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RBI Grade B Previous Year Question Paper, RBI Grade B Phase 2 Question Paper PDF, RBI Grade B Phase 2 July 25 2026 Question Paper, RBI Grade B Phase 2 Previous Year Paper PDF Free Download, RBI Grade B Solved Question Papers, RBI Grade B Phase 2 Memory BaRBI GRADE B Exam
Previous Paper
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RBI Grade B Previous Year Question Paper 2016
English Language (Questions & Answers)
Directions Q. (1 - 7): In the given passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
Against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately.
We all have a ___ (1) ___ in the infrastructure surrounding us-the roads, buildings, power lines and
telephone networks that we __ (2) _____ on daily. How well they are built and operated is __ (3) ____
to economic growth and is a key arbiter of an economy's competitiveness- and yet, virtually every
economy faces an array of infrastructure challenges. Just a few examples illustrate some of the
pressing issues. South Africa's power distribution network has an estimated maintenance backlog of $4
billion- equivalent to half of the country's total investment in electronic power generation and distribution
in 2011. The U.S. Department of Transportation estimates that 15% of the country's roads are in an
unacceptable condition and says that road congestion costs the US an estimated $100 billion per year.
Just to keep _____ (4) _____ with anticipated global GDP growth, the world needs to spend $57 trillion,
or on average $3.2 trillion a year, on infrastructure over the next 18 years. That is more than the entire
worldwide stock of infrastructure on the ground today-and nearly 60% more than the world has invested
over the past 18 years. Tackling maintenance backlogs, future-proofing infrastructure to cope with
climate change and ___ (5) _____development goals such as access to clean water and all-weather
roads to transport goods to markets would cost a great deal. The bill for all of that looks prohibitive at a
time when many governments are highly indebted and capital is tight. A focus on both, the huge need
for additional investment and potential difficulties in financing it, ___ (6) ____ the debate Pessimism
rules, but it needn't be that way. There are ways of cutting the bill down to size and dealing with the
challenge. The answer ___ (7) ____ in improving the way we plan, build and operate infrastructure- in
other words, we need to boost its productivity.
Q. (1)
1. Stake
2. Interest
3. Compromise
4. Decision
5. Subsidy
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Answer: 1 (We all have a stake in the infrastructure)
Q. (2)
1. Use
2. Rely
3. Confide
4. Commute
5. Charge
Answer: 2 (We all have a stake in the infrastructure surrounding us-the roads, buildings, power lines
and telephone networks that we rely on daily)
Q. (3)
1. Close
2. Deciding
3. Trivial
4. Crucial
5. Insistent
Answer: 4 (How well they are built and operated is crucial to economic growth and is a key arbiter of
an economy's competitiveness- and yet, virtually every economy faces an array of infrastructure
challenges)
Q. (4)
1. Gait
2. Stride
3. Walk
4. Tread
5. pace
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Answer: 5 (Just to keep pace with anticipated global GDP growth, the world needs to spend $57
trillion, or on average $3.2 trillion a year, on infrastructure over the next 18 years)
Q. (5)
1. Competing
2. Meeting
3. Succeeding
4. Engaging
5. Agreeing
Answer: 2 (Tackling maintenance backlogs, future-proofing infrastructure to cope with climate change
and meeting development goals such as access to clean water and all-weather roads to transport
goods to markets would cost a great deal)
Q. (6)
1. Convey
2. Subject
3. Dominates
4. Command
5. Prompt
Answer: 3 (A focus on both, the huge need for additional investment and potential difficulties in
financing it, dominates the debate Pessimism rules, but it needn't be that way)
Q. (7)
1. Reclines
2. Lay
3. Expects
4. Lies
5. Belongs
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Answer: 4 (The answer lies in improving the way we plan, build and operate infrastructure- in other
words, we need to boost its productivity)
Directions Q. (8 - 10): Select the phrase/connector from the given three options which can be used to
form a single sentence from the two sentences given below, implying the same meaning expressed in
the statement sentences.
Q. (8) Higher prices of cereals, rice, fruits and pulses led to an increase in food inflation. Non – food
inflation was driven mainly by fibres and oilseeds.
A. While higher prices of cereals
B. Despite the higher price of rice, fruits and pulses
C. Non- food inflation was always driven by
1. Both A and B
2. Only B
3. Both B and C
4. Only A
5. None of these
Answer: 4
Q. (9) The entrepreneurship ethos in India has come a long way and has made rapid strides in recent
years. It now ranks in the top five start-up communities in the world.
A. India ranks fifth among the start-up communities in the world
B. he country has made rapid strides in recent years because
C. Moreover, the entrepreneurship ethos in India has come a long way
1. Both A and B
2. Only B
3. Only C
4. Only A
5. None of these
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Answer: 2
Q. (10) There are enough dirges being sung for public sector banks, but strangely the performance of
their stocks does not reflect this. Five out of the seven public sector banks made losses and the profit –
makers showed a worse bad loans ratio.
A. On account of the fact that five out of seven public sector banks made losses
B. The performance of public sector banks does not reflect
C. Although dirges are being sung for public sector banks
1. Both A and B
2. Only B
3. Only C
4. Only A
5. None of these
Answer: 4
Directions Q. (11 - 15): Each question given below has two blanks, each blank indicates that
something has been omitted. Choose the word that best fits in the meaning of the sentence as a
whole.
Q. (11) Most auto-rickshaw drivers in the city __________ to ply for short distances since doing so
does not ________ them much.
1. agree, profit
2. Refuse, earn
3. disagree, revenue
4. accept, affects
5. ask, comfort
Answer: 2 (Most auto-rickshaw drivers in the city refuse to ply for short distances since doing so does
not earn them much)
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Q. (12) Though surprising, it is __________ that Rupesh has not got the job by _______ of his parents'
political connections.
1. veritable, inspiration
2. veracious, influence
3. paradoxical, intent
4. true, virtue
5. alleged, power
Answer: 4 (Though surprising, it is true that Rupesh has not got the job by virtue of his parents'
political connections)
Q. (13) In order to avoid _______ due to car parking, appropriate signage and painted boundary strips
at parking locations have been ________ in the building premises.
1. problem, install
2. traffic, felicitated
3. congestion, provided
4. accidents, fix
5. sleeping, used
Answer: 3 (In order to avoid congestion due to car parking, appropriate signage and painted
boundary strips at parking locations have been provided in the building premises)
Q. (14) During power cuts, one can never get _________ to the customer service executive to
________ a complaint regarding the same.
1. across, lodge
2. through, write
3. over, dictate
4. along, create
5. off, file
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Answer: 1 (During power cuts, one can never get across to the customer service executive to lodge a
complaint regarding the same)
Q. (15) In the olden days, shopkeepers used to dupe the ________ customers by attacking removable
magnetic weights _______ their weighing instruments.
1. cheating, for
2. strict, with
3. docile, across
4. innocent, under
5. lovely, from
Answer: 4 (In the olden days, shopkeepers used to dupe the innocent customers by attacking
removable magnetic weights under their weighing instruments)
Directions Q. (16 - 20): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions.
The term "shadow bank" was coined in 2007 to describe risky off-balance-sheet vehicles hatched by
banks to sell loans repackaged as bonds. Today, the term is used more loosely to cover all financial
intermediaries that perform the bank-like activity but are not regulated as one. These include mobile
payment systems, pawnshops, peer-to-peer lending websites, hedge funds and bond-trading platforms
set up by technology firms. Among the biggest are asset management companies. In 2013 investment
funds make such loans raised a whopping $97 billion worldwide. The Financial Stability Board, an
international watchdog estimates that globally, the informal lending sector serviced assets worth $80
trillion in 2014 up from $26 trillion more than a decade earlier. Shadow banks have flourished in part
because the traditional ones, battered by losses incurred during the financial slump, are under
pressure. Tighter capital requirements and fear of heavy penalties have kept them grounded. In China,
where banks are discouraged from lending to certain industries and are mandated to offer frustratingly
low-interest rates on deposits, non-banks fill the gap. About two-thirds of all lending in the country by
shadow banks are in fact 'bank loans in disguise'. Critics worry that unlike banks, which lend against
deposits from customers, nonbanks loan money using investor's cash and rotating lines of credit. This
is especially risky when skittish investors who bet on short term gains withdraw their money at once.
But non-bank financing need not always be a bad thing. It offers an additional source of credit to
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individuals and businesses in countries where formal banking is either expensive or absent. It also
takes some burden off banks which have big 'maturity mismatches' (the difference between the amount
of time a depositor's money is parked in the bank minus the time that it is loaned out). And belatedly,
regulators, too, are waking up to the new financial order of shadow banking. Banks must now declare
structured investment vehicles on their balance sheets. Authorities are imposing leverage limits on
various forms of shadow banks in America and Europe. It is a small start to rein in an industry that
accounts for a quarter of the global financial system.
Q. (16) Which of the following can be said about banking regulators?
1. These have been innovative in helping economies recover from the 2008 crisis.
2. Their approach to the regulation of shadow banks is unnecessarily stringent.
3. These have washed their hands off and warned people against shadow banks.
4. These have been slow to respond to the growth of shadow banking.
5. None of the given statements can be said about banking regulators.
Answer: 4 (Banking regulators have been slow to respond to the growth of shadow banking)
Q. (17) Which of the following is the central theme of the passage?
1. The global economy is headed for a financial collapse given the state of China's economy.
2. Shadow banking, an indispensable part of the global financial system, is unnecessarily
perceived as risky.
3. There is tremendous upheaval in the banking sector with only state-owned banks safe and
sound.
4. Shadow banks which can be useful are a high-risk alternative to traditional banks and need
regulation.
5. Traditional banks are the safest given the risk the financial system currently faces.
Answer: 4 (Shadow banks which can be useful are a high-risk alternative to traditional banks and need
regulation)
Q. (18) Which of the following has/have impacted the growth of shadow banks?
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A. Faulty audits of these institutions by the Financial Stability Board.
B. The state of traditional banks post the financial crisis.
C. Need for credit which traditional banks are unable to meet.
1. Only A and B
2. Only B and C
3. Only B
4. All A, B and C
5. Only A and C
Answer: 2 (The state of traditional banks post the financial crisis and unable to meet the need for credit
have impacted the growth of shadow banks)
Q. (19) Which of the following can be used to replace the phrase ‘Among the biggest are asset
management companies’?
1. Asset management companies are responsible for over half the credit in America.
2. The financial crisis hurt asset management companies in China the most.
3. Asset management companies occupy the largest share of shadow banking firms.
4. With high rates of interest asset management companies are showing the highest profits.
5. None of the given statements.
Answer: 3 (Asset management companies occupy the largest share of shadow banking firms)
Q. (20) Which of the following aptly describes the tone of the passage?
1. Obsequious
2. Reckless
3. Poignant
4. Acrimonious
5. None of these
Answer: 5
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Directions Q. (21 - 25): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic
error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. If there is ‘No error', mark the answer (5).
(Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
Q. (21) One way of dealing with such a (1) / situation is by issuing a legal notice (2) / to the accused,
when the other is (3) / to settle the matter amicably. (4) / No error (5)
1. One way of dealing with such a
2. situation is by issuing a legal notice
3. to the accused, when the other is
4. to settle the matter amicably
5. No error
Answer: 3 (One way of dealing with such a situation is by issuing a legal notice to the accused, while
the other is to settle the matter amicably.)
Q. (22) The shrewd manager left Samarth (1) / with no choice however to resign from (2) / the post by
transferring him to (3) / an entirely remote and hostile location. (4) / No error (5)
1. The shrewd manager left Samarth
2. with no choice however to resign from
3. the post by transferring him to
4. an entirely remote and hostile location
5. No error
Answer: 2 (The shrewd manager left Samarth with no choice whatsoever to resign from the post by
transferring him to an entirely remote and hostile location.)
Q. (23) It is ironic that the management (1) / of the organisation refuses to adhere (2) / to the same
standards of corporate governance (3) / that it requires of companies deals with it. (4) / No error (5)
1. It is ironic that the management
2. of the organisation refuses to adhere
3. to the same standards of corporate governance
4. that it requires of companies deals with it
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5. No error
Answer: 4 (It is ironic that the management of the organisation refuses to adhere to the same
standards of corporate governance that it requires of companies dealing with it.)
Q. (24) With so lowly call rates, the new (1) / telecom service company is definitely going (2) / to give
the current market leaders a (3) / run for their money and market share. (4) / No error (5)
1. With so lowly call rates, the new
2. telecom service company is definitely going
3. to give the current market leaders a
4. run for their money and market share
5. No error
Answer: 1 (With so low call rates, the new telecom service company is definitely going to give the
current market leaders a run for their money and market share.)
