SBI Clerk Mains Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2023 with Free PDF Download link Online

SBI Clerk Mains Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2023 with Free PDF Download link Online

 

SBI Clerk Mains Memory Based 2023-2024

Directions (1-2): Italian super - luxury sports car manufacturer Lamborghini has spread its wings in India. And it, has just opened a dealership in Bengaluru, the IT capital of the country. At a price tag of over Rs. 1 Crore, in addition high import duty barriers. Who will buy a Lamborghini car? Rather, what gives the Italian car maker the confidence to not only drive into India but also expand its presence? If super - luxury brand like Lamborghini is sensing an unfolding big opportunity in a New India, other traditional global luxury car makers have turned very ambitious with new launches.

Q1. Which of the following can be inferred from the given statement?
(a) As IT capital, some of the Bengaluru person has the potential to buy Lamborghini car.
(b) People of India will reject other companies' car and will attracted towards sports car of Lamborghini.
(c) After India, Lamborghini will plan to launch in neighbouring countries of India.
(d) Both (a) and (c)
(e) Both (b) and (c)

Q2. Which statement negates the Italian car maker confidence?
(a) Two years back, BMW has launched their premium cars in India, and they faced huge loss.
(b) Before India, Lamborghini had launched their car in France, and they make a 800-million-dollar profit annually.
(c) After launch, there is a huge demand and query by Indian people.
(d) Both (a) and (с)
(e) Both (b) and (с)

Directions (3-5): In the following questions, the symbols @, # and $ are used with the following meanings as illustrated below. Study the following information and answer the given questions. In each of the questions given below statements are followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
P@Q - All P is Q.
P$Q - Only a few Q is P.
P#Q - No Q is P.

Q3. Statements: Thread $ Summer; Ranges @ Thread; Ranges $ Numbers; Numbers @ Hills
Conclusions:
I. Summer @ Numbers
II. Hills # Thread
III. Ranges $ Hills
(a) Only I follow
(b) Only III follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Both I and III follows
(e) Both I and II follows

Q4. Statements: Duck $ Club; Verst # Duck; Verst @ Pizza
Conclusions:
I. Pizza @ Duck
II. Pizza $ Club
III. Duck # Pizza
(a) Only I follow
(b) Only II follows
(c) Both II and III follows
(d) None follows
(e) Both I and II follows

Q5. Statements: Chase $ Top; Chase @ Road; Angel # Road; String # Angel
Conclusions:
I. Angel # Chase
II. String $ Angel
III. Road # Top
(a) Both I and III follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Both II and III follows.
(d) Only I follow
(e) Both I and II follows.

Directions (6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Nine persons lives on different floor in thirteen story building. The bottommost floor is numbered as 1 and so on till the topmost floor is numbered as 13. Four floors are vacant.
A lives on prime numbered floor above floor 5. Four floors gap between A and G. One floor gap between G and H. H lives above G. Five floors gap between H and C. C lives below H. D lives on even numbered floor. Number of floors above D is same as the numbers of floors between J and B. E lives on even number floor just above B. No vacant floor between C and B. F lives two floors above D.

Q6. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
(a) Floor 6
(b) Floor 13
(c) Floor 5
(d) Floor 9
(e) Floor 1

Q7. Who live just below and just above J respectively?
(a) D, H
(b) A, G
(c) G, H
(d) F, A
(e) B, G

Q8. How many persons live above E?
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) Three
(d) Six
(e) More than six

Q9. Which of the following statement is true?
I. Two persons live between J and B
II. C does not live below J
III. The numbers of floors above B is same as the numbers of floor below A
(a) Both I and III
(b) Only III
(c) Both I and II
(d) Only I
(e) All I, II and III

Q10. If F and G interchanged their position then how many persons live between F and H?
(a) Two
(b) One
(c) Three
(d) None
(e) Four

Q11. Which of the following may be cause/effect in respect to amendments in Public Premises act?
(I) New ministers and parliamentarians will get accommodation on right time.
(II) Hunger strike is called by India against corruption leader Anna Hajare.
(III) A RTI was filed by congress MP 2 years ago who had not get Govt. Bungalow for 5 months after becoming MP.
(a) I is cause and II is effect
(b) I and II is effect
(c) I is cause and III is effect
(d) III is cause and I is effect
(e) None of these

Q12. Read the following statements and answer the question.
(I) Finally, the government has decided to sell off its sick industrial units, which have become a burden to it.
(II) Corruption, inefficiency and red-tapism have led to heavy losses to the government owned industrial units.
Which of the following is true with respect to the above statements?
(a) Statement I is the cause and Statement II is its effect
(b) Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its effect
(c) Both statement I and II are independent causes
(d) Both statements I and II are effects of independent causes
(e) None of these

Directions (13-17): A word arrangement machine when given an input line of words rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The example of input and its rearrangement is given below:
Input: Gold Plus Era Rain Hat Ask Row Bank Bay Join
Step I: Gold Plus Era Rain aks abkn Hat Row Bay Join
Step II: PlusEra Rain aks aby dglo abkn Hat Row Join
Step III: Plus Rain aks aby aer ijno dglo abkn Hat Row
Step IV: Rain aks aby aer aht lpsu ijno dglo abkn Row
Step V: aks aby aer aht orw ainr lpsu ijno dglo abkn
Step V is the last step of the given example. Illustrate the above input arrangement and obtain the steps for the asked input given below:
Input: Ten Only Car Must Land Yen Away Next End Ink

Q13. What is the position of 'acr' in step IV from left end?
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
(e) 1

Q14. How many words are in between 'Yen' and 'den' in step II?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) More than four

Q15. Which of the following word is fourth from right end in step V?
(a) mstu
(b) adln
(c) entx
(d) Yen
(e) aawy

Q16. Which of the following word is third to the left of 'Next' in step III?
(a) mstu
(b) den
(c) ikn
(d) adln
(e) aawy

Q17. How many words are there between 'Ten' and 'Yen' in step IV?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Six
(e) Seven

Directions (18-20): In these questions, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer:

Q18.
Statements: J ≥ K = M < N, O > N = P, Q ≤ P ≤ R
Conclusion
I: J > O
II: Q ≤ M
III: K < R
(a) If both conclusions I and II are true.
(b) None is true
(c) If only conclusion III is true.
(d) If both conclusions II and III are true.
(e) If both conclusions I and III are true.

Q19.
Statements: V < W = X ≥ Y, Z ≤ X = U, T > U = Y
Conclusion
I: T > V
II: Z ≤ W
III: Y > W
(a) If both conclusions I and II are true.
(b) If only conclusion I is true.
(c) If only conclusion III is true.
(d) If both conclusions II and III are true.
(e) If both conclusions I and III are true.

Q20.
Statements: E > F = G > H, I ≤ H ≤ J, K < I
Conclusion
I: E > I
II: K < G
III: J > G
(a) If All I, II and III are true
(b) If both conclusions II and III are true.
(c) If only conclusion II is true.
(d) If both conclusions I and II are true.
(e) If both conclusions I and III are true.

Q21. If in the given word 'DANGEROUS', if all the vowels replaced by its just next letter and all the consonants replaced by its just previous letter then remove all the repeated letter. After that how many letters between 6th letter from the left and 4th letter from the right according to the alphabetical order?
(a) 7
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 1
(e) 3

Q22. District Magistrate of City X gave hard hitting remarks at meeting with all the Pradhan "One village in district is spreading violence in the region". The growing forces of violence pose a fundamental challenge. We will not tolerate violence in city. Strict action will be taken for the culprits.
Which of the following statement can be inferred from above sentence?
(I) Law and order of India is not under control.
(II) The district which is indicated by DM will take strong action against violence.
(III) DM of city X is too much concern about violent activity and cannot tolerate it.
(a) Only I
(b) Only III
(c) II and III
(d) Only I and III
(e) None of these

Q23. Statement: Fair glow in one week otherwise money will be returned. This is Ayurveda cream and there is no side effect-Use 'X' brand cream. -An advertisement in the newspaper A.
Which of the following statement can be assumed from the above sentence?
I. Normally people like Ayurveda cream.
II. Very few people read advertisement in a newspaper.
III. Very few people read the newspaper A.
(a) None is implicit
(b) Only I and II are implicit
(c) Only I, and either II or III are implicit
(d) All are implicit
(e) None of the above

Directions (24-26): Each of the questions below, consist a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read the statements and give answer.

