reflect light into our eyes
(b) dust particles in the air scatter light into our eyes
(c) dust particles in the air refract light into our eyes
(d) dust particles in the air polarize light into our eyes

52. The flash of lightning is seen before the thunderstorm is heard. It verifies that
(a) sound travels much faster than light
(b) light travels much faster than sound
(c) light and sound both travel with same speed
(d) intensity of flash of lightning is very high during thunderstorm

53. The potential difference between the two end terminals of an electric heater is 220 V and the current through it is 0.5 A. What would be the current through the heater if the potential difference across the terminals of the heater is reduced to 120 V?
(a) 1.0 A
(b) 0.5 A
(c) 0.27 A
(d) 0.7 A

54. The heating element in an electric iron is usually made of
(a) Constantan
(b) Tungsten
(c) Nichrome
(d) Copper

55. Sita, 1.5 m high, stands before a plane mirror fixed on a wall to view her full image. What should be the minimum height of the plane mirror so that Sita can view her image fully?
(a) 0.50 m
(b) 0.35 m
(c) 0.75 m
(d) 0.25 m

56. Galvanization is a method of protecting iron from rusting by coating with a thin layer of
(a) Gallium
(b) Aluminum
(c) Zinc
(d) Silver

57. Which one of the following alloys contains a non-metal as one of its constituent?
(a) Brass
(b) Bronze
(c) Amalgam
(d) Steel

58. Buckminster fullerene, which looks like a football, is an allotropic form of
(a) Phosphorus
(b) Sulfur
(c) Carbon
(d) Tin

59. Which one of the following graphs correctly represents the current (I) – voltage (V) variation for a rectangular piece of a semiconductor wafer?
(Options with graphs – not transcribed as images)

60. The green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem absorbs sunlight that falls on their leaves and convert it into food energy. The percentage of solar radiation absorbed by all green plants for the process of photosynthesis is about
(a) 1%
(b) 5%
(c) 8%
(d) 10%

61. Consider the following reaction:
Fe₂O₃(s) + 2Al(s) → 2Fe(s) + Al₂O₃(s)
Which of the following statements about the given reaction is NOT correct?
(a) It is an example of displacement reaction
(b) It is highly endothermic reaction
(c) Fe₂O₃ acts as oxidizing agent
(d) This reaction is applicable to joining of railway tracks

62. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Chemical process)
A. Electrolysis of water
B. Burning of coal
C. Iron nail immersed in copper sulphate solution
D. Addition of barium chloride solution to aluminium sulphate solution

List II (Reaction)

1. Double displacement reaction
2. Combination reaction
3. Decomposition reaction
4. Displacement reaction

Code:
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 4 1 2 3

63. Which one of the following processes involves chemical reaction?
(a) Evaporation of petrol
(b) Dissolution of salt in water
(c) Storing of oxygen gas under pressure in a gas cylinder
(d) Burning of magnesium ribbon in air

64. Which one of the following metals does NOT react with cold water to liberate hydrogen gas?
(a) Potassium
(b) Iron
(c) Calcium
(d) Sodium

65. Consider the following reaction:
2HgO → 2Hg + O₂
The respective state of HgO, Hg and O₂ in the above reaction is
(a) Liquid, solid, gas
(b) Solid, solid, gas
(c) Liquid, solid, liquid
(d) Solid, liquid, gas

66. The two important features of sexual reproduction in higher organisms that create genetic diversity in offspring are
(a) Mitosis and fertilization
(b) Meiosis and fertilization
(c) Mitosis and binary fission
(d) Meiosis and conjugation

67. Eukaryotic cells are much more complex as compared to prokaryotes. Which one of the following structures is exclusively present in a eukaryotic cell?
(a) Cell wall
(b) Plasma membrane
(c) Nucleic acid
(d) Mitochondria

68. An important cause of tooth decay by the bacterium Streptococcus mutans is because of their ability to attach to teeth surface by producing slime layer from
(a) Sugar
(b) Alcohol
(c) Saliva
(d) Teichoic acid

