Railway-RRB Paramedical 2025 Nursing Superintendent Previous Year Question Paper and Answer Key Free PDF Download Engilsh-Mar 12, 2026-Shift 1
RRB Paramedical 2025 – Nursing Superintendent Question Paper & Answer Key
(CEN No. 03/2025 | Test Date: 12/03/2026 | Shift: 9:00 AM – 10:30 AM | Test Centre: ION Digital Zone IDZ Thrissur)
Note: Correct answers ✓ marked.
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Section : General Ability
Q.1 Which process leads to the formation of a positive ion?
1. Splitting of molecules
2. Sharing of electrons
3. Loss of electrons ✓
4. Gain of electrons
Q.2 Why are Indian poultry breeds cross-bred with exotic breeds to improve productivity?
1. Developing poultry with high yield and local adaptability. ✓
2. Create entirely new bird species to replace traditional poultry farming practices.
3. Produce genetically identical birds, thereby eliminating variation in the flock.
4. Alter genetics to reduce feed needs only of birds without considering their adaptability.
Q.3 If 1 is subtracted from each odd digit and 1 is added to each even digit in the number 843675432925 what will be the sum of the digits which are third from the left and second from the right in the new number thus formed?
1. 3
2. 5 ✓
3. 4
4. 2
Q.4 What was the role of ICAR during the Green Revolution?
1. Regulating the price of rural fertilisers
2. Conducting crop trials and research ✓
3. Monitoring food subsidies for farmers
4. Distributing land titles in villages
Q.5 During free fall, when an object is released from rest, how does the gravitational force of the Earth affect its motion?
1. It decreases the object's velocity
2. It maintains the object's velocity
3. It stops the object instantly
4. It increases the object's velocity ✓
Q.6 The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with which of the following subjects?
1. Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha
2. Administration of Scheduled Areas
3. Distribution of powers between the Union and the States
4. Languages recognised by the Constitution ✓
Q.7 Under which policy were Indian rulers required to dissolve their own armed forces and accept the British East India Company in their territories, and bear the cost of maintaining those forces?
1. Policy of Paramountcy
2. Subsidiary Alliance ✓
3. Policy of Neutrality
4. Policy of Mercantilism
Q.8 A stone is thrown vertically downwards with a speed of 5 m/s from the top of a tower. What will be its velocity after 2 seconds? (Take g = 10 m/s²)
1. 15 m/s
2. 30 m/s
3. 25 m/s ✓
4. 20 m/s
Q.9 G, H, I, J, M, N and O are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. O sits fourth to the left of J. I sits fourth to the right of N. Only two people sit between J and N when counted from the left of J. M is not an immediate neighbour of I or J. G is not an immediate neighbour of M. Who sits third to the right of H?
1. I
2. M
3. O
4. G ✓
Q.10 When aiming for yield improvement, why is it important to select crop varieties suited to the local climate?
1. To increase the size of farm equipment needed
2. To minimize fertilizer use
3. To reduce labor costs
4. To prevent crop failure and ensure maximum productivity ✓
Q.11 Which physiographic region of the Northern Plains of India is characterised by a wet, marshy, and swampy surface and lies immediately south of the Bhabar belt due to the re-emergence of rivers?
1. Khadar
2. Terai ✓
3. Bhangar
4. Karewas
Q.12 Refer to the following letter series and answer the question. Counting to be done from left to right.
(Left) C B A S N U C O M D K I F J H A I P B E B H (Right)
How many such consonant are there each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a consonant?
1. 4
2. 1
3. 3
4. 2 ✓
Q.13 Two taps can fill a cistern in 3 hours and 21 hours respectively. A third tap can empty it in 3 hours. How long (in hours) will it take to fill two-third of the empty cistern, if all of them are opened together?
1. 14 ✓
2. 42
3. 56
4. 28
Q.14 Which of the following factors will increase the strength of the magnetic field at the center of a current-carrying circular loop?
1. Increasing the number of turns of the loop ✓
2. Changing the loop's plane from horizontal to vertical
3. Decreasing the current through the loop
4. Increasing the radius of the loop
Q.15 Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution are concerned with the protection of environment and wildlife?
1. Article 38A
2. Article 41A
3. Article 48A ✓
4. Article 42A
Q.16 A sells a Laptop to B at a loss of 25% and B sells the laptop to C at a profit of 40%. If C purchased the laptop for ₹4,998, then what was the cost price (in ₹) of the laptop for A?