Q24. Six boxes are placed one above the other. How many boxes are placed below B?
I. E is placed three boxes above D. B is placed just above F. One box is placed between D and C.
II. Three boxes are placed between A and E. C is placed just below A. Two boxes are placed between C and F. B is placed above D.
(a) Only I is sufficient
(b) Both I and II together are sufficient
(c) Either I or II is sufficient
(d) Only II is sufficient
(e) Both I and II, even together are not sufficient

Q25. Six persons have different weights to each other. Who among all is 2nd heaviest?
I. B is heavier than A but lighter than C. Only two persons are lighter than A. D is heavier than F but lighter than E. B is heavier than E.
II. Only two persons are heavier than C. D is lighter than C but heavier than A. F is lighter than C and B who is not the heaviest. F is heavier than D but lighter than E.
(a) Only I is sufficient
(b) Both I and II together are sufficient
(c) Either I or II is sufficient
(d) Only II is sufficient
(e) Both I and II, even together are not sufficient

Q26. Six persons visit a city in different months i.e., January, February, March, April, May and June. Who among all visits in March?
I. M visits in the month having 30 days. Two persons visit between M and B. The number of persons visit before B is same as the number of persons visit after G.
II. Two persons visit between D and N. N visits on one of the months after D. G visits just before N. E visits three months before G but not in February.
(a) Only I is sufficient
(b) Both I and II together are sufficient
(c) Either I or II is sufficient.
(d) Only II is sufficient
(e) Both I and II, even

Directions (27-31): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Four persons A, B, C and D walk to their home from junction in different directions. A goes 7m in the north to reach at point P. He turns his right and goes 11m to reach at point R. Now he turns his left and goes 14m to reach at point S. After that he turns his right and goes 20m to reach at point Q. Finally, he takes his right and goes 18m to reach his home. B goes 9m north to reach at point M. Now he takes his left and goes 26m to reach at point T. After that he takes two consecutive right and goes 9m and 15m to reach at point O and point N respectively. Finally, he takes his left and goes 8m to reach his home. D goes 18m south to reach at point E. Now he takes his right and goes 13m to reach at point G. He takes his left and goes 14m to reach at point I. Now he takes two consecutive right and goes 6m and 17m to reach at point H and point F respectively. Finally, he goes 12m west to reach his home. C goes 9m east to reach at point U. Now he takes his right and walks 27m to reach at point X. After that he takes his left turn and goes 15m to reach at point W. Now he takes his left and goes 11m to reach at point V. Finally, he goes 14m east to reach his home.

Q27. Who ends up farthest from the starting junction?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) Cannot be determined

Q28. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
(a) O-U
(b) E-X
(c) G-F
(d) M-V
(e) G-W

Q29. Which of the following statement is not true?
I. Total distance from point U to point V is 53m
II. A's home is in north-west of C's home and south-east of B's home
III. Point G is not in south-west of point R
(a) Both I and II
(b) Only I
(c) Only III
(d) Both II and III
(e) Only II

Q30. The total distance from point E to point F is same as the total distance from point ___ and point ___.
(a) S and P
(b) M and N
(c) U and W
(d) G and D
(e) C and U

Q31. How far is A from his starting point?
(a) Less than 50m
(b) Exactly 55m
(c) Between 55m and 65m
(d) More than 65m
(e) Cannot be determined

Directions (32-36): Read the given information carefully and answer the questions based on it:
Eight persons of a family sit in a row facing north. All are related to each other. There are equal number of females and males in the family.
D sits third from an end of the row. C sits second to the left of D. Three persons sit between C and E's spouse. E's spouse is the immediate neighbor of E. L's son sits third to the left of L. Less than two persons sit to the right of L. F sits fourth to the left of F's brother. C's brother sits second to the right of F. G sits second to the right of H's wife. A's mother sits third to the right of A. A's sister and A sit adjacent to each other. One person sits between A's sister and H's daughter. D is neither H's wife nor sister of H.

Q32. How many persons sit between H and A's niece?
(a) Two
(b) One
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None of these

Q33. What is the position of D's nephew from the left end of the series?
(a) Fourth
(b) Third
(c) First
(d) Fifth
(e) Sixth

Q34. Who among the following is grandmother of G?
(a) H's brother-in-law
(b) C's aunt
(c) The one who sits just left of H
(d) F's sister
(e) The one who sits at the right end

Q35. Four of the following five are alike in a certain manner and related to a group, who among the following is not related to the group?
(a) C
(b) L
(c) D
(d) F
(e) H

Q36. Which of the following is true?
I. A is female
II. L is spouse of F's father
III. C sits just right of G
(a) Only III is true
(b) Only II and III are true
(c) Only II is true
(d) Only I and II are true
(e) All I, II and III are true

Q37. The Internet Cafes are incurring heavy loss these days as people prefer to use Internet in their mobiles PCs and Laptops.
Which of the following statements can be an effective course of action?
(a) The Internet Cafe should be converted into coffee cafe.
(b) The Internet should be closed and new project should be started there.
(c) More funds should be invested on the Internet Cafe.
(d) None of these
(e) Internet Cafe should be banned.

Q38. Statement: At least 80 people have been killed and over 350 wounded in a suicide car bombing in Kabul's diplomatic quarter this morning, a few hundred metres from the Indian embassy. The area where the explosion took place is close to the presidential palace and several foreign embassies. External Affairs Minister Sushma Swaraj has tweeted that Indian officials are safe.
Which of the following is an appropriate course of action as a fallout of the above terrorist attack?
(a) India should call back its diplomats and officials immediately.
(b) India should proceed to International Court of Justice against the Afghan government.
(c) India should ask the Afghanistan Government to ramp up the security of its officials.
(d) Officials in Afghanistan should be advised to remain indoors as far as possible.
(e) None of these

Q39. In the number '684359271', if all the digits are arranged in descending order, after then, the digits which remain at same place are removed, now find the difference between the sum of odd digits and sum of even digits in the new number thus formed?
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 6
(d) 8
(e) 4

Directions (40-44): In the given questions, a group of letters is given followed by some combinations of numbers and symbols. You have to find out the correct combinations for the group of letters based on the conditions given below:
Notes: The alphabets are numbered as 1 to 5 but vowels and the alphabets just before vowel are not numbered here. After numbering till 5, again next five letters are numbered as 1 to 5 and so on.
☑ Vowels are coded as #, @, %, &, $ from U to A respectively. Rest letters are numbered as the highest single digit prime number.
Conditions:
1. If both first and last alphabets of the word are either consonant or vowel, then the alphabets which are just next to the vowel (within the word) are coded with the code of Z (except the last vowel).
2. If there are more than two vowels present in the word, then their codes will be written in the alphabetical order of vowels against their places (vowels are considered present in word only).
Codes of remaining letters will be written after the subtraction of their given codes from 7 as per the note.
3. If condition 1 and condition 2, both are applied together in the given order, then the code of remaining letter will be written as per note.

Q40. Find the code for 'IMPETUS'.
(a) &43%0#5
(b) &34%7#2
(c) %43&0#5
(d) %34#7&2
(e) &43#0%5

Q41. Find the code for 'ZENITH'.
(a) 2&7%72
(b) 5%7%27
(c) 2&2%27
(d) 2&2%77
(e) 5%2%27

Q42. Find the code for 'INTERPOLE'.
(a) %77&14@2&
(b) &20&23%2@
(c) &24%23@2&
(d) &27&24@7%
(e) @72%&274@

Q43. Which of the following codes will fill the blank in '$_22@_1' which is the code of 'DAGLOCK', respectively?
(a) 0, 5
(b) 7, 5
(c) 0, 6
(d) 7, 0
(e) 7, 2

Q44. Which of the following word is coded as '$2&#5'?
(a) SLIDE
(b) LEAVE
(c) EQUAL
(d) MOUNT
(e) QUITE

Q45. Read the given information carefully and answer the questions based on it:
Six persons go to market in different days of a week stating from Monday to Saturday. Three persons go between A and C. A goes on one of the days before C. E goes just after A. The number of persons go before E is same as the number of persons go after B. D goes after F. How many persons go before B?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) More than three
(d) Three
(e) None

Directions (46-47): In each question below is given a passage followed by several inferences. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark your answer as:
India needs higher investment in the port sector and still lags far behind international ports in container traffic, though there has been considerable growth in this segment over the past few years. There is a need to continually benchmark Indian ports against the best ports worldwide and continue to engage in policy efforts so as to attain prices per container of port services which are the lowest in the world. The average turn-around time for ships docking at most of the ports in India has been falling for the past three years. However, pre-berthing time has been marginally increasing over the years.

Q46. The best port in the world is located in the United States of America.
(a) If the inference is 'definitely true' i.e., it directly follows from the facts given in the passage;
(b) If the inference is 'probably true' though not definitely true in the light of the facts given;
(c) If you think the data are inadequate i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false;
(d) If you think the inference is 'definitely false' i.e., it contradicts the given facts.
(e) If you think the inference is 'probably false' though not definitely false in the light of facts given;

Q47. Indian ports have not been graded so far on the international standard.
(a) If the inference is 'definitely true' i.e., it directly follows from the facts given in the passage;
(b) If the inference is 'probably true' though not definitely true in the light of the facts given;
(c) If you think the data are inadequate i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false;
(d) If you think the inference is 'definitely false' i.e., it contradicts the given facts.
(e) If you think the inference is 'probably false' though not definitely false in the light of facts given;

Directions (48-50): Study the following information and answer the related questions:
In a certain code language,
P@Q means P is husband of Q
P#Q means P is mother of Q
P^Q means P is father of Q
P&Q means P is wife of Q
P%Q means P is brother of Q
P$Q means P is daughter of Q
P+Q means P is son of Q

Q48. 'D@C$E; S&E^Y#X; J@V', which of the following is true, if the given expression is true?
I. C is son of E
II. J is father of X
III. S is mother of Y
IV. Y is brother of C
(a) Only I and III are true
(b) Only II, III and IV are true
(c) Only I and IV are true
(d) Only II and III are true
(e) Only II and IV are true

Q49. 'Z$W^N+A; G@R#H&N', in the given expression, how W is related to H?
(a) Father-in-law
(b) Brother
(c) Uncle
(d) Brother-in-law
(e) Father

Q50. Which will in place of '?' which will satisfy the relation that B is niece of Q?
F@U#B&M; L%V^U; Q?V
(a) %
(b) Either $ or +
(c) $
(d) ^
(e) &

Directions (51-57): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been denoted by letters. For each blank each, four words are suggested. Following the words, five options are given. Choose the most appropriate set of words from the options that fits the blank appropriately.
Global warming is increasing, an ______ (A) ______ phenomenon catalyzed by the ______ (B) ______ accumulation of greenhouse gases in Earth's atmosphere. This insidious ______ (C) ______ precipitates a plethora of ______ (D) ______ effects, paramount among them the exacerbation of climate change. The intricate interplay between anthropogenic activities and natural processes has engendered a scenario where the stability of global climate systems is under unprecedented threat. At the heart of this ______ (E) ______ predicament lies the combustion of fossil fuels, a practice that has become the linchpin of modern civilization. The ______ (F) ______ release of carbon dioxide, methane, and other greenhouse gases has engendered a thickening of the atmospheric blanket, trapping heat and precipitating a global temperature uptick. This thermic augmentation is not merely a statistic; it is a ______ (G) ______ of a cascade of environmental calamities.

