RRB-Railway-Health and Malaria Inspector Grade III Previous Year Question Paper with Answer Key Free PDF Download English Shift 2
Section : General Ability
Q.1 What is the work done in moving a charge of 10 C between two points with a potential difference of 14 V?
Ans
1. 10 J
2. 140 J
3. 1.4 J
4. 14 J
Q.2 The Dachigam Sanctuary, located in Jammu and Kashmir in India, is home to which of the following species?
Ans
1. Indian bison
2. Snow leopard
3. Hippopotamus
4. One-horned rhinoceros
Q.3 Who was sworn in as the Chief Minister of Maharashtra on 5 December 2024, following the state assembly elections?
Ans
1. Uddhav Thackeray
2. Eknath Shinde
3. Devendra Fadnavis
4. Ajit Pawar
Q.4 Identify the element whose given valency does not match its typical valency. (Be:2, Ne:0, Al:3, F:7)
Ans
1. Be
2. F
3. Ne
4. Al
Q.5 Which constitutional amendment to the Indian Constitution introduced a Legislative Assembly for the Union Territory of Delhi?
Ans
1. 74th Amendment
2. 61st Amendment
3. 42nd Amendment
4. 69th Amendment
Q.6 Which transformative reform was introduced in 2016, aiming to create 'one nation, one tax and one market' in India?
Ans
1. Nationalisation of state banks
2. Revision of the Customs Act for certain goods
3. Introduction of the Direct Tax Code
4. Implementation of the Goods and Services Tax
Q.7 Bleaching powder is a white solid with a strong chlorine smell. It is commonly used in:
Ans
1. disinfecting water and bleaching fabrics
2. preserving food and softening water
3. manufacturing cement and glass
4. making fertilisers and plastics
Q.8 Which of the following correctly lists the sections of the Western Coastal Plains in India?
Ans
1. Konkan Coast, Karnataka Coast and Malabar Coast
2. Northern Circar Coast, Malabar Coast and Coromandel Coast
3. Konkan Coast, Coromandal Coast and Vembanad Coast
4. Karnataka Coast, Eastern Coast and Malabar Coast
Q.9 Statements: All piles are quantities. All stores are quantities. Conclusions: (I) Some piles are stores. (II) Some quantities are stores.
Ans
1. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows
2. Only conclusion (II) follows
3. Only conclusion (I) follows
4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow
Q.10 Which of the following statements about sensitivity in plants is INCORRECT?
Ans
1. Plants have specialized Nervous tissues for conducting information.
2. Plants exhibit phototropism by growing towards the light source.
3. Thigmotropism is the response of plants to touch or physical contact.
4. Chemotropism is the growth response of plants to chemical stimuli in their environment.
Q.11 Which of the following sexual maturation changes occur in females?
Ans
1. Narrowing of hips
2. The breasts begin to grow
3. Skin decreased oil production
4. Stop of the menstrual cycle
Q.12 A and B can together complete a piece of work in 25 days. They worked together for 20 days and then B left. After another 10 days, A completed the remaining work. In how many days can A complete the entire work alone?
Ans
1. 54
2. 60
3. 50
4. 40
Q.13 The value of (4/7) × (21/20) + (6/5 – 9) is
Ans
1. –36/5
2. 39/8
3. –29/3
4. 35/9
Q.14 Which of the following sacrificed their lives for the protection of Khejri trees?
Ans
1. Amrita Devi Bishnoi
2. Sunita Devi
3. Sunita William
4. Savita Devi Bishnoi
Q.15 The Indian government launched a new digital health initiative in 2025, to improve healthcare accessibility and interoperability of medical data. What is the name of this initiative?
Ans
1. Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission 2.0
2. Bharat AI Health Grid
3. Digital India Healthcare 2025
4. National Health Stack Expansion
Q.16 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to that group?
Ans
1. NPO
2. FHG
3. JLK
4. RTU
Q.17 For image formation by a concave mirror, which of the following statements is true?
