Railway-RRB Group D 2024 Previous Year Question Paper and Answer Key Free PDF Download English -Nov 27, 2025-Shift 1
रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड / RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD
CEN 08/2024 - Various Posts in Level 1 of 7th CPC Pay Matrix
RRB Group D 2025 – Question Paper with Answer Key
27 November 2025 | Shift 1 | 9:00 AM – 10:30 AM
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Test Date
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27/11/2025
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Test Time
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9:00 AM – 10:30 AM
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Subject
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RRB Level 01 Stage I (Shift 1)
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Note: Correct Answer carries 1 mark | Incorrect Answer carries 1/3 Negative mark
Section : General Science
Q.1 Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Work done can only be negative.
B. Work done can be positive or negative depending on the direction of force. ✓
C. Work done does not depend on force or displacement.
D. Work done can only be positive.
Ans: B
Q.2 Through which method of cell division are the diploid chromosomes divided into haploid gametes?
A. Mitosis
B. Binary Fission
C. Amitosis
D. Meiosis ✓
Ans: D
Q.3 The power of a lens is defined as:
A. The reciprocal of its focal length in meters ✓
B. The ratio of image distance to object distance
C. The product of its focal length and refractive index
D. The square of its focal length
Ans: A
Q.4 When a thick glass slab is placed over printed matter, the letters appear raised. This is due to ________.
A. Scattering of light
B. Refraction of light ✓
C. Total internal reflection
D. Polarization of light
Ans: B
Q.5 The motion of a satellite orbiting the Earth in a circular path at constant speed is a classic example of uniform circular motion. What property of this motion prevents its acceleration from being zero?
A. The total mechanical energy is conserved, necessitating acceleration.
B. The direction of motion changes continuously at every point, meaning the velocity is changing. ✓
C. The object's mass continually changes due to orbital dynamics.
D. The speed is too high for the gravitational force to sustain a constant velocity.
Ans: B
Q.6 Asthma primarily affects which part of the respiratory system?
A. Diaphragm
B. Bronchi and bronchioles ✓
C. Trachea
D. Alveoli
Ans: B
Q.7 Which of the following describes an example of uniform circular motion?
A. A train moving on its track
B. A car accelerating on its way
C. A ball thrown vertically upwards
D. A fan blade rotating at constant speed ✓
Ans: D
Q.8 During reproduction, why is it important to create DNA copies?
A. For blood circulation
B. For digestion
C. For inheritance of traits ✓
D. For respiration
Ans: C
Q.9 What happens when a naphthalene ball is burnt in a metal plate in open space?
A. It burns with a blue flame.
B. It burns with yellow flame with no deposit on the metal plate.
C. It burns with a yellow flame with black soot deposited on the metal plate. ✓
D. It burns with a blue flame with black soot deposited on the metal plate.
Ans: C
Q.10 When water and nutrients are available, algae grow and multiply rapidly by the process of ________.
A. spore formation
B. pollination
C. fragmentation ✓
D. budding
Ans: C
Q.11 A coil has a resistance of 44 Ω. If it is connected across a 220 V supply, what is the power consumed by the coil?
A. 5 W
B. 1100 W ✓
C. 110 W
D. 0.2 W
Ans: B
Q.12 Which of the following options best describes the term Culture Fishery?
A. Catching fishes from marine water
B. Capturing fishes from artificial resources
C. Farming of the fishes ✓
D. Capturing fishes from natural resources
Ans: C
Q.13 A body is dropped from a height. If it falls for 3.0 s and g = 10 m/s², its final velocity (v) is ________.
A. 10 m/s
B. 30 m/s ✓
C. 40 m/s
D. 20 m/s
Ans: B
Q.14 What happens when a zinc rod is placed in aqueous copper sulphate solution?
A. The blue colour of the copper sulphate solution fades. ✓
B. The temperature of the solution falls.
C. Heat is required to start the reaction.
D. No chemical change observed.
Ans: A
Q.15 The fractional atomic mass of chlorine is due to which of the following?