Q51. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank A?
(I) Incontrovertible
(II) Indecisive
(III) Indubitable
(IV) moot
(a) Both (II) and (IV)
(b) Only (III)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Only (I)
(e) Both (I) and (II)

Q52. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank B?
(I) Pliant
(II) Spineless
(III) Relentless
(IV) Pertinacious
(a) Both (II) and (III)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Only (IV)
(e) Both (III) and (IV)

Q53. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank C?
(I) Diminution
(II) Escalation
(III) Accretion
(IV) Constriction
(a) Both (II) and (IV)
(b) Only (IV)
(c) Both (I) and (III)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
(e) Both (I) and (IV)

Q54. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank D?
(I) Anodyne
(II) Benignant
(III) Deleterious
(IV) Innocuous
(a) Both (II) and (III)
(b) Only (III)
(c) Both (I) and (II)
(d) Only (IV)
(e) Both (I) and (IV)

Q55. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank E?
(I) Dire
(II) Apocalyptic
(III) Propitious
(IV) Blithesome
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Only (III)
(e) Both (III) and (IV)

Q56. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank F?
(I) Ancillary
(II) Disparate
(III) Diacritical
(IV) Divisional
(a) Both (II) and (III)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Both (I) and (IV)
(d) Only (I)
(e) Both (III) and (IV)

Q57. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank G?
(I) Scion
(II) Harbinger
(III) Contraindication
(IV) Prelude
(a) Both (II) and (IV)
(b) Only (III)
(c) Both (I) and (II)
(d) Only (IV)
(e) Both (I) and (III)

Directions (58-64): Read the following passage and answer the given questions based on it.
In a world dominated by digital advancements, Rohan, a seasoned software engineer with thirty years of experience, decided to embark on a transformative journey. Eager to contribute to his family's legacy, he embarked on an agricultural journey alongside his brother. Together, they chose to cultivate millets, a crop that thrived in the village's climate and offered resistance to pests, aligning perfectly with their aspirations for sustainable farming.
The village's reliance on age-old farming tools and techniques posed a challenge for maximizing millet production. Recognizing the potential for modern technology to enhance agricultural efficiency, Rohan applied his engineering expertise to introduce innovative farming practices. His efforts were met with remarkable success, leading to a significant improvement in millet yields.
Rohan's achievements extended beyond his own fields. He became a catalyst for change, sharing his newfound agricultural knowledge with fellow villagers. His initiative to incorporate technology in farming sparked a collective advancement in agricultural practices within the community.
Understanding the economic challenges faced by farmers due to intermediary exploitation, Rohan founded an agro-based company. This venture enabled direct transactions between farmers and the company, eliminating the need for middlemen and significantly increasing farmers' profits by 30%.
The village, once known for its traditional farming, gained recognition for its prolific millet production and innovative agricultural practices under Rohan's influence. His journey from a software engineer to a pioneering farmer exemplifies the power of blending technological innovation with traditional wisdom to foster community development and sustainability. Rohan's story is a testament to the impactful change one individual can bring to agriculture, transforming his village into a beacon of progress.

Q58. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
(a) Rohan initiated his agricultural venture with assistance from his father.
(b) The choice to cultivate millets was driven by their higher market prices for farmers.
(c) Millets exhibit resistance to pests.
(d) Engaging in millet cultivation resulted in significant financial losses for the village's farmers.
(e) None of the above statements are correct.

Q59. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are CORRECT based on the passage?
(I) Millets were chosen for their high market price and profitability.
(II) Rohan applied his engineering expertise to overcome the challenges posed by traditional farming methods.
(III) The introduction of innovative farming practices had no significant effect on the community's agricultural practices.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) Only (II)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
(e) All (I), (II), and (III)

Q60. Which statement(s) does NOT align with the details in the passage?
(I) Rohan's decision to cultivate millets was primarily due to their ease of cultivation and low maintenance.
(II) The significant improvement in millet yields was attributed to Rohan's engineering expertise and the adoption of innovative farming practices.
(III) Rohan's venture into agriculture had little impact on the economic challenges faced by farmers in the village.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (I) and (III)
(e) All (I), (II), and (III)

Q61. Which of the following statement(s) is/ are CORRECT based on the passage?
(I) Rohan relied on traditional wisdom to enhance agricultural practices in his village.
(II) Direct sales facilitated by Rohan's agro-based company significantly cut down the exploitation by intermediaries.
(III) Rohan's transition to agriculture was inspired by a desire to contribute to his family's legacy.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
(e) All (I), (II), and (III)

Q62. How did Rohan's agro-based company impact the farming community?
(a) By providing advanced agricultural tools and resources that directly contributed to increased millet production.
(b) Through facilitating educational workshops on innovative farming techniques, leading to widespread adoption among villagers.
(c) By enabling sales channels between farmers and markets, thereby ensuring fairer prices for their produce.
(d) Through the introduction of pest-resistant millet varieties, specifically engineered to thrive in the village's climate.
(e) By cutting out intermediaries, which resulted in a substantial increase in the farmers' profits.

Q63. Based on the passage, why did Rohan choose millets as the crop for his agricultural venture?
(a) Millets were the most profitable crop in the market at the time.
(b) He had extensive prior experience in cultivating millets.
(c) Millets thrived in the village's climate and offered resistance to pests.
(d) The local government provided subsidies for millet cultivation.
(e) Millets required less water compared to other crops, making them ideal for the village's dry climate.

Q64. What was the primary challenge Rohan faced when he began his agricultural venture in the village?
(a) A lack of interest from the village community in adopting new farming methods.
(b) The village's reliance on age-old farming tools and techniques that limited farming practices.
(c) Difficulty in finding a suitable crop that could thrive in the local climate.
(d) Resistance from local middlemen who were threatened by his innovative approaches.
(e) The high cost of importing modern agricultural technology to the village.

Directions (65-71): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
Germany's economic vigor is surmised to have attenuated by 0.3% in the annum 2023, aligning with autumnal prognostications. An erosion in purchasing power egregiously impinged upon private consumer expenditures. Escalated expenditures pertinent to construction and borrowing, compounded by a paucity of labor and pronounced energy costs, have effectively hamstrung investments in the construction ambit and industries characterized by prodigious energy consumption.
Indices reflecting economic sentiment have remained in a state of torpor, with certain gauges in January descending to their lowest ebb since the COVID-19 pandemic's advent, signaling an economic expansion that is, at best, tepid in the initial half of 2024. The trajectory of investment growth is poised to continue its lag behind pre-pandemic standards, beleaguered by a dismal investor outlook at the year's outset. Labor shortages steadfastly remain a formidable barrier to economic activities, effectively squaring the circle in terms of reconciling growth aspirations with the reality of workforce constraints. The prospect of a trade-led revitalization appears tenuous, as exports and imports are anticipated to ascend at parallel magnitudes in the ensuing forecast intervals. More austere fiscal policies are poised to cast a pall over the near-term growth outlook. Contrariwise, a modicum of relief in market financing conditions has been noted, with anticipations of further easements through the conduit of bank lending. Moreover, the labor market's robustness, alongside an increment in real wages, is slated to buttress private consumption across the forecasted horizon.
In sum, real GDP is envisaged to register an increment of 0.3% in 2024 and 1.2% in 2025. This signifies a downward revision from the 0.8% posited in the Autumn Forecast for 2024, whilst the outlook for 2025 remains steadfast.
HICP inflation witnessed a retrenchment from its zenith of 11.6% in October 2022 to 6.0% for the totality of 2023, and further to 3.1% in January 2024. This retraction is chiefly attributable to a regression in wholesale energy tariffs and the deployment of energy support mechanisms, which were phased out in November 2023. HICP inflation is forecasted to hit 2.8% in 2024 and 2.4% in 2025, in a manner that is broadly consonant with the Autumn Forecast. The inflationary trend across both years is anticipated to be predominantly driven by the services sector, where a provisional surge in wage growth is expected to perpetuate inflation at an elevated plateau, as was anticipated in the Autumn Forecast of 2023. By contrast, the contribution of energy price increments to inflation is expected to be only nominal in the ensuing period.