Q. (25) While retailers may well be on their (1) / way to experiment with the change in policy (2) / for the
next few months, consumers may also take (3) / time to get used to late night shopping. (4) / No error
(5)
1. While retailers may well be on their
2. way to experiment with the change in policy
3. for the next few months, consumers may also take
4. time to get used to late night shopping
5. No error
Answer: 2 (While retailers may well be on their way to experimenting with the change in policy for the
next few months, consumers may also take time to get used to late-night shopping.)
Directions Q. (26 - 30): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions.
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These are difficult times for America's free-traders. There is anger at `globalism'. Even Americans who
were in favour of the Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP)-an ambitious new agreement between 12 Pacific-
rim-countries- have turned against it. This may be linked to the globalisation of supply chains.
Production of traded goods has become `unbundled'. Firms once tended to design new gadgets and
order the supplies needed to build them in a single factory or city. In the past' few decades, more
efficient global shipping and improvements in communications allow firms to spread production across
far-flung locations to design phone in America, source parts from several Asian economies and
assemble it in China. The share of parts and components in trade rose from 22% to 28% between 1980
and 2000. In 2005, trade-in 'intermediate inputs' accounted for an estimated 56% of trade in goods and
73% in services across rich countries. This dispersion of production chains contributed to a dramatic
acceleration in global trade growth. It also changed the way many workers view trade. As production
has spread around the world, countries have specialised in different segments of the supply chain.
While those, such as China, with lots of low-cost labour, focused on manufacturing and assembly, more
advanced economies followed a different path. Cities like New York and San Francisco enjoyed an
initial advantage in the most lucrative bits of the Modern supply chain: research and development,
engineering and finance. As a result, growth in supply-chain trade has been a boon for the powerful
and profitable firms with headquarters in those cities, and for the highly skilled, well compensated
workers they employ. America's lot in this new world is, on the whole, a happy one. Many countries
envy its fortunate position as a hub for innovative cities. Most studies of the potential effects of TPP
conclude that the deal would raise American output by a small but meaningful amount: just under a
percentage point of GDP, perhaps over the next 15 years. But the obstacles confronting new trade
deals are formidable. More generous redistribution, perhaps through an expanded programme of trade-
adjustment assistance, could help neutralise some opposition. But discomfort with TPP is mostly rooted
in a mistrust of the elite. Voters who are sceptical of the value of TPP will be unlikely to change their
stripes without some demonstration that pacts of its kind benefit the many rather than just the few.
Q. (26) Which of the following is true in context of the passage?
1. Global public opinion is against America's trade policies.
2. In America, wages of low skilled workers have risen tremendously over the last decade.
3. America's GDP growth has fallen in the past few years.
4. American firms are no longer a leader in technology.
5. None of these
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Answer: 5
Q. (27) Which of the following best describes America's view of TPP?
1. Americans are unequivocally in favour of the TPP as it will benefit them the most.
2. The TPP is detrimental as it has fuelled long-term conflicts between rich and developing
nations.
3. The TPP has elevated mass unemployment and is resented by all Americans.
4. The TPP has strengthened America's relationship with Asia and Europe.
5. Americans are wary of the TPP as its benefits are indeterminate.
Answer: 5 (Americans are wary of the TPP as its benefits are indeterminate)
Q. (28) What do the statistics in the passage convey?
1. Developed countries are benefitting most from trade agreements.
2. The TPP has benefitted China and America the most.
3. China's dominance in manufacturing is waning.
4. Global trade has grown explosively.
5. Contrary to political projections, trade-in Asian has not risen dramatically.
Answer: 4 (The statistics in the passage convey that the global trade has grown explosively.)
Q. (29) Which of the following is the author's view of free trade?
1. Uniform laws and regulations across developing countries have vastly benefitted free trade.
2. There have been tremendous shifts in free trade but its benefits need to be more equitably
distributed.
3. Protecting national interest at the cost of free trade is the need of the hour.
4. It is a service to reduce the gap between the haves and the have-nots.
5. None of the options illustrates the author's view -of free trade.
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Answer: 2 (The author's view of free trade is that there have been tremendous shifts in free trade but
its benefits need to be more equitably distributed.)
Q. (30) According to the passage, which of the following is/are (an) effects of ‘unbundling’?
A. Unfair and exploitative working conditions in developing countries.
B. Drop in quality standards of manufactured goods.
C. Unemployment for some sections of the workforce in developed countries.
1. Only A and B
2. Only B and C
3. Only C
4. All A, B and C
5. Only A and C
Answer: 3 (According to the passage, unemployment for some sections of the workforce in developed
countries is an effect of ‘unbundling’)
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RBI Grade B Previous Year Question Paper (2016)
Quantitative Aptitude (Questions & Solutions)
Directions Q. (1 - 5): In the following number series only one number is wrong. Find out the wrong
number.
Q. (1) 18.3, 20.6, 16, 22.9, 13.7, 2.2, 11.4
1. 2.2
2. 16
3. 22.9
4. 20.6
5. 13.7
Answer: 1
Solution: The pattern of the given series is as follows:
18.3 + (2.3 x 1) = 20.6
20.6 - (2.3 x 2) = 16
16 + (2.3 x 3) = 22.9
22.9 - (2.3 x 4) = 13.7
13.7 + (2.3 x 5) = 25.2
25.2 - (2.3 x 6) = 11.4
Therefore, the wrong number = 2.2
Q. (2) 2, 4, 11, 37, 151, 771, 4633
1. 151
2. 4
3. 37
4. 771
5. 11
Answer: 1
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Solution: The pattern of the given series is as follows:
(2 x 1) + 2 = 4
(4 x 2) + 3 = 11
(11 x 3) + 4 = 37
(37 x 4) + 5 = 153
(153 x 5) + 6 = 771
(771 x 6) + 7 = 4633
Hence, the wrong number = 151
Q. (3) 188, 154, 140, 132, 128, 126, 125
1. 154
2. 132
3. 128
4. 140
5. 126
Answer: 1
Solution: The pattern of the given series is as follows:
188 - 25 = 156
156 - 24 = 140
140 - 23 = 132
132 - 22 = 128
128 - 21 = 126
126 - 20 = 125
Hence, the wrong number = 154
Q. (4) 6, 4, 5, 11, 39, 179, 1127
1. 4
2. 39
3. 179
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4. 5
5. 11
Answer: 3
Solution: The pattern of the given series is as follows:
(6 x 1) - 2 = 4
(4 x 2) - 3 = 5
(5 x 3) - 4 = 11
(11 x 4) - 5 = 39
(39 x 5) - 6 = 189
(189 x 6) - 7 = 1127
Hence, the wrong number = 179
Q. (5) 9, 5, 6, 10.5, 23, 61, 183
1. 61
2. 23
3. 10.5
4. 6
5. 5
Answer: 1
Solution: The pattern of the series is as follows:
(9 x 0.5) + 0.5 = 5
(5 x 1) + 1 = 6
(6 x 1.5) + 1.5 = 10.5
(10.5 x 2) + 2 = 23
(23 x 2.5) + 2.5 = 60
(60 x 3) + 3 = 183
Hence, 61 is the incorrect number.
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Q. (6) To complete a project, 18 women take 4 more days than the number of days taken by 12 men. If
eight men complete the project in 9 days, how much work will be left when 15 women and 12 men
together work for 3 days?
1. 2/3
2. 3/4
3. 3/2
4. 1/4
5. 1/2
Answer: 4
Solution:
According to the given situation,
(M1 x D1) / W 1 = (M2 x D2) / W 2
⇒ (8 x 9) / 1 = (12 x D2) / 1
⇒ D2 = 17/12 = 6
Therefore, time taken by 18 women = 6 + 4 = 10 days
Also given, (12 x 6) men = (18 x 10) women
⇒ 2 men = 5 women
Therefore, work done by 15 women and 12 men together = work done by 18 men
According to the question,
(12 x 6) / 1 = (18 x 3) / W2
⇒ W 2 = 54/72
⇒ W2 = ¾
Hence, work left = 1 - ¾ = ¼
Q. (7) The respective ratio between the time taken by a boat to travel the same distance downstream in
stream A and stream B is 8:7. The speed of the boat is 12 km/h and the speed of stream A is half the
speed of stream B. What is the speed of stream B? (in km/h)
1. 5
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
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5. 6
Answer: 4
Solution: Let the speed of stream B = 2x km/hour and that of stream A = x km/hour
Speed of the boat = 12 km/hour
According to the question,
[1/ (12 + x)][1/ (12 + 2x)] = 8/7
⇒ (12+2x)/ (12 + x) = 8/7
⇒ 84x + 14x = 96+8x
⇒ x = 12/6 = 2
Hence, speed of stream B = 2 x 2 = 4 km/hour
Directions Q. (8 - 12): Each of the following questions is followed by three statements I, II and III. Find
out whether the data given in each statement is sufficient to answer the questions.
Q. (8) Arun and Bhadra are brothers. In how many years from now will Bhadra’s age be 50 years?
I. The ratio of the current ages of Arun and Bhadra is 5:7 respectively.
II. Bhadra was born 10 years before Arun.
III. 5 years hence, Arun’s age would be three-fourth of Bhadra’s age at that time.
1. Any two of the three
2. Only II and either I or III
3. All I, II and III
4. Only II and III
5. Only I and III
Answer: 1
Solution: From statement I & II:
Let the present ages of Arun and Bhadra be y and y + 10 respectively.
Therefore, y / (y + 10) = 5/7
⇒ 7y = 5y + 50
⇒ 2y = 50
⇒ y = 25 years
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Hence, the present age of Bhadra = 25 + 10 = 35 years
From statement II & III:
Let Arun's age = y years and Bhadra’s age = (y + 10) years
Therefore, (y + 5)/(y + 15) = ¾
⇒ 4y + 20 = 3y + 45
⇒ y = 25 years
Thus, the present age of Bhadra = 25 + 10 = 35 years
Hence, any of any two of the three statements are sufficient.
Q. (9) A right-angled triangle is inscribed in a given circle. What is the area of the given circle (in cm2)?
I. The base and height of the triangle (in cm) are both the roots of the equation x2 - 23x + 120 = 0
II. The sum of the base and height of the triangle is 23 cm.
III. The height of the right-angled triangle is greater than the base of the same.
1. III and either I or II
2. All of them
3. Only II and III
4. Only I
5. Either I or II
Answer: 4
Solution: x2 - 23x + 120 = 0
⇒ x2 - 8x - 15x + 120 = 0
⇒ x(x - 8) - 15(x - 8) = 0
⇒ (x - 8) (x - 15) = 0
⇒ x = 8, 15
Thus, base = 8 cm and height = 15 cm (or vice versa)
Therefore, hypotenuse of a right angled triangle = (88) + (1515)
= 64+225
= 289 = 17 cm
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We know, radius of circle = half of hypotenuse
= 17/2 = 8.5 cm
Therefore, area of circle = ℼr2
= (22/7) x (8.5)2
= 226.8 cm2
Clearly, we cannot find base and height from statements II or III. Thus, they are insufficient.
Hence, only statement I is sufficient to answer the question.
Q. (10) What is the ratio between the marked price of two identical items, P and Q, which had been
purchased at the same price?
I. Item P was sold at a profit of 20%, while item Q was sold at a loss of 10%.
II. Item P was sold at a discount of 4%. The percentage by which Item Q’s cost price been marked
up is 2.5 times the profit % earned on selling item P.
III. The overall profit earned on selling items P and Q was 5%.
1. Only I and II.
2. All I, II and III.
3. Any two of the three.
4. Only II and III.
5. The information provided in all three statements are not sufficient.
Answer: 1
Solution: From I and II,
Selling price of P = 1.2x
Selling price of Q = 0.9x
Now, marked price of P = 1.2𝑥/ (100 − 50/3) x 100
Marked price of Q = x (1.2)
∴ Required ratio = Marked price of P : Marked price of Q
= (1.2𝑥/250) x (3×100)/1.2𝑥
= 300 : 250
=6:5
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Q. (11) Three workers A, B and C complete a given piece of work within different time spans while
working individually. What is the ratio of efficiencies of C and B respectively?
I. A takes 100% more time than C to complete the given piece of work.
II. B completes the given piece of work within 8 days.
III. B takes 2 days less than A to complete the given piece of work.
1. Information in all three statements are not sufficient
2. All of the three
3. Only II and III
4. II and either only I or only III
5. Only I and III
Answer: 2
Solution: From I, II & III:
Time taken by B to complete the work = 8 days
Time taken by A to complete the work = 8 + 2 = 10 days
Time taken by C = (100/200) x 10 = 5 days
We know that, efficiency ∝ 1/time
Therefore, the ratio of efficiencies of C and B respectively = 8:5
Thus, all the statements are sufficient.
