RRB Paramedical 2025 ECG Technician Railway Previous Year Question Paper and Answer Key Free PDF Download English
रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड / RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD
सी ई एन नं. - 03/2025 - CEN No. - 03/2025
RRB Paramedical 2025 - ECG TECHNICIAN - COMPLETE Paper
Test Date: 11/03/2026 | Time: 12:45 PM - 2:15 PM | Post: ECG TECHNICIAN
Side boxes ignored | Green bold = Chosen Option
Q.1
If a bulb is designed to work at 12 volts and 0.5 amperes, what should be the resistance of the lament according to Ohm's Law? fi
1. 24 ohms
2. 6 ohms
3. 0.041 ohms
4. 6.5 ohms
Q.2
Who among the following led the Santhal Revolt against British rule and zamindari oppression?
1. Birsa Munda
2. Murmu Brothers
3. Tantia Bhil
4. Chapekar Brothers
Q.3
In a quadrilateral ABCD such that AB = 0.3 m, BC = 0.4 m and ∠ABC = 90°, if AD = DC = 0.4 m and other angles are not right angles, then the area (in cm2, rounded off to the nearest integer) of quadrilateral ABCD is:
1. 1381
2. 1380
3. 1318
4. 1323
Q.4
Which of the following best describes the relationship between autotrophs and heterotrophs?
1. Autotrophs depend on heterotrophs for enzymes
2. Heterotrophs depend directly or indirectly on autotrophs for survival
3. Both autotrophs and heterotrophs produce their own food
4. Heterotrophs directly produce energy for autotrophs
Q.5
A car of mass 1000 kg moves with a velocity of 20 m/s. The kinetic energy of the car is _______________.
1. 2 × 107 J
2. 2 × 10⁵ J
3. 2 × 10⁶ J
4. 2 × 10⁴ J
Q.6
According to Rutherford's model, where is most of the mass of an atom concentrated?
1. Electron cloud
2. Proton shell
3. Orbitals
4. Nucleus
Q.7
In a certain code language, A + B means ‘A is the sister of B’, A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’, A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’, A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’. Based on the above, how is T related to K if ‘T ÷ G + D – M x K’?
1. Brother
2. Wife's brother
3. Father
4. Wife's father
Q.8
The average of the marks of 20 students is 72. Later, it was found that the marks of two students were wrongly entered as 48 and 56 instead of 84 and 65. Find the correct average.
1. 77.25
2. 71.25
3. 74.25
4. 79.25
Q.9
Which body had the nal authority to approve India’s Five-Year Plans? fi
1. Economic Advisory Council
2. National Development Council
3. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
4. Finance Commission
Q.10
Which of the following best describes the path of a light ray as it enters and then exits a glass slab from air?
1. Does not bend at all but shifts sideways
2. Bends towards the normal, then away from the normal
3. Bends towards the normal at both surfaces
4. Bends away from the normal, then towards the normal
Q.11
Seven boxes A, B, C, D, E, F and G are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. C is kept second from the top. Only three boxes are kept between D and C. G is kept immediately below F but above E. B is not kept above E. How many boxes are kept between G and A?
3. Four
4. Three
Q.12
The position(s) of how many letters will remain unchanged if each letter in the word MATCHBOX is arranged in the English alphabetical order?
1. Three
3. None
Q.13
Which state among the following sets a world record by installing over 45,000 solar agricultural pumps in a month, enhancing irrigation and farmer income?
1. Maharashtra
2. Telangana
3. Punjab
4. Madhya Pradesh
Q.14
A water puri cation plant uses a process to remove harmful ions. Which type of fi reaction would most likely be used for this purpose?
1. Double displacement reaction
2. Decomposition reaction
3. Combustion reaction
4. Synthesis reaction
Q.15
Match the heart chamber with the type of blood it handles: (A) Right atrium (B) Left ventricle (C) Left atrium (D) Right ventricle
1. A-De-oxygenated, B-Oxygen-rich, C-Oxygen-rich, D-De-oxygenated
2. A-Oxygen-rich, B-De-oxygenated, C-De-oxygenated, D-Oxygen-rich
3. A-De-oxygenated, B-De-oxygenated, C-Oxygen-rich, D-Oxygen-rich
4. A-Oxygen-rich, B-Oxygen-rich, C-De-oxygenated, D-De-oxygenated
Q.16
Which deposits occur in sands of valley oors and the base of hills? fl
1. Alluvial Deposits
2. Non-ferrous Deposits
3. Manganese Deposits
4. Iron ore Deposits
Q.17
Which statement best distinguishes primitive subsistence farming from commercial farming in India?