Ans
1. The size of the image is enlarged when the object is placed at infinity.
2. The nature of the image is real and erect when the object is at the centre of curvature.
3. An object placed at the focus forms a highly diminished image.
4. At the centre of curvature, the size of the image is the same as the size of the object.
Q.18 Which of the following is correct regarding complex permanent tissue of plants?
Ans
1. Xylem is responsible for transporting organic nutrients
2. These tissues are plant tissues that consist of one type of cell
3. These tissues are essential for the plant's transport system
4. Phloem is responsible for transporting water
Q.19 Who among the following social reformers worked to promote widow remarriage during the Indian National Movement?
Ans
1. EV Ramaswamy Naicker
2. Swami Vivekananda
3. Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar
4. Jyotirao Phule
Q.20 18 is related to 107 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 21 is related to 125. To which of the given options is 14 related, following the same logic?
Ans
1. 95
2. 91
3. 83
4. 87
Q.21 Find the circumference (in m) of the largest circle that can be inscribed in a rectangle whose dimensions are given as 49 m and 94 m. (π = 22/7)
Ans
1. 159
2. 149
3. 154
4. 163
Q.22 Under Article 74 of the Indian Constitution, the Union Council of Ministers is mandated to aid and advise which authority?
Ans
1. The President of India
2. The Lok Sabha Speaker
3. The Supreme Court of India
4. The Prime Minister of India
Q.23 Which of the following options is true about carbon compound combustion?
Ans
1. Burns without oxygen
2. Never produces water
3. Always forms carbon monoxide
4. Needs more oxygen for complete combustion
Q.24 Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F are kept one over the other... Which box is third from the bottom?
Ans
1. E
2. A
3. F
4. C
Q.25 Harish and Vineet move towards town B starting from town A, at a speed of 35 km/h and 36 km/h respectively. If Vineet reaches town B 40 minutes earlier than Harish, what is the distance between towns A and B?
Ans
1. 834 km
2. 838 km
3. 840 km
4. 841 km
Q.26 A vendor sold 20 chocolates for a rupee, thereby gaining 35%. How many did he buy for a rupee?
Ans
1. 33
2. 31
3. 27
4. 29
Q.27 Which one of the following monuments, constructed during the Mughal rule, is situated on the bank of River Yamuna?
Ans
1. Panch Mahal
2. Jama Masjid
3. Akbar's Tomb
4. Taj Mahal
Q.28 Who among the following was posthumously awarded the Padma Vibhushan in January 2025 for his or her contributions to literature and education?
Ans
1. Kumudini Lakhia
2. Sharda Sinha
3. MT Vasudevan Nair
4. Osamu Suzuki
Q.29 The angle of deviation for a ray of light after passing through a prism is ____.
Ans
1. the angle between the emergent ray and incident ray
2. indeterminate
3. the angle of the prism
4. the angle between the incident ray and one of the sides of the prism
Q.30 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that DOES NOT belong to that group?
Ans
1. ZS – EN
2. EA – JV
3. CO – HJ
4. MQ – RK
Section : Professional Ability
Q.1 Which is an environmental consideration when using larvicides?
Ans
1. Increase in adult mosquito population
2. Residual effect on soil nutrients
3. Toxicity to non-target aquatic organisms
4. Attraction of more larvae
Q.2 What does the 'Iceberg Phenomenon' of disease primarily represent?
Ans
1. The effect of antibiotics on disease progression
2. The cost of healthcare in chronic diseases
3. A small visible portion of disease cases with a larger hidden component
4. Genetic mutations below the surface
Q.3 Which of the following is the correct sequence for removing personal protective equipment (PPE) after contact precautions?
Ans
1. Mask → Gloves → Hand hygiene
2. Gown → Gloves → Mask
3. Gloves → Mask → Gown
4. Gloves → Gown → Hand hygiene
Q.4 The purpose of contact tracing in communicable disease control is to:
Ans
1. Identify and treat individuals exposed to the infection
2. Determine patient recovery time
3. Analyze mortality rates
4. Monitor vaccine effectiveness
Q.5 Which of the following represents the most accurate sequence of stages in the natural history of a communicable disease?
