NEET Previous Year Question Paper 2016 with Solutions Phase-1| Physics, Chemistry & Biology | Free PDF Download

NEET Previous Year Question Paper 2016 with Solutions Phase-1| Physics, Chemistry & Biology | Free PDF Download

NEET (UG) 2016 Phase-1 (CODE: D-S-Z) – Complete Questions 1 to 180
 

Physics

1. A siren emitting a sound of frequency 800 Hz moves away from an observer towards a cliff at a speed of 15 ms⁻¹. Then, the frequency of sound that the observer hears in the echo reflected from the cliff is
(Take velocity of sound in air = 330 ms⁻¹)
(1) 838 Hz
(2) 885 Hz
(3) 765 Hz
(4) 800 Hz

2. Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic wave?
(1) A chargeless particle
(2) An accelerating charge
(3) A charge moving at constant velocity
(4) A stationary charge

3. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 50 μF and a resistor 40 Ω are connected in series across a source of emf V = 10 sin 340 t. The power loss in A.C. circuit is:
(1) 0.76 W
(2) 0.89 W
(3) 0.51 W
(4) 0.67 W

4. Match the corresponding entries of column 1 with column 2. [Where m is the magnification produced by the mirror]

Column 1    Column 2
(A) m = –2   (a) Convex mirror
(B) m = –1/2  (b) Concave mirror
(C) m = +2   (c) Real image
(D) m = +1/2  (d) Virtual image

(1) A → a and d; B → b and c; C → b and d; D → b and c
(2) A → c and d; B → b and d; C → b and c; D → a and d
(3) A → b and c; B → b and c; C → b and d; D → a and d
(4) A → a and c; B → a and d; C → a and b; D → c and d

5. Coefficient of linear expansion of brass and steel rods are α₁ and α₂. Lengths of brass and steel rods are l₁ and l₂ respectively. If (l₂ – l₁) is maintained same at all temperatures, which one of the following relations holds good?
(1) α₁² l₂ = α₂² l₁
(2) α₁ l₁ = α₂ l₂
(3) α₁ l₂ = α₂ l₁
(4) α₁ l₂² = α₂ l₁²

6. At what height from the surface of earth the gravitation potential and the value of g are –5.4 × 10⁷ J kg⁻¹ and 6.0 ms⁻² respectively? Take the radius of earth as 6400 km
(1) 1400 km
(2) 2000 km
(3) 2600 km
(4) 1600 km

7. A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melts completely. Only one-quarter of the heat produced is absorbed by the ice and all energy of ice gets converted into heat during its fall. The value of h is: [Latent heat of ice is 3.4 × 10⁵ J/kg and g = 10 N/kg]
(1) 136 km
(2) 68 km
(3) 34 km
(4) 544 km

8. In a diffraction pattern due to a single slit of width ‘a’, the first minimum is observed at an angle 30° when light of wavelength 5000 Å is incident on the slit. The first secondary maximum is observed at an angle of:
(1) sin⁻¹ (1/2)
(2) sin⁻¹ (3/4)
(3) sin⁻¹ (1/4)
(4) sin⁻¹ (2/3)

9. A potentiometer wire is 100 cm long and a constant potential difference is maintained across it. Two cells are connected in series first to support one another and then in opposite direction. The balance points are obtained at 50 cm and 10 cm from the positive end of the wire in the two cases. The ratio of emf’s is:
(1) 3 : 4
(2) 3 : 2
(3) 5 : 1
(4) 5 : 4

10. A particle of mass 10 g moves along a circle of radius 6.4 cm with a constant tangential acceleration. What is the magnitude of this acceleration if the kinetic energy of the particle becomes equal to 8 × 10⁻⁴ J by the end of the second revolution after the beginning of the motion?
(1) 0.18 m/s²
(2) 0.2 m/s²
(3) 0.1 m/s²
(4) 0.15 m/s²

11. An air column, closed at one end and open at the other, resonates with a tuning fork when the smallest length of the column is 50 cm. The next larger length of the column resonating with the same tuning fork is:
(1) 150 cm
(2) 200 cm
(3) 66.7 cm
(4) 100 cm

12. To get output 1 for the following circuit, the correct choice for the input is:
(1) A=1, B=1, C=0
(2) A=1, B=0, C=1
(3) A=0, B=1, C=0
(4) A=1, B=0, C=0

13. A gas is compressed isothermally to half its initial volume. The same gas is compressed separately through an adiabatic process until its volume is again reduced to half. Then:
(1) Compressing the gas isothermally or adiabatically will require the same amount of work.
(2) Which of the case (whether compression through isothermal or through adiabatic process) requires more work will depend upon the atomicity of the gas.
(3) Compressing the gas isothermally will require more work to be done.
(4) Compressing the gas through adiabatic process will require more work to be done.

