Railway-RRB ALP 2018 CBT 2 Electrician Previous Question Paper and Answer Key Free PDF Download Jan 22, 2019
Question Paper Name: Electrician 22nd Jan 2019 Shift1
Subject Name: Electrician
Duration: 150
Total Marks: 175
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1. Options shown in BOLD are correct.
Section : Part A
Q.1 Who was the captain of the India Men's National Field Hockey Team during the 2018 Men's Hockey World Cup held in Bhubaneshwar?
Ans
1. Manpreet Singh
2. Manoj Kumar
3. Devendro Singh
4. Shiva Thapa
Q.2 Which country is the largest producer of the cocoa crop, the main ingredient used to make chocolate?
Ans
1. Ivory Coast
2. Ghana
3. Brazil
4. Switzerland
Q.3 Chile is a part of which continent?
Ans
1. North America
2. Europe
3. South America
4. Asia
Q.4 Who built the Char Minar?
Ans
1. Qutb-ud-din Aibak
2. Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah
3. Akbar
4. Jahangir
Q.5 In which year was the Eiffel Tower built, to celebrate the 100-year anniversary of the French Revolution?
Ans
1. 1889
2. 1900
3. 1886
4. 1913
Q.6 Nadia Murad and Denis Mukwege won the Nobel Prize in 2018 for which discipline?
Ans
1. Economic Sciences
2. Chemistry
3. Physics
4. Peace
Q.7 Which of the following is NOT a power of the President of India?
Ans
1. Appointment of Governors of states
2. Declaring a national emergency
3. Appointment of the Chief Justice
4. Appointment of the Chief Minister of Union Territories
Q.8 Where was the BRICS Summit held in 2018?
Ans
1. Brazil
2. South Africa
3. India
4. China
Q.9 Who is the Admiral of the Indian Navy as of December 2018?
Ans
1. Arup Raha
2. Robin K Dhawan
3. Sunil Lanba
4. Birender Singh Dhanoa
Q.10 Which of the following is NOT a traditional dance of Rajasthan?
Ans
1. Ghoomar
2. Kathputli
3. Dumhal
4. Gair
Q.11 The Fahrenheit and Celsius scales converge at
Ans
1. -20°
2. -30°
3. -40°
4. -50°
Q.12 One mile is approximately equivalent to ______ kilometers.
Ans
1. 0.8
2. 1.2
3. 1.4
4. 1.6
Q.13 An object of mass 1kg is moving with a velocity 10m/s. Find the kinetic energy of the object.
Ans
1. 50 J
2. 100 J
3. 10 J
4. 5 J
Q.14 ______ is defined as the time rate at which work is done or energy is transferred.
Ans
1. Power
2. force
3. distance
4. displacement
Q.15 The potential energy of a 20-kg object at height h is 600J. The value of h is ______. (Take g = 10m/s².)
Ans
1. 1m
2. 2m
3. 3m
4. 30m
Q.16 Let We and Wm be the weight of an object on the Earth and the Moon, respectively. Then, the ratio We / Wm is equal to ______.
Ans
1. 1
2. 2
3. 4
4. 6
Q.17 A block of wood floats on water, with 65% of its volume under water. Its density (in kg/m³) is approximately:
Ans
1. 0.25 × 10²
2. 0.35 × 10²
3. 0.55 × 10³
4. 0.65 × 10³
Q.18 The mass density or density of a material is defined as its ______.
Ans
1. mass per unit area
2. mass per unit volume
3. mass per unit length
4. mass per ampere
Q.19 When 1 kg of water is cooled from 4°C to 0°C, its volume
Ans
1. remains the same
2. increases
3. decreases
4. first decreases and then increases
Q.20 The density of fresh water is ______ the density of salt water.
Ans
1. less than
2. more than
3. equal to
4. negligible compared with
Q.21 A small angled surface formed between two surfaces is called a
Ans
1. chuck
2. collar
3. chamfer
4. contour
Q.22 A/an ______ angle is the angle between two planes.