Q. (12) What is the three-digit number having each digit different from the other?
I. Each of the digits of the given number is a multiple of 3.
II. The digit in the unit’s place is 50% less than that in the hundred’s place.
1. Both I and II
2. The information in all three statements is not sufficient
3. Only II
4. Only I
5. Either I or II
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Answer: 1
Solution: The three digits of the number are distinct
From statement I:
Each digit is a multiple of 3
∴ The number are 369, 396, 963…
Thus, the statement I alone is not sufficient.
From statement II:
Digit in the unit’s place is 50% less than that in the hundred’s place
∴ The number = 201, 211, 221, 402...
Thus, statement II alone is not sufficient.
From statements I & II:
Digit at unit's place is half of the digit at hundred's place and all digits are multiples of 3.
∴ The only possibility = 693
Thus, statements I & II together are important to answer the given question.
Directions Q. (13 - 17): Study the following table and answer the given questions
Village % of literates in total % of literates in male % of literates in
population (male + female) population female population
A ___ 72 70
B 61 64 56
C 73.8 75 72
D 60 __ 60
E 70 __ 70
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Q. (13) Only 40% and 20% of females were graduates in villages A and C respectively. If the female
population of villages A and C were equal, what is the respective ratio of the number of non-graduate
females (including illiterate females) in villages A and C?
1. 81:107
2. 90:107
3. 90:121
4. 40:49
5. 45:49
Answer: 2
Solution: Let the number of females be y
Therefore, literate females in village A = (70/100) y = 7y/10
Graduate females in village A = (40/100) (7y/10) = 7y/25
Also, literate females in village C = (72/100) y = 18y/25
Graduate females in village C = (20/100) (18y/25) = 18y/25
Therefore, the ratio of the number of non-graduate females (including illiterate females) in villages A
and C = (y - 7y/25) : (y - 18y/25)
= (18y/25) : (107y/125)
= 90 : 107
Q. (14) If in village E, 40% of male literates and 40% of female literates were graduates, what percent
of the total population were graduates?
1. 32%
2. 28%
3. 35%
4. 40%
5. 30%
Answer: 2
Solution: Let the number of males and the number of females in village E be x and y respectively.
Therefore, the total literate population = 70/100 (x + y)
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Literate males = 70x/100
Literate females = 70y/100
Therefore, literate males who are graduates = (40/100) (7x/10) = 7x/25
Literate females who are graduates = (40/100) (7y/10) = 7y/25
Hence, required percentage = [{(7x/25) + (7y/25)} / (x + y)] 100
= (7/25) x 100
= 28%
Q. (15) In village B, the number of females was what percent less than the number of males?
1. 20%
2. 30%
3. 32%
4. 40%
5. 45%
Answer: 4
Solution: Let the number of males and the number of females in village B be x and y respectively.
Therefore, total literate population = 61/100 (x + y)
Literate males = 64x/100
Literate females = 56y/100
∴ (64x/100) + (56y/100) = 61/100 (x + y)
⇒ 64x + 56y = 61x + 61y
⇒ 64x - 61x = 61y - 56y
⇒ 3x = 5y
⇒ x/y = 5/3
Hence, required percentage = [(5 - 3)/5] x 100
= 2 x 20 = 40%
Q. (16) The total number of literates (male and female) in Village D was 4320. If the number of illiterate
females was 320 more than the number of illiterate males, what was the male population of the village?
1. 3200
----------------------------------------------------------------------
2. 3000
3. 2800
4. 3600
5. 3500
Answer: 1
Solution: Total number of literate population of village D = 4320
∴ Total population = 100 × (4320/60) = 7200
∴ Total illiterate population = 7200 – 4320 = 2880
Let the illiterate male be 𝑥
Now, according to question,
Illiterate female = 𝑥 +320
∴ 𝑥 + 𝑥 + 320 = 2880
2𝑥 = 2560
∴ 𝑥 = 1280
∴ Illiterate female = 1280 + 320 = 1600
% of illiterate females = 100 - 60 = 40%
∴ 40% = 1600
∴ 100 % = 4000
∴ Total male population = 7200 – 4000 = 3200
Q. (17) In village C, the number of females increased by 20% from 2011 to 2015. If the number of
literate females was equal in 2011 and 2015, what percent of the female population of village C was
literate?
1. 66%
2. 54%
3. 60%
4. 72%
5. 56%
Answer: 3
Solution: Let the female population in village C in 2011 be 𝑥
Then the female population in village C in 2015 = 𝑥 × (120/100) = 6𝑥/5
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Now, literate females in 2011 = Literate females in 2015
Let % of literate females in 2015 = y%
Then, 𝑥 × (72/100) = (6𝑥/5) × (𝑦/100)
∴ y = 60%
Directions Q. (18 - 22): In the given questions, read the statement and compare the two given
quantities on its basis.
Q. (18) 1 > a > 0 > b
I. value of [(𝑎+𝑏) − 𝑎 − 𝑏²] / [(𝑎+𝑏) - ( 𝑎−𝑏)²]
2 2 2
II. value of 1 / 2(𝑎𝑏 + 𝑎𝑏)
3
1. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
2. Quantity I > Quantity II
3. Quantity I < Quantity II
4. Quantity I = Quantity II
5. Quantity ≤ Quantity I
Answer: 2
Solution:
Quantity I: (a+b)2 - a2 -b2 / (a+b)2 – (a-b)2
= 2ab/4ab
=½
Quantity II: 1 / 2(𝑎𝑏3 + 𝑎𝑏)
= 1 / 2 ab (b2 +1)
Therefore, 1 > a > 0 > b
So, b will be negative.
Hence, quantity II will be negative i.e., Quantity I > Quantity II
Q. (19) There are three positive numbers - a, b and c. The average of a and b is less than the average
of b and c by 1.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
I. Value of c
II. Value of a
1. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
2. Quantity I > Quantity II
3. Quantity I < Quantity II
4. Quantity I = Quantity II
5. Quantity ≤ Quantity II
Answer: 2
Solution: According to the question,
(𝑎 + 𝑏) / 2 = [(𝑏 + 𝑐) / 2] - 1
⇒ (𝑎 + 𝑏) / 2 = (𝑏 + 𝑐 − 2) / 2
⇒a=c-2
Thus, the value of c will be greater than the value of a.
Hence, Quantity I > Quantity II
Q. (20) Three equal circles are drawn on a triangle ABC, with points A, B and C as the centres. The
radius of each of the circle is equal to half of the side of the triangle ABC.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
I. The area of the shaded region 2 (in cm²)
II. 30 cm²
1. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
2. Quantity I > Quantity II
3. Quantity I <Quantity II
4. Quantity I = Quantity II
5. Quantity ≤ Quantity II
Answer: 3
Solution: Area of shaded region 1 = area of circle – sector of circle
= πr2 - [(ϴ/360) x πr2]
= πr2 [1 - (60°/360°)]
= πr2 (1 − 1/6) = 5/6 πr2
Now, 5πr2/6 = 128 ⅓
= 385/3
∴ r2 = (385 × 6 × 7) / (3×22×5)
= 49
∴ r = 7 cm
Quantity I ⇒ Area of shaded region 2 = (3 - π/2) x r2
= (0.16) x (7)2
= 49 𝑥 0.16 =7.87 cm2
Quantity II ⇒ 30 cm2
Hence, Quantity I < Quantity II
Q. (21) Rutuja bought two articles - article A at Rs. X and article B at Rs. X + 50. She sold
article A at 20% profit and article B at 10% loss and earned Rs.35 as profit on the whole deal.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
I. Profit earned by Rutuja on selling article A (in Rs.).
II. Loss incurred (in Rs.) when an article which costs Rs.480 is sold at 20% loss.
1. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
2. Quantity I & Quantity II
3. Quantity I & Quantity II
4. Quantity I = Quantity II
5. Quantity ≤ Quantity II
Answer: 3
Solution:
Cost price of Article A = Rs. Y
Cost price of Article B = Rs. (Y + 50)
Therefore, the selling price of article A = Rs. Y × 1.2
Selling price of article B = (Y+ 50) × 0.9
Now, profit = SP – CP
⇒ 35 = (1.2Y + 0.9Y + 45) – (Y + Y + 50)
⇒ 0.1Y = 35 + 5 = 40
∴ Y = Rs. 400
Quantity I ⇒ Profit earned on Article A = (120/100) - 400 = 480 - 400 = Rs. 80
Quantity II ⇒ Loss = (480 - 480) × (80/100) = Rs. 96
Hence, Quantity I < Quantity II
Q. (22) Ram invested Rs. P in scheme A and Rs. 2P in scheme B, for two years each. Scheme
A offers simple interest p.a. Scheme B offers compound interest (compounded annually) at the
rate of 10% p.a. The ratio between the interest earned from scheme A and that earned from
scheme B was 8 : 21.
I. Rate of interest offered by scheme A.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
II. Rate of interest offered by scheme C (simple interest p.a.), when Rs. 1,600 is invested
for 3 years earns an interest of Rs.384.
1. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
2. Quantity I > Quantity II
3. Quantity I < Quantity II
4. Quantity I = Quantity II
5. Quantity ≤ Quantity II
Answer: 4
Solution: Quantity I ⇒ Scheme B offers rate of interest of 10% compounded annually.
Therefore, 10 + 10 + [(10×10)/100] = 21% for 2 years
Now, (21% of 2P) / (2 × 𝑅% of P) = 21/8
⇒ R = 8%
Quantity II ⇒ Rate of scheme C = (384 × 100) / (1600 × 3) = 8%
Hence, Quantity I = Quantity II
Directions Q. (23 - 27): Refer to the pie charts and answer the given questions.
Data regarding the number of foreign students (male + female) from different countries - A, B, C, D and
E, studying in higher education level in the country XYZ in the year 2014.
Total number of foreign students (male + female) = 9000
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Foreign female students = 3500
Q. (23) What is the respective ratio between the total number of male students from countries B and C
together and the total number of students (male + female) from the same countries together?
1. 4:7
2. 5:14
3. 4:9
4. 5:6
5. 5:9
Answer: 5
Solution:
Required ratio = [Number of male students for B and C type]/ [Total number of students (M+F)]
= [(14+7) % of 9000 − (14+10) % of 3500]/ [(14+7) % of 9000]
= (21% of 9000 − 24% of 3500)/ (21% of 9000)
= (21 × 90) − (24 × 35)/ (21 × 90)
= (1890 − 840)/1890
= 1050/1890
= 105/189
= 5:9
Q. (24) What is the average number of male students from countries C, D and E?
1. 910
2. 915
3. 900
4. 945
5. 901
Answer: 1
Solution:
Average = [(7 + 25 + 24) % of 9000 − (10+35+21) % of 3500] / 3
= (56% of 9000 − 66% of 3500) / 3
= (56 × 90) − (66 × 35) / 3
----------------------------------------------------------------------
= (5040 − 2310) / 3
= 2730 / 3
=910
Q. (25) The total number of female students from countries A and B together is what percent of male
students from country A?
1. 60%
2. 59.5%
3. 65.25%
4. 70.5%
5. 50%
Answer: 2
Solution:
Required % = [(20 + 14) % of 3500 {(30% of 900) − (20% of 3500)}] × 100
= [(34 × 35) / (2700 −700)] × 100
= (1790 / 2000) × 100
= 1190 / 20 = 59.5%
Q. (26) Female students from country D is what percent more than those from country B?
1. 45%
2. 50%
3. 40%
4. 60%
5. 30%
Answer: 2
Solution:
Required % = [(21−14) % of 3500 (14% of 3500)] × 100
= (7/14) × 100 = 50%
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Q. (27) Male students from country E in the year 2015 were 20% more than those from the same
country in the previous year. If the male students from country E constituted 60% of the total students
(male + female), in the year 2015, how many foreign students from country E in the same year were
females?
1. 1400
2. 1480
3. 1280
4. 1140
5. 1260
Answer: 4
Solution:
Male students from country E in the year 2015 = 120% of (24% of 9000 – 21% of 3500)
= 6 / 5 × [(24 × 90) – (21 × 35)]
= 6 / 5 × (2160 – 735)
= 6 / 5 × 1425 = 1710
Now, female foreign students from country E in the same year = (1710 / 60) × 40 = 1140
Q. (28) A shopkeeper purchased 15 kg of variety A rice at X per kg and 10 kg of variety B rice at ‘X+ 5’
per kg. The shopkeeper sold the whole quantity of variety A rice at 10% profit and that of variety B rice
at 20% profit. The total selling price of variety A rice was Rs. 30 more than that of variety B rice. Had
the two varieties been mixed and sold at an overall profit of 20%, what would have been the selling
price (per kg)?