14. The intensity at the maximum in a Young’s double slit experiment is I₀. Distance between two slits is d = 5λ, where λ is the wavelength of light used in the experiment. What will be the intensity in front of one of the slits on the screen placed at a distance D = 10d?
(1) (3/4) I₀
(2) I₀ / 2
(3) I₀
(4) I₀ / 4

15. A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle θ. The coefficient of friction between the tyres of the car and the road is μₛ. The maximum safe velocity on this road is
(1) √[ (g/R) (μₛ + tanθ)/(1 – μₛ tanθ) ]
(2) √[ (g/R²) (μₛ + tanθ)/(1 – μₛ tanθ) ]
(3) √[ (g/R²) (μₛ + tanθ)/(1 – μₛ tanθ) ]
(4) √[ (g/R) (μₛ + tanθ)/(1 – μₛ tanθ) ]

16. An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths associated with them is
(1) c (2mE)^(1/2)
(2) (1/c) (E / 2m)^(1/2)
(3) (1/c) (E / 2m)^(1/2)
(4) (E / 2m)^(1/2)
(c being velocity of light)

17. A black body is at a temperature of 5760 K. The energy of radiation emitted by the body at wavelength 250 nm is U₁, at wavelength 500 nm is U₂ and that at 1000 nm is U₃. Wien’s constant, b = 2.88 × 10⁶ nm K. Which of the following is correct?
(1) U₁ > U₂
(2) U₂ > U₁
(3) U₁ = 0
(4) U₃ = 0

18. Given the value of Rydberg constant is 10⁷ m⁻¹, the wave number of the last line of the Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum will be:
(1) 0.25 × 10⁷ m⁻¹
(2) 2.5 × 10⁷ m⁻¹
(3) 0.025 × 10⁴ m⁻¹
(4) 0.5 × 10⁷ m⁻¹

19. A npn transistor is connected in common emitter configuration in a given amplifier. A load resistance of 800 Ω is connected in the collector circuit and the voltage drop across it is 0.8 V. If the current amplification factor is 0.96 and the input resistance of the circuit is 192 Ω, the voltage gain and the power gain of the amplifier will respectively be:
(1) 4, 4
(2) 4, 3.69
(3) 4, 3.84
(4) 3.69, 3.84

20. Two non-mixing liquids of densities ρ and nρ (n > 1) are put in a container. The height of each liquid is h. A solid cylinder of length L and density d is put in this container. The cylinder floats with its axis vertical and length pL (p < 1) in the denser liquid. The density d is equal to:
(1) [2 + (n – 1)p] ρ
(2) [1 + (n – 1)p] ρ
(3) [1 + (n + 1)p] ρ
(4) [2 + (n + 1)p] ρ

21. If the velocity of a particle is v = At + Bt², where A and B are constants, then the distance travelled by it between 1 s and 2 s is:
(1) (3/2)A + (7/3)B
(2) (A/2) + (B/3)
(3) (3/2)A + 4B
(4) 3A + 7B

22. A astronomical telescope has objective and eyepiece of focal lengths 40 cm and 4 cm respectively. To view an object 200 cm away from the objective, the lenses must be separated by a distance
(1) 50.0 cm
(2) 54.0 cm
(3) 37.3 cm
(4) 46.0 cm

23. The ratio of escape velocity at earth (vₑ) to the escape velocity at a planet (vₚ) whose radius and mean density are twice as that of earth is:
(1) 1 : 4
(2) 1 : √2
(3) 1 : 2
(4) 1 : 2√2

24. A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. The current is uniformly distributed over its cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic fields B and B′ at radial distances a/2 and 2a respectively, from the axis of the wire is
(1) 1
(2) 4
(3) 1/4
(4) 1/2

25. A capacitor of 2 μF is charged as shown in the diagram. When the switch S is turned to position 2, the percentage of its stored energy dissipated is
(1) 75%
(2) 80%
(3) 0%
(4) 20%

26. When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is V/4. The threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is
(1) (5/2)λ
(2) 3λ
(3) 4λ
(4) 5λ

27. If the magnitude of sum of two vectors is equal to the magnitude of difference of the two vectors, the angle between these vectors is
(1) 45°
(2) 180°
(3) 0°
(4) 90°

28. A body of mass 1 kg begins to move under the action of a time dependent force F⃗ = (2t î + 3t² ĵ) N, where î and ĵ are unit vectors along x and y axis. What power will be developed by the force at the time t?
(1) (2t³ + 3t⁴) W
(2) (2t³ + 3t⁵) W
(3) (2t² + 3t³) W
(4) (2t² + 4t⁴) W

NEET Previous Year Solved Question Paper 

29. The angle of incidence for a ray of light at a refracting surface of a prism is 45°. The angle of prism is 60°. If the ray suffers minimum deviation through the prism, the angle of minimum deviation and refractive index of the material of the prism respectively, are
(1) 45°; √2
(2) 30°; √2
(3) 45°; 1/√2
(4) 30°; 1/√2

30. A particle moves so that its position vector is given by
r⃗ = cos ωt î + sin ωt ĵ
where ω is a constant. Which of the following is true?
(1) Velocity is perpendicular to r⃗ and acceleration is directed towards the origin.
(2) Velocity is perpendicular to r⃗ and acceleration is directed away from the origin.
(3) Velocity and acceleration both are perpendicular to r⃗.
(4) Velocity and acceleration both are parallel to r⃗.

31. Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is
(1) 10⁻¹ A
(2) 10⁻³ A
(3) 0 A
(4) 10⁻² A

32. Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two massless strings of lengths l, are initially at a distance d (d ≪ l) apart because of their mutual repulsion. The charges begin to leak from both the spheres at a constant rate. As a result, the spheres approach each other with a velocity v. Then v varies as a function of the distance x between the spheres, as
(1) v ∝ x¹/²
(2) v ∝ x
(3) v ∝ x⁻¹/²
(4) v ∝ x⁻¹

33. A small signal voltage V(t) = V₀ sin ωt is applied across an ideal capacitor C
(1) Current I(t) is in phase with voltage V(t).
(2) Current I(t) leads voltage V(t) by 180°.
(3) Current I(t) lags voltage V(t) by 90°.
(4) Over a full cycle the capacitor C does not consume any energy from the voltage source.

34. The magnetic susceptibility is negative for
(1) ferromagnetic material only
(2) paramagnetic and ferromagnetic materials
(3) diamagnetic material only
(4) paramagnetic material only

35. A square loop ABCD carrying a current i, is placed near and coplanar with a long straight conductor XY carrying a current I, the net force on the loop will be
(1) 2μ₀IiL / π
(2) μ₀IiL / 2π
(3) 2μ₀Ii / 3π
(4) μ₀Ii / 2π

36. A uniform rope of length L and mass m₁ hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass m₂ is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength λ₁ is produced at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the top of the rope is λ₂. The ratio λ₂/λ₁ is
(1) √(m₁/m₂)
(2) √[(m₁+m₂)/m₁]
(3) √(m₂/m₁)
(4) √[m₁/(m₁+m₂)]

37. When an α-particle of mass m moving with velocity v bombards on a heavy nucleus of charge Ze, its distance of closest approach from the nucleus depends on m as
(1) 1/m
(2) 1/√m
(3) 1/m²
(4) m

38. A disk and a sphere of same radius but different masses roll off on two inclined planes of the same altitude and length. Which one of the two objects gets to the bottom of the plane first?
(1) Both reach at the same time
(2) Depends on their masses
(3) Disk
(4) Sphere

39. From a disc of radius R and mass M, a circular hole of diameter R, whose rim passes through the centre is cut. What is the moment of inertia of the remaining part of the disc about a perpendicular axis, passing through the centre?
(1) 11MR²/32
(2) 9MR²/32
(3) 15MR²/32
(4) 13MR²/32

40. A long solenoid has 1000 turns. When a current of 4 A flows through it, the magnetic flux linked with each turn of the solenoid is 4×10⁻³ Wb. The self-inductance of the solenoid is
(1) 4 H
(2) 3 H
(3) 2 H
(4) 1 H

41. The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s. velocity of 200 ms⁻¹ at 27°C and 1.0×10⁵ Nm⁻² pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas are respectively 127°C and 0.5×10⁵ Nm⁻², the r.m.s. velocity of its molecules will be
(1) 100√2 ms⁻¹
(2) 100/√2 ms⁻¹
(3) 100√2 ms⁻¹
(4) 100√2 ms⁻¹

42. The charge flowing through a resistance R varies with time t as Q = at – bt², where a and b are positive constants. The total heat produced in R is
(1) a³R / 3b
(2) a³R / 2b
(3) a³R / 6b
(4) a³R / b

43. A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the field. He tells his teacher that this cell is not like other cells at telophase stage. There is no formation of cell plate and thus the cell is containing more number of chromosomes as compared to other dividing cells. This would result in
(1) Somaclonal variation
(2) Polyteny
(3) Aneuploidy
(4) Polyploidy

44. The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by
(1) Covalent bond
(2) Disulphide bridges
(3) Ionic bond
(4) Hydrogen bond

45. Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks?
(1) Green algae
(2) Lichens
(3) Liverworts
(4) Mosses

46. Water vapour comes out from the plant leaf through the stomatal opening. Through the same stomatal opening carbon dioxide diffuses into the plant during photosynthesis. Reason out the above statements using one of following options
(1) The above processes happen only during night time.
(2) One process occurs during day time, and the other at night.
(3) Both processes cannot happen simultaneously.
(4) Both processes can happen together because the diffusion coefficient of water and CO₂ is different.

47. Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as
(1) Tetanus
(2) Tonus
(3) Spasm
(4) Fatigue

48. Depletion of which gas in the atmosphere can lead to an increased incidence of skin cancers
(1) Ammonia
(2) Methane
(3) Nitrous oxide
(4) Ozone

49. Which of the following is the most important cause of animals and plants being driven to extinction?
(1) Habitat loss and fragmentation
(2) Alien species invasion
(3) Co-extinctions
(4) Over-exploitation

50. A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student in a plant brought from the field. He tells his teacher that this cell is not like other cells at telophase stage. There is no formation of cell plate and thus the cell is containing more number of chromosomes as compared to other dividing cells. This would result in
(1) Somaclonal variation
(2) Polyteny
(3) Aneuploidy
(4) Polyploidy

51. The two polypeptides of human insulin are linked together by
(1) Covalent bond
(2) Disulphide bridges
(3) Ionic bond
(4) Hydrogen bond

52. Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids?
(1) Circular structure
(2) Transferable
(3) Single-stranded
(4) Independent replication

53. The term ‘polyadelphous’ is related to
(1) Androecium
(2) Corolla
(3) Calyx
(4) Gynoecium

54. Free-central placentation is found in
(1) Dianthus
(2) Argemone
(3) Brassica
(4) Citrus

55. The primary producers of the deep-sea hydrothermal vent ecosystem are
(1) Green algae
(2) Chemosynthetic bacteria
(3) Blue-green algae
(4) Coral reefs

56. Which of the following is correct for r-selected species?
(1) Large number of progeny with large size
(2) Small number of progeny with small size
(3) Small number of progeny with large size
(4) Large number of progeny with small size

57. If ‘+’ sign is assigned to beneficial interaction, ‘–’ sign to detrimental and ‘0’ sign to neutral interaction, then the population interaction represented by ‘+’ ‘–’ refers to
(1) Mutualism
(2) Amensalism
(3) Parasitism
(4) Commensalism

58. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(1) Age pyramid – Biome
(2) Parthenium hysterophorus – Threat to biodiversity
(3) Stratification – Population
(4) Aerenchyma – Opuntia

59. Red List contains data or information on
(1) Plants whose products are in international trade
(2) Threatened species
(3) Marine vertebrates only
(4) All economically important plants

60. Which one of the following is wrong for fungi?
(1) All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall
(2) They are heterotrophic
(3) They are both unicellular and multicellular
(4) They are eukaryotic

61. Methanogens belong to
(1) Archaebacteria
(2) Dinoflagellates
(3) Slime moulds
(4) Eubacteria

62. Select the wrong statement.
(1) Diatomaceous earth is formed by the cell walls of diatoms
(2) Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans
(3) Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water
(4) The walls of diatoms are easily destructible

63. The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry information on
(1) Name of collector
(2) Local names
(3) Height of the plant
(4) Date of collection

64. Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme environmental conditions because of
(1) Superficial stomata
(2) Thick cuticle
(3) Presence of vessels
(4) Broad hardy leaves

65. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
(1) Algin is obtained from red algae, and carrageenan from brown algae
(2) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria
(3) Laminaria and Sargassum are used as food
(4) Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in the immediate environment

66. The term ‘polyadelphous’ is related to
(1) Androecium
(2) Corolla
(3) Calyx
(4) Gynoecium

67. How many plants among Indigofera, Sesbania, Salvia, Allium, Aloe, mustard, groundnut, radish, gram and turnip have stamens with different lengths in their flowers?
(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Three

68. Radial symmetry is found in the flowers of
(1) Trifolium
(2) Pisum
(3) Cassia
(4) Brassica

69. Free-central placentation is found in
(1) Argemone
(2) Brassica
(3) Citrus
(4) Dianthus

70. Cortex is the region found between
(1) Pericycle and endodermis
(2) Endodermis and pith
(3) Endodermis and vascular bundle
(4) Epidermis and stele

71. The balloon-shaped structures called tyloses
(1) Characterize the sapwood
(2) Are extensions of xylem parenchyma cells into vessels
(3) Are linked to the ascent of sap through xylem vessels
(4) Originate in the lumen of vessels

72. Match the stages of meiosis in Column-I to their characteristic features in Column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below

Column-I    Column-II
a. Pachytene   (i) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
b. Metaphase I  (ii) Terminalization of chiasmata
c. Diakinesis   (iii) Crossing-over takes place
d. Zygotene   (iv) Chromosomes align at equatorial plate

(1) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(iii)
(2) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i)
(3) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
(4) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)

73. Which hormones do stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonate?
(1) Gastrin and insulin
(2) Cholecystokinin and secretin
(3) Insulin and glucagon
(4) Angiotensin and epinephrine

74. The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs is
(1) More than that in the blood
(2) Less than that in the blood
(3) Less than that of carbon dioxide
(4) Equal to that in the blood

75. Choose the correct statement.
(1) Meissner’s corpuscles are thermoreceptors
(2) Photoreceptors in the human eye are depolarized during darkness and become hyperpolarized in response to the light stimulus
(3) Receptors do not produce graded potentials
(4) Nociceptors respond to changes in pressure

76. Graves’ disease is caused due to
(1) Hypersecretion of thyroid gland
(2) Hyposecretion of adrenal gland
(3) Hypersecretion of adrenal gland
(4) Hyposecretion of thyroid gland

77. Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin for cross-bridge activity during muscle contraction.
(1) Magnesium
(2) Sodium
(3) Potassium
(4) Calcium

78. Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of blood from the body.
(1) Leucocytes
(2) Neutrophils
(3) Thrombocytes
(4) Erythrocytes

79. Name a peptide hormone which acts mainly on hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilization.
(1) Glucagon
(2) Secretin
(3) Gastrin
(4) Insulin

80. Osteoporosis, an age-related disease of skeletal system, may occur due to
(1) High concentration of Ca²⁺ and Na⁺
(2) Decreased level of estrogen
(3) Accumulation of uric acid leading to inflammation of joints
(4) Immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue

81. Serum differs from blood in
(1) Lacking albumins
(2) Lacking clotting factors
(3) Lacking antibodies
(4) Lacking globulins

82. Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always remains in the lungs which can never be expelled because
(1) There is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls
(2) There is a positive intrapleural pressure
(3) Pressure in the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure
(4) There is a negative pressure in the lungs

83. The posterior pituitary gland is not a ‘true’ endocrine gland because
(1) It only stores and releases hormones
(2) It is under the regulation of hypothalamus
(3) It secretes enzymes
(4) It is provided with a duct

84. The part of nephron involved in active reabsorption of sodium is
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule
(2) Bowman’s capsule
(3) Descending limb of Henle’s loop
(4) Distal convoluted tubule

85. Which of the following is hormone-releasing IUD?
(1) Multiload 375
(2) Lippes loop
(3) Cu7
(4) LNG-20

86. Which of the following is incorrect regarding vasectomy?
(1) No sperm occurs in epididymis
(2) Vasa deferentia is cut and tied
(3) Irreversible sterility
(4) No sperm occurs in seminal fluid

87. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilization is transferred into
(1) Fallopian tube
(2) Fimbriae
(3) Cervix
(4) Uterus

88. Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of transport of sperms?
(1) Rete testis → Epididymis → Efferent ductules → Vas deferens
(2) Rete testis → Vas deferens → Efferent ductules → Epididymis
(3) Efferent ductules → Rete testis → Vas deferens → Epididymis
(4) Rete testis → Efferent ductules → Epididymis → Vas deferens

89. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option using the codes given below

Column-I    Column-II
a. Mons pubis  (i) Embryo formation
b. Antrum    (ii) Sperm
c. Trophectoderm (iii) Female external genitalia
d. Nebenkern   (iv) Graafian follicle

(1) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
(2) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)
(3) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(ii)
(4) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i)

90. Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen, progesterone are produced by
(1) Placenta
(2) Fallopian tube
(3) Pituitary
(4) Ovary

NEET Previous Year Solved Question Paper 

91. Emerson’s enhancement effect and Red drop have been instrumental in the discovery of
(1) Photophosphorylation and cyclic electron transport
(2) Oxidative phosphorylation
(3) Photophosphorylation and non-cyclic electron transport
(4) Two photosystems operating simultaneously

92. In which of the following, all three are macronutrients?
(1) Molybdenum, magnesium, manganese
(2) Nitrogen, nickel, phosphorus
(3) Boron, zinc, manganese
(4) Iron, copper, molybdenum

93. Changes in GnRH pulse frequency in females is controlled by circulating levels of
(1) progesterone only
(2) progesterone and inhibin
(3) estrogen and progesterone
(4) estrogen and inhibin

94. The coconut water from tender coconut represents
(1) Free nuclear proembryo
(2) Free nuclear endosperm
(3) Endocarp
(4) Fleshy mesocarp

95. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(1) Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are regulated by chemical components of pollen interacting with those of the pistil
(2) Some reptiles have also been reported as pollinators in some plant species
(3) Pollen grains of many species can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube of the same species grows into the style
(4) Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called pollen/nectar robbers

96. Asthma may be attributed to
(1) inflammation of the trachea
(2) accumulation of fluid in the lungs
(3) bacterial infection of the lungs
(4) allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs

97. In context of Amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) It can be used for detection of Down syndrome
(2) It can be used for detection of Cleft palate
(3) It is usually done when a woman is between 14-16 weeks pregnant
(4) It is used for prenatal sex determination

98. Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called
(1) Subsidiary cells
(2) Complementary cells
(3) Bulliform cells
(4) Lenticels

99. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of Fabaceae?
(1) Diadelphous stamens
(2) Superior ovary
(3) Zygomorphic flower
(4) Actinomorphic flower

100. The primary endosperm nucleus (PEN) in angiosperms is
(1) Diploid
(2) Haploid
(3) Triploid
(4) Tetraploid

101. Which of the following is a correct match?
(1) Opuntia – Stem modification
(2) Nepenthes – Leaf modification
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Neither (1) nor (2)

102. A typical fat molecule is made up of
(1) One glycerol and one fatty acid molecule
(2) Three glycerol and three fatty acid molecules
(3) Three glycerol molecules and one fatty acid molecule
(4) One glycerol and three fatty acid molecules

103. A system of rotating crops with legume or grass pasture to improve soil structure and fertility is
(1) Strip farming
(2) Shifting agriculture
(3) Ley farming
(4) Contour farming