Ans
1. offset
2. dihedral
3. polar
4. spline
Q.23 In third-angle projection,
Ans
1. the object lies in the first quadrant
2. the object lies between the observer and the plane of projection
3. the plane of projection lies between the object and the observer
4. the object lies in the second quadrant
Q.24 The sum of all internal angles of a quadrilateral is:
Ans
1. 720°
2. 180°
3. 540°
4. 360°
Q.25 Which of the following is the approximate ratio of length to breadth of any standard Engineering drawing sheet?
Ans
1. 1: √2
2. 2: √2
3. 1: √3
4. 3: √3
Q.26 ______ is a mode of heat transfer by actual motion of matter.
Ans
1. Conduction
2. Convection
3. Radiation
4. Vaporisation
Q.27 Conduction and convection modes of heat transfer CANNOT operate between bodies separated by ______.
Ans
1. water
2. ice
3. aluminium
4. vacuum
Q.28 ______ is the unit of thermal conductivity.
Ans
1. J·s⁻¹·K
2. J·s·K
3. J·s⁻¹·m⁻¹·K⁻¹
4. J⁻¹·s⁻¹·kg⁻¹
Q.29 Heat supplied to a system is measured in
Ans
1. degrees kelvin
2. amperes
3. kilowatts
4. joules
Q.30 ______ is the heat energy absorbed or released when a substance changes its state.
Ans
1. Regulation
2. Sublimation
3. Vaporisation
4. Latent heat of fusion
Q.31 Raising the head to straighten the neck is called
Note: For this question, discrepancy is found in question/answer. So, this question is ignored for all candidates.
Ans
1. wrist stretch
2. finger fan
3. pectoral stretch
4. chin tuck
Q.32 A video or photo experiencing a sudden spike in popularity in a short period of time is termed as
Ans
1. viral
2. virus
3. Wi-Fi
4. spam
Q.33 Unsolicited electronic messages sent for marketing purposes are called
Ans
1. spam
2. unzip
3. URL
4. virus
Q.34 The efficiency of a machine can never be
Ans
1. 10%
2. 50%
3. 75%
4. 100%
Q.35 In practice, the work output of a machine is ______ the work input due to the effect of friction.
Ans
1. always more than
2. always zero to
3. always less than
4. opposite to
Q.36 An effort of 5 units is applied on a 10-unit load. The distance travelled by the effort and the load are 50 and 20 units, respectively. Find the efficiency of this machine.
Ans
1. 50%
2. 60%
3. 70%
4. 80%
Q.37 The force applied to overcome a load is called
Ans
1. Weight
2. mechanical advantage
3. effort
4. velocity ratio
Q.38 An object starts from rest at x = 0 m and t = 0 s. It moves with a constant acceleration of 2 m/s² along the x-axis. What is its average velocity between time 1 s and 5 s?
Ans
1. 2 m/s
2. 4 m/s
3. 6 m/s
4. 8 m/s
Q.39 A 100-g block of lead is heated from 20°C to 50°C. Calculate the amount of heat transferred to the block (specific heat of lead = 127 J·kg⁻¹·K⁻¹).
Ans
1. 127 J
2. 230 J
3. 321 J
4. 381 J
Q.40 A brick wall having a thickness of 24cm has an inner surface temperature of 25°C and an outer surface temperature of 5°C. The rate of heat loss through per square metre of the wall (thermal conductivity = 0.15 J/(s·m·K)) is:
Ans
1. 12.5 J/s
2. 18.2 J/s
3. 20.0 J/s
4. 23.0 J/s
Q.41 Two resistors, one of 20 Ω and the other of 30 Ω are connected in parallel. This combination is connected in series with an 8-Ω resistor and a 12-V battery. The current through the 20-Ω resistor is:
Ans
1. 0.12 A
2. 0.24 A
3. 0.36 A
4. 0.60 A
Q.42 A cylindrical wire of length L and radius r has a resistance R. The resistance of another wire of the same material but half its length and half its radius will be:
Ans
1. R/2
2. R
3. R
4. R
Q.43 A ball is thrown vertically upward with a speed of 30 m/s. The magnitude of its displacement after 4 s will be (Take g = 10 m/s²).
Ans
1. 15 m
2. 30 m
3. 40 m
4. 50 m
Q.44 ______ is defined as the total path length travelled by an object divided by the total time interval during which the motion has taken place.