1. 26.40
2. 23.20
3. 24.20
4. 25.00
5. 28.30
Answer: 1
Solution: Let the cost price of Rice A and Rice B be 15y and 10(y + 5) respectively.
Therefore, selling price of Rice A at 10% profit = 15y x (110/100) = 16.5y
Selling price of Rice B at 20% profit = 10(y + 5) x (120/110)
----------------------------------------------------------------------
= 12y + 60
Now, 16.5y = 12y + 60 + 30
⇒ 4.5y = 90
∴ y = 90 / 4.5 = Rs. 20
Now, new selling value of mixture = [(15 × 20) + 10 (20+ 5)] x (120 / 100) = Rs. 660
∴ SP per kg = 660 / 25 = Rs. 26.4 per kg
Q. (29) Abhay rolled a pair of die together. What is the probability that one die showed a multiple of 2
and the second die showed neither a multiple of 3 nor 2?
1. 1/3
2. 1/9
3. 1/6
4. 2/3
5. 2/6
Answer: 3
Solution: Multiples of two = 2, 4, 6
∴ P (E) = 2/6 = 1/3
Now, required probability P (E) = (½) × (⅓) = ⅙
Q. (30) A, B and C started a business with investments of 1,600, 2,100 and 1,500 respectively. After 8
months from the start of the business, B and C invested additional amounts in the ratio of 3 : 5
respectively. If the ratio between total annual profit and C’s share in the annual profit was 3: 1, what
was the additional amount invested by B after 8 months?
1. 1,200
2. 600
3. 900
4. 300
5. 700
Answer: 3
Solution:
Ratio of profit A: B:C = (1600 × 12):[(2100× 8) + (2100 +3𝑥) × 4]:[(1500 × 8)] + (1500 + 5𝑥) ×4]
----------------------------------------------------------------------
= 19200 : (16800 + 8400 +12𝑥) : (12000 +6000 +20𝑥)
Now, (62400 + 32𝑥) / (18000 + 20𝑥) = 3/1
⇒ 60𝑥 + 54000 = 32𝑥 + 62400
⇒ 28 𝑥 = 8400
∴ 𝑥 = Rs 300
∴ B’s investment after 8 months = 3 × 300 = Rs. 900
----------------------------------------------------------------------
RBI Grade B Previous Year Question Paper 2016
Reasoning Ability (Questions & Solutions)
Q. (1) In the past, consumers would rarely walk into an ice cream store and order low-fat ice cream. But
that isn't the case today. An increasing health consciousness combined with a much bigger selection of
tasty low-fat foods in all categories has made low-fat ice cream a very profitable item for ice cream
store owners. Which of the following best support the statement?
1. low-fat ice cream produces more revenue than other low-fat foods.
2. ice cream store owners would be better off carrying only low-fat ice cream.
3. ice cream store owners no longer think that low-fat ice cream is an unpopular item.
4. low-fat ice cream is more popular than other kinds of ice cream.
5. consumers are fickle and it is impossible to please them.
Answer: 4
Q. (2) All the major rivers in the state have been flowing way over the danger level for the past few
weeks. Which of the following is/are the possible effect(s) of the above cause?
A. Many villages situated near the river banks are submerged forcing residents to flee.
B. Government has decided to provide alternate shelter to all the affected villagers residing near
the river banks.
C. The entire state has been put on high flood alert
1. Only A
2. Only A and B
3. Only B and C
4. All A, B and C
5. None of these
Answer: 4
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Directions (3-6): In these questions, the relationship between different elements is shown in the
statements. These statements are followed by two conclusions. Read them carefully and mark the
appropriate answer.
Q. (3)
Statements: C ≥ V ≤ R = N ≥ T > Q, Y ≥ N < A
Conclusion I: Q > V
Conclusion II: Q < Y
1. Only conclusion I follows
2. Only conclusion II follows
3. Both conclusion I and II follow
4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
5. Either conclusion I or II follows
Answer: 2
Solution:
Y
VI
C≥V≤R=N≥T>Q
⋀
A
Q. (4)
Statements: C ≥ V ≤ R = N ≥ T > Q, Y ≥ N < A
Conclusion I: Q ≥ Y
Conclusion II: A > Q
1. Only conclusion I follows
2. Only conclusion II follows
3. Both conclusion I and II follow
4. Either conclusion I or II follows
5. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Answer: 2
Solution:
Y
VI
C≥V≤R=N≥T>Q
⋀
A
Q. (5)
Statements: P ≥ R < U ≤ M < V ; T ≤ U ; L < M
Conclusion I: T < L
Conclusion II: V >L
1. Only conclusion I follows
2. Only conclusion II follows
3. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follow
4. Neither conclusion I nor conclusion II follow
5. Both conclusion I and conclusion II follow
Answer: 2
Solution:
T
⋀I
P≥R<U≤M<V
V
L
Q. (6)
Statements: P ≥ R < U ≤ M < V; T ≤ U; L < M
Conclusion I: V > T
Conclusion II: T ≤ P
1. Only conclusion I follow
----------------------------------------------------------------------
2. Only conclusion II follows
3. Both conclusion I and II follow
4. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
5. Either conclusion I or conclusion II follow
Answer: 5
Solution:
T
⋀I
P≥R<U≤M<V
V
L
Directions Q. (7): Study the given information carefully and answer the given question.
Following are the observations of an experiment on 'sleep and memory' conducted on 18 healthy young
adults (ages 18 to 25) and 18 healthy older adults (ages 61 to 81).
A. The recall after 8 hours of sleep in younger adults was 65% more than that in the older adults.
B. Night-sleep had a higher negative impact on all of the participants as compared to that of day
sleep of equal duration.
C. If a given set of words is memorised immediately before going to sleep, its recall after waking up
was found to be better in younger adults than in older adults.
Q. (7) Which of the following can be concluded from the given findings of the research?
I. As per the experiment, there is some correlation between sleep and memory.
II. The part of the brain involved in memory is more active during the day as compared to that
during the night.
III. A sleep of more than 8 hours can improve memory in older adults.
IV. Memorising something immediately after waking up from an 8-hour long sleep will yield better
results than memorising before sleep.
1. Only IV
2. All the given statements can be concluded from the given findings of the research.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Both I and III
4. Both II and IV
5. Only II
Answer: 5
Q. (8) In this question are given two statements I and II. These statements may be either independent
causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of those statements may be
the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and. decide which of the given answer
choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.
Statement I: Company ABC, a leading automobile company in country G has decided to merge all its
subsidiary companies into the parent company last week.
Statement II: Company XYZ, a subsidiary of automobile company ABC, has opened five new branches
in country F in the previous financial year.
1. Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause. -
2. Both the statements I and II are independent causes.
3. Statement II is the cause, and statement I is its effect.
4. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.
5. Both the statements I and II are the effects of independent causes.
Answer: 5
Q. (9) If all the letters in the word ‘REGULATION' are arranged in English alphabetical order from left to
right and then all the vowels are changed to the next alphabet in the English alphabetical series and all
the consonants are changed to the previous alphabet in English alphabetical series, how will the word
be written?
1. BFFJKOQQSV
2. ZFFJKONSSV
3. ZDHHMONSUT
4. BFHUKMPORV
----------------------------------------------------------------------
5. BFFJKMPQSV
Answer: 5
Solution: After arranging the alphabets from left to right in the English alphabetical order, the new
word formed is: ‘AEGILONRTU’
Now, changing all the vowels to the next alphabet and changing consonants to the previous alphabet,
the new arrangement formed is:
A(+1) E(+1) G(-1) I(+1) L(-1) O(+1) N(-1) R(-1) T(-1) U(+1)
B F F J K P M Q S V
Q. (10) In Country A, it is mandatory for all government organizations to provide transportation facilities
(home pick-up and drop) to employees if 75% or number of total employees working in the organization
reside more than 15 km away from the office. The same, however, does not apply to XY enterprises as
only 1500 of their employees travel more than 15 km to work. Which of the following can be inferred
from the given statement?
A. The total number of employees in XY enterprises is definitely more than 2000.
B. Only 25% of employees of XY enterprises travel less than 15km to office.
C. If 25 new recruits who travel more than 15 km join XY enterprises, the XY enterprises will
definitely have to provide transportation facilities.
D. XY enterprises is definitely not a government enterprise
1. Only A
2. Only C
3. Both B and D
4. Only D
5. A, B and C
Answer: 1
Directions Q. (11 - 16): Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Seven people — J, K, L, M, N, O and P have an interview on seven different days of the same week,
starting from Monday and ending on Sunday, but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them
also likes different subjects namely - Statistics, Zoology, Sociology, English, Mathematics, Psychology
and Economics, but not necessarily in the same order. Only four people have an interview between N
and the one who likes Zoology. Neither N nor the one who likes Zoology has an interview on Sunday. P
has an interview immediately after the one who likes Zoology. Only two people have their interviews
between P and J. The one who likes Psychology has an interview on one of the days before J but not
on Wednesday. Neither N nor P likes Psychology. Only two people have their interviews between the
one who likes Psychology and the one who likes Statistics. The one who likes Economics has an
interview immediately before the one who likes Statistics. The number of people having interview
between P and the one who likes Economics is the same as that of the number of people between J
and the one who likes English. N does not like English. Only one person has an interview between the
one who likes English and K. The one who likes Sociology has an interview immediately after O. L has
an interview on one of the days after M.
Q. (11) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and hence
form a group. Which of the following does not belong to the group?
1. K-English
2. Wednesday-K
3. Mathematics-Wednesday
4. Sociology-Statistics
5. Friday-L
Answer: 5
Q 12. How many people have their interviews between L and M?
1. Two
2. Three
3. None
4. One
5. More than three
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Answer: 1
Q 13. Which of the following statements is TRUE as per the given arrangement?
1. None of the given statements is true
2. Only one person has an interview between K and J.
3. O likes Psychology.
4. M has an interview on Friday.
5. The one who likes Zoology has an interview on one of the day before M.
Answer: 3
Q 14. Who has an interview immediately after K?
1. M
2. The one who likes Zoology
3. The one who likes Statistics
4. J
5. P
Answer: 2
Q 15. How many people have their interview before the one who likes Mathematics?
1. One
2. More than three
3. None
4. Two
5. Three
Answer: 3
Solution (11 - 15): According to the given condition, we get the following conclusion:
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Days Person Subjects
Monday N Mathematics
Tuesday O Psychology
Wednesday M Sociology
Thursday J Economics
Friday K Statistics
Saturday L Zoology
Sunday P English
Directions Q. (16 - 20): Study the following information and answer the given questions.
Seven people, namely, J, K, L, M, N, O and P like seven different movies namely, Twilight, Gladiator,
Wanted, Dread, Hero, Jumanji and Signs but not necessarily in the same order. Each person also
works in the same office but in a different department (on the basis of experience) namely
Administration, Production, Marketing, HR, Finance, R&D; and Client relations (CR), not necessarily in
the same order. (Please Note: Each person has been allocated to a department as per increasing order
of experience with the one in Administration being the least experienced whilst the one in Client
Relations (CR) being the most experienced). Only two persons have less
experience than K. P works in R&D.; The one who likes Wanted has more experience than K but less
than one who likes Jumanji. P neither likes Wanted nor Jumanji. The one who likes Wanted does not
work in Finance. J, who is more experienced than K, likes twilight. The person who works in Production
is less experienced than the person who likes Hero. K does not like Hero. The person who works in HR
is more experienced than both L and N. N is not the least experienced person. The one who likes Signs
has more experience than N. M is more experienced than J. L does not like Dread.
Q. (16) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and so form
a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1. MO
2. NK
----------------------------------------------------------------------
3. PK
4. NJ
5. LO
Answer: 2
Q. (17) Which combination represents the department in which 0 works and the movie he likes?
1. CR-Signs
2. CR-Gladiator
3. HR-Gladiator
4. Marketing-Wanted
5. HR-Wanted
Answer: 5
Q. (18) Which of the following movies does M like?
1. Jumanji
2. Hero
3. Gladiator
4. Signs
5. Dread
Answer: 1
Q. (19) As per the given arrangement, HR is related to Signs and CR is related to Hero in a certain
way. To which of the following is Production related to in the same way?
1. Dread
2. Jumanji
3. Wanted
4. Gladiator
5. Twilight
Answer: 4
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Q. (20) Which of the following pairs represent the respective people who have more experience than J
and less experience than K?
1. M, N
2. P, O
3. O, J
4. L, N
5. P, M
Answer: 1
Solution Q. (16 - 20): According to the given situation, we get the following conclusion:
Person Movies Departments
J Twilight Finance
K Signs Marketing
L Gladiator Administration
M Jumanji Client Relations
N Dread Production
O Wanted HR
P Hero R&D
Q. (21) Read the given information and answer the question.
‘Despite spending huge amount of money, we have not yet been able to find life on other planets. I am
personally of the opinion that such research should stop with immediate effect as it is a waste of time
and money as no good will ever come out of it Instead it would be better to use this money to research
other elements in space' Statement by a Scientist from Space Institute of Country X. Which of the
following does not weaken the statement of the scientist of space institute of country X?