104. Which of the following is not a stem modification?
(1) Tendrils of cucumber
(2) Flattened structures of Opuntia
(3) Pitcher of Nepenthes
(4) Thorns of citrus

105. Which of the following features is not present in Periplaneta americana?
(1) Exoskeleton of chitin
(2) Metamerically segmented body
(3) Open blood vascular system
(4) Closed blood vascular system

106. Water soluble pigments found in plant cell vacuoles are
(1) Carotenoids
(2) Anthocyanins
(3) Xanthophylls
(4) Chlorophylls

107. Which one of the following is a characteristic feature of cropland ecosystem?
(1) Absence of weeds
(2) Ecological succession
(3) Absence of soil organisms
(4) Least genetic diversity

108. Which of the following characteristic features always holds true for the corresponding group of animals?
(1) Cartilaginous endoskeleton – Chondrichthyes
(2) 3-chambered heart with one incompletely divided ventricle – Reptilia
(3) Viviparous – Mammalia
(4) All of the above

109. The primitive prokaryotes responsible for the production of biogas from the dung of ruminant animals are
(1) Methanogens
(2) Eubacteria
(3) Halophiles
(4) Thermoacidophiles

110. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(1) Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are regulated by chemical components of pollen interacting with those of the pistil
(2) Some reptiles have also been reported as pollinators in some plant species
(3) Pollen grains of many species can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube of the same species grows into the style
(4) Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called pollen/nectar robbers

111. Asthma may be attributed to
(1) inflammation of the trachea
(2) accumulation of fluid in the lungs
(3) bacterial infection of the lungs
(4) allergic reaction of the mast cells in the lungs

112. In context of Amniocentesis, which of the following statement is incorrect?
(1) It can be used for detection of Down syndrome
(2) It can be used for detection of Cleft palate
(3) It is usually done when a woman is between 14-16 weeks pregnant
(4) It is used for prenatal sex determination

113. Specialised epidermal cells surrounding the guard cells are called
(1) Subsidiary cells
(2) Complementary cells
(3) Bulliform cells
(4) Lenticels

114. Which of the following is not a feature of the plasmids?
(1) Circular structure
(2) Transferable
(3) Single-stranded
(4) Independent replication

115. The term ‘polyadelphous’ is related to
(1) Androecium
(2) Corolla
(3) Calyx
(4) Gynoecium

116. Free-central placentation is found in
(1) Dianthus
(2) Argemone
(3) Brassica
(4) Citrus

117. The primary producers of the deep-sea hydrothermal vent ecosystem are
(1) Green algae
(2) Chemosynthetic bacteria
(3) Blue-green algae
(4) Coral reefs

118. Which of the following is correct for r-selected species?
(1) Large number of progeny with large size
(2) Small number of progeny with small size
(3) Small number of progeny with large size
(4) Large number of progeny with small size

119. If ‘+’ sign is assigned to beneficial interaction, ‘–’ sign to detrimental and ‘0’ sign to neutral interaction, then the population interaction represented by ‘+’ ‘–’ refers to
(1) Mutualism
(2) Amensalism
(3) Parasitism
(4) Commensalism

120. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(1) Age pyramid – Biome
(2) Parthenium hysterophorus – Threat to biodiversity
(3) Stratification – Population
(4) Aerenchyma – Opuntia

121. Red List contains data or information on
(1) Plants whose products are in international trade
(2) Threatened species
(3) Marine vertebrates only
(4) All economically important plants

122. Which one of the following is wrong for fungi?
(1) All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall
(2) They are heterotrophic
(3) They are both unicellular and multicellular
(4) They are eukaryotic

123. Methanogens belong to
(1) Archaebacteria
(2) Dinoflagellates
(3) Slime moulds
(4) Eubacteria

124. Select the wrong statement.
(1) Diatomaceous earth is formed by the cell walls of diatoms
(2) Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans
(3) Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water
(4) The walls of diatoms are easily destructible

125. The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry information on
(1) Name of collector
(2) Local names
(3) Height of the plant
(4) Date of collection

126. Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme environmental conditions because of
(1) Superficial stomata
(2) Thick cuticle
(3) Presence of vessels
(4) Broad hardy leaves

127. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
(1) Algin is obtained from red algae, and carrageenan from brown algae
(2) Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria
(3) Laminaria and Sargassum are used as food
(4) Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in the immediate environment

128. The term ‘polyadelphous’ is related to
(1) Androecium
(2) Corolla
(3) Calyx
(4) Gynoecium

129. How many plants among Indigofera, Sesbania, Salvia, Allium, Aloe, mustard, groundnut, radish, gram and turnip have stamens with different lengths in their flowers?
(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Three

130. Radial symmetry is found in the flowers of
(1) Trifolium
(2) Pisum
(3) Cassia
(4) Brassica

131. Free-central placentation is found in
(1) Argemone
(2) Brassica
(3) Citrus
(4) Dianthus

132. Cortex is the region found between
(1) Pericycle and endodermis
(2) Endodermis and pith
(3) Endodermis and vascular bundle
(4) Epidermis and stele