69. In angiosperms, pollen grain germinates to produce two male gametes. Which one of the following functions is carried out by these gametes?
(a) Both the gametes fuse with a single egg cell
(b) Both the gametes fuse with two different egg cells
(c) One gamete fuses with the egg cell and the other one eventually degenerate
(d) One gamete fuses with the egg cell and the other one fuses with a diploid secondary nucleus

70. In a sexually reproducing organism, which one of the following statements is appropriate both for the parent and offspring?
(a) Chromosome number increases but DNA content remains constant
(b) Both chromosome number and DNA content remains constant
(c) Chromosome number decreases but DNA content remains constant
(d) Both chromosome number and DNA content decreases

71. Relationship between a flower and honey-bee will help the flower for / in
(a) Faster development
(b) Pollination
(c) Quick germination of pollen
(d) Increase in size

72. Which one of the following was NOT a way in which kings in ancient India attempted to claim a higher status?
(a) Identifying with a variety of deities
(b) Assuming pompous titles
(c) Imposing high taxes
(d) Conquests and annexation of territories

73. Which one of the following statements about the Bhakti movement is NOT correct?
(a) The Bhakti movement avoided traditions that promoted diversity
(b) In northern India, the Bhakti movement revolved around the worship of Rama and Krishna
(c) The Bhakti movement relied on the devotion of God, both with and without attributes
(d) While Tulsidas represented the tradition of devotion with attributes, Sant Kabir followed the path of devotion without attributes

74. The 'Reign of Terror' in revolutionary France referred to
(a) Bands of revolutionaries moving around to terrorise people who did not participate in the revolution
(b) The royal forces punishing people who participated in the revolution
(c) Trial and beheading persons considered enemies of the republic by the revolutionary tribunal
(d) The general atmosphere of insecurity perceived by people after the beheading of the king

75. In which one of the following ways did the First World War Not impact Europe?
(a) From a continent of creditors it turned into a continent of debtors
(b) Soldiers came to be placed higher in social status than civilians
(c) Popular support decreased for conservative dictatorship which had come into being recently
(d) National honour occupied centre stage in the public sphere

76. "... the immediate ending of British rule in India is an urgent necessity, ..." was a resolution of
(a) Non Co-operation Movement
(b) Quit India Movement
(c) Individual Movement
(d) Civil Disobedience Movement

77. Which one among the following pairs of mine and mineral is NOT correctly matched?
(a) Bailadila : Iron Ore
(b) Zawar : Zinc
(c) Ghatsila : Copper
(d) Kudremukh : Bauxite

78. Which one of the following is the usual unit of measurement for Air Pressure used in India?
(a) Centimeter
(b) Millibar
(c) Milligram
(d) Milliliter

79. Which one of the following is the oldest era in Geological History determining the age of various rock types?
(a) Precambrian
(b) Mesozoic
(c) Cenozoic
(d) Paleozoic

80. A geographical grid has:

1. Lines that run east to west around the globe to mark latitude
2. Lines that run north to south from north pole to south pole indicate longitude
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

81. In which one of the following layers of the atmosphere all weather phenomenon occur?
(a) Mesosphere
(b) Troposphere
(c) Thermosphere
(d) Stratosphere

82. In which one of the following states 'Roopkund' lake is located?
(a) Kerala
(b) Manipur
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand

83. Ram records the odometer readings of his car for the distance covered from 2000 km at the start of his journey and 2400 km at the end of the journey after 8 hours. What is the average speed of the car?
(a) 50 km/h
(b) 60 km/h
(c) 70 km/h
(d) 80 km/h

84. Ms. Rani decides to convert her AC generator into a DC generator. Which one of the following she would need to use?
(a) A split-ring type commutator
(b) Slip rings and brushes
(c) A stronger magnetic field
(d) A rectangular wire loop

85. Ramesh cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected by using a lens of power
(a) +0.5 D
(b) –0.5 D
(c) +0.2 D
(d) –0.2 D