----------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Although life on other planets has not been discovered yet, such research has widened our
knowledge and understanding of other planets and has led to growth and development in
science.
2. According to space scientists, if such efforts are continued, the probability of finding life in at
least one other planet is much higher as compared to not finding life at all.
3. Various other research projects taken up by the said institute in the past have also failed despite
spending huge amount of time as well as money on them.
4. With the amount of time and money that has already been invested in this research, shutting it
now would lead to a greater loss than continuing the search.
5. None of the above
Answer: 3
Q. (22) This question consists of information and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You
have to decide which of the given statements weaken(s) or strengthen(s) the information and decide
the appropriate answer. In order to discourage crowd built-up at railway station X, the platform ticket
(charged to all such priced at Rs. 10 should be increased to Rs. 20.
I. The price of a ticket from X to the nearest railway station is Rs. 12.
II. On average, every railway station generates Rs. 24 lacs revenue by charging Rs. 10 for platform
ticket while X generates Rs.28 lacs.
1. Both statements I and II weaken the information.
2. Statement I weakens the information while Statement II is a neutral statement.
3. Statement I strengthens the information while statement II weakens the information.
4. Statement I weakens the information while Statement II strengthens the information.
5. Both statements I and II strengthen the information
Answer: 3
Q. (23) Which of the following expressions will be definitely false if the given expression
‘G > H = I ≥ V ≤ Y ≤ Z ≤T’ is definitely true?
1. I < G
2. T ≥ V
3. T ≤ Y
----------------------------------------------------------------------
4. Z ≥ V
5. None of these
Answer: 3
Solution: From the given expression: G > H = I ≥ V ≤ Y ≤ Z ≤ T, we get the following conclusions:
G>H=I≥V
T≥Z≥Y≥V
Thus, I < G, T ≥ V and Z ≥ V
Directions Q. (24 - 28): A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words
and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of
input and rearrangement.(All the numbers are two-digit numbers.)
Input: 42 prey burn 78 21 melt gulp 96 83 head
Step I: ban 23 42 prey 78 melt gulp 96 83 head
Step II: gap 44 ban 23 prey 78 melt 96 83 head
Step III: had 80 gap 44 ban 23 prey melt 96 83
Step IV: mat 85 had 80 gap 44 ban 23 prey 96
Step V: pay 98 mat 85 had 80 gap 44 ban 23
Step V is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended output of arrangement is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the given steps, find the appropriate steps for the given input.
Input : 61 rust 33 colt 86 four torn 28 49 leap
Q. (24) Which of the following is the fourth to the left of the eighth element from the left end of step II?
1. cat
2. far
3. 35
4. rust
5. 30
Answer: 5 (8th element from left end in step II = 'torn', 4th to the left of 'torn' = '30')
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Q. (25) Which of the following represents the element that is fifth to the right of 'cat' in step III?
1. torn
2. 63
3. lap
4. far
5. 86
Answer: 1 (Element that is 5th to the right of 'cat' in step III = 'torn')
Q. (26) In step III, how many elements are there between '86' and the third element from the left end ?
1. More than three
2. One
3. Three
4. None
5. Two
Answer: 1 (3rd element from left end in step III = 'far' No. of elements between 'far' and '86' in step III =
5)
Q. (27) What is the difference between the third element from the right end in step V and the fifth
element from the left end in step II?
1. 31
2. 55
3. 26
4. 5
5. 16
Answer: 3 (3rd element from right end in step V = 35 5th element from left end in step II = 61,
Difference = 61 - 35 = 26)
Q. (28) 'torn' is related to 'rust' in step I in the same way as `lap' is related to 'tan' in step V. Following
the same pattern to which element is '86' related to in step IV?
----------------------------------------------------------------------
1. cat
2. 51
3. 35
4. far
5. 30
Answer: 4 ('torn' is related to 'rust' in step I, ⇒ rust is 4th to the left of torn, ‘lap’ is related to 'tan' in step
V ⇒ tan is 4th to the left of lap. Similarly, in step IV, 'far' is 4th to the left of '86', 'far' is related to '86')
Solution Q. (24 - 28):
In step I, the word with the smallest first letter alphabetically is placed at first position and all the middle
letters are replaced by 'a'.
The smallest number is placed at second position and it is increased by 2.
Similar pattern is followed in remaining steps and finally the words and numbers are arranged in
descending order alternatively.
Input: 61 rust 33 colt 86 four torn 28 49 leap
Step I: cat 30 61 rust 33 86 four torn 49 leap
Step II: far 35 cat 30 61 rust 86 torn 49 leap
Step III: lap 51 far 35 cat 30 61 rust 86 torn
Step IV: rat 63 lap 51 far 35 cat 30 86 torn
Step V: tan 88 rat 63 lap 51 far 35 cat 30
Step V is the last step of the arrangement.
Q. (29) This question consists of a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II given
below it. A course of action is an administrative decision to be everything in the statement to be true
and then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) from the given statement.
Most of the people looking for buying/renting properties these days complain of being taken to the
same property by more than 6-7 brokers. So even after contracting multiple agents, they end up having
usually the same options.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Courses of action:
I. All the owners should strictly give responsibility for their properties to only one.
II. The brokers should be instructed to mandatorily disclose the list of all the properties they will be
showing the customers on a particular day before taking them to the actual site.
1. Both I and II follow
2. Only II follows
3. Only I follows
4. Neither I nor II follows
5. Either I or II follows
Answer: 1
Directions Q. (30 - 34): Study the following information to answer the given questions.
In a certain code language, ‘economy and work related’ is written as ‘oj my bx st’ ‘work and
employment today’ is written as ‘pk bx oj dy’ ‘employment for growth only’ is written as ‘el pk fd zn’
‘growth is related today’ is written as ‘el dy gm my’ (All codes are two-letter codes only)
Q. (30) If the code for ‘related people only’ is 'xd my fd' then what may be the code for ‘people for
decision’ in the given code language?
1. to xd my
2. zn xd fd
3. zn xd dy
4. zn kz xd
5. kz fd xd
Answer: 4
Q. (31) What does the code ‘pk’ stand for in the given code language?
1. growth
2. employment
3. only
4. economy
----------------------------------------------------------------------
5. today
Answer: 2
Q. (32) What may be the code for ‘economy is boosting’ in the given code language?
1. gm rc st
2. zn gm st
3. ye st el
4. cp st rc
5. st bx gm
Answer: 1
Q. (33) Which of the following additional statements is required to definitely find the code of ‘and’ in the
given code language?
1. ‘work and prosper now’ is written as ‘bx yp jn oj’
2. ‘work today also important’ is written as ‘Iv en oj dy’
3. No additional statement is required to find the code
4. ‘and more work today’ is written as ‘zn oj dy bx’
5. ‘related only for employment’ is written as ‘my zn fd pk’
Answer: 2
Q. (34) What is the code for ‘growth today’ in the given code language?
1. fd el
2. dy fd
3. pk dy
4. dy el
5. an fd
Answer: 4
Solution Q. (30 - 34):
The common words in the first two statements are ‘work’ and ‘and’ coded as = ‘oj’ or ‘bx’
----------------------------------------------------------------------
The common word in first and last statements is 'related' coded as = ‘my’
Only word left in first statement is ‘economy’ coded as = ‘st’
The common word in second and third statements is ‘employment’ coded as = ‘pk’
Only word left in second statement is ‘today’ coded as = ‘dy’
The common common word in last two statements is 'growth' coded as = ‘el’
Only words left in third statement are ‘for’ and ‘only’ coded as = ‘fd’ or ‘zn’
Only word left in last statement is 'is' coded as = 'gm'
Directions Q. (35 - 39): Study the following information carefully to answer the given question.
Ten persons from different companies viz Samsung, Bata, Microsoft, Google, Apple, HCL, ITC,
Reliance, Airtel and Vodafone are sitting in two parallel rows containing five people each, in such a way
that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row 1- B, C, D, E and F are seated and all
of them are facing south. In row-2 R, S, T, U and V are seated and all of them are facing north.
Therefore, in the given seating arrangement, each member seated
in a row faces another member of the other row. (All the information given above does not the order of
seating as in give the final arrangement.)
• Three people sit between R and the person from Apple. The person from Reliance is an
immediate neighbour of the one who faces the person from Apple. V sits to the immediate left of the
one who faces the person from Reliance.
• Only one person sits between V and T. The person from Bata sits second to the right of the one who
faces T. F sits second to the left of the person from Google. The person from Google does not sit at an
extreme end of the line.
• Only two people sit between F and D. The person from Samsung faces an immediate neighbour of D.
U is an immediate neighbour of the person from Microsoft. V is not from Microsoft. B sits second to the
left of C.
• The person from ITC is an immediate neighbour of the person from Vodafone. Neither V nor F is from
ITC. The person from ITC faces the person from HCL.
Q. (35) F is related to ITC in the same way as T is related to HCL, based on the given arrangement.
Who amongst the following is D related to following the same pattern?
----------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Microsoft
2. Samsung
3. Apple
4. Bata
5. Reliance
Answer: 4 (D is related to Bata)
Q. (36) Which of the following is true regarding E?
1. E is from ITC.
2. E is an immediate neighbour of the person from Samsung.
3. E sits at the extreme end of the line.
4. The person from Airtel faces E.
5. None of the given options is true
Answer: 1 (E is from ITC)
Q. (37) Who amongst the following sit at the extreme end of the rows ?
1. The person from Apple and F.
2. V, E
3. The person from Samsung and C.
4. The person from HCL and Bata
5. R and the person from Reliance.
Answer: 1 ( The person from Apple and F sit at the extreme end of the rows)
Q. (38) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given arrangement and so form
a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
1. R
2. V
3. C
4. F
----------------------------------------------------------------------
5. B
Answer: 5 (All the four except B sit at the extreme ends of the rows)
Q. (39) Who amongst the following faces the person from Airtel?
1. The person from Google
2. B
3. The person from reliance
4. E
5. The person from Bata
Answer: 3 (The person from reliance faces the person from Airtel)
Solution Q. (35 - 39): From the given condition, we get the following arrangement:
Q. (40) Which of the following symbols should replace the question mark(?) in the given expression in
order to make the expressions ‘H < R’ as well as ‘D ≥ M’ definitely true?
D ≥ I ≥ H = S (?) M < P ≤ R
1. ≥
2. ≤
----------------------------------------------------------------------
3. <
4. >
5. =
Answer: 5
Solution: From the given expression D ≥ I ≥ H = S (?) M < P ≤ R, we get
D ≥ S, therefore, S must be > or = M, so that ‘D ≥ M’
M < R, also H = S. Hence, S must be < or = M to get H < R
The intersection in both sets is (=)
Hence, D ≥ I ≥ H = S = M < P ≤ R
Q. (41) T is the father of M and P. P is the only daughter of V. M is married to N. A and B are children of
M. How is V related to B?
1. Grandmother
2. Uncle
3. Aunt
4. Sister
5. Grandfather
Answer: 1
Solution:
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Q. (42) A severe cyclonic storm hit the Eastern coastline;te last month resulting in huge loss of life and
property on the entire east coast and the Government had to disburse a considerable amount for relief
activities through the district administration machinery. Which of the following may possibly be a follow
up measure to be taken by the Government?
1. The Government may set up a task force to review the post relief scenario in all districts and
also to confirm proper end-user receipt of the relief supplies.
2. The Government may set up a committee for proper disbursement of relief supplies in the
future.
3. The Government may empower the District magistrates to make all future disbursements of
relief.
4. The Government may send relief supplies to the affected people in future only after proper
assessment of the damage caused by such calamities.
5. The government may need not to activate any follow-up measure.
Answer: 1
Directions Q. (43 - 47): These questions consist of a question and two statements numbered I and II
given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer
the question. Read both the statements and mark the appropriate answer.
Q. (43) In a building, the ground floor is numbered one, first floor is numbered two and so on till the
topmost floor is numbered five. Amongst five people- M, N, O, P and Q, each living on a different floor,
but not necessarily in the same order, on which floor does Q live?
Statement I: O lives on an odd-numbered floor. M lives immediately below O. Only two people live
between M and P. N lives neither immediately below M nor immediately below P.
Statement II: N lives on an even-numbered floor. Only two people live between N and O. Only one
person lives between O and Q.
1. The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
2. The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3. The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
4. The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
5. The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I
are not sufficient to answer the question.