1. Commercial farming avoids the use of modern technology
2. Commercial farming relies mainly on monsoon rainfall
3. Primitive farming focuses on market-oriented surplus production
4. Primitive farming emphasises family consumption needs
Q.18
If a mammal species evolved without the ability for the penis to become erect, what direct impact might this have on sexual reproduction?
1. It would speed up the maturation of female organs
2. It would shorten the time the baby spends in the mother’s body
3. It would prevent the transfer of sperms
4. It would make breastfeeding impossible
Q.19
If the frequency of a sound wave is 10 Hz, its time period is:
2. 0.01 s
3. 0.1 s
4. 10 s
Q.20
Who headed the Committee of Ministers on the Augmentation of Financial Resources of Urban Local Bodies, formed in India in 1963?
1. Ra q Zakaria
2. A.P. Jain
3. P.K. Wattal
4. John Matthai
Q.23
Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter cluster)8170
1. PJ:TN
2. DH:HL
3. CM:GQ
4. AS:EZ
Q.24
Sachin deposited a sum of ₹38,975 at 20% rate of interest per annum, compounded annually. The total amount received by Sachin after 2 years is:
1. ₹56,124
2. ₹55,895
3. ₹55,662
4. ₹56,199
Q.25
The Department of Telecommunications (DoT) organised the 9th edition of India Mobile Congress (IMC 2025) in collaboration with which body?
1. International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
2. Cellular Operators Association of India (COAI)
3. Confederation of Indian Industry (CII)
4. NASSCOM
Q.26
The provision related to the constitution of the Central Information Commission (CIC) in the RTI Act, 2005 is contained in which of the following sections?
1. Section 4
2. Section 15
3. Section 12
4. Section 5
Q.27
In December 2025, Ethiopia conferred its highest national award on Prime Minister Narendra Modi. What was the award called?
1. Great Honour Nishan
2. Order of Makarios III
3. Order of the Nile
4. Order of Oman (First Class)
Q.28
Which of the following particles is essential for determining the isotope of an element?
1. Electron
2. Positron
3. Proton
4. Neutron
Q.29
In cricket, which of the following terms is used when a bowler dismisses three batsmen with consecutive deliveries?
1. Overthrow
2. Century
3. Hat-trick
4. Duck
Q.1
Ventricular brillation waves on ECG are best described as: fi
1. Straight line
2. Sawtooth pattern waves
3. Regular
4. Disorganised
Q.2
In a patient with suspected angina, which ECG feature would prompt urgent evaluation for possible myocardial infarction rather than typical angina?
1. Isolated T wave attening
2. Transient ST depression
3. Sinus tachycardia
4. Persistent ST elevation
Q.3
Which ECG feature is most suggestive of a premature atrial contraction?
1. Early P wave with normal QRS complex
2. Prolonged PR interval with normal QRS complex
3. Wide QRS complex without P wave
4. Absent T wave with ST segment change
Q.4
What is the signi cance of a prolonged PR interval? fi
1. Atrial brillation
2. Ventricular hypertrophy
3. First degree heart block
4. Normal conduction
Q.6
The ECG machine mainly works on the principle of:
1. Conversion of light energy into electrical signals
2. Conversion of heat energy into electrical signals
3. Detection and ampli cation of bioelectric potentials
4. Conversion of magnetic elds into electrical signals
Q.7
ECG is most useful in the diagnosis of which cardiac condition?
1. Pericardial effusion
2. Valvular thickness
3. Heart murmur
4. Cardiac arrhythmias
Q.8
What is a typical ECG nding in patients with cerebral infarct? fi
1. U wave presence
2. Tall P waves
3. T wave inversion
4. Prolonged PR interval
Q.9
Which device is used for long-term intermittent ECG recording activated by the patient?
1. Event recorder
2. Stress test system
3. Cardiac monitor
4. De brillator
Q.10
During high-dose vasopressor therapy, which ECG change most reliably indicates supply–demand ischemia due to increased afterload?