Ans
1. Exposure → Incubation → Clinical disease → Recovery/disability/death
2. Exposure → Symptom onset → Pre-pathogenesis → Mortality
3. Carrier state → Pathogenesis → Recovery → Immunity
4. Incubation → Pathogenesis → Resolution → Latent phase
Q.6 Which of the following best explains the primary public health impact of improved sanitation in healthcare settings?
Ans
1. Minimises the risk of healthcare-associated infections
2. Enhances the visual appeal of healthcare facilities
3. Reduces patient waiting time in outpatient departments
4. Increases patient compliance with medication
Q.7 Which of the following is the most appropriate method for health education delivery in rural areas through Primary Health Centres?
Ans
1. Interactive group discussions using local language
2. Mass media advertisements
3. Health articles in scientific journals
4. Online webinars and mobile applications
Q.8 What does the Air Quality Index (AQI) primarily indicate?
Ans
1. The overall air temperature
2. The level of humidity in the air
3. The concentration of air pollutants
4. The level of oxygen in the environment
Q.9 Which of the following is not typically included in the Demographic and Health Survey (DHS)?
Ans
1. Fertility rates
2. Infant and child mortality
3. Contraceptive use
4. National GDP statistics
Q.10 Which of the following is the most appropriate method for preventing eye strain while using digital devices?
Ans
1. Blinking frequently and resting the eyes every 20 minutes
2. Keeping the screen at a very close distance
3. Wearing sunglasses indoors to reduce glare
4. Using a high brightness setting for the screen at all times
Q.11 Which of the following is a major barrier in implementing effective nutrition education programmes in underserved populations?
Ans
1. Access to multiple sources for information
2. Overuse of modern communication technology
3. Abundance of nutritious food
4. Cultural food taboos and low literacy
Q.12 Which of the following is not true regarding oral Polio Vaccine?
Ans
1. It is prepared from live organisms
2. It is less potent immunizing agent than killed vaccines
3. It engages intestinal mucosa of the body
4. The organisms lose their capacity to induce full blown disease
Q.13 How does census data most directly support health policy planning?
Ans
1. By estimating hospital infection rates
2. By identifying specific pathogens causing outbreaks
3. By tracking the number of medical professionals in each hospital
4. By providing population data to allocate health resources
Q.14 Cross ventilation in housing refers to:
Ans
1. allowing air to pass through only one window
2. using air conditioners only
3. blocking all air entry points
4. air entering from one side and exiting through the opposite side
Q.15 Which of the following is a biological method of vector control?
Ans
1. Using insect repellents
2. Eliminating breeding grounds
3. Using chemical larvicides
4. Introducing fish that eat mosquito larvae
Q.16 Which of the following is the most accurate test for detecting coronary artery blockages?
Ans
1. Cardiac biomarker testing
2. Coronary angiography
3. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
4. Exercise stress test
Q.17 In septic tank systems, which component ensures partial treatment of liquid waste before it reaches the soil?
Ans
1. Soak pit or leach field
2. UV sterilizer
3. Chlorine tank
4. Incinerator
Q.18 Which of the following characteristics define infectious diseases?
Ans
1. They cannot be transmitted from person to person.
2. They always lead to chronic illness.
3. They are inherited from parents.
4. They are caused by infectious agents and may spread through direct or indirect contact.
Q.19 According to the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI), which of the following is mandatory for licensing a food handling establishment?
Ans
1. Providing valet parking
2. Regular health check-ups of food handlers
3. Availability of an in-house dietitian
4. Serving organic produce
Q.20 Which of the following bag is used for segregating discarded or expired medicines as per BMWM guidelines 2016?
Ans
1. Yellow bag
2. Red bag
3. Blue bag
4. White bag
Q.21 Which of the following types of Viral Hepatitis is primarily transmitted through blood and other bodily fluids?