Q65. What factors are primarily responsible for the projected attenuation of Germany's economic growth in 2023?
(I) A reduction in consumer purchasing power due to economic conditions.
(II) Increased costs associated with construction and borrowing activities.
(III) Persistent labor shortages and elevated energy prices impacting industrial and construction investments.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
(e) All (I), (II), and (III)

Q66. What is the forecast for Germany's real GDP growth for the years 2024 and 2025?
(a) An increase to 0.8% in 2024 and 1.2% in 2025, showing an optimistic revision from previous forecasts.
(b) A decrease to 0.3% in 2024 from the Autumn Forecast's prediction of 0.8%, with a steady outlook of 1.2% for 2025.
(c) A constant growth rate of 1.2% for both 2024 and 2025, matching previous forecasts exactly.
(d) An unexpected surge to 2.8% in 2024, significantly higher than the Autumn Forecast, and a slight decrease to 2.4% in 2025.
(e) A stabilization at 0.3% for 2024 and a decline to 1.2% in 2025, contrary to more optimistic earlier predictions.

Q67. How is the inflationary trend over 2024 and 2025 expected to be driven, according to the passage?
(a) Primarily by the manufacturing sector, due to increased production costs.
(b) By a significant increase in energy prices, contributing to higher overall inflation rates.
(c) Predominantly by the services sector, with wage growth expected to maintain inflation at elevated levels.
(d) Through decreased consumer spending, leading to lower demand and thus lower inflation.
(e) By the agricultural sector, due to fluctuations in global commodity prices.

Q68. Evaluate the accuracy of these statements in light of the passage:
(I) Real GDP growth for 2024 has been revised downwards from the Autumn Forecast.
(II) HICP inflation is expected to remain constant at around 6% through 2024 and 2025.
(III) Energy price increments are forecasted to be a major driver of inflation in the coming years.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (I) and (III)
(e) All (I), (II), and (III)

Q69. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT based on the passage?
(I) Labor market robustness and increased real wages are expected to support private consumption.
(II) Exports and imports are projected to grow at differing rates, potentially disrupting trade balance.
(III) Fiscal austerity measures are likely to negatively influence near-term economic growth.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) Only (II)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
(e) All (I), (II), and (III)

Q70. What does the following sentence mean in the context of the passage?
"More austere fiscal policies are poised to cast a pall over the near-term growth outlook."
(a) Stricter budgetary measures are expected to improve economic growth prospects shortly.
(b) The implementation of more rigid fiscal policies is likely to brighten the economic outlook in the near future.
(c) Tighter government spending and taxation policies are anticipated to dampen economic growth in the short term.
(d) Increased public investment and spending, as part of austere policies, will enhance the economic growth outlook.
(e) Fiscal austerity measures will have no significant impact on the economic growth forecasts.

Q71. What does the phrase "squaring the circle" mean?
(a) Finding a simple solution to a complex problem.
(b) Making significant progress in a short amount of time.
(c) Achieving something that is seemingly impossible or very difficult.
(d) Balancing economic growth with environmental sustainability.
(e) Increasing productivity without additional resources.

Q72. On a chilly afternoon, Ratul was toiling away in his office when a cold breeze wafted through the open window, prompting him to close it to maintain a cozy environment. Despite feeling somewhat lethargic that day, his spirits were unexpectedly lifted by a sudden phone call. The caller delivered the exhilarating news that Ratul had been shortlisted for the best performance award for his outstanding work on a recent project. Overwhelmed with happiness, Ratul found himself at a loss for words, unable to articulate the immense joy and surprise he felt at this unexpected recognition.
What the following word can most suitably expresses the feeling of Ratul?
(a) Ecstatic
(b) Despondent
(c) Bewildered
(d) Insouciant
(e) Apathetic

Directions (73-75): Rearrange the following sentences in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph.

Q73.
(A) He immediately set out on a journey to find it, overcoming various obstacles along the way.
(B) Once upon a time, a young man heard a legend about a treasure hidden deep in the forest.
(C) Finally, after days of searching, he discovered the treasure hidden under a giant old tree.
(D) Intrigued by the story, he decided that he must discover this treasure for himself.
(a) CBDA
(b) CADB
(c) DBCA
(d) ABDC
(e) BDAC

Q74.
(A) This shift led to an increase in consumer spending and demand for goods, significantly boosting the economy.
(B) The government decided to implement a series of tax cuts and increased public spending to stimulate economic growth.
(C) As a result, businesses expanded their operations and hired more employees, further strengthening the economic recovery.
(D) Faced with a sluggish economy, policymakers were pressured to find a solution to spur growth and reduce unemployment.
(a) DBAC
(b) CDAB
(c) BADC
(d) ADCB
(e) ADBC

Q75.
(A) The cat, grateful for the mouse's kindness, decided to set the mouse free as a sign of gratitude.
(B) Moved by the mouse's plea, the cat released it, and they started to talk, realizing they shared many interests.
(C) Lastly, they became unlikely friends, sharing stories and food, and looking out for each other in the forest.
(D) One day, a cat caught a mouse who begged for its life, promising not to bother the cat again.
(a) ACBD
(b) DBAC
(c) CBAD
(d) ADBC
(e) BADC

Directions (76-78): In the questions given below, three blanks are given. Below each question three words are given which fits the given blanks but not in the proper sequence. Choose the correct sequence of the words from the given five options.

Q76. The discovery of an old book in the attic ______ (I) ______ the mysteries of her ancestry, ______ (II) ______ a ______ (III) ______ web of lineage and intrigue.
(A) complex
(B) unraveled
(C) revealing
(a) (A), (B), (C)
(b) (B), (A), (C)
(c) (B), (C), (A)
(d) (C), (B), (A)
(e) (C), (A), (B)

Q77. The clandestine rendezvous under the ______ (I) ______ moonlight clandestinely ______ (II) ______ their unspoken pact, weaving a ______ (III) ______ of allegiance veiled in secrecy.
(A) tapestry
(B) cemented
(C) luminescent
(a) (A), (B), (C)
(b) (B), (A), (C)
(c) (B), (C), (A)
(d) (C), (B), (A)
(e) (C), (A), (B)

Q78. Amidst the ______ (I) ______ of the ______ (II) ______ metropolis, he found ______ (III) ______ in the ephemeral beauty of a sunset, its fleeting hues a balm to his restless soul.
(A) cacophony
(B) bustling
(C) solace
(a) (A), (B), (C)
(b) (B), (A), (C)
(c) (B), (C), (A)
(d) (C), (B), (A)
(e) (C), (A), (B)

Directions (79-80): In the following question, three sentences are given, each containing a highlighted word. Among the provided alternatives, select the word that serves as the most suitable synonym for the highlighted words.

Q79.
(A) A father, having **faith** in his son's driving abilities, handed over the car keys to him.
(B) She **entrusted** her secret diary to her best friend; confident it would be safe with her.
(C) To ensure the project's success, the team leader decided to **delegate** specific tasks to members based on their individual strengths and expertise.
(a) withhold
(b) possess
(c) reserve
(d) retain
(e) trust

Q80.
(A) The weekend getaway to the tranquil mountains seemed to rejuvenate her spirit, leaving her feeling refreshed and ready to face the challenges ahead.
(B) The small community garden, nurtured by the collective efforts of the neighborhood, provided a sustain source of fresh produce to local families.
(C) The company used advanced encryption to safeguard client information confidentiality.
(a) blemish
(b) impair
(c) ruin
(d) preserve
(e) flaw

Q81. In the following question, three sentences are given, each containing a highlighted word. Among the provided alternatives, select the word that serves as the most suitable antonym for the highlighted words.
(A)To pacify the crying child, her mother gently rocked her in her arms, humming a soft lullaby.
(B) The lavish buffet spread was more than enough to satiate the guests' hunger, leaving them content and full.
(C) After a long hike on a hot summer day, the icy cold water from the mountain stream quenched their thirst perfectly.
(a) gladden
(b) indulge
(c) aggravate
(d) blandish
(e) console

Directions (82-84): In each question, one word is given in bold and correspondence to that, three sentences are given each containing that word. Choose the option depicts the sentence(s) that have/ has the correct usage of the word.

Q82. RIGHT
(I) Despite the intricate calculations, he decided to right his thesis on the quantum theory's implications on temporal paradoxes.
(II) She exercised her right to vote, believing in the importance of contributing to the democratic process.
(III) He turned right at the corner, following the directions to reach the new bookstore downtown.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (I) and (II)
(e) Both (II) and (III)

Q83. QUERY
(I) Upon encountering an error in the report, she sent a query to the IT department seeking clarification and assistance.
(II) After reviewing the database, he formulated a complex SQL query to extract the specific information needed for the upcoming project presentation.
(III) She submitted a query to the customer service team, hoping for a quick resolution to her issue with the online order.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) All are correct
(e) Both (I) and (III)

Q84. RELIANT
(I) As technology advances, society becomes increasingly reliable on digital tools for daily tasks and communication.
(II) He was reliable to believe that the weather would improve, despite the forecast predicting rain all week.
(III) The remote village, reliable on solar panels for electricity, showcased the potential of sustainable energy in off-grid communities.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Only (III)
(d) All are correct
(e) Only (II)

Directions (85-86): In the questions given below, a sentence is given where the word has been emboldened. Below the sentence three words are given. Following the words, five options are given. Select the best alternatives for the bold word from the given options.