1. 4,658
2. 4,699
3. 4,673
4. 4,760 ✓
Q.17 In a division sum, the divisor is 20 times the quotient and 8 times the remainder. If the remainder is 50, what is the dividend?
1. 8100
2. 7950
3. 8150
4. 8050 ✓
Q.18 Find the median of the following data.
45, 50, 55, 12, 18, 25, 30, 32, 40
1. 30
2. 25
3. 32 ✓
4. 40
Q.19 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1. LV – CI
2. BL – TY ✓
3. RB-IO
4. EO-VB
Q.20 A cylindrical tank with radius r meters and height h meters is filled with water. A solid metallic cylinder of radius r/2 and height 2h is submerged completely in the tank. By what fraction does the water level in the tank rise?
1. 1/2 ✓
2. 1/8
3. 1/4
4. 1/16
Q.21 Which river forms the Dhuandhar Waterfall in Madhya Pradesh?
1. Ken
2. Chambal
3. Narmada ✓
4. Betwa
Q.22 Select the option that completes the following chemical reaction by giving the formula of the products X and Y.
2Na + 2CH₃CH₂OH → X + Y
1. X = 2CH₃O-Na+; Y = H₂
2. X = 2CH₃CH₂O-Na+; Y = O₂
3. X = CH₃CH₂O-Na+; Y = H₂O
4. X = 2CH₃CH₂O-Na+; Y = H₂ ✓
Q.23 Vaccinations are given to farm animals primarily to protect them from which of the following?
1. Heat stress
2. Nutritional deficiencies
3. External parasites only
4. Major viral and bacterial diseases ✓
Q.24 In 2025, the Central Excise (Amendment) Bill aimed to amend legislation originally enacted in which year?
1. 2000
2. 1950
3. 1985
4. 1944 ✓
Q.25 Which of the following term is used in cricket when a batsman is dismissed without scoring any runs in a cricket match?
1. Over
2. Century
3. Boundary
4. Duck ✓
Q.26 Ramu starts from his house; moves towards the east; walks 90 m; turns right and moves 20 m. He turns right again and moves 30 m. Finally, he turns right and walks 100 m. In which direction should he walk to reach his house again?
1. North-west
2. South-west ✓
3. South-east
4. North-east
Q.27 A doctor uses a stethoscope to listen to a patient's heartbeat. How does the stethoscope help the doctor hear faint heart sounds more clearly?
1. It collects and transmits sound waves efficiently from the chest to the ears ✓
2. It changes sound waves into light signals
3. It filters out high-frequency noise
4. It amplifies sound electronically
Q.28 What is the primary objective of launching India's first National Biofoundry Network under the BioE3 policy in August 2025?
1. Skill training
2. Gene editing
3. Biomanufacturing ✓
4. Wildlife study
Q.29 The amendment to the Karnataka Land Reforms Act, 1961, and the Karnataka Land Revenue Act, 1964, is known as:
1. Karnataka Land Reforms and Certain Other Law (Amendment) Act, 2025 ✓
2. Karnataka Land Reforms and Revenue Law (Amendment) Act, 2025
3. Karnataka Land Revenue Law (Amendment) Act, 2025
4. Karnataka Land Reforms (Amendment) Act, 2025
Q.30 Read the given statements carefully and select the correct option.
Statement-I: In saturated carbon compounds, valency of all the atoms is satisfied by single bonds between them.
Statement-II: Saturated carbon compounds are normally not very reactive.
1. Both the statements are true. ✓
2. Statement-I is false but statement-II is true.
3. Statement-I is true but statement-II is false.
4. Both the statements are false.
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### Section : Professional Ability
Q.1 Which of the following is a common cause of physiological jaundice in a newborn?
1. Genetic disorder
2. Immature liver function ✓
3. Vitamin deficiency
4. Liver infection
Q.2 During a quality assurance review, incomplete nursing records are identified. What is the most appropriate interpretation by the nurse administrator?
1. Number of nursing staffs are sufficient for patient care
2. Documentation standards may be inconsistently followed ✓
3. Patient care outcomes are not significantly influenced
4. Verbal communication adequately replaces written records
Q.3 A 45-year-old woman undergoes a total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for ovarian cancer. Two weeks later, she reports sudden onset of hot flashes and night sweats. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
1. Increased adrenal gland hormone secretion after surgery
2. Delayed effect of preoperative chemotherapy regimen
3. Gradual reduction in estrogen due to aging process
4. Abrupt loss of ovarian hormone production following surgery ✓
Q.4 What is a common misconception regarding suicide risk in patients who start feeling better after depression?