133. The balloon-shaped structures called tyloses
(1) Characterize the sapwood
(2) Are extensions of xylem parenchyma cells into vessels
(3) Are linked to the ascent of sap through xylem vessels
(4) Originate in the lumen of vessels

134. Match the stages of meiosis in Column-I to their characteristic features in Column-II and select the correct option

Column-I    Column-II
a. Pachytene   (i) Pairing of homologous chromosomes
b. Metaphase I  (ii) Terminalization of chiasmata
c. Diakinesis   (iii) Crossing-over takes place
d. Zygotene   (iv) Chromosomes align at equatorial plate

(1) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(iii)
(2) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i)
(3) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
(4) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)

135. Which hormones do stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonate?
(1) Gastrin and insulin
(2) Cholecystokinin and secretin
(3) Insulin and glucagon
(4) Angiotensin and epinephrine

136. The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs is
(1) More than that in the blood
(2) Less than that in the blood
(3) Less than that of carbon dioxide
(4) Equal to that in the blood

137. Choose the correct statement.
(1) Meissner’s corpuscles are thermoreceptors
(2) Photoreceptors in the human eye are depolarized during darkness and become hyperpolarized in response to the light stimulus
(3) Receptors do not produce graded potentials
(4) Nociceptors respond to changes in pressure

138. Graves’ disease is caused due to
(1) Hypersecretion of thyroid gland
(2) Hyposecretion of adrenal gland
(3) Hypersecretion of adrenal gland
(4) Hyposecretion of thyroid gland

139. Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin for cross-bridge activity during muscle contraction.
(1) Magnesium
(2) Sodium
(3) Potassium
(4) Calcium

140. Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number can cause clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of blood from the body.
(1) Leucocytes
(2) Neutrophils
(3) Thrombocytes
(4) Erythrocytes

141. Name a peptide hormone which acts mainly on hepatocytes, adipocytes and enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilization.
(1) Glucagon
(2) Secretin
(3) Gastrin
(4) Insulin

142. Osteoporosis, an age-related disease of skeletal system, may occur due to
(1) High concentration of Ca²⁺ and Na⁺
(2) Decreased level of estrogen
(3) Accumulation of uric acid leading to inflammation of joints
(4) Immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue

143. Serum differs from blood in
(1) Lacking albumins
(2) Lacking clotting factors
(3) Lacking antibodies
(4) Lacking globulins

144. Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always remains in the lungs which can never be expelled because
(1) There is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the lung walls
(2) There is a positive intrapleural pressure
(3) Pressure in the lungs is higher than the atmospheric pressure
(4) There is a negative pressure in the lungs

145. The posterior pituitary gland is not a ‘true’ endocrine gland because
(1) It only stores and releases hormones
(2) It is under the regulation of hypothalamus
(3) It secretes enzymes
(4) It is provided with a duct

146. The part of nephron involved in active reabsorption of sodium is
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule
(2) Bowman’s capsule
(3) Descending limb of Henle’s loop
(4) Distal convoluted tubule

147. Which of the following is hormone-releasing IUD?
(1) Multiload 375
(2) Lippes loop
(3) Cu7
(4) LNG-20

148. Which of the following is incorrect regarding vasectomy?
(1) No sperm occurs in epididymis
(2) Vasa deferentia is cut and tied
(3) Irreversible sterility
(4) No sperm occurs in seminal fluid

149. Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilization is transferred into
(1) Fallopian tube
(2) Fimbriae
(3) Cervix
(4) Uterus

150. Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of transport of sperms?
(1) Rete testis → Epididymis → Efferent ductules → Vas deferens
(2) Rete testis → Vas deferens → Efferent ductules → Epididymis
(3) Efferent ductules → Rete testis → Vas deferens → Epididymis
(4) Rete testis → Efferent ductules → Epididymis → Vas deferens

151. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option

Column-I    Column-II
a. Mons pubis  (i) Embryo formation
b. Antrum    (ii) Sperm
c. Trophectoderm (iii) Female external genitalia
d. Nebenkern   (iv) Graafian follicle

(1) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
(2) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)
(3) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(ii)
(4) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i)

152. Several hormones like hCG, hPL, estrogen, progesterone are produced by
(1) Placenta
(2) Fallopian tube
(3) Pituitary
(4) Ovary

153. A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfil the traits given below, except
(1) it should be able to generate its replica
(2) it should be unstable structurally and chemically
(3) it should provide the scope for slow changes that are required for evolution
(4) it should be able to express itself in the form of ‘Mendelian characters’

154. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyzes transcription on one strand of the DNA which is called the
(1) coding strand
(2) alpha strand
(3) antistrand
(4) template strand

155. Interspecific hybridization is the mating of
(1) two different related species
(2) superior males and females of different breeds
(3) more closely related individuals within same breed for 4–6 generations
(4) animals within same breed without having common ancestors