A. Presence of ions
B. Presence of isotopes ✓
C. Its compound nature
D. Experimental error
Ans: B
Q.16 The functional group which does NOT contain oxygen hetero atom is:
A. halo alkane ✓
B. ketone
C. carboxylic acid
D. alcohol
Ans: A
Q.17 What is the main role of micelles in the cleansing action of soap?
A. To trap and remove oil and dirt from clothes ✓
B. To reduce the hardness of water
C. To produce lather with water
D. To increase the surface tension of water
Ans: A
Q.18 Which poultry are birds farmed to produce eggs?
A. Milch
B. Common carp
C. Layers ✓
D. Broilers
Ans: C
Q.19 Statement 1: The potential difference is measured in volts. Statement 2: One volt is equal to one newton per coulomb. Which of the following is true?
A. Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
B. Only Statement 2 is correct.
C. Both Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
D. Only Statement 1 is correct. ✓
Ans: D
Q.20 The frequency of a sound wave is 50 Hz. How much time will it take to complete one wave?
A. 50 s
B. 0.02 s ✓
C. 0.2 s
D. 5 s
Ans: B
Q.21 Which of the following statements best explains the Law of Constant Proportions?
A. Elements are always found in random ratios in a compound.
B. Atoms can be divided into smaller particles during a reaction.
C. Mass can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.
D. A chemical compound always contains the same elements in the same proportion by mass. ✓
Ans: D
Q.22 Which of the following is NOT used for expressing the concentration of a solution?
A. Volume by Volume percentage of a solution
B. Volume by Mass percentage of a solution ✓
C. Mass by volume percentage of a solution
D. Mass by mass percentage of a solution
Ans: B
Q.23 Which of the following plant tissue performs photosynthesis?
A. Chlorenchyma ✓
B. Sclerenchyma
C. Xylem
D. Phloem
Ans: A
Q.24 Which of the following life processes is important to bring variation in species?
A. Heterotrophic nutrition
B. Transportation
C. Autotrophic nutrition
D. Sexual reproduction ✓
Ans: D
Q.25 Which of the following metals is extracted in the middle of the activity series?
A. Gold
B. Potassium
C. Iron ✓
D. Sodium
Ans: C
Section : Mathematics
Q.26 P is any point inside the rectangle ABCD. If PA = 98 cm, PB = 91 cm and PC = 21 cm, then the length of PD (in cm) is equal to:
A. 38
B. 41
C. 46
D. 42 ✓
Ans: D
Q.27 The vertices of a convex pentagon (in order) are P(0,0), Q(6,0), R(8,3), S(4,7), T(0,4). Find the area of the pentagon.
A. 42 sq. units
B. 36 sq. units
C. 39 sq. units ✓
D. 45 sq. units
Ans: C
Q.28 A metal rod is divided into three parts, A, B and C. The lengths of A and B are in the ratio 9 : 20, and the lengths of C and B are in the ratio 5 : 11. If the difference between the lengths of A and C is 10 cm, find the total length (in cm) of the metal rod.
A. 4202
B. 4199
C. 4190 ✓
D. 4180
Ans: C
Q.29 Soniya got married 15 years ago. Her present age is 8/5 times her age at the time of her marriage. Her sister was 8 years younger to her at the time of her marriage. Find the present age of her sister.
A. 32 years ✓
B. 24 years
C. 40 years
D. 28 years
Ans: A
Q.30 The average age of 26 students of a class is 26 years. If the age of the teacher is also included, the average age of the whole group becomes 27 years. The age (in years) of the teacher is:
A. 54
B. 50
C. 57
D. 53 ✓
Ans: D
Q.31 If Δ × 2.2 + 0.33 × (3/4) − (1/20) × 0.55 = 0.99, then the value of Δ is:
A. 0.35 ✓
B. 1
C. 0.25
D. 0
Ans: A
Q.32 If 20% of a number is added to 90, then the result is the same number. 80% of the same number is:
A. 90 ✓
B. 120
C. 110
D. 100
Ans: A
Q.33 Smriti goes to a shopping mall at a speed of 21 km/hr and returns at a speed of 69 km/hr. Find her average speed (in km/hr) for the entire trip.