Ans
1. Instantaneous velocity
2. Instantaneous acceleration
3. Average speed
4. Uniform acceleration
Q.45 The area under the velocity-time curve between times t1 and t2 is equal to the ______ of the object during that interval of time.
Ans
1. acceleration
2. average velocity
3. force
4. magnitude of displacement
Q.46 ______ states that the electric current flowing through a metallic wire is directly proportional to the potential difference 'V' across its ends provided its temperature remains the same.
Ans
1. Ampere's law
2. Coulomb's law
3. Joule's law
4. Ohm's law
Q.47 Identify the conductor having the lowest resistivity.
Ans
1. Silver
2. Aluminium
3. Copper
4. Iron
Q.48 Identify the conductor having the highest resistivity.
Ans
1. Copper
2. Silver
3. Aluminium
4. Mercury
Q.49 An 8 Ω resistor generates 200 J of heat every second. What is the potential difference across the resistor?
Ans
1. 30 V
2. 40 V
3. 40 V
4. 10 V
Q.50 Two 100-Ω resistors are connected in parallel, and this combination is connected across a 40-V supply. Find the current supplied by the voltage source.
Ans
1. 1.1 A
2. 0.8 A
3. 1.5 A
4. 1.75 A
Q.51 The smallest number that can be added to 56789 to make it divisible by 345 is x. What is the sum of the digits of x?
Ans
1. 9
2. 10
3. 11
4. 13
Q.52 The unit's digit of (1373)³⁶ - (1442)²⁰ is:
Ans
1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
Q.53 A television set was purchased for 650, and another 50 were spent on its transportation. At what price should it be sold so that the profit earned would be 20%?
Ans
1. ₹ 780
2. ₹ 810
3. ₹ 840
4. ₹ 870
Q.54 An article was sold for 576 when its cost price was 600. What is the percentage loss?
Ans
1. 3%
2. 3.50%
3. 4%
4. 4.50%
Q.55 150 of Amit's pocket money was spent on a pair of shoes and 75 on a watch. The total amount spent was three-fourth of his total pocket money. What was the amount received by Amit as pocket money?
Ans
1. ₹ 250
2. ₹ 300
3. ₹ 400
4. ₹ 375
Q.56 The HCF of two numbers is 9 and their LCM is 252. The sum of numbers is:
Note: For this question, discrepancy is found in question/answer. So, this question is ignored for all candidates.
Ans
1. 78
2. 79
3. 108
4. 90
Q.57 What is the area of a square whose diagonal measures 4 cm?
Ans
1. 4 cm²
2. 6 cm²
3. 8 cm²
4. 10 cm²
Q.58 Calculate the length of the diagonal of a square if the area of the square is 32 cm².
Ans
1. 4 cm
2. 8 cm
3. 12 cm
4. 16 cm
Q.59 A train travels 45 m in 3 s. What is the speed of the train in km/h?
Ans
1. 48
2. 50.5
3. 51
4. 54
Q.60 A sum of 1,250 amounts to 1,550 in 4 years. What is the simple interest rate?
Ans
1. 4%
2. 6%
3. 8%
4. 1%
Q.61 What will be the simple interest on 1,450 invested for 5 years at a rate of 5% pa?
Ans
1. 365
2. 362.5
3. 360
4. 365.5
Q.62 If a + b = 7 and ab = 12, then a² + b² is equal to:
Ans
1. 24
2. 24.5
3. 25
4. 25.5
Q.63 The difference between the roots of the equation x² - 6x - 16 = 0 is:
Ans
1. 9
2. 10
3. 11
4. 12
Q.64 D is the midpoint of line segment AB. The co-ordinates of A and D are (2, 4) and (-1, 3), respectively. The co-ordinates of B are:
Ans
1. (3, 1)
2. (-5, 4)
3. (-4, 2)
4. (4, -5)
Q.65 The areas of two similar triangles ΔXYZ and ΔLMN are 49 cm² and 9 cm², respectively. If LM = 9 cm, then the length of XY is:
Ans
1. 21 cm
2. 7 cm
3. 49 cm
4. 14 cm
Q.66 How many degrees does the minute hand of a clock cover in the same time in which the second hand covers 3240°?
Ans
1. 45
2. 48
3. 54
4. 54
Q.67 Tap A can fill an empty swimming pool in 10h. Tap B can fill it in 15h. How much time will the two taps take to fill the empty pool together?