Answer: 3 (The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question)
Solution: From statement I, we get the following arrangement:
Floor Person
5 O
4 M
3 Q
2 N
1 P
Thus Q lives on 3rd floor, hence statement I alone is sufficient.
From statement II, we get the following arrangement:
Floor Person
5 O
4 M/P
3 Q
----------------------------------------------------------------------
2 N
1 P/M
Thus, Q lives on the 3rd floor, hence statement II alone is sufficient.
Hence, either statement alone is sufficient
Q. (44) Among people A, B, C, D, E and F, each having a different height, who is the second shortest?
Statement I: Only two people are taller than A. E is taller than both B and C. F is shorter than E. F is
taller than C.
Statement II: Only two people are shorter than D. A is taller than D but shorter than E. F is neither the
tallest nor the shortest. B is taller than C.
1. The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
2. The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3. The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
4. The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
5. The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I
are not sufficient to answer the question.
Answer: 1
Solution: Clearly, each statement alone is insufficient as there is not enough data.
Thus, by combining both the statements, we get:
Only two people are taller than A
A is the third tallest. Only two people are shorter than D
D is the 4th tallest.
E is taller than both B and C.
F is shorter than E and E is the tallest.
F is taller than C and B is taller than C, hence, C is the shortest.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Therefore, the final arrangement is: E > B/F > A > D > F/B > C
Thus, we cannot find the second shortest person.
Both statements even together are insufficient.
Q. (45) How many people are standing between A and D (Note: All are standing in a straight line facing
north)?
Statement I: K stands second from the left end of the line. Only four people stand between K and T. Y
is an immediate neighbour of T. A stands second to the right of Y. As many people stand between K
and D as between A and D.
Statement II: A stands second from the right end of the line. Z stands third from the left end of the line.
D stands exactly in the centre of the line. As many people stand between A and T as between D and Z.
1. The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
2. The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3. The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
4. The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
5. The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I
are not sufficient to answer the question.
Answer: 5 (The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in
statement I are not sufficient to answer the question)
Solution:
From statement I, we get the following arrangement:
----------------------------------------------------------------------
From statement II, we get the following arrangement:
Hence, two people (Y and T) are standing between D and A. Therefore, the data in statement II alone
are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I are not sufficient to answer the
question
Q. (46) How far and in which direction is Point M from Point S ?
Statement I: Point E is 2m to the east of Point S. Point B is 4m to the south of Point E. Point L is 10m
to the east of Point B. Point L forms a midpoint of the vertical straight line of 8m formed by joining
points Q and D. Point M is 5m to the west of Point Q.
Statement II: Point M is 8m to the north of Point A. Point M forms the midpoint of the horizontal straight
line formed by joining points O and F. Point F is 8m to the west of Point O. Point S is 4m to the west of
Point F.
1. The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
2. The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
3. The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
4. The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
5. The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I
are not sufficient to answer the question
Answer: 5 (The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in
statement I are not sufficient to answer the question)
Solution: From statement I: Point L forms a midpoint of the vertical straight line of 8m formed by
joining points Q and D.
We don't know in which direction Q and D are from L, hence, we cannot find the direction of point M
from point S. Thus, statement I alone is insufficient.
From statement II: Point M is 8m north of Point A. Point M forms the midpoint of the horizontal straight
line formed by joining points O and F. Point F is 8m to the west of Point O. Point S is 4m to the west of
Point F.
Thus, point M is 8 m to the east of point S.
Hence, statement II alone is sufficient.
Q. (47) Amongst six people-P, Q R, S, T and U standing around a circle, some facing the centre while
some facing outside (i.e. opposite to the centre) but not necessarily in the same order, what is the
position of T with respect to U ?
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Statement I: P stands second to the right of R. R faces the centre. Q stands second to the left of P. Q
is an immediate neighbour of both U and T. U and P face opposite directions (i.e. if U faces the centre
then P faces outside and vice-versa.) Only two people stand between P and T.
Statement II: Only two people stand between R and U. P stands to the immediate left of U. P faces
outside. R is an immediate neighbour of T.
1. The data even in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
2. The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
3. The data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the
question.
4. The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
5. The data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement I
are not sufficient to answer the question.
Answer: 2 (The data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question while the data in
statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question)
Solution: From statement I, we get the following arrangement:
Thus, T sits second to the right of U.
Clearly, there is not enough data in the second statement to find the position of T with respect to U.
Hence, statement I alone is sufficient
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Directions Q. (48 - 53): In these questions, two/three statements followed by two conclusions
numbered I and II are given. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be
at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically
follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Q. (48)
Statements:
Some coffee is tea.
All tea is water.
All water is milk.
Conclusion I: All coffee being water is a possibility.
Conclusion II: All milk is tea.
1. If either conclusion I or II follows
2. If neither conclusion I nor II follows
3. If only conclusion II follows
4. If both conclusions I and II follow
5. If only conclusion I follows
Answer: 5 (only conclusion I follows)
Solution:
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Q. (49)
Statements:
No sea is a sky.
Some skies are kites.
All kites are balloons.
Conclusion I: Some balloons are seas.
Conclusion II: All balloons being skies is a possibility.
1. If either conclusion I or II follows
2. If neither conclusion I nor II follows
3. If only conclusion II follows
4. If both conclusions I and II follow
5. If only conclusion I follows
Answer: 3 (only conclusion II follows)
Solution:
Q. (50)
Statements:
Some stars are planets.
Some planets are galaxies.
Some galaxies are suns.
Conclusions I: All suns being galaxies is a possibility.
Conclusion II: Some galaxies are stars.
----------------------------------------------------------------------
1. If either conclusion I or II follows
2. If neither conclusion I nor II follows
3. If only conclusion II follows
4. If both conclusions I and II follow
5. If only conclusion I follows
Answer: 5 (only conclusion I follows)
Solution:
Q. (51)
Statements:
All registers are pens.
All pens are pencils.
No pencil is rubber.
Conclusions I: No register is rubber.
Conclusion II: All pencils are pens.
1. If either conclusion I or II follows
2. If neither conclusion I nor II follows
3. If only conclusion II follows
4. If both conclusions I and II follow
5. If only conclusion I follows
Answer: 5 (only conclusion I follows)
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Solution:
Q. (52)
Statements:
Some radios are televisions.
Some televisions are phones.
All phones are computers.
Conclusions I: All computers being televisions is a possibility.
Conclusion II: Some radios being phones is a possibility.
1. If either conclusion I or II follows
2. If neither conclusion I nor II follows
3. If only conclusion II follows
4. If both conclusions I and II follow
5. If only conclusion I follows
Answer: 4 (both conclusions I and II follow)
Solution:
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Q. (53)
Statements:
All cats are dogs.
All wolves are dogs.
All dogs are jackals.
Conclusions I: All wolves are jackals.
Conclusion II: Atleast some jackals are cats.
1. If either conclusion I or II follows
2. If neither conclusion I nor II follows
3. If only conclusion II follows
4. If both conclusions I and II follow
5. If only conclusion I follows
Answer: 4 (both conclusions I and II follow)
Solution:
Directions Q. (54 - 59): Study the given information carefully to answer the given questions:
Seven boxes- A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one above the other, but not necessarily in the same
order. Each box has a different number viz. 2, 4, 5, 7, 8, 9 and 12, but not necessarily in the same
order. Only three boxes are kept between G and box number 9. Only two boxes are kept between G
and B. B is kept at one of the positions below box number 9. Only one box is kept between B and box
number 4. E is kept immediately below box number 12. E is kept at one of the places above box
----------------------------------------------------------------------
number 9. There is only one box between E and the box having number less than E. E's box number is
neither 7 nor 8. Only two boxes are kept between box number 5 and F. The difference between F and
the box immediately below it is less than four. C is not the topmost box. C's box number is not 4. Only
two boxes are kept between C and A.
Q. (54) What is the number of box C?
1. 5
2. 9
3. 12
4. 8
5. 2
Answer: 3
Q. (55) How many boxes are kept between E and box number 4?
1. Three
2. One
3. Two
4. None
5. More than three
Answer: 1 (Three boxes C, B and F are kept between E and box number 4)
Q. (56) What is the position of D in the given stack of boxes?
1. Fourth from the top
2. Fifth from the bottom
3. First from the top
4. Second from the bottom
5. Third from the bottom
Answer: 3 (First from the top)
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Q. (57) Which of the following boxes is kept immediately above A?
1. B
2. Box number 5
3. Box number 7
4. G
5. Box number 4
Answer: 3 (Box number 7 is kept immediately above A)
Q. (58) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the
following does not belong to the group?
1. B-4
2. C-7
3. E-2
4. D-9
5. A-8
Answer: 5 (Apart from A-8, there is a gap of one box between the boxes mentioned in the options)
Q. (59) Which of the following boxes is numbered 8?
1. A
2. F
3. B
4. G
5. D
Answer: 4
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Solution Q. (54 - 59):
Serial Number Box Number Box Name
1 12 D
2 5 E
3 9 C
4 2 B
5 7 F
6 4 A
7 8 G
Q. (60) A major portion of cash flow that country M yields is through agricultural activities. However, in
the past half a decade the revenue earned from agriculture has noticeably reduced." — A report. Which
of the given statements may be a reason for the given situation?