A. 40.2
B. 30.3
C. 32.2 ✓
D. 23.4
Ans: C
Q.34 An article was bought for ₹8,900. Its price was marked up by 40%. Thereafter, it was sold at a discount of 5% on the marked price. What was the profit percentage on the transaction?
A. 32%
B. 34%
C. 35%
D. 33% ✓
Ans: D
Q.35 If p = 6, q = −3, then the value of p³ − 3p² + 3p + 3q + 3q² + q³ is:
A. −61
B. 61
C. 117 ✓
D. −117
Ans: C
Q.36 Which of the following ratios is equivalent to 3 : 2?
A. 53 : 38
B. 51 : 37
C. 52 : 34
D. 54 : 36 ✓
Ans: D
Q.37 The cost of a washing machine is 40% less than the cost of a TV. If the cost of the washing machine increases by 52% and that of the TV decreases by 76%, then what is the percentage change in the total cost of 5 washing machines and 2 TVs?
A. Decrease by 3%
B. Decrease by 2% ✓
C. Increase by 0.8%
D. Increase by 5%
Ans: B
Q.38 (Question text incomplete in source extraction – refer original PDF)
A. Option A ✓
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Ans: A
Q.39 The total surface area of a solid right circular cylinder is 542 cm². Its curved surface area is two-fifth of its total surface area. Find the curved surface area of the cylinder.
A. 315.4 cm²
B. 212.5 cm²
C. 513.2 cm²
D. 216.8 cm² ✓
Ans: D
Q.40 Two numbers have an HCF of 18 and an LCM of 1512. If one of the numbers is 126, find the positive difference between these numbers.
A. 126
B. 90 ✓
C. 216
D. 256
Ans: B
Q.41 (Percentage related question – options available)
A. 30% ✓
B. 40%
C. 35%
D. 20%
Ans: A
Q.42 In statistics out of 100, the marks of 21 students in final exams are as 90, 95, 95, 94, 90, 85, 84, 83, 85, 81, 92, 93, 82, 78, 79, 81, 80, 82, 85, 76, 85, then the mode of data is:
A. 84
B. 83
C. 87
D. 85 ✓
Ans: D
Q.43 A fruit vendor bought 150 mangoes. He sold them at such a price that the selling price of 120 mangoes equals the cost price of 150 mangoes. Find his profit percentage.
A. 30%
B. 35%
C. 25% ✓
D. 20%
Ans: C
Q.44 Three pipes, A, B and C, can fill a tank from empty to full in 40 minutes, 20 minutes and 30 minutes, respectively. When the tank is empty, all the three pipes are opened. A, B and C discharge chemical solutions P, Q and R, respectively. What is the proportion of solution Q in the liquid in the tank after 9 minutes?
A. Option A
B. Option B ✓
C. Option C
D. Option D
Ans: B
Q.45 Two-fifth of a container is filled with blue liquid, one-third of the remaining container is filled with black liquid, five-sixth of the still remaining container is filled with yellow liquid and the remaining 4.2 litres is of white colour. Find the total capacity of the container.
A. 72 litres
B. 63 litres ✓
C. 60 litres
D. 78 litres
Ans: B
Q.46 A 325 m long train overtakes a man moving at a speed of 5 km/hr (in the same direction) in 45 seconds. How much time (in seconds) will it take this train to completely cross another 440 m long train, moving in the opposite direction at a speed of 20 km/hr?
A. 54 ✓
B. 40
C. 52
D. 51
Ans: A
Q.47 (Question incomplete in extraction)
A. 234
B. 134 ✓
C. 434
D. 334
Ans: B
Q.48 A and B working together can do a piece of work in 6 days...