Ans
1. 5h
2. 8h
3. 6h
4. 7h
Q.68 Two taps can fill an empty cistern in 8 min and 20 min, respectively. However, together, they take 30 min to fill it because of a leak. How much time will the leak take to empty a full cistern?
Ans
1. 120/17 min
2. 120/19 min
3. 140/19 min
4. 140/17 min
Q.69 If (4x + 5) : (3x + 11) = 13 : 17 then (5x + 4) : (4x - 1) = ?
Ans
1. 3:2
2. 2:1
3. 4:3
4. 5:2
Q.70 15% of 120% of 150 is equal to:
Ans
1. 24
2. 27
3. 30
4. 33
Q.71 Find the mean of the mode and the median of the given data.
15, 3, 8, 7, 6, 5, 5, 7, 18, 7
Ans
1. 5
2. 6
3. 7
4. 8
Q.72 A perfect square number can never have the digit ______ at the unit's place.
Ans
1. 1
2. 9
3. 3
4. 6
Q.73 Two runners, A and B, cover the same distance at the speeds of 15 km/h and 16 km/h respectively. If A takes 16 min more than B, then the distance (in km) is:
Ans
1. 48
2. 54
3. 64
4. 70
Q.74 A and B can complete a task in 30 days, whereas A, B and C can complete the same task in 21 days. In how many days can C alone complete the task?
Ans
1. 65
2. 70
3. 72.5
4. 67.5
Q.75 The average age of a family of 5 members is 20 years, with the youngest member being 5 years old. What was the average age (in years) of the family just before the birth of the youngest member?
Ans
1. 18.25
2. 18.5
3. 18.75
4. 19
Q.76 Select the option that is related to the third term in the same way as the second term is related to the first term.
Nose : Smell :: Ears : ?
Ans
1. Two
2. Sound
3. Deaf
4. Ear-ring
Q.77 Select the option that is related to the third number in the same way as the second number is related to the first number.
400 : 20 :: 100 : ?
Note: For this question, ambiguity is found in question/answer. Candidate will get full marks for this question if any of the correct options are chosen.
Ans
1. 50
2. 10
3. 5
4. 1
Q.78 A series is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
DE, GH, JK, MN, ?
Ans
1. OP
2. QR
3. RP
4. PQ
Q.79 A series is given, with one number missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
9.3, 10.1, 10.9, 11.7, ?, 13.3
Ans
1. 12.2
2. 12.7
3. 12.5
4. 12.9
Q.80 In a code language, 349 means 'painting is art', 749 means 'drawing is art' and 573 means 'painting and drawing'. Find the code for 'and'.
Ans
1. 3
2. 7
3. 9
4. 5
Q.81 In a code language, if MYTHIC is written as OAVJKE, then how will FOG be written as in the same language?
Ans
1. PNM
2. KIH
3. FDC
4. HQI
Q.82 If '+' represents '×', '×' represents '÷', '-' represents '+' and '÷' represents '-', then find the value of the following expression.
6 ÷ 8 × 2 - 4
Ans
1. 12
2. 18
3. 24
4. 6
Q.83 Which two signs should be interchanged to correct the given equation?
3 × 6 + 2 - 4 ÷ 8 = 13
Ans
1. × and -
2. × and ÷
3. × and -
4. × and +
Q.84 If C $ D means C is the husband of D, C & D means C is the mother of D and C % D means C is the son of D, then what does X % Z $ W & Y mean if W has only one son?
Ans
1. Y is the brother of X
2. X is the brother of Y
3. X is the son of Y
4. Y is the son of X
Q.85 If G + H means G is the son H, G - H means G is the husband of H and G * H means G is the sister of H, which of the following shows that J is the mother-in-law of N?
Ans
1. N - M * K + J
2. N * M - K + J
3. N + M - K * J
4. N + M * K - J
Q.86 Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions, I and II. Consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, and decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow (s) from the given statements.
Statement 1: All bees are hornets.
Statement 2: Some bees are wasps.
Conclusion I: Some hornets are wasps.
Conclusion II: Some wasps are bees.