86. Which of the following statements are correct about the electrical resistance and resistivity of a wire?

1. Both quantities depend on the area of cross-section of the wire
2. Both depend on the temperature
3. Resistance of the wire is directly proportional to the resistivity of the wire
4. Resistivity of the wire is directly proportional to the length of the wire
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 1 and 3
   (c) 2 and 3
   (d) 2 and 4

87. A liquid is heated up to a certain temperature. Which one of the following situation would correspond to the boiling of the liquid?
(a) When atmospheric pressure becomes equal to the vapour pressure
(b) When atmospheric pressure becomes less than vapour pressure
(c) When atmospheric pressure becomes higher than the vapour pressure
(d) When vapour pressure becomes equal to the air pressure

88. Which one of the following is NOT an example of organic compound?
(a) Ammonium cyanate
(b) Marsh gas
(c) Urea
(d) Cane sugar

89. Which one of the following acid is used by goldsmith for cleaning of gold and silver articles?
(a) Sulphuric acid
(b) Nitric acid
(c) Hydrochloric acid
(d) Phosphoric acid

90. What is the action of litmus on ethanol?
(a) Litmus is neutral towards ethanol
(b) Ethanol turns blue litmus to red; confirming acidic nature of ethanol
(c) Ethanol turns red litmus to blue; confirming basic nature of ethanol
(d) Ethanol decolorizes litmus through bleaching action

91. Which one of the following metal is NOT an essential component in stainless steel?
(a) Iron
(b) Nickel
(c) Chromium
(d) Tin

92. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Process)
A. Separation of acetone and water from their mixture
B. Separation of water and kerosene oil from their mixture
C. Separation of cream from milk
D. Separation of pigments from plant extract

List II (Separation method)

1. Chromatography
2. Centrifugation
3. Distillation
4. Separating Funnel

Code:
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 4 1 2 3

93. Which one of the following is NOT a requirement for photosynthesis?
(a) Chlorophyll
(b) CO₂
(c) Water
(d) O₂

94. In flowering plants, DNA content of the parent plant gets halved during
(a) Seed germination
(b) Fruit formation
(c) Flower bud formation
(d) Pollen formation

95. Which one of the following is the correct sequence during sexual reproduction in Angiosperms?
(a) Egg → zygote → embryo → seed
(b) Embryo → egg → zygote → seed
(c) Egg → embryo → zygote → seed
(d) Egg → seed → zygote → embryo

96. Which one of the following combinations of events represents the correct sequence during reproduction in flowering plants?
(a) Ovule → fruit; egg → embryo; zygote → seed; ovary → egg
(b) Embryo → egg; ovary → fruit; ovule → zygote; zygote → seed
(c) Ovary → fruit; zygote → egg; embryo → ovule; seed → fruit
(d) Egg → zygote; zygote → embryo; ovule → seed; ovary → fruit

97. The book 'Nation First : The Golden Saga of 82 Years' is the history of which one of the following organizations?
(a) Indo-Tibetan Border Police
(b) Border Security Force
(c) Central Reserve Police Force
(d) Central Industrial Security Force

98. Consider the following statements regarding Sanchi and its archaeological findings:

1. When Sanchi was discovered in 1818, three of its four gateways were still standing, the fourth was lying on the spot where it had fallen
2. Animals depicted at Sanchi include elephants, horses, monkeys and cattle
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) Only 1
   (b) Only 2
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

99. Which Five Year Plan of India focused on rapid industrialization based growth process?
(a) First Five Year Plan
(b) Second Five Year Plan
(c) Fifth Five Year Plan
(d) Seventh Five Year Plan

100. Chandimangala, a sixteenth century text, was composed by
(a) Hema Saraswati
(b) Madhav Kandali
(c) Tukaram
(d) Mukundaram Chakrabarti

101. Consider the following statements regarding the royal center in Vijayanagara Empire:

1. The royal center was located in the south-western part of the settlement
2. It included over 60 temples
3. About 30 building complexes at the site have been identified as palaces
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) 1, 2 and 3
   (d) 1 and 2 only

102. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) Area wise Madhya Pradesh is the fourth largest state in India
(b) Horn bill festival is celebrated in Nagaland
(c) Gujarat state contribute 7.9 per cent share to the National GDP
(d) Telangana is situated in the Deccan plateau in the central stretch of Indian peninsula

103. Which one of the following soils is ideal for growing cotton?
(a) Regur soil
(b) Laterite soil
(c) Desert soil
(d) Mountainous soil

104. Where is Central Institute of Buddhist Studies situated?
(a) Leh
(b) Kullu
(c) Almora
(d) Gangtok

105. Consider the following statements about physical features of India:

1. The southern point of the Peninsular Plateau is formed by the Nilgiri Hills where the Eastern and the Western Ghats meet
2. The Cardamom Hills may be regarded as a continuation of the Eastern Ghats
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

106. Which one of the following is the narrow belt parallel to the Shiwalik foothills where streams and rivers coming from the mountains deposit heavy materials of rocks and boulders?
(a) Tarai
(b) Bhangar
(c) Bhabar
(d) Khadar

107. Which of the following statements about Suez Canal is/are correct?

1. Suez is a man-made navigation canal
2. Suez links Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea
3. The economic significance of Suez Canal is less than that of Panama Canal
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 2 only
   (c) 2 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

108. An iron nail sinks in water whereas an iron ship floats. Which of the following statements is correct in this regard?

1. Average density of ship is greater than that of the water
2. Average density of iron nail is greater than that of the water
3. Average density of the ship is less than that of the water
4. Average density of the ship is equal to that of the water
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 2 and 3
   (c) 1 and 3
   (d) 3 and 4

109. Which of the following arrangement of resistors offers minimum effective resistance between points X and Y?
(Options with circuit diagrams – not transcribed)

110. What will happen if a collection of positive and negative charges are passed at a high speed through a magnetic field which is perpendicular to the direction of motion of the charges? (Assume that both kind of charges are NOT moving together)
(a) Both kind of charges will stop moving
(b) Positive charges and negative charges will separate out
(c) Positive charges will stop but negative charges will continue moving uninterrupted
(d) Both kind of charges will keep moving uninterrupted

111. The motion of a particle of mass m is described by the relation y = ut + ½ gt², where u is the initial velocity of the particle. The force acting on the particle is
(a) F = m(u + gt)
(b) F = mg
(c) F = m(2u)
(d) F = –mg

112. A wooden block of dimensions 40 cm × 20 cm × 10 cm is kept on a tabletop in three different positions:
(a) with its side of dimensions 20 cm × 10 cm
(b) with its side of dimensions 10 cm × 40 cm
(c) with its side of dimensions 40 cm × 20 cm
The pressure exerted by the wooden block on the tabletop in these positions is represented by P₁, P₂ and P₃ respectively. The pressure follows the trend
(a) P₁ > P₂ > P₃
(b) P₁ < P₂ < P₃
(c) P₁ = P₂ = P₃
(d) P₁ = P₂ > P₃

113. Which one of the following metals can be extracted using carbon as reducing agent?
(a) Zinc
(b) Silver
(c) Gold
(d) Aluminium

114. Which among the following is NOT true with respect to colloidal solution?
(a) Particles are uniformly distributed throughout the solution
(b) Colloidal solution is homogenous in nature
(c) They show Tyndall effect
(d) They do not settle down when kept undisturbed

115. Kerosene and petrol mixture can be best separated by
(a) Sublimation
(b) Separating funnel
(c) Fractional distillation
(d) Compressing and cooling

116. As proposed by Dalton, which of the following symbol represents phosphorus?
(Options with symbols)

117. Which among the following statements with respect to carbon are correct?

1. Carbon forms the basis for all living organisms and many things we use
2. Carbon shows tetravalency and the property of catenation
3. Carbon forms covalent bonds with itself and other elements like hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, sulphur, chlorine etc.
4. Carbon forms compounds having double and triple bonds
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 2 only
   (c) 1, 2 and 3
   (d) 2 and 4

118. Consider the following statements:

1. Terracotta models of the plough have been found at sites in Cholistan and at Banawali (Haryana)
2. There is evidence of a ploughed field at Kalibangan associated with the mature Harappan civilization
3. The ploughed field at Kalibangan had two sets of furrows at right angles to each other
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (a) 1, 2 and 3
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 1 and 3 only
   (d) None of the above

119. Which of the following statements about the technological innovations during the Industrial Revolutions are correct?