Q85. Given the dark clouds gathering in the sky, it's likely that we'll see rain before the afternoon is over.
(I) scarcely
(II) probably
(III) conceivably
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (I) and (III)
(e) Both (I) and (II)

Q86. He enjoyed the movie, though he had already read the book and knew the ending.
(I) however
(II) hence
(III) nevertheless
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (I) and (III)
(e) Both (I) and (II)

Directions (87-90): In the following questions, four sentences are provided and you are required to evaluate the grammatical correctness of each statement and select the corresponding option that accurately represents your evaluation.

Q87. (I) Despite the heavy rain, the event proceeded as planned, and many attendees appreciated the dedication shown.
(II) Everyone in the classroom were eagerly waiting for the announcement that the school year was finally over.
(III) The committee decided that the proposal, while innovative, did not align with the organization's current priorities.
(IV) Having lost the game, the team's spirits were low, but its coach's encouraging words lifted there mood significantly.
(a) Only (I) is correct
(b) Both (III) and (IV) are incorrect
(c) Both (II) and (IV) are incorrect
(d) Both (I) and (IV) are correct
(e) All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) are correct.

Q88. (I) As the deadline approaches, the team worked tirelessly to ensure the project's completion on time, despite facing numerous challenges.
(II) The recent study reveals that, despite common belief, eating chocolate in moderation can have benefits for heart health.
(III) Each of the participants have their own unique perspective, which they will share during the discussion panel next week.
(IV) The novel's intricate plot, combined with the author's attention to detail, makes it a compelling read for enthusiasts of the genre.
(a) Only (I) is incorrect
(b) Both (I) and (IV) are incorrect
(c) Both (II) and (IV) are correct
(d) Both (I) and (III) are correct
(e) All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) are correct.

Q89. (I) In an effort to reduce waste, the city council announced that it will be implementing a new recycling program next month.
(II) The teacher, along with her students, are planning a field trip to the museum to enhance their understanding of history.
(III) Not only does the new policy aim to increase efficiency, but it also seeks to improve the overall customer experience.
(IV) Despite his initial reservations, he found that the course offered valuable insights over the subject, exceeding his expectations.
(a) Only (III) is incorrect
(b) Both (I) and (IV) are incorrect
(c) Both (II) and (IV) are correct
(d) Both (I) and (III) are correct
(e) All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) are correct.

Q90.
(I) The research team was surprised to find that their results contradicted previous studies, leading them to further investigate the anomaly.
(II) Among the many challenges faced by the committee was finding a consensus on the proposed budget, which proved to be more difficult than anticipated.
(III) The number of participants attending the conference exceed the organizers' expectations, which necessitated additional preparations.
(IV) Following the seminar, feedback from attendees were overwhelmingly positive, indicating the event's success in meeting its objectives.
(a) Both (III) and (IV) are incorrect
(b) Both (I) and (IV) are incorrect
(c) Both (II) and (IV) are correct
(d) Both (I) and (III) are correct
(e) All (I), (II), (III) and (IV) are correct.

Directions (91-95): The pie chart given below shows the percentage distribution of total people (males and females) visited to a mall in five different days of a week (Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday & Thursday). Read the information carefully and answer the following questions.
Note: (i) The difference between total people visited the mall on Sunday and Tuesday is 12.
(ii) Total 400 people visited the mall on all five days.

Q91. On Monday, the ratio of males to females visiting the mall was 2:3. If the number of females visiting the mall increased by 25% and the total number of people visiting on Monday remained the same, then the number of males after females is increased are what percentage of total people visited the mall on Tuesday.
(a) 32.5%
(b) 16.67%
(c) 8.33%
(d) 33.33%
(e) 65%

Q92. On Wednesday, 30 people watch movie and remaining went to food court in the mall. If females went to food court is equal to total people went to the movie and total male went to food court is 12 more than that of total male went to the movie, then find the ratio of total females went to movie on Wednesday to total people went to mall on Thursday.
(a) 3:1
(b) 1:3
(c) 2:7
(d) 7:9
(e) 1:12

Q93. Total males visited to mall on Sunday and Thursday are same and ratio of females visited on Sunday to Thursday is 1/13 : 1. Find sum total males in both the given days.
(a) 36
(b) 39
(c) 60
(d) 80
(e) 84

Q94. Ratio of the total people visited to mall on Saturday to on Monday and Tuesday together is 1:2 and males visited on Saturday is 25% more than that total people visited to mall on Sunday. The females visited mall on Saturday is what percentage of the total people visited the mall in all given days.
(a) 3.6%
(b) 1.8%
(c) 2.5%
(d) 7.5%
(e) 6.5%

Q95. Find the difference between maximum and minimum number of people visited to the mall in the given days.
(a) 72
(b) 18
(c) 20
(d) 30
(e) 65

Q96. Solve the given two equation (I) and equation (II) and from the roots of these equation find which of the new equation formed.
(I): x² - 10x + 21 = 0
(II): y² - 24y + 144 = 0
For making equation one root is taking from (I) and other root taken from (II)
(a) z² - 19z + 84 = 0
(b) z² - 19z + 36 = 0
(c) z² - 13z + 36 = 0
(d) z² - 19z + 30 = 0
(e) z² - 15z + 84 = 0

Directions (97-98): Solve the quadratic equation given below and answer the question based on these equations.
(I) 2x² - Px + 10 = 0
(II) 4y² - Ry + 15 = 0
Note: (i) Roots of the equation (I) are (A) and (B) whose sum is 4.5
(ii) Roots of the equation (II) are C and D. Smallest root (C) of the equation (II) is 1/2 of the smallest root (A) of the equation (I)

Q97. Find the sum of the B and D.
(a) 6.75
(b) 7.75
(c) 6.25
(d) 4.25
(e) 8.25

Q98. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct.
(I) A + 1.75 = D
(II) B + 1.25 = D
(III) D - C = B + 0.25
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Only (I)
(c) Only (III)
(d) All (I), (II) & (III)
(e) None of these

Directions (99-100). One number is wrong, and one number is missing in the given number series. Solve the number series and answer the questions given below.
(I) 0.5, 5, 60, 480, 2880, 11520, P

Q99. Find the wrong number of the series.
(a) 5
(b) 60
(c) 480
(d) 2880
(e) 0.5

Q100. If the wrong number of the series is A, then find which of the statement/s is/are correct.
(I) P - 2880 = 4032A
(II) P is completely divisible by A
(III) P>4320A
(a) Both (I) and (II)
(b) Only (I)
(c) Only (III)
(d) All (I), (II) & (III)
(e) None of these

Q101. Anvi and Vaishnav started a business with the investment of Rs. 4800 and Rs. P respectively. After 6 months and 4 days Anvi left the business and Vaishnav invested Rs. 300 more. After 2 months and 3 days from the time at which Anvi left, Madhu joined the business by invested half of the amount invested by Vaishnav. If the annual profit is Rs. 1600 and the share of Madhu is Rs. 200. Find the approximate value of P.
(a) Rs. 15300
(b) Rs. 16000
(c) Rs. 70000
(d) Rs. 75000
(e) Rs. 65000

Q102. A boat covers 1.5S km downstream in 15 hours. A boy covered S km in 5 hours and the speed of the boy is 11 km/hr more than the speed of boat in still water. If the speed of stream is 3 km/hr, then find the value of S.
(a) 80
(b) 70
(c) 60
(d) 90
(e) 50

Q103. If (A + B)/2 = 12 and B + C = 12, Also 14 ≥ A > B > 9 and 10 ≥ B > C > 1. (Note: A, B and C are the integers)
Quantity (I) Value of A + 5
Quantity (II) Value of 2C + B
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Q104. A person invested Rs. P in a scheme that offers 19.8% interest, which is compounded annually for two years and two days. If the amount received from this scheme is reinvested at the same rate for the same period of time in the same scheme, then he will receive Rs. 792 as interest. Find the approximate value of P.
(a) 2500
(b) 1250
(c) 1450
(d) 1320
(e) 1000

Q105. A train crossed a poll in t seconds and the train crossed a platform in (t + 12) seconds. If the sum of length of platform and the train 540 meters. If the length of train is 300 meters, then find the distance covered by the train in (t - 6) seconds.
(a) 280 meters
(b) 240 meters
(c) 250 meters
(d) 160 meters
(e) 180 meters

Q106. X and Y are two numbers, and XY = 40. If we add one to numbers X and Y each, then both numbers form a single digit. Find the product of X and Y after adding one to both numbers. (Both X and Y are integers.)
(a) 54
(b) 64
(c) 42
(d) 49
(e) None of these.

Directions (107-108): Find the pattern of the series and answer the questions given below.
Series I. a, d, c, 669, 833, 1017, 1221
Series II. b, b+18, 336, 354, 372, 390
Series III. 456, 472, 408, 552, z

Q107. Which of the following option is correct.
(a) a+d - c > z
(b) a+d - c < z
(c) a+d = b + z + 102
(d) (a) and (c) both are correct.
(e) (b) and (c) both are correct.

Q108. Which of the following statement/s is/are incorrect.
(A) d is a prime number.
(B) a and z both are an odd number.
(C) c is divided by 7, then the quotient is 1/4 of b.
(a) Only (B)
(b) Both (B) and (C)
(c) Both (C) & (A)
(d) Only (C)
(e) Both (A) & (B)

Directions (109-112): Find the approximate value of question mark (?) in the following questions.