Ans
1. Hepatitis E
2. Hepatitis B
3. Hepatitis A
4. Hepatitis C
Q.22 Which of the following is a statutory responsibility of a Sanitary Health Inspector under municipal health regulations?
Ans
1. Performing vector-borne disease diagnosis
2. Administering vaccines in rural areas
3. Licensing and inspection of food establishments
4. Conducting pathological lab tests
Q.23 What does prevalence measure in public health?
Ans
1. The rate at which a disease causes death in a population
2. The number of people at risk for developing a disease
3. The total number of cases (new and existing) of a disease in a population at a given time
4. The number of new cases of a disease during a specific time period
Q.24 Which of the following is a major environmental determinant of health in urban populations?
Ans
1. Family history of chronic diseases
2. Availability of clean drinking water
3. Education level
4. Consumption of fruits and vegetables
Q.25 Which of the following infection control practices is most supported by evidence in reducing the transmission of healthcare-associated infections?
Ans
1. Routine administration of antibiotics to all hospitalised patients
2. Regular hand hygiene and the use of alcohol-based hand rubs
3. Frequent fumigation of healthcare facilities
4. Mandatory use of surgical masks for all healthcare workers at all times
Q.26 Which of the following pathogens is most commonly associated with foodborne illness in poorly maintained food handling establishments?
Ans
1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
2. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
3. Salmonella enterica
4. Clostridium tetani
Q.27 Which of the following lipid parameters is most closely associated with an increased risk of Coronary Heart Disease (CHD)?
Ans
1. Total cholesterol
2. High-density lipoprotein (HDL) cholesterol
3. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol
4. Triglycerides
Q.28 The permissible concentration of methane gas generated at land fill site is:
Ans
1. Not exceeding 25 percent of lower explosive limit
2. Not exceeding 10 percent of upper explosive limit
3. Not exceeding 25 percent of upper explosive limit
4. Not exceeding 10 percent of lower explosive limit
Q.29 Which of the following best defines the incubation period of an infectious disease?
Ans
1. Time from infection to development of immunity
2. Time during which the disease is most contagious
3. Time between symptom onset and full recovery
4. Time from exposure to the appearance of first symptoms
Q.30 The biomedical waste generated from a hospital must be segregated:
Ans
1. At the point of generation
2. After collecting them from all sources
3. Once it reaches the area of disposal
4. Only at the end of the day
Q.31 Which of the following is a key consideration when using a digital scale for measuring body weight?
Ans
1. Weigh the individual without shoes only
2. Measure weight at different times during the day
3. Avoid using the scale if the individual is wearing any clothing
4. Ensure the scale is calibrated regularly
Q.32 In the assessment of respiration in an emergency, which finding suggests impending respiratory failure?
Ans
1. Shallow breathing with PaCO₂ > 50 mmHg
2. Respiratory rate of 14/min with clear breath sounds
3. Respiratory rate of 20/min with accessory muscle use
4. Mild cyanosis of fingertips during cold exposure
Q.33 In what situation is assent from a child required in addition to parental consent?
Ans
1. If the child undergoes surgery
2. If the child is over the age of 7
3. If the child is physically injured
4. If the child is accompanied by a sibling
Q.34 Which category of biomedical waste poses the highest risk of transmitting infectious diseases?
Ans
1. Expired pharmaceuticals
2. Sharps (needles, blades, etc.)
3. Radioactive waste
4. General non-hazardous waste
Q.35 Which of the following is considered a social determinant of health that significantly affects hygiene practices in a community?
Ans
1. Access to internet
2. Cultural beliefs
3. Availability of clean drinking water
4. Transportation facility
Q.36 Which of the following strategies contributed most to the success of the Pulse Polio programme in India?
Ans
1. Synchronised National Immunization Days (NIDs) targeting all children under five
2. Vaccine administration only in high-risk states
3. Introduction of polio booster at school entry
4. Use of inactivated polio vaccine (IPV)
Q.37 Which of the following is considered a major air pollutant?