Ans
1. Only conclusion I follows.
2. Only conclusion II follows.
3. Both conclusions I and II follow.
4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Q.87 Two statements are given, followed by three conclusions, I, II and III. Consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts, and decide which of the given conclusions, if any, follow (s) from the given statements.
Statement 1: No boats are ships.
Statement 2: All ship are steamers.
Conclusion I: Some boats are steamers.
Conclusion II: No ships are boats.
Conclusion III: Some steamers are ships.
Ans
1. Only conclusions I and II follow.
2. Only conclusions II and III follow.
3. Only conclusions I and III follow.
4. All the conclusions, I, II and III, follow.
Q.88 In the following figure, the square represents dieticians, the triangle represents botanists, the circle represents psychologists and the rectangle represents Indians. Which set of letters represents the psychologists who are also botanists?
Ans
1. ABC
2. AGE
3. AB
4. AEF
Q.89 Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the relationship between squares, quadrilaterals and geometrical figures?
Ans
1. [Image]
2. [Image]
3. [Image]
4. [Image]
Q.90 Read the given question carefully and decide which of the following statements is/are sufficient to answer the question.
Question: What was the share of the picnic cost to be borne by each student?
Statements:
I) The total cost of the picnic was 12,500, and the number of students who went for the picnic was 15.
II) If 3 fewer students would have gone, then the cost of the picnic per student would have increased by 120.
Ans
1. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient.
2. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient.
3. Either I or II is sufficient.
4. Neither I nor II is sufficient.
Q.91 Given below is a statement followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assume everything in the statement to be true, and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow (s), beyond a reasonable doubt, from the information given in the statement.
Statement: The colour of blood is red due to the presence of red blood cells.
Conclusion I: If red blood cells are removed, blood will lose its red colour.
Conclusion II: Red blood cells will be red as long as they remain in the blood.
Ans
1. Only conclusion I follows.
2. Only conclusion II follows.
3. Both conclusions I and II follow.
4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Q.92 In this question, a statement is given, followed by some conclusions given as options. Choose the conclusion that logically follows from the given statement.
Statement: The fear of punishment reduces instances of cheating during exams.
Ans
1. Instances of cheating increase if exam is difficult.
2. Punishment is a factor that controls incidences of cheating during exams.
3. Invigilators are to be blamed if students are caught cheating during exams.
4. Education has become rote learning, and hence, students cheat.
Q.93 Find the odd letter cluster out of the given alternatives.
Ans
1. IKM
2. GEC
3. OQS
4. UWY
Q.94 Find the odd word out of the given alternatives.
Ans
1. Tree
2. Herb
3. Flower
4. Shrub
Q.95 What is the minimum number of lines required to make the given image?
Ans
1. 9
2. 11
3. 10
4. 12
Q.96 Read the given information carefully and answer the question that follows.
Q, R, S and T are sitting around a round table. Q is sitting next to R. S is sitting to the left of T. Q is not sitting next to T. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
Ans
1. S is facing R.
2. Q is facing T.
3. Q is to the left of R.
4. S is to the right of Q.
Q.97 Choose the figure that is different from the rest.
Ans
1. [Image]
2. [Image]
3. [Image]
4. [Image]
Q.98 Choose the figure that is different from the rest.
Ans
1. [Image]
2. [Image]
3. [Image]
4. [Image]
Q.99 A taxi travels 7 km south, then turns towards the east and travels 5 km, then turns towards the north and travels 7 km and then turns to its left and travels 2 km. What is the location of the taxi now with respect to its starting position?
Ans
1. 3 km towards the east
2. 7 km towards the west
3. 7 km towards the east
4. 3 km towards the west
Q.100 Two fielders, I and J, start from the same point on a ground. I runs 20 m north and then turns towards the east and runs 35 m. He then turns to his right and runs 15 m. Meanwhile, J runs 30 m north and then turns right and runs 35 m. Where is J now with respect to I?
Ans
1. 25 m towards the south
2. 35 m towards the north
3. 25 m towards the north
4. 35 m towards the south
Section : Part B - Electrician
Q.101 Trickle charging of a storage battery helps to:
Ans
1. increase its reserve capacity
2. prevent sulphation
3. maintain proper electrolyte level
4. to attain a fully charged state
Q.102 The lowest scale probe suitable for measuring 250V DC using a CRO with I/P limit of 30V is:
Ans
1. 1X
2. 10X
3. 100X
4. 1000X
Q.103 How many diodes are required to build a full wave rectifier from a Centre Tap transformer?