Q109. 1259.909 ÷ 12.106 ÷ 6.979 + 37.8982 - 29.9023 = ?
(a) 28
(b) 11
(c) 19
(d) 15
(e) 23

Q110. ? +205.901 - 506.109 = (7.01)³ - 50.01% of 85.99
(a) 500
(b) 600
(c) 550
(d) 510
(e) 660

Q111. 24.01% of 449.98 + ?² = (16.01)² - ∛63.93
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 10
(d) 9
(e) 14

Q112. ? × (44.01% of 750.01 + 110.01) = 87.99% of 2499.98
(a) 1
(b) 11
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) 8

Directions (113-117): Read the information and answer the following questions.
There are four products A, B, C & D.
1. Each B and D was marked up by 50% above its cost price.
2. The ratio of marked price of B to C is 6:7 and selling price of A is half of the marked price of B. The sum of the marked price of C and D is Rs 810.
3. D sold at 10% discount and rest of the products sold at a discount of 15%.

Q113. If total profit percent earned after selling product B is M%, then find the value of M.
(a) 27.5
(b) 14.5
(c) 14.8
(d) 24.7
(e) 30.75

Q114. If product A is sold at a profit of 53% and difference between cost price and marked price is Rs 80, then find the selling price of product B (in Rs).
(a) 244.1
(b) 242.3
(c) 245
(d) 260.1
(e) 300.1

Q115. The sum of marked price of products B and C is Rs 1326 and cost price of product C is Rs142 more than that of product B, then find the cost price of product C is how much more or less than that of product D (In Rs).
(a) 441
(b) 423
(c) 450
(d) 486
(e) 300

Q116. If the sum of marked price of product D and cost price of product B is Rs 733.5, then find the selling price of product D is approximately what percentage that of product A.
(a) 144%
(b) 842%
(c) 735%
(d) 727%
(e) 743%

Q117. If sum of the discount percentages given on products A and D is equal to the total profit percentage of product C, then find the marked-up percentage (approx.) of product C.
(a) 39%
(b) 22%
(c) 65%
(d) 47%
(e) 30%

Q118. An article is marked up by Rs 1225 above its cost price which is 'x'. It sold at a discount of 0.27x and the profit earned by the shopkeeper is 8%.
Quantity I: Find the value of Rs (x - 2500).
Quantity II: If cost price of the article is increase by 14.28% and sell at a profit of 25%, then find the profit (in Rs).
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Q119.
A and B are an integer.
Quantity I: ∛(216a³) - 2a⁴ + 51a, where 8 ≤ a ≤ 12.
Quantity II: 48b + 9 × 64^(1/b), where 2 ≤ b ≤ 4.
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Q120. Find the pattern of the given series and answer the question given below.
Series I: 1702, A, 1742.5, 1774, 1819, 1882
Series II: A/5, 316, 354, 306, 364, B
Find the value of (B+A+4) ÷ 20.
(a) 119
(b) 98
(c) 124
(d) 105
(e) 101

Directions (121-125): Bar graph given below shows the number of total inbound calls (domestic and international) and outbound calls (domestic and international) made by six people (A, B, C, D, E, and F). The table shows the ratio of Inbound and Outbound calls made by these people. Read the information and answer the following questions.

People | Inbound: outbound
A | 3:5
B | —
C | 7:5
D | 1:3
E | 3:2
F | 2:a

Q121. For B, outbound domestic calls is 0.75 times than that of inbound and outbound international calls are 5/6 that of inbound. If the ratio of total outbound call to inbound calls is 4:5, then find the total international calls.
(a) 55
(b) 50
(c) 35
(d) 40
(e) 45

Q122. If the difference between inbound and outbound calls made by F is 16, then find the value of a.
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) 1
(e) 3

Q123. If the outbound calls by B is 20% more than that of C, then the inbound calls by B is what percentage of total calls made by E.
(a) 85%
(b) 90%
(c) 75%
(d) 50%
(e) 55%

Q124. If total inbound domestic calls by C and D is equal to outbound calls by E and total international calls made by C and D is 44, then find the total domestic outbound calls made them.
(a) 55
(b) 30
(c) 50
(d) 40
(e) 20

Q125. If number of inbound international and outbound international calls made by A is square of a positive integer, then find the difference between minimum number of domestic call (inbound and outbound) made by A. (Note: inbound international and outbound international calls made by A are not equal)
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) 1
(e) 3

Directions (126-130): The table shows the number of articles (A, B, C & D) sold, cost price of each article, mark up percentage and total discount given. Read the information and answer the following questions.

Article | Number of articles sold | Cost price of each article (Rs) | Mark up percentage | Total Discount given (Rs)
A | 4x | x-5 | 2x% | 20x
B | y-10 | x | (y +20)% | 12.5y
C | 2.5y | y-10 | 4x% | 3750
D | 3x | 40 | (y + 40)% | 1500

Note- (i) Selling price of article A is one third of the selling price of article C.
(ii) Selling price of article B is double than the selling price of article D.

Q126. If the marked price of total article A is Rs 3000 and 60% of article are not sold then find the total number of article A (sold + unsold). (Note: x is a multiple of 5 and less than 30)
(a) 250
(b) 150
(c) 135
(d) 240
(e) 220

Q127. If the selling price of each article A is Rs 5 more than the cost price of each article A and sum of the profit earned on an article A and an article C is Rs 30, then which of the following option/ (s) is/are correct.
(A) 3x - y = 15
(B) Discount given on each article A is Rs.5.
(a) (A) and (B) both are correct
(b) Only (A) correct
(c) Only (B) correct
(d) (A) correct and (B) incorrect
(e) (A) incorrect and (B) correct

Q128. Discount given on each article C is Rs15 less than the cost price of each article D. Find the total articles B and C sold.
(a) 550
(b) 500
(c) 350
(d) 400
(e) 200

Q129. If the discount given on each article B is Rs 15, then find the marked price of each article B is what percentage of total discount given on article A.
(a) 4%
(b) 2%
(c) 9%
(d) 1%
(e) 3%

Q130. Find the ratio between the total discount given on article D to discount given on each article A.
(a) 300:1
(b) 1:300
(c) 200:7
(d) 7:900
(e) 11:102

Directions (131-133): The following questions are accompanied by two statements i.e. statement (I) and statement (II). You have to determine which statement (s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the questions.

Q131. Vessel A contains the mixture of milk and water. Find the quantity of milk in the initial solution.
Statement (I): When we extract 25 liters of mixture from the vessel for three times then the vessel gets empty.
Statement (II): When 15 liters of mixture is replaced by pure milk for the two times, then the ratio of milk to water in the final mixture becomes 17:8
(a) Neither statement (I) nor statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
(b) Statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (I) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) Either statement (I) or statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
(d) Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions, but neither of the statements alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(e) Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (II) alone is not sufficient to answer the questions.

Q132. The marked price of articles P is 33 1/3% more than the marked price of Q. Article P is mark up by 14 2/7% above its cost price and allowed 50% of a discount on article Q. What is the cost price of P (in Rs)?
Statement I: On article Q seller makes a profit of 20%.
Statement II: Difference between the cost price of P and selling price of Q is Rs. 200
(a) Neither statement (I) nor statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
(b) Statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (I) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) Either statement (I) or statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
(d) Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions, but neither of the statements alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(e) Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (II) alone is not sufficient to answer the questions.

Q133. Find the sum of the ages of P and D two years ago.
Statement (I): Present age of P is twice the present age of Q and the ratio of the present age of R and Q is 3:1 respectively.
Statement (II): Ratio of the present ages of A to D is 3:5 and the age of A and R is same.
(a) Neither statement (I) nor statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
(b) Statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (I) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) Either statement (I) or statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
(d) Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions, but neither of the statements alone is sufficient to answer the question.
(e) Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (II) alone is not sufficient to answer the questions.