1. QT interval shortening
2. ST segment depression
3. PR interval shortening
4. Tall P waves
Q.11
In the context of CVS monitoring, which nding in myxedema patients could be fi explained by their ECG pattern?
1. Ventricular brillation due to electrolyte imbalance
2. Atrial utter due to enhanced automaticity
3. Bradycardia due to decreased metabolic rate
4. Tachycardia due to increased sympathetic tone
Q.12
In standard ECG calibration, 1 mV of electrical signal is represented by:
1. 15 mm
2. 5 mm
3. 20 mm
4. 10 mm
Q.13
During a treadmill stress test, what action should be taken if a patient reports chest pain?
1. Stop the test immediately
2. Increase the speed
3. Lower the incline
4. Ignore the complaint
Q.14
What is the primary purpose of a stress test in cardiac care?
1. To assess kidney performance
2. To evaluate heart function under stress
3. To check lung capacity
4. To measure blood sugar levels
Q.15
What is the best way to prevent electrode contact artifacts when performing an ECG?
1. Using worn-out electrodes
2. Applying conductive gel to the skin
3. Placing electrodes over thick clothing
4. Using dry electrodes
Q.16
Which combination of symptoms and ECG ndings is most indicative of fi myocardial infarction?
1. Fatigue with sinus bradycardia
2. Dizziness with prolonged PR interval
3. Palpitations with normal ECG
4. Chest pain with ST elevation
Q.17
ECG changes in leads II, III, and aVF are characteristic of infarction involving which myocardial wall?
1. Septal wall
2. Anterior wall
3. Inferior wall
4. Lateral wall
Q.18
Who is considered the father of electrocardiography?
1. William Edith
2. Willem Einthoven
3. William Harvey
4. Claude Bernard
Q.19
Which component of the ECG is most useful in detecting atrial enlargement?
1. P wave
2. T wave
3. ST segment
4. QRS complex
Q.20
Which type of stress test involves the use of medication instead of physical exercise?
1. Pharmacological stress test
2. Holter monitoring
3. Exercise stress test
4. Echocardiogram
Q.21
After a stress test ECG, which nding would require immediate medical attention fi during the recovery phase?
1. Mild fatigue
2. Mild muscle soreness
3. Slight increase in blood pressure
4. Persistent arrhythmias on ECG
Q.22
A patient has an ECG showing a regular series of P waves followed by QRS complexes. Occasionally, a QRS complex is missing. What should be assessed rst when analyzing this ECG? fi
1. QRS voltage
2. Heart rate and rhythm
3. ST segment
4. T wave morphology
Q.23
What is the term for moving a patient from a bed to a wheelchair safely?
1. Transfer
2. Translation
3. Transformation
4. Transfusion
Q.24
Which ECG nding most reliably indicates myocardial ischemia rather than fi established myocardial infarction?
1. Reversible ST segment deviation without pathological Q waves
2. Fixed T wave inversion lasting several days
3. Deep Q waves in contiguous leads
4. Persistent ST elevation without loss of R waves
Q.25
Which description best represents a normal ST segment on ECG?
1. Consistently depressed below baseline
2. Isoelectric line continuous with the end of QRS complex
3. Slightly elevated above baseline in all leads
4. Markedly sloping upward before T wave
Q.26
Which ECG change most reliably indicates quinidine toxicity?
1. Shortened PR interval
2. Peaked T waves
3. Prolonged QT interval
4. Scooped ST depression
Q.27
In an asymptomatic endurance athlete, sinus bradycardia persists even during mild exertion. Which mechanism best explains this nding without indicating fi pathology?
1. AV nodal conduction delay
2. Enhanced ventricular automaticity
3. Increased vagal suppression of SA node ring
4. Prolonged ventricular refractoriness
Q.28
Which principle of hospital practice directly minimizes cross-contamination when the same healthcare worker attends multiple patients sequentially?
1. Routine antibiotic prophylaxis for admitted patients
2. Standard precautions applied uniformly irrespective of diagnosis
3. Terminal cleaning performed at end of duty hours
4. Selective use of personal protective equipment only for isolation cases
Q.29
Which clinical scenario most strongly justi es Holter monitoring rather than a fi routine resting ECG?
1. Known bundle branch block without symptoms
2. Intermittent palpitations occurring unpredictably over several days
3. Stable sinus bradycardia on repeated ECGs
4. Persistent chest pain relieved by rest
Q.30
How many standard limb leads are used in routine ECG recording?