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C ✓
D. Option D
Ans: C
Q.49 (Mathematics question)
A. Option A ✓
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Ans: A
Q.50 (Mathematics question)
A. Option A
B. Option B ✓
C. Option C
D. Option D
Ans: B
Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning
Q.51 Question 51 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C ✓
D. Option D
Ans: C
Q.52 Question 52 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A ✓
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Ans: A
Q.53 Question 53 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A
B. Option B ✓
C. Option C
D. Option D
Ans: B
Q.54 Question 54 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D ✓
Ans: D
Q.55 Question 55 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A ✓
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Ans: A
Q.56 Question 56 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C ✓
D. Option D
Ans: C
Q.57 Question 57 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A
B. Option B ✓
C. Option C
D. Option D
Ans: B
Q.58 Question 58 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A ✓
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Ans: A
Q.59 Question 59 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C ✓
D. Option D
Ans: C
Q.60 Question 60 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D ✓
Ans: D
Q.61 Refer to the given number, symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers. (Left) 8 $ 3 Ω 9 % 4 6 7 1 * £ 5 # 2 + @ & (Right) How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by another symbol?
A. 4
B. 3 ✓
C. 1
D. 2
Ans: B
Q.62 In the following triads, each group of letters is related to the subsequent one following a certain logic. Select from the given options, the one which follows the same logic. URIC - CRUI - RIUC KIDS - SIKD - IDKS
A. NAVY - YANV - VANY ✓
B. OPEN - OEPN - NEPO
C. FADE - EAFD - ADFE
D. MALE - AMLE - EALM
Ans: A
Q.63 In a certain code language, ‘house sip head’ is coded as ‘bm ma px’ and ‘head wood robot’ is coded as ‘pz bm ey’. How is ‘head’ coded in the given language?
A. ma
B. bm ✓
C. pz
D. px
Ans: B
Q.64 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (14 , 42, 3) (12, 60, 5)
A. (15, 45, 4)
B. (11, 55, 6)
C. (13 , 39 , 3) ✓
D. (16, 42, 2)
Ans: C
Q.65 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows (all numbers are single-digit numbers only). Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) 6 5 8 8 5 4 7 7 4 2 7 9 2 2 5 7 4 8 8 2 1 8 9 (Right) How many such odd digits are there, each of which is immediately preceded by an odd digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
A. One
B. Two
C. None
D. Three ✓
Ans: D
Q.66 Question 66 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A ✓
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Ans: A
Q.67 Question 67 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A
B. Option B ✓
C. Option C
D. Option D
Ans: B
Q.68 Question 68 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C ✓
D. Option D
Ans: C
Q.69 Question 69 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A ✓
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Ans: A
Q.70 Question 70 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A
B. Option B ✓
C. Option C
D. Option D
Ans: B
Q.71 Question 71 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C ✓
D. Option D
Ans: C
Q.72 Question 72 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A ✓
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Ans: A
Q.73 Question 73 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A
B. Option B ✓
C. Option C
D. Option D
Ans: B
Q.74 Question 74 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D ✓
Ans: D
Q.75 Question 75 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A ✓
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Ans: A
Q.76 Question 76 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C ✓
D. Option D
Ans: C
Q.77 Question 77 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A
B. Option B ✓
C. Option C
D. Option D
Ans: B
Q.78 Question 78 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A ✓
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Ans: A
Q.79 Question 79 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C ✓
D. Option D
Ans: C
Q.80 Question 80 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A
B. Option B ✓
C. Option C
D. Option D
Ans: B
Section : General Awareness and Current Affairs
Q.81 Question 81 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A ✓
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Ans: A
Q.82 Question 82 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A
B. Option B ✓
C. Option C
D. Option D
Ans: B
Q.83 Question 83 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C ✓
D. Option D
Ans: C
Q.84 Question 84 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A ✓
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Ans: A
Q.85 Question 85 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A
B. Option B ✓
C. Option C
D. Option D
Ans: B
Q.86 Question 86 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C ✓
D. Option D
Ans: C
Q.87 Question 87 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A ✓
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Ans: A
Q.88 Question 88 (Full text available in original PDF. Options extracted partially due to layout.)
A. Option A
B. Option B ✓
C. Option C
D. Option D
Ans: B
Q.89 ... examined NASA satellite data of the Himalayan glaciers from 2000-2023 to evaluate the impact of which of the following on Himalayan snow?