1. Their risk is the same as before treatment.
2. They are at reduced risk and do not require monitoring. ✓
3. They have no risk if they deny suicidal thoughts.
4. They are at increased risk and need close monitoring.
Q.5 Health education delivered through television and radio is an example of which approach?
1. Community approach
2. Mass approach ✓
3. Counseling approach
4. Individual approach
Q.6 Which action by a nurse contributes to a therapeutic environment?
1. Focusing on medication administration
2. Listening to patient concerns ✓
3. Rushing to complete procedures
4. Withholding painful information
Q.7 Which of the following is a common type of congenital uterine malformation?
1. Bicornuate uterus ✓
2. Fibroid uterus
3. Polycystic ovary syndrome
4. Endometriosis
Q.8 An instructor wants to assess students' ability to prioritize nursing interventions in complex scenarios. Which method aligns best with higher-order thinking skills in Bloom's Taxonomy?
1. Lecture with factual recall questions
2. Simulation with role-play scenarios ✓
3. Group reading with guided summaries
4. Demonstration of basic procedures
Q.9 In personality development, how does 'will' typically interact with character?
1. Will shapes character independently of values.
2. Will always acts independently of character.
3. Will enables one to act in alignment with their character. ✓
4. Character prevents the expression of will.
Q.10 Which of the following is the first step in preparing a health education plan?
1. Preparing evaluation tools
2. Assessing community needs ✓
3. Selecting media
4. Choosing resource persons
Q.11 During a ward audit, it is found that medication errors have increased over the past month. What is the most appropriate initial step for the nurse administrator to address this issue?
1. Increase the frequency of nursing rounds in the ward
2. Replace all medication carts in the unit immediately
3. Conduct a root cause analysis meeting with nursing staff ✓
4. Send a memo warning staff of disciplinary action
Q.12 Which development type deals with managing and expressing feelings?
1. Social development
2. Cognitive development
3. Physical development
4. Emotional development ✓
Q.13 A 5-year-old child is exposed to measles at school. The healthcare provider recommends administration of the measles vaccine within 72 hours. Which immunoprophylactic principle is being applied in this scenario?
1. Passive immunization to treat chronic infection
2. Cell-mediated immunity to destroy pathogens
3. Active immunization to prevent disease development ✓
4. Autoimmune response to eliminate antigens
Q.14 A nurse is caring for a confused elderly patient. What environmental modification should the nurse prioritize to promote safety?
1. Locking the door at all times
2. Ensuring clear pathways and adequate lighting ✓
3. Removing all personal items from the room
4. Placing the bed near the window
Q.15 A nurse is teaching new parents about the benefits of rooming-in. Which statement by the parents shows an accurate understanding?
1. Rooming-in prevents us from having contact with our baby
2. Rooming-in requires us to have the baby in the nursery overnight
3. Rooming-in allows us to recognize and respond to our baby's needs quickly ✓
4. Rooming-in means we only see our baby during visiting hours
Q.16 Which of the following best describes the purpose of maintaining a minimum stock level for critical ward supplies?
1. To minimize overall supply costs
2. To handle overstock situations
3. To reduce storage space requirements
4. To prevent stock-outs ✓
Q.17 Which social factor has recently emerged as a significant challenge in ensuring child mental health?
1. Improved educational status of parents
2. Rising exposure to social media ✓
3. Sedentary lifestyle
4. Peer pressure
Q.18 During a gynecological assessment, a nurse observes erythema, edema, and a thick, curd-like vaginal discharge. Which organism is most likely responsible for these findings?
1. Candida albicans as the causative agent ✓
2. Neisseria gonorrhoeae as the organism
3. Gardnerella vaginalis as the pathogen
4. Trichomonas vaginalis as the infection
Q.19 If a sick newborn is unable to maintain body temperature, which nursing measure is most effective to prevent hypothermia?
1. Use of radiant warmer or incubator ✓
2. Placing near open window
3. Swaddling with thin blanket
4. Bathing frequently
Q.20 During a nutrition survey, a nurse identifies widespread vitamin A deficiency among preschoolers. Which international organization would most likely support a large-scale supplementation campaign?