3. Three
4. Twelve
Q.31
What is the primary purpose of ECG recording during code blue in the ICU?
1. To examine the eyesight
2. To measure the blood pressure
3. To check the temperature
4. To monitor the heart rhythm
Q.32
The primary purpose of the differential ampli er in an ECG machine is to: fi
1. Increase overall signal amplitude for clearer waveforms
2. Stabilize baseline drift during long recordings
3. Convert analog signals into digital format
4. Amplify true cardiac signals while rejecting common electrical noise
Q.33
Which complication is most realistically associated with Holter monitoring?
1. Electrolyte imbalance
2. Localized skin irritation at electrode sites
3. Signi cant radiation exposure
4. Induction of malignant arrhythmia
Q.34
In a patient with a normal temperature and pulse but low blood pressure, which clinical condition should be considered rst? fi
1. Febrile illness
2. Hypovolemia
3. Arrhythmia
4. Hypertension
Q.35
What is the usual relationship between pulse rate and temperature in a normal individual?
1. Pulse rate increases with temperature
2. Pulse rate uctuates randomly
3. Pulse rate remains unchanged
4. Pulse rate decreases with temperature
Q.36
Which ECG change is most commonly seen during an episode of angina pectoris?
1. ST segment depression
2. Wide QRS complex
3. Prolonged PR interval
4. ST segment elevation
Q.37
What is the most appropriate initial management for a patient presenting with symptomatic bradyarrhythmia?
1. Intravenous diuretics
2. Administration of atropine
3. Immediate de brillation
4. Oral anticoagulants
Q.38
What ECG change might be seen after administration of calcium channel blockers?
1. Sinus tachycardia
2. Ventricular brillation
3. QRS widening
4. Bradycardia
Q.39
Tall, peaked P waves on ECG are most commonly associated with:
1. Inferior wall MI
2. Right atrial enlargement
3. Left atrial enlargement
4. Left ventricular hypertrophy
Q.40
During ECG monitoring, which drug is most likely to cause bradycardia?
1. Atropine
2. Dobutamine
3. Epinephrine
4. Propranolol
Q.41
During a stress test, which of the following symptoms is a contraindication to continue exercise?
1. Chest pain or severe shortness of breath
2. Sweating
3. Increased heart rate
4. Mild fatigue
Q.42
Which maintenance practice most directly prevents signal attenuation and waveform distortion during ECG recording?
1. Frequent adjustment of paper speed settings
2. Routine recalculation of heart rate
3. Regular inspection and replacement of electrode cables
4. Periodic software updates alone
Q.43
Which ECG change is most commonly associated with myocardial ischemia?
1. U waves
2. ST segment depression
3. Tall T waves
4. Prolonged QT interval
Q.44
During continuous ECG monitoring following subarachnoid hemorrhage, transient deep T-wave inversions are most accurately explained by which underlying mechanism?
1. Primary ischemia of coronary microvasculature
2. Intrinsic conduction system degeneration
3. Direct electrolyte loss affecting ventricular action potential
4. Sympathetic overdrive causing myocardial repolarization injury
Q.45
A patient presents with chest pain and ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. According to the universal de nition of MI, which coronary artery is most likely fi involved, and what is the ECG diagnosis?
1. Posterior descending artery; posterior STEMI
2. Left circum ex artery; lateral STEMI
3. Left anterior descending artery; anterior STEMI
4. Right coronary artery; inferior STEMI
Q.46
During an acute myocardial infarction, which change in coronary circulation most directly impairs myocardial function?
1. Increased venous return
2. Increased preload
3. Decreased oxygen supply
4. Increased arterial pressure
Q.47
Using the 300 method, how many large squares between two consecutive R waves corresponds to a heart rate of 75 bpm?
1. 3 large square
2. 2 large square
3. 4 large square
4. 5 large square
Q.48
Which type of ECG lead requires a reference electrode placed at a distant site from the recording electrode?
1. Tripolar lead
2. Bipolar lead
3. Unipolar lead
4. Tetrapolar lead
Q.49
What is the main purpose of the Einthoven triangle in electrophysiology?
1. To calculate heart rate
2. To measure blood pressure
3. To visualize heart chambers
4. To locate the electrical axis of the heart
Q.50
What does the QT interval on a normal ECG primarily represent?