Ans
1. 3
2. 4
3. 2
4. 1
Q.104 For normal operation of NPN transistor:
Ans
1. Emitter-Base Junction must be forward biased and Base-collector junction must be reverse biased
2. Emitter Base Junction must be forward biased and Base-collector junction must be forward biased
3. Emitter Base Junction must be reverse biased and Base-collector junction must be reverse biased
4. Emitter Base Junction must be reverse biased and Base-collector junction must be forward biased
Q.105 The main purpose of flux in soldering is to:
Ans
1. keep the metal surface clean and oxide-free
2. ensure proper texture
3. reduce temperature
4. reduce melting point
Q.106 Choose the type of cable used for domestic appliances from the given options.
Ans
1. Armoured Cable
2. Round Flexible Cable
3. Submersible Flat Cable
4. Shielded Cable
Q.107 Identify the type of file shown in the given figure.
Ans
1. RASP Cut File
2. Double Cut File
3. Curved Cut File
4. Single Cut File
Q.108 Induced low voltage on metal equipment which causes low shock can be prevented using:
Ans
1. earthing
2. neutral
3. phase line
4. insulated footwear
Q.109 How is a Lissajous pattern created?
Ans
1. By drawing square wave and sine wave on the same axis
2. By drawing two square waves on different axis
3. By drawing two sine waves which are at right angles to each other
4. By drawing two sine waves on the same axis
Q.110 The symbol in the given figure shows a:
Ans
1. DC motor
2. 3-phase induction motor
3. Servo motor
4. Synchronous motor
Q.111 Grooves in cleat wiring are made of
Ans
1. porcelain
2. glass
3. steel
4. copper
Q.112 What happens when back EMF of a DC motor vanishes suddenly?
Ans
1. The motor will stop
2. The motor will continue to run
3. The motor will become noisy
4. The motor armature will burn
Q.113 The turns ratio of an isolation transformer is:
Ans
1. 1 : 2
2. 2 : 1
3. 1 : 3
4. 1 : 1
Q.114 A series capacitance voltmeter can measure:
Ans
1. DC voltage
2. DC current
3. AC current
4. AC voltage
Q.115 Ammeter provides the path for:
Ans
1. Maximum current
2. Minimum current
3. Maximum voltage
4. Minimum voltage
Q.116 If the armature of a DC motor has 39 slots with 12 conductors per slot. Then the total number of conductors are
Ans
1. 568
2. 468
3. 51
4. 27
Q.117 For which of the following purposes are low voltage lamps used?
Ans
1. Stadium lighting
2. Industrial lighting
3. Automotive lighting
4. Flood lighting
Q.118 Which pliers are most suitable for cutting hard wires?
Ans
1. Wire strippers
2. Diagonal cutters
3. Long nose pliers
4. Locking pliers
Q.119 Which among the following is the standard voltage used for primary distribution?
Ans
1. 11 kV
2. 8 kV
3. 15 kV
4. 1 kV
Q.120 Short Compound Generator is a type of DC generator.
Ans
1. Series
2. Shunt
3. Negative
4. Permanent
Q.121 In Separately Excited Generator, the field windings are connected in:
Ans
1. Series with source
2. Shunt with source
3. open circuit
4. close circuit
Q.122 The terminal voltage of a DC shunt generator:
Ans
1. varies with load variation
2. does not vary with load variation
3. is very high
4. is very low
Q.123 Which of the following machines converts electrical energy into mechanical energy?
Ans
1. Synchronous motor
2. Dynamo
3. UPS
4. SMPS
Q.124 In an electric vehicle, a speedometer displays the speed of the vehicle, whereas a/an ______ displays the speed of the motor.
Ans
1. altimeter
2. tachometer
3. barometer
4. magnetometer
Q.125 Synchronous motors are:
Ans
1. not self-starting motors
2. self-balancing motors
3. self-controlling motors
4. self-starting motors
Q.126 The speed of an induction motor falls slightly with the increase of:
Ans
1. capacitance
2. resistance
3. magnetic flux
4. load
Q.127 The recommended configuration for soldering is:
Ans
1. Lap joint
2. Butt joint
3. Scarf joint
4. Wave joint
Q.128 Among the following, which metal is NOT usually preferred as flux for soldering applications?