1. Food and Agriculture Organization
2. International Red Cross Society
3. World Health Organization
4. United Nations Children's Fund ✓
Q.21 The study of sociology is important because of all the following reasons EXCEPT:
1. It focuses only on bio-medical model of care ✓
2. It helps nurses in improving communication and relationships
3. Sociology helps in holistic patient understanding
4. It equips nurses with cultural competence
Q.22 In the management of pelvic infections such as vaginitis, which two interventions are typically combined for effective treatment?
1. Blood transfusion and surgery
2. Chemotherapy and radiation
3. Antibiotic therapy and patient education on hygiene ✓
4. Physical therapy and dietary changes
Q.23 Which lifestyle modification is recommended during preconception care?
1. Avoidance of smoking ✓
2. Moderate caffeine intake
3. Increased sun exposure
4. Regular handwashing
Q.24 You are assessing a 7-month-old infant. Which of the following findings would be considered the most significant red flag for neurological dysfunction?
1. Absence of the moro reflex
2. Presence of a positive Babinski sign
3. Persistence of the palmar grasp reflex ✓
4. Presence of gag reflex
Q.25 During the evaluation of a school health ambassador program, the nurse notices inconsistent participation among students. What is the most effective strategy to address this issue?
1. Collaborating with student leaders to increase engagement ✓
2. Providing incentives only to high-performing ambassadors
3. Relying only on classroom teachers for motivation
4. Assigning mandatory health tasks to all students
Q.26 A family health nurse is planning interventions for a household with limited financial resources and multiple health issues. Which approach best reflects the integration of the nursing process into the family health care plan?
1. Refer the family to external agencies for all services
2. Implement all recommended interventions simultaneously
3. Prioritize interventions based on the most urgent family needs ✓
4. Focus solely on the care of the chronically ill member
Q.27 Which action best demonstrates an individual's responsibility to promote social justice in healthcare?
1. Giving attention to provide high-quality care to selected patients from society.
2. Reporting only personal grievances
3. Prioritizing health care facilities in private hospitals of urban areas.
4. Advocating for equitable access and treatment for all patient populations. ✓
Q.28 A nurse is teaching about the iron content in breast milk. What is the typical amount of iron found in 100 ml of mature breast milk?
1. 5.6 to 8.4 milligrams iron per 100 ml
2. 0.03 to 0.07 milligrams iron per 100 ml ✓
3. 0.8 to 1.8 milligrams iron per 100 ml
4. 2.5 to 4.5 milligrams iron per 100 ml
Q.29 A community health nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of a family welfare program in a rural area. Which approach best demonstrates application of demographic data to improve contraceptive uptake?
1. Organizing nutrition camps for adolescent girls
2. Identifying age-specific fertility rates to target interventions ✓
3. Encouraging immunization drives for newborns
4. Distributing educational pamphlets to all households
Q.30 When caring for a patient with hypocalcemia, which symptom should the nurse closely observe?
1. Slow pulse
2. Muscle twitching ✓
3. Dry skin
4. Excessive thirst
Q.31 In planning a health promotion activity for a school, which two concepts should the nurse integrate for effective results?
1. Nutrition education and physical activity promotion ✓
2. Water purification and energy conservation
3. Medication prescription and treating chronic illness
4. Parent teacher interaction and academic assessment
Q.32 Following a newborn death, a midwife is involved in the review process. What action demonstrates ethical leadership in addressing systemic issues?
1. Concealing systemic problems to avoid repercussions
2. Restricting feedback from multidisciplinary teams
3. Facilitating open discussion to identify root causes ✓
4. Assigning blame to individuals without analysis
Q.33 Which gland in the endocrine system is primarily responsible for regulating metabolism through the secretion of its main hormone?
1. Pancreas
2. Thyroid gland ✓
3. Pineal gland
4. Adrenal gland
Q.34 Which of the following is a correct sign of a proper latch during breastfeeding?
1. Baby is sucking only the lower lip
2. Baby's lips are tightly closed
3. Baby's mouth covers only the nipple
4. Baby's mouth covers most of the areola ✓
Q.35 A patient with severe chest trauma is unable to ventilate effectively. Which of the following best explains the immediate physiological consequence regarding gas exchange?
1. Increased bicarbonate reabsorption in kidneys
2. Reduced oxygen diffusion from alveoli to blood ✓
3. Enhanced carbon dioxide release from hemoglobin
4. Improved oxygen affinity for hemoglobin
Q.36 When providing oral care to an unconscious patient, what two key actions should be combined to ensure safety and cleanliness?