156. Which of the following is correct regarding AIDS causative agent HIV?
(1) HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of reverse transcriptase
(2) HIV is unenveloped retrovirus
(3) HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune response
(4) HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of single-stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse transcriptase

157. Among the following edible fishes, which one is a marine fish having rich source of omega-3 fatty acids?
(1) Mangur
(2) Mrigala
(3) Mackerel
(4) Mystus

158. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option

Column-I    Column-II
a. Citric acid   (i) Trichoderma
b. Cyclosporin A (ii) Clostridium
c. Statins    (iii) Aspergillus
d. Butyric acid  (iv) Monascus

(1) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)
(2) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(iii)
(3) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii)
(4) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iv)

159. Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may not be a good index for pollution for water bodies receiving effluents from
(1) dairy industry
(2) petroleum industry
(3) sugar industry
(4) domestic sewage

160. The principle of competitive exclusion was stated by
(1) G. F. Gause
(2) MacArthur
(3) Verhulst and Pearl
(4) C. Darwin

161. Which of the following National Parks is home to the famous musk deer or hangul?
(1) Bandhavgarh National Park, Madhya Pradesh
(2) Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary, Arunachal Pradesh
(3) Dachigam National Park, Jammu & Kashmir
(4) Keibul Lamjao National Park, Manipur

162. A lake which is rich in organic waste may result in
(1) drying of the lake due to algal bloom
(2) increased population of fish due to lots of nutrients
(3) mortality of fish due to lack of oxygen
(4) increased population of aquatic organisms due to minerals

163. The highest DDT concentration in aquatic food chain shall occur in
(1) seagull
(2) crab
(3) eel
(4) phytoplankton

164. Which of the following sets of diseases is caused by bacteria?
(1) Typhoid and smallpox
(2) Tetanus and mumps
(3) Herpes and influenza
(4) Cholera and tetanus

165. Match Column-I with Column-II for housefly classification and select the correct option

Column-I  Column-II
a. Family   (i) Diptera
b. Order   (ii) Arthropoda
c. Class   (iii) Muscidae
d. Phylum  (iv) Insecta

(1) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)
(2) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(i)
(3) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iii)
(4) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)

166. Choose the correct statement.
(1) All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired fins
(2) All reptiles have a three-chambered heart
(3) All Pisces have gills covered by an operculum
(4) All mammals are viviparous

167. Study the four statements (A–D) given below and select the two correct ones out of them
A. Definition of biological species was given by Ernst Mayr
B. Photoperiod does not affect reproduction in plants
C. Binomial nomenclature system was given by R. H. Whittaker
D. In unicellular organisms, reproduction is synonymous with growth

The two correct statements are
(1) C and D
(2) A and D
(3) A and B
(4) B and C

168. In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which part of the reproductive system?
(1) Mushroom glands
(2) Testes
(3) Vas deferens
(4) Seminal vesicles

169. Smooth muscles are
(1) voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical
(2) involuntary, cylindrical, striated
(3) voluntary, spindle-shaped, uninucleate
(4) involuntary, fusiform, non-striated

170. Oxidative phosphorylation is
(1) oxidation of phosphate group in ATP
(2) addition of phosphate group to ATP
(3) formation of ATP by energy released from electrons removed during substrate oxidation
(4) formation of ATP by transfer of phosphate group from a substrate to ADP

171. Which of the following is the least likely to be involved in stabilizing the three-dimensional folding of most proteins?
(1) Electrostatic interaction
(2) Hydrophobic interaction
(3) Ester bonds
(4) Hydrogen bonds

172. Which of the following describes the given graph correctly?
(1) Exothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme
(2) Endothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
(3) Exothermic reaction with energy A in absence of enzyme and B in presence of enzyme
(4) Endothermic reaction with energy A in presence of enzyme and B in absence of enzyme

173. When cell has stalled DNA replication fork which checkpoint should be predominantly activated?
(1) G₂/M
(2) M
(3) Both G₂/M and M
(4) G₁/S

174. A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant plasmid using
(1) Taq polymerase
(2) polymerase III
(3) ligase
(4) Eco RI

175. Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing?
(1) Purification
(2) Preservation
(3) Expression
(4) Separation

176. Which of the following restriction enzymes produces blunt ends?
(1) Eco RV
(2) Xho
(3) Hind III
(4) Sal I

177. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four-year-old girl with adenosine deaminase (ADA) deficiency?
(1) Chemotherapy
(2) Immunotherapy
(3) Radiation therapy
(4) Gene therapy

178. How many hot spots of biodiversity in the world have been identified till date by Norman Myers?
(1) 25
(2) 34
(3) 43
(4) 17

179. The primary producers of the deep-sea hydrothermal vent ecosystem are
(1) chemosynthetic bacteria
(2) blue-green algae
(3) coral reefs
(4) green algae

180. Which of the following is correct for r-selected species?
(1) Large number of progeny with large size
(2) Small number of progeny with small size
(3) Small number of progeny with large size
(4) Large number of progeny with small size

 

 

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