1. Ventricular depolarisation and repolarisation
2. Atrial contraction only
3. Atrial depolarisation and repolarisation
4. Ventricular contraction only
Q.51
What is the standard voltage calibration setting for an ECG machine to ensure accurate readings?
1. 15 mm/mV
2. 10 mm/mV
3. 5 mm/mV
4. 20 mm/mV
Q.52
After removal of a Holter monitor, the most important next step is to:
1. Analyze and interpret the recorded ECG data
2. Discard the recording electrodes
3. Allow the patient to bathe immediately
4. Reapply the monitor
Q.53
For a patient bitten by a snake, what is the rationale for keeping the limb at heart level?
1. To reduce spread of venom
2. To help with breathing
3. To speed up blood ow to the heart
4. To prevent blood clotting
Q.54
Which frontal plane QRS axis range is considered normal in a healthy adult ECG?
1. Between −180° and −90°
2. Between −30° and +90°
3. Between +90° and +180°
4. Between −90° and −30°
Q.55
Which ECG change is most characteristic of an acute myocardial infarction?
1. Shortened PR interval with normal QRS
2. Flattened P waves in multiple leads
3. Narrow QRS complex with normal rhythm
4. ST segment elevation in affected leads
Q.56
A patient presents with muscle weakness, and the ECG shows attened T waves fl and prominent U waves. Which electrolyte imbalance is most probable?
1. Hyponatremia
2. Hyperkalemia
3. Hypokalemia
4. Hypercalcemia
Q.57
Sinus bradycardia is associated with:
2. LBBB
4. Respiratory sinus rhythm
Q.58
The primary function of the cardiovascular system is to:
1. Generate nerve impulses
2. Control body temperature only
3. Transport oxygen and nutrients to tissues
4. Produce hormones
Q.59
During ECG recording, which change most strongly suggests a therapeutic digitalis effect rather than myocardial ischemia?
1. ST elevation in contiguous precordial leads
2. Flattened ST segment with Q-wave formation
3. Horizontal ST depression with symmetrical T-wave inversion
4. Down-sloping ST depression with preserved T-wave polarity
Q.60
ST elevation in leads V1 to V4 most commonly indicates infarction of which wall of the heart?
1. Posterior wall
2. Inferior wall
3. Anterior wall
4. Lateral wall
Q.61
During ECG machine calibration, what is the standard voltage signal used to check the sensitivity?
1. 10 millivolts
2. 5 millivolts
3. 1 millivolt
4. 2 millivolts
Q.62
Tall tented T waves in hyperkalemia occur primarily due to:
1. Acceleration of ventricular repolarization
2. Prolongation of ventricular depolarization
3. Delayed atrial depolarization
4. Suppression of sinoatrial node
Q.63
Which ECG feature most accurately identi es Mobitz Type II second-degree AV fi block?
1. Shortened PR interval
2. Sudden dropped QRS complexes without prior PR prolongation
3. Complete atrioventricular dissociation
4. Progressive PR interval lengthening before dropped beat
Q.64
Gas exchange in the lungs occurs at the level of the:
1. Bronchi
2. Bronchioles
3. Alveoli
4. Trachea
Q.65
Which segment is primarily analyzed to diagnose an ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)?
1. P wave
2. PR interval
3. ST segment
4. T wave
Q.66
Which of the following is most likely to trigger a premature ventricular contraction?
1. Increased vagal tone
2. Slow heart rate
3. Normal conduction pathway
4. Electrolyte imbalance
Q.67
Which ECG change best differentiates left ventricular hypertrophy from simple increased cardiac workload without structural enlargement?
1. Uniform ST depression without voltage change
2. Increased QRS voltage with secondary ST–T changes
3. Isolated PR interval prolongation
4. Mild axis deviation with normal QRS amplitude
Q.68
Which component of the ECG lead system is responsible for detecting electrical impulses from the heart?
1. Monitor
2. Electrode
3. Display screen
4. Battery
Q.69
Digitalis exerts its effect primarily on:
1. Endocardial contraction
2. Endocardial systole
3. Myocardial repolarization
4. Myocardial depolarization
Q.70
Left ventricular hypertrophy on ECG is commonly indicated by:
1. Tall R waves in left chest leads
2. Short QT interval
3. Flattened T waves
4. Low voltage QRS complexes
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