1. Mule was the nickname for a machine invented in 1779, that allowed the spinning of strong and fine yarn
2. Water Frame, invented in 1769 by Richard Arkwright, made it possible to weave pure cotton clothes
3. Power loom, invented by Edmund Cartwright in 1787, could be used to weave any kind of materials
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 1, 2 and 3
   (c) 2 and 3 only
   (d) 3 only

120. Who among the following is known as the architect of Indian planning?
(a) V.K.R.V. Rao
(b) Sukhamoy Chakravarty
(c) P.C. Mahalanobis
(d) John Mathai

121. Which one of the following Ashokan Minor Rock Edicts contains the personal name of the king Ashoka?
(a) Maski
(b) Bahapur
(c) Bairat
(d) Sannati

122. Arrange the following in correct chronological order:

1. Gita Govinda
2. Bharat’s Natyashastra
3. Sangam Literature
4. Ashtadhyayi
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1-3-4-2
   (b) 2-4-1-3
   (c) 4-3-1-2
   (d) 3-1-2-4

123. Which one of the following is NOT an example of Fold Mountain?
(a) Mt. Fuji
(b) Alps
(c) Andes
(d) Rockies

124. Which one of the following is an organic soil?
(a) Aridisols
(b) Histosols
(c) Oxisols
(d) Vertisols

125. The North-south and East-west Road Corridors of India cross each other at which of the following cities?
(a) Bhopal
(b) Itarsi
(c) Gwalior
(d) Jhansi

126. Which one of the following climatic regions of the world have a typical characteristic of seasonal reversal of wind?
(a) British type Climate
(b) Mediterranean Climate
(c) China type Climate
(d) Monsoon Climate

127. Which one of the following statement is NOT correct?
(a) Bokaro steel plant is located in Damodar river basin
(b) Jamshedpur steel plant is located on the confluence of Damodar and Barakar
(c) Salem steel plant is located on the bank of Kaveri River
(d) Bhilai steel plant obtains water from Tandula reservoir

128. How many of the following pairs of specialized agriculture and its products are correctly matched?

1. Apiculture – Honey
2. Sericulture – Silk
3. Silviculture – Forestry
4. Viticulture – Grapes
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 4
   (b) 3
   (c) 2
   (d) 1

129. Which one of the following crops is generally benefitted by the rain caused by western disturbances in India?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Bajra
(d) Cotton

130. Which one of the following pairs of city and industry is NOT correctly matched?
(a) Saharanpur – Paper industry
(b) Chanderi – Cotton textile industry
(c) Bhadohi – Carpet industry
(d) Raniganj – Iron and steel industry

131. Which one of the following graphs represents the equation of motion v = u + at, where all quantities are non-zero and symbols carry their usual meanings?
(Options with graphs)

132. Which one of the following statements is true for sound waves propagating in air?
(a) Sound is an electromagnetic wave and transverse in nature
(b) Sound is a mechanical wave and longitudinal in nature
(c) Sound is a mechanical wave and transverse in nature
(d) Sound is an electromagnetic wave and longitudinal in nature

133. A 100 g sphere is moving at a speed of 20 m/s and collides with another sphere of mass 50 g. If the second sphere was at rest prior to the collision and the first sphere comes at rest immediately after the collision, considering the collision to be elastic, the speed of the second sphere would be
(a) 10 m/s
(b) 20 m/s
(c) 30 m/s
(d) 40 m/s

134. Which one of the following optical phenomena supports that the light is a transverse wave?
(a) Refraction
(b) Diffraction
(c) Interference
(d) Polarization