Q134. A and B spent 40% of their monthly salary each and saved the rest of the salary. A saved Rs. 6000 and out of the total expenditure, A and B spent 20% and 30% on food and invested the remaining amount in SIP. If the monthly amount invested in the SIP by B is Rs. 1980 more than that of A, then find the difference in the salary of A and B (in Rs).
(a) 7000
(b) 8200
(c) 8400
(d) 8500
(e) 7500

Q135. A bag contains certain number of pebbles of three different colors (Red, Blue and Green). Number of Red pebbles are 5 and the number of blue pebbles is 6. If the probability of picking a pebble from the bag and pebble comes out to be of green color is 7/18. Find the probability of picking two pebbles and one pebbles comes out to be of Blue and other is of Red.
(a) 3/5
(b) 10/51
(c) 11/51
(d) 9/53
(e) 10/53

Q136. Total surface area of the cuboid is 76 cm².
Quantity (I): Ratio of the length and the height of the cuboid is 5:2 and the breadth is double of the height. Find the cost of painting the floor of the cuboid at the cost of Rs. 20/cm².
Quantity (II): Perimeter of the equilateral triangle formed on the floor of the cuboid is 12 cm. Find the cost of painting triangular part at the cost of Rs 30/cm².
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation

Q137. The vessel contains 60 liters of a mixture that contains 80% milk and the rest is water. Firstly, 20 liters of mixture are replaced by water, and then, 15 liters of mixture are removed from the resultant mixture. If x liters of water are added to the remaining mixture, then the ratio of milk to water becomes equal in the final mixture. Find the value of x.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
(e) 2

Q138. Ratio of time taken to cover P km in downstream to the time taken to cover (p/2 + 3) km in upstream is 5:12 and the ratio of speed of boat in downstream to boat in still water is 8:5. If the difference between the time taken by the boat to travel (P-6) km in upstream to that in downstream is 6 hr., then find the distance covered by the boat in still water in 5 hours?
(a) 32.5 km
(b) 31.5 km
(c) 47.5 km
(d) 37.5 km
(e) 27.5 km

Q139. The average earning of a group of eight persons is Rs 25 per day. The difference between the person having highest earning and lowest earning in the group is Rs 45. If person having highest and lowest earning are excluded, then the average earning of the group decreased by Rs 2.5. Find the average earning of the group when the three persons whose sum of earnings are equal to the person having highest earning left the group?
(a) Rs 29
(b) Rs 28.5
(c) Rs 30
(d) Rs 29.5
(e) Rs 30.5

Q140. 15 boy and 12 girls together can complete a work in 'a' days while 5 boys and 22 girls can complete the same work in 'c' days. Ratio of efficiency of a boy to a girl is 2: 5. Find the possible value/s of a + c where a and c are positive integers.
(I) 18
(II) 8
(III) 28
(IV) 14
(V) 21
(a) Both I and II follows
(b) I, II and III follows
(c) II, III and IV follows
(d) I, III and V follows
(e) III, IV and V follows

Solutions

S1. Ans.(a)
Sol. Statement (a)-True-Reason: As Bengaluru is an IT capital and Lamborghini has launched their car in Bengaluru not in another city. So, at least some Bengaluru people can purchase the car.
Statement (b)-False-Reason: It is not no where mentioned, and it cannot be inferred.
Statement (c)-False-Reason: In the given information, launch and expansion in India only is discussed. Nothing can be inferred about neighbouring countries.

S2. Ans.(a)
Sol. Only option (a) nullify the confidence of Italian car maker, other two statements support their confidence.

S3. Ans.(b)
Sol.
[Venn Diagram]

S4. Ans.(d)
Sol.
[Venn Diagram]

S5. Ans.(d)
Sol.
[Venn Diagram]

S6. Ans.(a)
Sol. Final arrangement:
Floor | Person
13 | Vacant
12 | F
11 | A
10 | D
9 | Vacant
8 | H
7 | J
6 | G
5 | Vacant
4 | E
3 | B
2 | C
1 | Vacant
Clues- A lives on prime numbered floor above floor 5. Four floors gap between A and G. One floor gap between G and H. H lives above G.
Inference- Here we have 3 possible cases
Floor | Case 1 Person | Case 2 Person | Case 3 Person
13 | | | A
12 | | |
11 | | A |
10 | G | | H
9 | | |
8 | | H | G
7 | A | |
6 | | G |
5 | | |
4 | H | | C
3 | | |
2 | G | C |
1 | | |

Clues- Five floors gap between H and C. C lives below H.
Inference- Here case 1 is ruled out now because C lives above H.
Floor | Case 1 Person | Case 2 Person | Case 3 Person
13 | | | A
12 | | |
11 | | A |
10 | G | | H
9 | | |
8 | | H | G
7 | A | |
6 | | G |
5 | | |
4 | H | | C
3 | | |
2 | G | C |
1 | | |

Clues- D lives on even numbered floor. Number of floors above D is same as the numbers of floors between J and B. E lives on even number floor just above B. No vacant floor between C and B. F lives two floors above D.
Inference- Here Case 2 is ruled out now and the final arrangement is-
Floor | Person
13 | Vacant
12 | F
11 | A
10 | D
9 | Vacant
8 | H
7 | J
6 | G
5 | Vacant
4 | E
3 | B
2 | C
1 | Vacant

S7. Ans.(c)
Sol. Final arrangement:
Floor | Person
13 | Vacant
12 | F
11 | A
10 | D
9 | Vacant
8 | H
7 | J
6 | G
5 | Vacant
4 | E
3 | B
2 | C
1 | Vacant

S8. Ans.(d)
Sol. Final arrangement:
Floor | Person
13 | Vacant
12 | F
11 | A
10 | D
9 | Vacant
8 | H
7 | J
6 | G
5 | Vacant
4 | E
3 | B
2 | C
1 | Vacant

S9. Ans.(a)
Sol. Final arrangement:
Floor | Person
13 | Vacant
12 | F
11 | A
10 | D
9 | Vacant
8 | H
7 | J
6 | G
5 | Vacant
4 | E
3 | B
2 | C
1 | Vacant

S10. Ans.(b)
Sol. Final arrangement:
Floor | Person
13 | Vacant
12 | F
11 | A
10 | D
9 | Vacant
8 | H
7 | J
6 | G
5 | Vacant
4 | E
3 | B
2 | C
1 | Vacant

S11. Ans.(d)
Sol. In this question we have to find out the cause and effect for making amendments in Public Premises Act.
For Statement I: It is clearly an effect of amendments in Public Premises Act.
For Statement II: This cannot be cause or effect, as there is no role of India against corrupt leader in this.
For Statement III: It may be the cause for making amendments.

S12. Ans.(b)
Sol. The government has decided to sell off its industrial units, because heavy loss was caused by corruption, inefficiency and red-tapism. Hence statement II is the cause and I is its effect.

S13. Ans.(d)
Sol. Two words are arranged in each step – One three-letter word and one four-letter word.
Both words are picked according to alphabetical order based on their first letter. After that, these words are placed exactly in the middle of each step (first 3-letter word followed by 4-letter word). Now, the letters in these two words are rearranged in alphabetical order from left within the word.
Input: Ten Only Car Must Land Yen Away Next End Ink
Step I: Ten Only Must Land acr aawy Yen Next End Ink
Step II: Ten Only Must acr den adln aawy Yen Next Ink
Step III: Ten Only acr den ikn mstu adln aawy Yen Next
Step IV: Only acr den ikn ent entx mstu adln aawy Yen
Step V: acr den ikn ent eny lnoy entx mstu adln aawy

S14. Ans.(b)
Sol. Two words are arranged in each step – One three-letter word and one four-letter word.
Both words are picked according to alphabetical order based on their first letter. After that, these words are placed exactly in the middle of each step (first 3-letter word followed by 4-letter word). Now, the letters in these two words are rearranged in alphabetical order from left within the word.
Input: Ten Only Car Must Land Yen Away Next End Ink
Step I: Ten Only Must Land acr aawy Yen Next End Ink
Step II: Ten Only Must acr den adln aawy Yen Next Ink
Step III: Ten Only acr den ikn mstu adln aawy Yen Next
Step IV: Only acr den ikn ent entx mstu adln aawy Yen
Step V: acr den ikn ent eny lnoy entx mstu adln aawy

S15. Ans.(c)
Sol. Two words are arranged in each step – One three-letter word and one four-letter word.
Both words are picked according to alphabetical order based on their first letter. After that, these words are placed exactly in the middle of each step (first 3-letter word followed by 4-letter word). Now, the letters in these two words are rearranged in alphabetical order from left within the word.
Input: Ten Only Car Must Land Yen Away Next End Ink
Step I: Ten Only Must Land acr aawy Yen Next End Ink
Step II: Ten Only Must acr den adln aawy Yen Next Ink
Step III: Ten Only acr den ikn mstu adln aawy Yen Next
Step IV: Only acr den ikn ent entx mstu adln aawy Yen
Step V: acr den ikn ent eny lnoy entx mstu adln aawy

S16. Ans.(d)
Sol. Two words are arranged in each step – One three-letter word and one four-letter word.
Both words are picked according to alphabetical order based on their first letter. After that, these words are placed exactly in the middle of each step (first 3-letter word followed by 4-letter word). Now, the letters in these two words are rearranged in alphabetical order from left within the word.
Input: Ten Only Car Must Land Yen Away Next End Ink
Step I: Ten Only Must Land acr aawy Yen Next End Ink
Step II: Ten Only Must acr den adln aawy Yen Next Ink
Step III: Ten Only acr den ikn mstu adln aawy Yen Next
Step IV: Only acr den ikn ent entx mstu adln aawy Yen
Step V: acr den ikn ent eny lnoy entx mstu adln aawy

S17. Ans.(e)
Sol. Two words are arranged in each step – One three-letter word and one four-letter word.
Both words are picked according to alphabetical order based on their first letter. After that, these words are placed exactly in the middle of each step (first 3-letter word followed by 4-letter word). Now, the letters in these two words are rearranged in alphabetical order from left within the word.
Input: Ten Only Car Must Land Yen Away Next End Ink
Step I: Ten Only Must Land acr aawy Yen Next End Ink
Step II: Ten Only Must acr den adln aawy Yen Next Ink
Step III: Ten Only acr den ikn mstu adln aawy Yen Next
Step IV: Only acr den ikn ent entx mstu adln aawy Yen
Step V: acr den ikn ent eny lnoy entx mstu adln aawy

S18. Ans.(c)

S19. Ans.(a)

S20. Ans.(d)

S21. Ans.(b)

S22. Ans.(b)
Sol. Only III can be inferred from above sentences. Situation for one village is mentioned but we can't consider it for whole country. 2nd one may be an assumption or course of action, but it cannot be inferred. From the statement of DM that "We will not tolerate violence in city. Strict action will be taken for the culprits" it can clearly inferred that DM of city X is too much concern and cannot tolerate violence.