Ans
1. Zinc chloride
2. Borax
3. Ammonium chloride
4. Lead
Q.129 Which type of motor is used in a ceiling fan?
Ans
1. Single phase induction motor
2. DC series motor
3. Stepper motor
4. Synchronous motor
Q.130 In which of the following transformers, secondary winding is always kept closed?
Ans
1. Potential transformer
2. Power transformer
3. Current transformer
4. Distribution transformer
Q.131 An alkaline cell is discharged at a steady current of 4A for 12 hours. To restore it to its original state of charge, a steady current of 3A for 20 hours is required. Calculate Ah efficiency.
Ans
1. 70%
2. 60%
3. 80%
4. 90%
Q.132 The positive plates of nickel iron cell are made up of:
Ans
1. Nickel hydroxide
2. Lead peroxide
3. Ferrous hydroxide
4. Potassium hydroxide
Q.133 A battery charger acts like a
Ans
1. rectifier
2. converter
3. chopper
4. cycloconverter
Q.134 The function of line supports in power transmission is to
Ans
1. maintain adequate clearance between energized conductors and the ground
2. to prevent lightning
3. fix or hold service lines
4. act as a stay or guy wire
Q.135 Which of the following is NOT an insulator?
Ans
1. Glass
2. Gold
3. Wood
4. Mica
Q.136 Speed control of Universal Motors can be done by:
Ans
1. Phase angle control
2. Magnitude control
3. Field flux control
4. Frequency control
Q.137 Identify the type of joint shown in the picture from the given options.
Ans
1. Tee Joint
2. Rat Tail Joint
3. Britannia Joint
4. Scarfed Joint
Q.138 Identify the type of lug used for connecting an aluminum cable to a copper bus bar.
Ans
1. Copper Lug
2. Bi-Metallic Cable Lug
3. Bi-Metallic Cable Connector
4. Insulated Sleeve Lug
Q.139 Which symbol is shown in the following image?
Ans
1. Polarized capacitor
2. Resistor
3. Capacitor
4. Battery
Q.140 Which tool is used for finishing a circular hole?
Ans
1. Drill
2. Chisel
3. Half round file
4. Flat file
Q.141 What is the efficiency of a half wave rectifier?
Ans
1. 81.2%
2. 40.6%
3. 100%
4. 20%
Q.142 Which device is used to increase the magnitude of the signal?
Ans
1. Rectifier
2. Inverter
3. Amplifier
4. Attenuator
Q.143 What is the SI unit of electromotive force?
Ans
1. Volt
2. Ampere
3. Newton
4. Webers
Q.144 During electrical work which one of the following avoids electrical shock?
Ans
1. Metal rod
2. Wet wood
3. Wet rope
4. Dry wood
Q.145 Which of the following meters CANNOT be used on DC circuits?
Ans
1. Mercury Motor meter
2. Voltmeter
3. Induction meter
4. Commutator motor meter
Q.146 Which among the given is the insulation resistance test voltage required for equipment running on a maximum of 600 volts?
Ans
1. 1000 V
2. 500 V
3. 300 V
4. 100 V
Q.147 If the field of a DC shunt motor is opened while running, what will happen to the speed?
Ans
1. Speed of the motor will reduce
2. Speed of the motor will remain constant
3. Speed of the motor will become dangerously high
4. The motor will get locked
Q.148 Which of the following acts as a protection from high voltage surges?
Ans
1. Thermal over load relay
2. Horn gaps
3. Conservator
4. Breather
Q.149 If a 200kVA, 2000/200V transformer has 100 turns in its secondary windings, then the number of turns in its primary are
Ans
1. 1000 turns
2. 10 turns
3. 100 turns
4. 10000 turns
Q.150 How much energy is used by an 80% efficient, 2kW motor running at a peak load for 5 hours?
Ans
1. 2 kWh
2. 4 kWh
3. 8 kWh
4. 16 kWh
Q.151 In a 3-phase system balanced star connected system, how many wattmeters are sufficient to measure the total power?