135. How many of the following materials can be attracted by a magnet?

1. Cobalt
2. Aluminium
3. Nickel
4. Stainless steel
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1
   (b) 2
   (c) 3
   (d) None

136. Consider the following statements with reference to the Bhoodan Movement:

1. Vinoba Bhave organized ‘The Sarvodaya Samaj’ to take up the work of non-violent transformation in India
2. Jayaprakash Narayan withdrew from active politics to join the Bhoodan Movement in 1953
3. In the wake of the Bhoodan Movement the first donation of land was made in the village of Pochampally in Telangana
   How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1
   (b) 2
   (c) 3
   (d) None

137. Which among the following statements regarding the election of non-permanent members to the United Nations Security Council is/are correct?

1. Five members coming from Africa and Asia, one from Eastern Europe, two from Latin America and two from Western Europe and other states
2. Six members are elected each year by the General Assembly for two year term
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

138. Which one of the following provisions of the Constitution of India deals with District Planning Committee?
(a) 243ZD
(b) 243ZB
(c) 243ZE
(d) 243ZC

139. Consider the following statements about Attorney-General in India:

1. She/he is the first law officer of the Government of India
2. She/he has a right to speak in any House of Parliament without any right to vote
3. She/he is appointed by the President of India
4. She/he is a whole-time counsel for the Government in the court of law
   How many of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1
   (b) 2
   (c) 3
   (d) 4

140. Which one among the following states was NOT impacted by the Land Boundary Agreement Treaty between India and Bangladesh (2015)?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Assam
(c) Tripura
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

141. The 480 MW Phukot Karnali Hydro Electric Project is situated in
(a) Thailand
(b) Indonesia
(c) Nepal
(d) Bhutan

142. Consider the following statements about a river:
This river originates in the Hindu Kush mountain range and flows into Hamoun wetlands after covering a long stretch of about 1,100 km. There has been serious conflicts between two neighbouring nations regarding the sharing of the waters of this river.
Identify the river from the following:
(a) Mekong
(b) Tarim
(c) Indus
(d) Helmand

143. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Bilateral Exercise)
A. Garuda Shakti
B. Nomadic Elephant
C. Mitra Shakti
D. Dharma Guardian

List II (Participating Country)

1. India and Japan
2. India and Sri Lanka
3. India and Mongolia
4. India and Indonesia

Code:
(a) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(c) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(d) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

144. Consider the following statements about gallantry awards in India:

1. Ashoka Chakra Class-I was the first gallantry award instituted by Independent India
2. It was followed by Ashoka Chakra Class-II and Ashoka Chakra Class-III
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

145. Consider the following statements about Centralized Laboratory Network (CLN):

1. CLN aims to test vaccines that can be used during pandemic
2. India is a member of CLN
3. CLN is a part of the Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness Innovations (CEPI)
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 1 and 2 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

146. Consider the following statements about Kavach, the automatic train protection system:

1. It is designed and developed by Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO) in collaboration with Railway Technical Research Institute (RTRI), Japan
2. The trials of Kavach were facilitated by the Southern Railway
3. Kavach is a state-of-the-art electronic system with Safety Integrity Level-4 (SIL-4)
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 3 only
   (c) 1 and 2 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

147. The Nova Kakhovka dam, which was in news recently, is situated in
(a) Belarus
(b) Turkey
(c) Ukraine
(d) Poland

148. Aaron Finch, who recently retired from international cricket, was captain of men’s cricket team of which one of the following countries?
(a) South Africa
(b) Australia
(c) England
(d) New Zealand

149. Which one of the following is the name of the dashboard launched recently by the Reserve Bank of India to assess and monitor the progress of financial inclusion by capturing relevant parameters?
(a) Pragya
(b) Antardrishti
(c) Divyachakshu
(d) Antahgyan

150. ‘Sengol’, installed in the new Parliament building of India, was seen as a symbol of the path of service, duty and nation in which Empire of the past?
(a) Gupta Empire
(b) Shunga Empire
(c) Pandyan Empire
(d) Chola Empire

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