1. Rinsing the mouth with enough water
2. Using a hard-bristled brush and sitting the patient upright
3. Placing the patient in a side-lying position and using a soft toothbrush ✓
4. Using mouthwash only and keeping the head flat
Q.37 Which joint type is found between the vertebral bodies, allowing limited movement?
1. Ball and socket joint
2. Pivot joint
3. Cartilaginous symphysis joint ✓
4. Saddle joint
Q.38 When planning care for a pediatric patient, which parameter should the nurse prioritize to ensure safe drug dosing?
1. Pharmacokinetics of the drug
2. Nature of the disease
3. Built of the patient
4. Weight of the child ✓
Q.39 A nurse manager notices that actual expenditures for wound care supplies have consistently exceeded the budgeted amount for three consecutive quarters. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate action?
1. Immediately cut supply orders to stay within budget
2. Ignore the trend and maintain the current budget
3. Analyze usage patterns and adjust the budget ✓
4. Request additional funds without analysis
Q.40 When creating objectives for a health education program, which characteristic is most important to ensure measurable outcomes?
1. Flexibility
2. Ambiguity
3. Specificity ✓
4. Generalization
Q.41 A patient develops a urinary tract infection two days after being admitted to the nursing home for surgery. Which of the following best describes this infection?
1. Opportunistic infection before admission
2. Chronic suppurative child onset infection
3. Hospital-acquired infection after admission ✓
4. Community-acquired infection before admission
Q.42 Which of the following is a common complication associated with poorly managed gestational diabetes mellitus?
1. Macrosomia ✓
2. Hyperemesis
3. Placenta previa
4. Preterm labor
Q.43 Which step is performed first in the process of in vitro fertilization?
1. Oocyte retrieval
2. Sperm injection
3. Controlled ovarian stimulation ✓
4. Embryo transfer
Q.44 A post operative patient is receiving dextrose 5% and 0.45 normal saline at 160 ml/hour. The nurse notices puffiness, weight gain of 2 kg and hypotension with complaints of muscle cramps and confusion. The serum sodium level is 126 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings?
1. Excessive dietary sodium and hyperglycemia
2. Dehydration and Potassium deficiency
3. Hyperglycemia and hyponatremic dehydration
4. Fluid overload and hyponatremia ✓
Q.45 A patient with a peptic ulcer is prescribed a proton pump inhibitor and advised to avoid NSAIDs. Which rationale best explains this combined approach?
1. To improve nutrient absorption as ulcer reduces absorption
2. To increase stomach acid for adequate digestion
3. To promote ulcer healing and prevent further irritation ✓
4. To prevent dehydration due to diarrhea
Q.46 Which of the following best defines the 'dynamics of behaviour' in psychology?
1. The social rules people follow
2. The genetic traits only
3. Underlying forces influencing human actions ✓
4. The visible actions of individuals
Q.47 Which of the following is a key advantage of using simulation as a clinical teaching method in nursing education?
1. It provides a safe environment for practicing complex procedures without risk to patients. ✓
2. It guarantees perfect performance in real-life situations.
3. It replaces the need for any actual clinical experience.
4. It limits student interaction and teamwork.
Q.48 Persistence of which reflex beyond 6 months may indicate a neurological abnormality?
1. Moro reflex ✓
2. Babinski reflex
3. Corneal reflex
4. Parachute reflex
Q.49 One of the important functions of plasma proteins includes:
1. Coagulation of blood ✓
2. Oxygen transport
3. Nutrient absorption
4. Regulating function of heart
Q.50 A nurse encounters four patients after a mass casualty event. Who should be given the highest triage priority?
1. A patient with severe respiratory distress ✓
2. A patient with minor lacerations
3. A patient with a fractured arm
4. A patient with no pulse or respiration
Q.51 A patient arrives with severe burns. After ensuring a patent airway, what is the next step in the emergency management?
1. Cover the burns with sterile sheets
2. Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics
3. Provide intravenous analgesics
4. Initiate fluid resuscitation ✓
Q.52 Which is NOT a function of the planning stage in nursing administration?
1. Setting priorities for activities
2. Outlining steps to reach objectives
3. Supervising staff during procedures ✓
4. Identifying goals for the unit
Q.53 During a health education session, which strategy is most effective in promoting adherence to a therapeutic diet for diabetic patients?
1. Involving patients in meal planning ✓
2. Providing complex dietary charts
3. Focusing only on calorie restriction
4. Recommending abrupt dietary changes
Q.54 What is the primary purpose of Gram staining in microbiology?