A. Country M is employing new techniques to yield good crop and boom the productivity.
B. Country M has faced two major droughts in the last five years.
C. The revenue from other industries has increased in the past five years.
1. Only B
2. Both A and B
3. Only A
4. Only C
5. All A, B and C
Answer: 1
----------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------------------------------
RBI Grade B Previous Year Question Paper 2016
General Awareness (Questions & Solutions)
Q. (1) The ‘2019 cricket World Cup’ will be hosted by ___________
1. South Africa and Zimbabwe
2. England and Wales
3. South Africa and West Indies
4. India, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh
5. Australia and New Zealand
Answer: 2 (The ‘2019 cricket World Cup’ will be hosted by England and Wales)
Q. (2) Anurag Thakur is the first serving BJP “Member of Parliament’ to join the territorial army as an
officer. The constituency represented by Shri Thakur in the parliament is ___________
1. Hamirpur, Himachal Pradesh
2. Bikaner, Rajasthan
3. Hisar, Haryana
4. Hazaribagh, Jharkhand
5. Rohtak, Haryana
Answer: 1 (Anurag Thakur is the first serving BJP “Member of Parliament’ to join the territorial army as
an officer. The constituency represented by Shri Thakur in the parliament is Hamirpur, Himachal
Pradesh)
Q. (3) With a view to providing comprehensive support for start-ups and other self-employment
activities, the government has set up ‘Self Environment and Talent Utilization’ (SETU) under the
___________
1. Mudra Bank
2. National Bank of Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
3. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
4. Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI
----------------------------------------------------------------------
5. NITI Aayog
Answer: 5 (With a view to providing comprehensive support for start-ups and other self-employment
activities, the government has set up ‘Self Environment and Talent Utilization’ (SETU) under the NITI
Aayog)
Q. (4) Jeddah – based Islamic Development Bank has recently announced that it will open its first
Indian branch in __________
1. Ahmedabad
2. Surat
3. New Delhi
4. Hyderabad
5. Mumbai
Answer: 1 (Jeddah – based Islamic Development Bank has recently announced that it will open its
first Indian branch in Ahmedabad)
Q. (5) The Union cabinet has recently (July 2016) approved setting up of a major part at Enayam near
Colachel in the Indian state of _____________
1. Telangana
2. Kerala
3. Tamil Nadu
4. Karnataka
5. Andhra Pradesh
Answer: 3 (The Union cabinet has recently (July 2016) approved setting up of a major part at Enayam
near Colachel in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu)
Q. (6) According to the 2015 revision of the UN world population projection the world population in 2100
is projected to be around ___________
----------------------------------------------------------------------
1. 10.2 billion
2. 11.2 billion
3. 10.7 billion
4. 9.7 billion
5. 9.9 billion
Answer: 2 (According to the 2015 revision of the UN world population projection the world population in
2100 is projected to be around 11.2 billion)
Q. (7) The Khangchendzonga National Park (KNP) is the first ‘mixed; heritage sort from India to make it
to the UNESCO World Heritage List. The KNP is situated in the Indian state of __________
1. Tripura
2. Assam
3. Manipur
4. Odisha
5. Sikkim
Answer: 5 (Khangchendzonga National Park (KNP) is situated in the Indian state of Sikkim)
Q. (8) The Reserve Bank of India has authorised non-banks to operate “White Label ATMs’ under the
provision of __________
1. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934
2. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881
3. Negotiable Instruments (Amendment) Act, 2015- 16
4. Banking Regulation Act, 1949
5. Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007
Answer: 5 (The Reserve Bank of India has authorised non-banks to operate “White Label ATMs’ under
the provision of Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007)
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Q. (9) A new museum ‘The Stables’, constructed by the Central Public Works Department in a building
which was earlier used as part of the stables, was inaugurated in ___________
1. Teen Murti House, New Delhi
2. Parliament House Annexe, New Delhi
3. Red Fort, New Delhi
4. National Museum, New Delhi
5. Rashtrapati Bhawan, New Delhi
Answer: 5 (A new museum ‘The Stables’, constructed by the Central Public Works Department in a
building which was earlier used as part of the stables, was inaugurated in Rashtrapati Bhawan, New
Delhi)
Q. (10) The ‘Ringgit’ is the present-day currency of _____________
1. Singapore
2. Thailand
3. Malaysia
4. Myanmar
5. Bhutan
Answer: 3 (The ‘Ringgit’ is the present-day currency of Malaysia)
Q. (11) The State Bank of India (SBI) has recently (August 2016) unveiled a new home loan scheme
‘SBI Shaurya Home Loan’, which is targeted at _____________
1. Government employees other than defence personnel
2. Rural women
3. Senior citizens
4. Corporate women executives
5. Defence personnel
Answer: 5 (The State Bank of India (SBI) has recently (August 2016) unveiled a new home loan
scheme ‘SBI Shaurya Home Loan’, which is targeted at Defence personnel)
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Q. (12) The headquarters of the ‘United Nations World Trade Organisation’ is situated in
____________
1. Madrid, Spain
2. Geneva, Switzerland
3. Washington DC, USA
4. Paris, France
5. Frankfurt, Germany
Answer: 2 (The headquarters of the ‘United Nations World Trade Organisation’ is situated in Geneva,
Switzerland)
Q. (13) The first unit of the Kudankulam Power Plant was recently (August 2016) dedicated to the
nation jointly by PM Narendra Modi and Russian President Vladimir Putin. The plant is situated in the
Indian state of ____________
1. Maharashtra
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Karnataka
4. Andhra Pradesh
5. Kerala
Answer: 2 (Kudankulam Power Plant is situated in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu)
Q. (14) The ‘PMKVY’ scheme pertains to _____________
1. Skill training/development
2. Rural irrigation facilities
3. Solar energy initiatives
4. Development of roads
5. Urban sanitation services
Answer: 1 (The ‘PMKVY’ scheme pertains to Skill training/development)
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Q. (15) The city of ‘Ottawa’ is the capital of _________________
1. Australia
2. Canada
3. New Zealand
4. Chile
5. Cuba
Answer: 2 (The city of ‘Ottawa’ is the capital of Canada)
Q. (16) The 750-MW Rewa ultra-mega solar power project is proposed to be set up in the Indian state
of _________________
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Uttar Pradesh
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Himachal Pradesh
5. Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: 3 (The 750-MW Rewa ultra-mega solar power project is proposed to be set up in the Indian
state of Madhya Pradesh)
Q. (17) ‘September 28’, the death anniversary of Louis Pasteur, observed every year as the
_____________
1. World Heart Day
2. World Rabies Day
3. World Milk Day
4. World Thrombosis Day
5. World Health Day
Answer: 2 (‘September 28’, the death anniversary of Louis Pasteur, observed every year as the
World Rabies Day)
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Q. (18) Kalikho Pul, who was recently (August 2016) found dead under mysterious circumstances was
the former Chief Minister of the Indian state of _____________
1. Meghalaya
2. Tripura
3. Arunachal Pradesh
4. Andhra Pradesh
5. Assam
Answer: 3 (Kalikho Pul, who was recently (August 2016) found dead under mysterious circumstances
was the former Chief Minister of the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh)
Q. (19) The National Thermal Power Corporation Limited’ (NTPC) had recently (August 2016) listed the
first Indian quasi-sovereign ‘green Masala bond’ on London Stock Exchange (LSE) and had raised an
amount of _____________
1. USD500 million
2. USD100 million
3. USD450 million
4. USD300 million
5. USD400 million
Answer: 4 (The ‘National Thermal Power Corporation Limited (NTPC) had recently (August 2016)
listed the first Indian quasi-sovereign ‘green Masala bond’ on London Stock Exchange (LSE) and had
raised an amount of USD300 million)
Q. (20) The Reserve Bank of India prepared a ‘Financial stability Report’ (FSR) on _________ basis for
the apex – level Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC).
1. once in four years
2. Monthly
3. Quarterly
4. Half-yearly
----------------------------------------------------------------------
5. Yearly
Answer: 4 (The Reserve Bank of India prepared a ‘Financial stability Report’ (FSR) on half-yearly)
Q. (21) The first SAARC Young Parliamentarians Conference (YPC) was recently (August 2016) held in
____________
1. New Delhi, India
2. Thimphu, Bhutan
3. Islamabad, Pakistan
4. Kabul, Afghanistan
5. Kathmandu, Nepal
Answer: 3 (The first SAARC Young Parliamentarians Conference (YPC) was recently (August 2016)
held in Islamabad, Pakistan)
Q. (22) According to the 2011 census, the Indian state that has the dubious distinction of having the
worst male-female ratio is ____________
1. Punjab
2. Jammu and Kashmir
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. Bihar
5. Haryana
Answer: 5 (According to the 2011 census, the Indian state that has the dubious distinction of having
the worst male-female ratio is Haryana)
Q. (23) The “IFSC Code’ is an alphanumeric code comprising 11 characters that facilitates electronic
fund transfer in the country. The alphabet ‘I’ in the abbreviation ‘IFSC’ stands for ______________
1. Inter-bank
2. Indian
3. International
4. Intercontinental
5. Institutional
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Answer: 2 (‘IFSC’ stands for Indian Financial System Code)
Q. (24) ‘Kudsi Erguner’, player of the ‘ney’ (reed flute), has recently been named as the UNESCO artist
for peace 2016. He is a well-known musicologist and composer from __________
1. Ukraine
2. Belarus
3. Russia
4. Azerbaijan
5. Turkey
Answer: 5 (‘Kudsi Erguner’, player of the ‘ney’ (reed flute), has recently been named as the UNESCO
artist for peace 2016. He is a well-known musicologist and composer from Turkey)
Q. (25) The International meeting on Counter-Terrorism was recently (August 2016) held in
____________
1. Rawalpindi, Pakistan
2. Bali, Indonesia
3. London, England
4. Moscow, Russia
5. Paris, France
Answer: 2 (The International meeting on Counter-Terrorism was recently (August 2016) held in
Bali, Indonesia)
Q. (26) India’s first ‘International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) banking unit, set by YES bank, has
started operations at GIFT city in the Indian state of __________________
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Gujarat
3. Telangana
4. Maharashtra
5. Kerala
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Answer: 2 (India’s first ‘International Financial Services centre’ (IFSC) banking unit, set by YES bank,
has started operations at GIFT city in the Indian state of Gujarat)
Q. (27) The human rights activists from India who is amongst the winners of 2016 Ramon Magsaysay
Award is ____________
1. Rahul Verma
2. Shantha Sinha
3. Bezwada Wilson
4. Ajamu Baraka
5. Kailash Satyarthi
Answer: 3 (The human rights activists from India who is amongst the winners of 2016 Ramon
Magsaysay Award is Bezwada Wilson)
Q. (28) Which of the following has recently (August 2016) been appointed as head of a legal panel by
the BCCI to help implementation of the Justice Lodha Committee reforms?
1. Justice HL Dattu
2. Justice Altamas Kabir
3. Justice P Sathasivam
4. Justice Markandey Katju
5. Justice SH Kapadia
Answer: 4 (Justice Markandey Katju has recently (August 2016) been appointed as head of a legal
panel by the BCCI)
Q. (29) The first Indian captain to score a double century in a test match outside India is
_______________
1. Rahul Dravid
2. Virender Sehwag
3. Anil Kumble
4. Virat Kohli
5. MS Dhoni
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Answer: 4 (The first Indian captain to score a double century in a test match outside India is Virat
Kohli)
Q. (30) Under the Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY), the risk coverage is Rs. 2 lakh for
accidental death and full disability and Rs. 1 lakh for partial disability. The cover is however not
available to ____________
1. Senior citizens up to the age of 70 years only
2. Housewives and women
3. Illiterate adults
4. Individuals below 18 years of age
5. Physically handicapped adults
Answer: 4 (The cover is however not available to individuals below 18 years of age)
Q. (31) In India ‘Commodities derivatives market’ is regulated by ______________
1. PFRDA
2. FCI
3. IRDAI
4. SEBI
5. RBI
Answer: 4 (In India ‘Commodities derivatives market’ is regulated by SEBI)
Q. (32) Who amongst the following has recently (July 2016) been appointed as the chairperson of Lok
Sabha privilege committee?
1. NCP MP Supriya Sela
2. BJP MP Meenakshi Lekhi
3. BJP MP Poonam Mahajan
4. SP MP Dimple Yadav
5. BJP MP Kirron Kher
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Answer: 2 (BJP MP Meenakshi Lekhi has recently (July 2016) been appointed as the chairperson of
Lok Sabha privilege committee)
Q. (33) The 2016 “WEF Indian Economic summit” is going to be held in ____________
1. Geneva, Switzerland
2. Vienna, Austria
3. Paris, France
4. New Delhi, India
5. Other than those given options
Answer: 4 (The 2016 “WEF Indian Economic summit” is going to be held in New Delhi, India)
Q. (34) Researchers have recently spotted 101 species of spiders belonging to 65 genera from the
“Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary’ situated in ________________
1. Goa
2. Assam
3. Kerala
4. Uttar Pradesh
5. Odisha
Answer: 3 (Researchers have recently spotted 101 species of spiders belonging to 65 genera from the
“Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary’ situated in Kerala)
Q. (35) The ‘Bhimbetka Rock Shelters’, a world heritage site, is situated in the Indian state of
____________
1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Chhattisgarh
3. Jharkhand
4. Odisha
5. Madhya Pradesh
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Answer: 5 (The ‘Bhimbetka Rock Shelters’, a world heritage site, is situated in the Indian state of
Madhya Pradesh)
Q. (36) Chairman of the “Bank Board of Bureau’ (BBB), Shri Vinod Rai, has recently stepped down from
the board of ______________
1. HSBC Bank
2. ICICI Bank
3. IDBI Bank
4. HDFC Bank
5. IDFC Bank
Answer: 5 (Chairman of the “Bank Board of Bureau’ (BBB), Shri Vinod Rai, has recently stepped down
from the board of IDFC Bank)
Q. (37) The first technology meet under the Hydrocarbon vision 2030 for Northeast India was recently
(August 2016) held in ________________
1. Itanagar
2. Guwahati
3. Dispur
4. Imphal
5. New Delhi
Answer: 2 (The first technology meet under the Hydrocarbon vision 2030 for Northeast India was
recently (August 2016) held in Guwahati)
Q. (38) A coup was recently (July 2016) attempted (but failed) against the state institution including the
government by a fraction within a country’s armed forces in which of the following countries?
1. Turkey
2. Portugal
3. Jordan
4. Cuba
5. Ukraine
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Answer: 1 (A coup was recently (July 2016) attempted (but failed) against the state institution
including the government by a fraction within Turkey’s armed forces)
Q. (39) ‘Vembanad Lake’ is the longest lake in India and the largest lake in the Indian state of
___________
1. Kerala
2. Sikkim
3. Odisha
4. Assam
5. Gujarat
Answer: 1 (‘Vembanad Lake’ is the longest lake in India and the largest lake in the Indian state of
Kerala)
Q. (40) Recently introduced by National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), the ‘NACH’ is a
centralized ____________
1. Application processing for the bank system
2. None of the given as options
3. Electronic clearing system
4. Core banking system
5. Credit appraisal system
Answer: 3 (Recently introduced by National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI), the ‘NACH’ is a
centralized Electronic clearing system)
Q. (41) SMERA ratings Limited is a joint initiative of Dum and Bradstreet Information Services India
Private Limited (D&B), leading public/private sector banks in India and _____________
1. ICICI
2. IFCI
3. SIDBI
4. RBI
----------------------------------------------------------------------
5. IDBI
Answer: 3 (SMERA ratings Limited is a joint initiative of Dum and Bradstreet Information Services India
Private Limited (D&B), leading public/private sector banks in India and SIDBI)
Q. (42) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced from April 1, 2016, a new methodology of
setting lending rate by commercial banks and will replace the existing method identify the new
methodology.
1. PLR
2. MCLR
3. Base rate system
4. BPLR
5. None of the above
Answer: 2 (The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced MCLR from April 1, 2016, a new
methodology of setting lending rate by commercial banks)
Q. (43) With a view to training 1.24 lac youth from Jammu & Kashmir in vocational courses under the
skill development initiative ‘Himayat Programmes’, the Government of India has recently (July 2016)
allocated an amount of ________ for the programme.