Ans
1. Nitrogen
2. Water molecules
3. Oxygen
4. Carbon monoxide
Q.38 Biomedical waste is a waste generated during:
Ans
1. Housekeeping functions of hospital
2. Diagnosis, treatment or immunization of human beings
3. Administrative functions of hospital
4. Maintenance of health care premises
Q.39 Annual Day for Home Guards and Civil Defence is celebrated on ______
Ans
1. 6th December
2. 10th November
3. 10th December
4. 6th November
Q.40 In the event of a power outage, which equipment ensures the longest duration of safe vaccine storage without external power supply?
Ans
1. Standard refrigerator
2. Domestic deep freezer
3. Ice-lined refrigerator
4. Cold box
Q.41 The Vaccine Vial Monitor (VVM) typically changes color when:
Ans
1. The vaccine is nearing its expiration date
2. The vial is opened
3. The vaccine has been exposed to sunlight
4. The temperature exceeds the safe level for the vaccine
Q.42 Which of the following is a common long-term complication of poorly controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus?
Ans
1. Hypertension
2. Diabetic neuropathy
3. Hypoglycaemia
4. Diabetic Ketoacidosis
Q.43 Under the National Rabies Control Programme (NRCP), which of the following is a key strategy for controlling rabies?
Ans
1. Immunisation of humans against rabies
2. Only treating human cases
3. Treating infected animals
4. Mass dog vaccination and stray dog population control
Q.44 Which mosquito species is the primary vector for Japanese Encephalitis?
Ans
1. Culex mosquitoes
2. Anopheles mosquitoes
3. Aedes mosquitoes
4. Haemagogus mosquitoes
Q.45 Which of the following components is essential for an effective infection control programme in a healthcare setting?
Ans
1. Use of antibiotics for all admitted patients
2. Continuous surveillance and staff training
3. Isolated interventions during outbreaks only
4. Reliance solely on post-exposure prophylaxis
Q.46 Treatment of vaginitis as per syndromic management includes all the following drugs, EXCEPT:
Ans
1. Secnidazole
2. Amikacin
3. Fluconazole
4. Tinidazole
Q.47 Which of the following is a key strategy used under National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme for malaria control?
Ans
1. Immunization
2. Indoor residual spraying (IRS) and use of insecticide-treated nets (ITNs)
3. Mass chemotherapy
4. Water purification
Q.48 What evidence-based practice is recommended for preventing the spread of respiratory infections in healthcare facilities?
Ans
1. Educating healthcare workers and patients on proper cough etiquette and respiratory hygiene
2. Use of surgical masks for all patients, regardless of symptoms
3. Isolation of patients with respiratory symptoms in separate rooms at all times
4. Routine administration of antiviral medications for all patients with flu-like symptoms
Q.49 In patients with Rheumatic Heart Disease, which heart valve is most commonly affected, potentially increasing the risk of stroke?
Ans
1. Pulmonary valve
2. Tricuspid valve
3. Aortic valve
4. Mitral valve
Q.50 The primary goal of the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan is:
Ans
1. promote industrial growth
2. increase forest cover
3. achieve universal healthcare
4. eliminate open defecation and improve sanitation
Q.51 Which of the following health habits is most influenced by local customs and social conditioning rather than scientific reasoning?
Ans
1. Handwashing with soap after defecation
2. Avoidance of certain foods during menstruation
3. Use of oral rehydration solution during diarrhea
4. Immunisation of children under 5 years
Q.52 In the context of hygiene education, which of the following strategies is most effective in sustaining long-term hygiene behaviour change in low-resource communities?
Ans
1. Implementing strict penalties for unhygienic practices
2. Providing one-time distribution of hygiene kits
3. Conducting awareness campaigns via radio advertisements
4. Integrating hygiene promotion into community-based participatory programmes
Q.53 Which of the following best demonstrates the effective utilisation of community resources in planning a nutrition education campaign in a rural community?