1. To differentiate bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-negative ✓
2. To sterilize bacterial samples
3. To determine bacterial shape
4. To measure bacterial growth
Q.55 In managing a child with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus, which combination is essential for effective care?
1. Physical therapy and corticosteroids
2. Antibiotics and bed rest
3. Iron supplements and increased hydration
4. Insulin therapy and blood glucose monitoring ✓
Q.56 When managing minor ailments in the community, which two key actions should a GNM nurse take according to the standing instructions?
1. Schedule advanced diagnostic tests
2. Ignore standing instructions and use personal judgment
3. Assess symptoms and provide appropriate care ✓
4. Diagnose and treat only with antibiotics
Q.57 In forensic psychiatry, following nursing standards helps to:
1. Prioritize personal opinions over evidence-based practice.
2. Allow deviations from ethical care based on personal beliefs.
3. Reduce risk of legal liability for nurses and institutions. ✓
4. Encourage nurses to make decisions without consulting guidelines.
Q.58 A patient presents with a torn ligament after an athletic injury. Which tissue property best explains the slow healing process in this structure?
1. Adipose tissue provides energy storage
2. Simple squamous epithelium promotes rapid diffusion
3. Dense regular connective tissue has limited blood supply ✓
4. Elastic cartilage allows flexibility in joints
Q.59 During a health education workshop, the facilitator wants to clarify misconceptions regarding vaccination. Which communication strategy is most effective for engaging participants in critical thinking and reflection?
1. Reading statistics aloud from a report
2. Distributing printed vaccine schedules
3. Facilitating an open question and answer session ✓
4. Showing a recorded testimonial video
Q.60 In community health nursing, what is the nurse's role when implementing specialized services under a government health insurance scheme?
1. Facilitating access to scheme benefits and coordinating referrals ✓
2. Focusing exclusively on administrative tasks
3. Limiting care to immunizations
4. Providing only curative care
Q.61 Which type of communication involves using spoken words?
1. Written communication
2. Verbal communication ✓
3. Symbolic communication
4. Nonverbal communication
Q.62 What is a key aspect of family health care services?
1. Focusing on treatment of existing diseases only
2. Prevention of diseases in all family members ✓
3. Focusing on sick individuals at a time
4. Focusing on mental health issues only
Q.63 Which interview technique best encourages a patient to elaborate on their feelings during a mental health assessment?
1. Yes/no questioning
2. Leading questions
3. Open-ended questioning ✓
4. Closed-ended questioning
Q.64 According to NFHS vital statistics, which indicator most directly reflects improvements in child health services?
1. Growth in the number of private hospitals
2. Decrease in the crude birth rate
3. Increase in immunization coverage ✓
4. Rise in the population growth rate
Q.65 Which intervention is most crucial when providing therapeutic care to an unconscious patient to prevent aspiration?
1. Placing the patient in lateral recumbent position ✓
2. Encouraging oral intake
3. Placing the patient in a supine position
4. Using a soft pillow under the neck
Q.66 A hospital researcher wants to compare pain management strategies across different departments and ensures equal representation from surgery, pediatrics, and oncology. Which sampling technique should be employed?
1. Snowball sampling
2. Stratified sampling ✓
3. Convenience sampling
4. Simple random sampling
Q.67 A child recently diagnosed with stage IV renal cancer is scheduled for a palliative consultation. When the nurse enters the room, the parent says, "There must be a mistake with the pathology report. My child always been healthy. I want a re-test at a different hospital." Which stage of DABDA is the parent exhibiting?
1. Bargaining
2. Displacement
3. Denial ✓
4. Acceptance
Q.68 If a child misses the second dose of DPT, what is the recommended action according to the immunization schedule?
1. Skip the missed dose entirely
2. Wait until the next scheduled booster
3. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible ✓
4. Restart the entire DPT series
Q.69 What is the most effective position to promote lung expansion in patients with impaired respiratory function?
1. High Fowler's position ✓
2. Trendelenburg position
3. Prone position
4. Lithotomy position
Q.70 During a morning assessment, a nurse notes that a patient has cool, clammy skin, a weak pulse, and decreased urine output. What is the most appropriate nursing action based on these findings?
1. Encourage increased oral fluid intake rapidly
2. Apply warm blankets and increase room temperature
3. Reposition the patient to a high Fowler's position
4. Report possible hypovolemic shock to the physician ✓
---RRB Paramedical 2025 Nursing Superintendent Question Paper and Answer Key PDF Engilsh (Mar 12, 2026) (Shift 1)
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