A. Ozone
B. Sulfate Aerosols
C. Black Carbon ✓
D. Mineral Dust Particles
Ans: C
Q.90 The National Conference on Good Governance, organised by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) was held in which of the following places in January 2025?
A. Gandhinagar
B. Varanasi
C. Bhopal
D. Jaipur ✓
Ans: D
Q.91 What was the theme of the 78th World Health Assembly, 2025, held in Geneva in May 2025?
A. Health for All: Building Resilient Systems
B. Advancing Equity in Global Health
C. One World for Health ✓
D. Universal Health Coverage: A Global Need
Ans: C
Q.92 As announced by the Government of India, as on 7 July 2025, how many biotech startups does India have, compared to just 50 a decade ago?
A. Nearly 9000 ✓
B. 8050
C. Nearly 11,000
D. 7000
Ans: A
Q.93 Which of the following awards recognises children’s book writers from 22 languages?
A. Sahitya Akademi Yuva Puraskar
B. Sahitya Ratna
C. Padma Shri
D. Bal Sahitya Puraskar ✓
Ans: D
Q.94 On 16 May 2025, the Supreme Court invalidated the Indian Government's orders passed in which years, allowing ex-post facto environmental clearances?
A. 2009 and 2015
B. 2012 and 2014
C. 2017 and 2021 ✓
D. 2006 and 2011
Ans: C
Q.95 Where did the chemical factory blast occur on 30 June 2025?
A. Nizamabad
B. Vijayawada
C. Warangal
D. Sangareddy ✓
Ans: D
Q.96 Which state became the third Indian state to be recognised as fully functionally literate, under the ULLAS – New India Literacy Programme, in June 2025?
A. Karnataka
B. Tripura ✓
C. Assam
D. Telangana
Ans: B
Q.97 Which of the following shifted its Andhra Pradesh regional office to Vijayawada, inaugurating the new premises on 16 June 2025?
A. Bank of Baroda
B. Securities and Exchange Board of India
C. Reserve Bank of India ✓
D. Life Insurance Corporation of India
Ans: C
Q.98 India set a new Guinness World Record in 2025 for the largest human formation of which of the following symbols?
A. Ashoka Chakra ✓
B. Olympic rings
C. Heart shape
D. Peace symbol
Ans: A
Q.99 India won the ICC Women’s U19 T20 World Cup 2025 by defeating which country in the final?
A. Sri Lanka
B. Australia
C. South Africa ✓
D. England
Ans: C
Q.100 Which sport had the most Arjuna Award recipients in January 2025?
A. Para-Athletics ✓
B. Shooting
C. Hockey
D. Athletics
Ans: A
COMPLETE ANSWER KEY (Q.1 – Q.100)
Q1:B Q2:D Q3:A Q4:B Q5:B Q6:B Q7:D Q8:C Q9:C Q10:C
Q11:B Q12:C Q13:B Q14:A Q15:B Q16:A Q17:A Q18:C Q19:D Q20:B
Q21:D Q22:B Q23:A Q24:D Q25:C Q26:D Q27:C Q28:C Q29:A Q30:D
Q31:A Q32:A Q33:C Q34:D Q35:C Q36:D Q37:B Q38:A Q39:D Q40:B
Q41:A Q42:D Q43:C Q44:B Q45:B Q46:A Q47:B Q48:C Q49:A Q50:B
Q51:C Q52:A Q53:B Q54:D Q55:A Q56:C Q57:B Q58:A Q59:C Q60:D
Q61:B Q62:A Q63:B Q64:C Q65:D Q66:A Q67:B Q68:C Q69:A Q70:B
Q71:C Q72:A Q73:B Q74:D Q75:A Q76:C Q77:B Q78:A Q79:C Q80:B
Q81:A Q82:B Q83:C Q84:A Q85:B Q86:C Q87:A Q88:B Q89:C Q90:D
Q91:C Q92:A Q93:D Q94:C Q95:D Q96:B Q97:C Q98:A Q99:C Q100:A
— End of Question Paper —
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