Ans
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
Q.152 The output of a system does not return to zero when the input is reduced to zero. This is called:
Ans
1. Span Error
2. Hysteresis Error
3. Zero Error
4. Linearity Error
Q.153 What happens when an alternator is said to be over excited?
Ans
1. Leading power factor
2. Lagging power factor
3. Unity power factor
4. Negative power factor
Q.154 Which among the following starter CANNOT be used in DC motor?
Ans
1. Two point starter
2. Three point starter
3. Four point starter
4. Star delta starter
Q.155 The unit of lamp efficiency is:
Ans
1. Lumens/watt
2. Lux
3. Foot candle
4. lumen
Q.156 A coil is connected across a 100V, 50Hz supply. If the impedance of the circuit is 10 ohms, the current flowing through the circuit is ______.
Ans
1. 1A
2. 10A
3. 100A
4. 1000A
Q.157 If the resistance and impedance of the circuit is 10 ohms each, then its power factor is ______.
Ans
1. unity
2. leading
3. lagging
4. zero
Q.158 The speed of a squirrel cage motor
Ans
1. is changed by changing the number of stator poles
2. is changed by changing the rotor pole
3. varies as per the stator line current
4. incorporates the resistance of rotor circuit
Q.159 The frequency necessary to operate an electric stove is:
Ans
1. 10 Hz
2. 20Hz
3. 40Hz
4. 50Hz
Q.160 What is the name of the temperature-regulating component of an automatic electric iron?
Ans
1. Pressure plate
2. Thermostat
3. Solid plate
4. Heating element
Q.161 What is the value displayed by the voltmeter in the given picture?
Ans
1. 1A
2. 1V
3. 4V
4. 4A
Q.162 The inductive and capacitive reactances of an AC circuit are rated in ______.
Ans
1. amperes
2. ohms
3. volt ampere reactive (var)
4. watt
Q.163 The pipe earthing resistance can be regulated by ______.
Ans
1. adding a Copper rod
2. adding salt and water
3. replacing the conductor
4. replacing the earthing rod
Q.164 Which of the following electrodes is used for pipe earthing?
Ans
1. Copper solid rod
2. Copper plate
3. Hollow GI rod
4. Solid GI rod
Q.165 What will be the backup time of a UPS if it is backed by 150Ah, 12V battery driving a load of 150 W?
Ans
1. 10 h
2. 12 h
3. 14 h
4. 16 h
Q.166 A three Input NOR gate gives high O/P when
Ans
1. one I/P is high
2. one I/P is low
3. all I/P are low
4. all I/P are high
Q.167 ______ type of relay is preferred for phase fault on short transmission line.
Ans
1. Induction type
2. Reactance type
3. Impedance type
4. Reluctance type
Q.168 Which of the given motors has the poorest speed control?
Ans
1. Differential compound motor
2. Series motor
3. Shunt motor
4. Cumulative compound motor
Q.169 Insulator rings used for electricity delivery poles are made of
Ans
1. Carbon Fiber
2. Bakelite
3. Epoxy
4. Ceramic
Q.170 Among the following, which meter is regarded as insulation tester?
Ans
1. Megger
2. Insulator
3. Frequency meter
4. Wattmeter
Q.171 What should be the insulation resistance between the body of the electrical water heater and the connecting cable as per ISI?
Ans
1. 0.01 mega Ω
2. 1.00 mega Ω
3. 1.00 kilo Ω
4. 0.01 kilo Ω
Q.172 The function of thermostat in an electric oven is to control the
Ans
1. voltage
2. temperature
3. frequency
4. power
Q.173 Transformers of rating above 500 KVA are called
Ans
1. Varistor
2. Step-Up Transformer
3. Dimmer-Stat
4. Distribution Transformers
Q.174 During installation of a generator, one must carefully ensure that the generator terminals and all control wirings are correct so that the order of ______ matches the system.
Ans
1. Phase sequence
2. Frequency sequence
3. Power sequence
4. Amplitude sequence
Q.175 Which of the following method CANNOT be used to reduce earth's resistance?
Ans
1. use of small size earth plates
2. use of large size earth plates
3. burying the earth plate deep
4. use of mixture of powder, charcoal and salt
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