1. Rs. 1401 crores
2. Rs. 1601 crores
3. Rs. 110 crores
4. Rs. 120 crores
5. Rs. 100 crores
Answer: 2 (The Government of India has recently (July 2016) allocated an amount of Rs.1601 crores
for ‘Himayat Programmes’)
Q. (44) The ‘Rabobank’ is a Dutch multinational financial banking company headquartered in
____________
----------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Limburg
2. Utrecht
3. Gelderland
4. Zeeland
5. Flevoland
Answer: 2 (The ‘Rabobank’ is a Dutch multinational financial banking company headquartered in
Utrecht)
Q. (45) ‘M – Pesa’, a mobile-based money transfer and payment service, was launched by Vodafone in
the year 2007. In India, Vodafone India launched it in 2013 in association with _____________
1. YES Bank
2. SBI
3. HDFC Bank
4. Kotak Mahindra Bank
5. ICICI Bank
Answer: 5 (In India, Vodafone India launched ‘M–Pesa’ in 2013 in association with ICICI Bank)
Q. (46) State Bank of India (SBI) has initiated the process of merging its five associate banks with itself.
The merged entity would create a financial sector powerhouse with total assets estimated to be worth
around ______________
1. Rs. 37 lakh crores
2. Rs. 72 lakh crores
3. Rs. 60 lakh crores
4. Rs. 48 lakh crores
5. Rs. 15 lakh crores
Answer: 1 (The merged entity would create a financial sector powerhouse with total assets estimated
to be worth around Rs. 37 lakh crores)
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Q. (47) According to RBI guidelines, a non-banking entity seeking authorisation as ‘Bharat Bill Payment
Operating Unit (BBPOU) under the proposed Bharat Bill Payment System (BBPS) should have a
minimum net worth of at least _______________
1. Rs. 500 lakh crores
2. Rs. 400 lakh crores
3. Rs. 300 lakh crores
4. Rs. 200 lakh crores
5. Rs. 100 lakh crores
Answer: 5 (According to RBI guidelines, a non-banking entity seeking authorisation should have a
minimum net worth of at least Rs. 100 lakh crores)
Q. (48) Which country has been elected for the first time to chair the UN’s legal affairs committee?
1. Ukraine
2. Israel
3. Uruguay
4. Senega
5. Sweden
Answer: 2 (Israel has been elected for the first time to chair the UN’s legal affairs committee)
Q. (49) Eminent litterateur Mahim Bora, who died recently (August 2016) at the age of 92, was a well –
known literary figure and educationalist from the Indian state of _____________
1. West Bengal
2. Tripura
3. Assam
4. Meghalaya
5. Manipur
Answer: 3 (Eminent litterateur Mahim Bora, who died recently (August 2016) at the age of 92, was a
well – known literary figure and educationalist from the Indian state of Assam)
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Q. (50) The operation “Raahat’ was an operation if the Indian Armed Forces to evacuate Indian citizens
and other foreign nationals from __________ in 2015.
1. Syria
2. Iraq
3. Yemen
4. Sudan
5. Turkey
Answer: 3 (The operation “Raahat’ was an operation if the Indian Armed Forces to evacuate Indian
citizens and other foreign nationals from Yemen in 2015)
Q. (51) The ‘Srisail Dam’ is constructed across the Krishna river in the Indian states of _____________
1. Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh
2. Telangana and Andhra Pradesh
3. Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh
4. Telangana and Madhya Pradesh
5. Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
Answer: 2 (The ‘Srisail Dam’ is constructed across the Krishna river in the Indian states of Telangana
and Andhra Pradesh)
Q. (52) Which web portal has been launched to reduce paperwork in the Lok Sabha, the lower house of
parliament of India?
1. e - portal
2. m - portal
3. w - portal
4. n - portal
5. s - portal
Answer: 1 (e - portal has been launched to reduce paperwork in the Lok Sabha, the lower house of
parliament of India)
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Q. (53) Which of the following is not the part of the structure of the financial system in India?
1. Industrial Finance
2. Agricultural Finance
3. Government Finance
4. Personal Finance
5. All of these are part of it
Answer: 4 (Personal Finance is not the part of the structure of the financial system in India)
Q. (54) Prior to the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India, the government banking business was
conducted by which of the following organisations?
1. Bank of India
2. Central Bank of India
3. Imperial Bank of India
4. National bank of India
5. Bank of Baroda
Answer: 3 (Prior to the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India, the government banking business
was conducted by Imperial Bank of India)
Q. (55) Which expert committee has been constituted to explore alternatives to pellet guns as non –
lethal weapons?
1. Rajesh Kumar Committee
2. Rajeev Krishna Committee
3. TVSN Prasad Committee
4. Tushar Tripathy Committee
5. Other than those given as an option
Answer: 3 (TVSN Prasad Committee has been constituted to explore alternatives to pellet guns as non
– lethal weapons)
Q. (56) Which of the following is not a general credit control measure?
----------------------------------------------------------------------
1. Bank rate
2. Variable reserve ratios
3. Open market operation
4. Regulation of margin requirements on advances against agricultural commodities
5. Other than those given as an option
Answer: 4 (Regulation of margin requirements on advances against agricultural commodities
is not a general credit control measure)
Q. (57) Which state government has recently signed a pact with Japan to develop the food value chain
in the state?
1. Karnataka
2. Maharashtra
3. Kerala
4. Andhra Pradesh
5. Uttar Pradesh
Answer: 4 (Andhra Pradesh government has recently signed a pact with Japan to develop the food
value chain in the state)
Q. (58) The process of the total valuation of the financial capital assess of a country is known as
___________________
1. Market capitalisation
2. Other than those given option
3. Gross Domestic Product
4. Net Wealth of a country
5. Gross Domestic Resources
Answer: 1 (The process of the total valuation of the financial capital assess of a country is known as
Market capitalisation)
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Q. (59) The 2016 India International Footwear Fair (IIFF) has started in which of the following cities?
1. New Delhi
2. Kanpur
3. Jaipur
4. Bhopal
5. Mumbai
Answer: 1 (The 2016 India International Footwear Fair (IIFF) has started in New Delhi)
Q. (60) The term ‘hyper-inflation’ means ________________
1. a situation with a moderate rise in the price level
2. an inflationary situation where the external sources are the primary contributing factors
3. a ‘runaway’ or ‘galloping’ inflationary situation where the monetary unit becomes almost
worthless
4. a situation where the cost of living index is rising alarmingly
5. other than those given as options
Answer: 3 (The term ‘hyper-inflation’ means a ‘runaway’ or ‘galloping’ inflationary situation where the
monetary unit becomes almost worthless)
Q. (61) Which state tourism has recently (August 2016) organised a ‘Freedom Ride’?
1. Madhya Pradesh
2. Uttar Pradesh
3. Goa
4. Maharashtra
5. Punjab
Answer: 3 (Goa tourism has recently (August 2016) organised a ‘Freedom Ride’)
Q. (62) The world’s tallest girder rail bridge will come up in which of the following states of India?
1. Sikkim
2. Manipur
----------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Jammu and Kashmir
5. Uttar Pradesh
Answer: 2 (The world’s tallest girder rail bridge will come up in Manipur)
Q. (63) In the presence of Bangladesh railway minister, the Union Railway Minister Suresh Prabhu
recently flagged off the Tripura Sundari Express which will run between Agartala and ____________
1. Kolkata
2. Delhi
3. Guwahati
4. Chittagong
5. Dhaka
Answer: 4 (In the presence of Bangladesh railway minister, the Union Railway Minister Suresh Prabhu
recently flagged off the Tripura Sundari Express which will run between Agartala and Chittagong)
Q. (64) ‘ONICRA’ is a leading _________________
1. Credit and performance rating agency
2. Asset Reconstruction Company
3. White Label ATM Operator
4. Asset Management Company
5. None of these
Answer: 1 (‘ONICRA’ is a leading credit and performance rating agency)
Q. (65) The ‘Hopman Cup’ is associated with the game of ______________
1. Football
2. Cricket
3. Tennis
4. Hockey
5. Badminton
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Answer: 3 (The ‘Hopman Cup’ is associated with the game of Tennis)
Q. (66) IOM’s stated mission is to promote humane and orderly migration by providing services and
advice to governments and migrants. What does IOM stand for?
1. International Organisation for Migration
2. International Organisation for Maritime
3. Interstate Organisation for Maritime
4. Interstate for Organisation for Migration
5. Institute for Organisation for Migration
Answer: 5 (IOM stand for Institute for Organisation for Migration)
Q. (67) Which of the following is an autobiography of lawn tennis star Sania Mirza?
1. From Fear to Victory
2. Playing It My Way
3. The Test of My Life
4. Ace Against Odds
5. Straight from the Heart: An Autobiography
Answer: 4 (Ace Against Odds is an autobiography of lawn tennis star Sania Mirza)
Q. (68) The ‘Sultan Azlan Shah Cup’ is related to the game of _____________
1. Football
2. Hockey
3. Tennis
4. Badminton
5. Cricket
Answer: 2 (The ‘Sultan Azlan Shah Cup’ is related to the game of Hockey)
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Q. (69) Kananur Lokesh Rahul, commonly known as KL Rahul, is related to which of the following
sports?
1. Cricket
2. Basketball
3. Tennis
4. Badminton
5. Volleyball
Answer: 1 (Kananur Lokesh Rahul, commonly known as KL Rahul, is related to Cricket)
Q. (70) The sportsperson who has won overall 23 gold medals in four Olympic is ____________
1. Larisa Latynina
2. Paavo Nurmi
3. Mark Spitz
4. Usain Bolt
5. Michael Phelps
Answer: 5 (The sportsperson who has won overall 23 gold medals in four Olympic is Michael Phelps)
Q. (71) The headquarters of Canara bank is situated on the Indian city of _____________
1. Delhi
2. Mumbai
3. Kolkata
4. Bangalore
5. Chennai
Answer: 4 (The headquarters of Canara bank is situated on the Indian city of Bangalore)
Q. (72) Who is the author of the book Exploring Marxist Bengal?
1. Suman Panda
2. Debraj Bhattacharya
3. Swati Bose
----------------------------------------------------------------------
4. Chandra Banerjee
5. Swami Dixit
Answer: 2 (Debraj Bhattacharya is the author of the book Exploring Marxist Bengal)
Q. (73) Who has won the 2016 World Snooker Championship?
1. Judd Trump
2. Steve Davis
3. Mark Selby
4. Ding Junhui
5. Aditya Mehta
Answer: 3 (Mark Selby has won the 2016 World Snooker Championship)
Q. (74) What is the theme of the 2016 International Museum day?
1. Museums collection Make Connections
2. Museums and Cultural Landscapes
3. Museums for a Sustainable Society
4. Museums for a Social Harmony
5. Museums for a Better Tomorrow
Answer: 2 (Museums and Cultural Landscapes is the theme of the 2016 International Museum Day)
Q. (75) The 42nd G7 summit UN 2016 was held in which country?
1. Japan
2. Canada
3. France
4. Germany
5. India
Answer: 1 (The 42nd G7 summit UN 2016 was held in Japan)
----------------------------------------------------------------------
Q. (76) Banks do not provide which of the following services?
1. Issuing bank drafts
2. Depositing money
3. Sale of post cards and postal stamps
4. Lockers for valuable items/ documents
5. Lending money
Answer: 3 (Banks do not provide sale of post cards and postal stamps)
Q. (77) What is the range of the advanced version of BrahMos missile, which awes recently
successfully tested by the Indian Airforce?
1. 290 km
2. 320 km
3. 450 km
4. 250 km
5. 300 km
Answer: 1 (The range of the advanced version of BrahMos missile is 290 km)
Q. (78) Which of the following cities has become India’ first city to have its own “City Animal”?
1. Shillong
2. Guwahati
3. Lucknow
4. Hyderabad
5. Delhi
Answer: 2 (Guwahati has become India’ first city to have its own “City Animal”)
Q. (79) Which campaign has been launched to make gram panchayats along the banks of Ganga Open
Defecation Free?
1. Swachh Nirbhay
2. Swachh Ganga
----------------------------------------------------------------------
3. Swachh Village
4. Swachh Yug
5. Swachh Bharat
Answer: 4 (Swachh Yug campaign has been launched to make gram panchayats along the banks of
Ganga Open Defecation Free)
Q. (80) ‘Raj Vayu’ mobile app has been launched by which state government for sharing data of air
quality index?
1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Jharkhand
3. Rajasthan
4. Uttarakhand
5. Madhya Pradesh
Answer: 3 (‘Raj Vayu’ mobile app has been launched by Rajasthan government)
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