Ans
1. Using printed materials distributed by pharmaceutical companies
2. Collaborating with Anganwadi workers for cooking demonstrations
3. Organising TV ads featuring celebrities
4. Hiring external dietitians from urban hospitals
Q.54 Which of the following public health interventions is most effective in preventing dental caries at the community level?
Ans
1. Free toothbrush distribution
2. Mandatory dental insurance
3. Annual dental camps in schools
4. Water fluoridation
Q.55 Which of the following best reflects a functional approach to family health assessment?
Ans
1. Recording the family's socioeconomic status
2. Evaluating family roles, communication and decision-making
3. Measuring BMI of all family members
4. Mapping the geographic location of the household
Q.56 Which of the following is a classic symptom of pertussis?
Ans
1. Persistent coughing followed by a "whooping" sound
2. Painless blisters on the skin
3. High fever and body rash
4. Sudden severe headache
Q.57 The antibiotic of choice for trachoma is:
Ans
1. Clofazimine
2. 4% of ophthalmic ointment of neomycin
3. Erythromycin
4. 1% ophthalmic ointment of tetracycline
Q.58 Which of the following is the most critical first step in planning a community-based health education activity?
Ans
1. Scheduling dates for the activity
2. Assessing the health needs of the target population
3. Preparing audiovisual materials
4. Setting learning objectives
Q.59 The CD4 count in a person with AIDS is typically:
Ans
1. 2000 cells/mm³ or higher
2. Less than 200 cells/mm³
3. Between 500 and 800 cells/mm³
4. Greater than 1000 cells/mm³
Q.60 What is the main difference between disinfectants and pesticides?
Ans
1. Pesticides are safer than disinfectants
2. Disinfectants are used only outdoors
3. Pesticides are used on humans
4. Disinfectants target microorganisms; pesticides target pests like insects and rodents
Q.61 Which of the following diseases is most commonly associated with exposure to untreated sewage?
Ans
1. Asthma
2. Skin cancer
3. vomiting
4. Typhoid
Q.62 Which of the following is a type of natural ventilation?
Ans
1. Cross ventilation using windows and vents
2. Air purifiers
3. Ceiling fans
4. Mechanical exhaust systems
Q.63 Arrange the following according to the recommended steps of hand washing. Select the right order from the options given.
Ans
1. 1, 5, 4, 7, 2, 6, 3
2. 2, 4, 5, 6, 7, 1, 3
3. 4, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6, 7
4. 4, 3, 2, 6, 7, 1, 5
Q.64 In a school-based health education programme, which of the following is the most appropriate opportunity to promote healthy behaviours among adolescents?
Ans
1. Conducting final exams on public health topics
2. Incorporating health modules in the life skills curriculum
3. Organising health talks once a year
4. Posting health statistics on the school notice board
Q.65 Which of the following is an example of biodegradable solid waste?
Ans
1. Vegetable peels
2. Aluminum cans
3. Glass jars
4. Plastic bottles
Q.66 Which of the following Sexually Transmitted Diseases can lead to cervical cancer, if left untreated?
Ans
1. Syphilis
2. Gonorrhoea
3. Human Papillomavirus (HPV) infection
4. AIDS
Q.67 Increased rate of respiration above 20 breaths per minutes is called:
Ans
1. Hyperventilation
2. Tachypnea
3. Apnea
4. Bradypnea
Q.68 What is the primary risk of using open-air burning or incineration without proper controls for biomedical waste?
Ans
1. Release of toxic pollutants
2. Reduced waste volume
3. Increased recycling rate
4. Efficient waste segregation
Q.69 Rubella is commonly known as:
Ans
1. Chickenpox
2. Scarlet fever
3. Whooping cough
4. German measles
Q.70 Why is segregation at the point of generation crucial in biomedical waste management?
Ans
1. It reduces the risk to waste handlers and ensures appropriate treatment
2. It prevents hospital staff from touching waste
3. It increases the amount of recyclable waste
4. It eliminates the need for transportation
— End of Question Paper —
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