S23. Ans.(e)
Sol. Any advertisement highlights only the desirable qualities of the product. So, I is implicit. The 'X' brand has advertised its product in newspaper A. This implies that a large section of people reads advertisements in newspapers and that news-paper A too has huge circulation and coverage. So, neither II nor III is implicit.

S24. Ans.(d)
Sol. From only II -
Boxes
E
B
F
D
A
C

S25. Ans.(c)
Sol. From only I - C > B > E > A > D > F
From only II - E > B > C > F > D > A

S26. Ans.(b)
Sol. From I and II together -
Months | Persons
January | E
February | D
March | B
April | G
May | N
June | M

S27. Ans.(d)
Sol.
[Direction Diagram]

S28. Ans.(c)
Sol.
[Direction Diagram]

S29. Ans.(c)
Sol.
[Direction Diagram]

S30. Ans.(b)
Sol.
[Direction Diagram]

S31. Ans.(d)
Sol.
[Direction Diagram]

S32. Ans.(b)
Sol. Final arrangement:
F H G C A D E L
[Family Tree Diagram]

S33. Ans.(b)
Sol. Final arrangement:
F H G C A D E L
[Family Tree Diagram]

S34. Ans.(e)
Sol. Final arrangement:
F H G C A D E L
[Family Tree Diagram]

S35. Ans.(e)
Sol. Final arrangement:
F H G C A D E L
[Family Tree Diagram]

S36. Ans.(b)
Sol. Final arrangement:
F H G C A D E L
[Family Tree Diagram]

S37. Ans.(d)
Sol. It can't be a better course of action to convert the Internet Cafe into Coffee Cafe. Also a new project at the place of internet cafe after diminishing it can't be a rational course of action. More investment in loss making project is also not rational without a strong strategy, and the 5th statement is illogical – not a good course of action.

S38. Ans.(c)
Sol. (a) Calling back officials on the basis of this attack will send a strong message to the international community and might even show that terrorist have been successful in their purpose.
(b) Proceeding ICJ is absurd as it is not known if the Afghan government was actually involved in the attack.
(c) Asking the Afghanistan Government to ramp up the security of its officials as this will help ensuring the security of its officials.
(d) Advising the officials to stay indoors is not a right way to respond to the terrorist attack and shows a sense of helplessness.

S39. Ans.(b)
Sol. Difference = 19-12 = 7

S40. Ans.(a)
Sol. Condition 2 applied

S41. Ans.(c)
Sol. Condition 1 applied

S42. Ans.(b)
Sol. Condition 3 applied

S43. Ans.(e)
Sol. Condition 1 applied

S44. Ans.(c)
Sol. Condition 2 applied

S45. Ans.(d)
Sol.
Days | Persons
Monday | F
Tuesday | A
Wednesday | E
Thursday | B
Friday | D
Saturday | C

S46. Ans.(c)
Sol. Data inadequate There is no mentioning about the best port being in United States of America. It can be anywhere in the world.

S47. Ans.(b)
Sol. Probably true the whole paragraph points towards the lagging behind of the Indian ports, according to international standards. But nowhere in the paragraph "grading" term has been used so the statement is probably true according to the trend of the paragraph.

S48. Ans.(d)
Sol.
[Family Tree Diagram]

S49. Ans.(a)
Sol.
[Family Tree Diagram]

S50. Ans.(b)
Sol.
[Family Tree Diagram]

S51. Ans.(c)
Sol. The appropriate word for blank A, which describes the phenomenon of global warming, should be one that conveys the idea of it being undeniable or beyond dispute. The word "incontrovertible" (I) fits this description perfectly as it means not able to be denied or disputed. Similarly, "indubitable" (III) also fits as it means that which cannot be doubted; patently evident or certain. The words "indecisive" and "moot" do not fit the context as they convey uncertainty and irrelevance, respectively, which are not appropriate descriptions for the phenomenon of global warming being described.
Therefore, the most appropriate set of words for blank A from the given options is:
"(c) Both (I) and (III)".
Incontrovertible: Not able to be denied or disputed.
Indecisive: Not settling an issue or not able to make decisions.
Indubitable: Impossible to doubt; unquestionable.
Moot: Subject to debate, dispute, or uncertainty, and typically not admitting of a final decision.

S52. Ans.(e)
Sol. The word that fits blank B should describe the nature of the accumulation of greenhouse gases in Earth's atmosphere in a way that emphasizes its continuous and unyielding nature. Among the options: Pliant and Spineless both suggest flexibility or lack of strength, which does not accurately describe the accumulation of greenhouse gases.
Relentless means unceasingly intense, which appropriately describes the continuous and persistent accumulation of greenhouse gases.
Pertinacious means holding firmly to an opinion or a course of action, which can also describe the persistent nature of the accumulation, but "relentless" is more directly related to the continuous action described in the context.
Therefore, the word that best fits blank B is:
(e) Both (III) and (IV), as both convey a sense of continuous and determined action, which is suitable for describing the accumulation of greenhouse gases.

S53. Ans.(d)
Sol. For blank C, we're looking for a word that describes the change in the situation due to the accumulation of greenhouse gases, which leads to adverse effects:
Diminution means a reduction, which contradicts the context of increasing adverse effects due to global warming.
Escalation means an increase in intensity or magnitude, fitting the context of worsening conditions due to greenhouse gases.
Accretion refers to growth or increase by gradual addition, which can also apply to the context of accumulating effects.
Constriction means making something narrower or tighter, which doesn't fit the context of increasing global warming effects.
Therefore, the correct choice is:
(d) Both (II) and (III), as both words accurately describe the increasing or accumulating nature of the phenomenon in question.

S54. Ans.(b)
Sol. For blank D, we need a word that describes the effects of the escalation in greenhouse gas accumulation:
Anodyne suggests something that is not likely to provoke, which does not fit the context of negative effects.
Benignant means kindly and beneficial, which contradicts the context of harmful effects due to global warming.
Deleterious means causing harm or damage, fitting the context perfectly as it describes the negative effects of global warming.
Innocuous means not harmful or offensive, which contradicts the context of harmful effects.
Therefore, the correct choice is:
(b) Only (III), as it accurately describes the harmful effects of the situation being discussed.

S55. Ans.(a)
Sol. For blank E, describing the nature of the predicament related to the combustion of fossil fuels, the appropriate word should underscore the serious and potentially catastrophic implications of this situation:
Dire means extremely serious or urgent, aptly reflecting the critical and severe nature of the environmental challenge.
Apocalyptic implies something that is catastrophic or disastrous, particularly on a global scale, which accurately conveys the extreme severity of the consequences of global warming.
Propitious means indicating a good chance of success; favorable, which is not aligned with the context of a grave environmental issue.
Blithesome means showing a casual and cheerful indifference, which clearly contradicts the gravity of the situation being discussed.
Given the description and the context of grave environmental concern due to global warming:
(a) Both (I) and (II) are suitable choices, as they both convey the severe and potentially catastrophic nature of the predicament accurately.

S56. Ans.(d)
Sol. For blank F, which pertains to the release of greenhouse gases alongside the combustion of fossil fuels, the appropriate word should denote a relationship where the release is directly associated with or happens as a result of the combustion process:
Ancillary means providing necessary support to the primary activities or operation of an organization, system, etc., which could imply that the release of greenhouse gases supports or is secondary to the combustion of fossil fuels.
Disparate means essentially different in kind; not allowing for comparison, which does not fit the context of describing the relationship between combustion and gas emissions.
Diacritical refers to a sign marking a difference in pronunciation, which is irrelevant to the context of environmental impact.
Divisional means relating to a division (= part) of an army or large organization.
Given the description and need to highlight the simultaneous or inherently linked nature of greenhouse gas emissions to the combustion of fossil fuels:
(d) Only (I) is the correct choice.

S57. Ans.(a)
Sol. For blank G, which is meant to describe something that indicates or foreshadows a series of environmental calamities as a result of global warming, the appropriate word should denote a sign or precursor:
Scion refers to a descendant or heir, often used in the context of lineage or inheritance, which does not fit the context of indicating future events.
Harbinger means a forerunner or a signal of something to come, fitting the context well as it implies something that announces or predicts the future calamities.
Contraindication is a term often used in medicine to indicate a reason something is not advisable or should not be done, which does not fit the context of predicting or indicating future events.
Prelude means to an action or event serving as an introduction to something more important.
Given the need to indicate a clear precursor or signal of future environmental calamities:
(a) Both (II) and (IV) are suitable, as both suggest the idea of indicating or foreshadowing future events, with "harbinger" being more directly about signaling what is to come and "prelude" suggesting a outline of future events.

S58. Ans.(c)
Sol. The passage explicitly mentions that millets were chosen for cultivation because they thrived in the village's climate and offered resistance to pests, aligning with sustainable farming goals. This confirms that statement (c) is accurate. The passage does not mention Rohan receiving help from his father for his farming practices, making (a) incorrect. It also does not state that the decision to farm millets was based on better rates for farmers, making (b) incorrect. There is no mention of millet farming causing huge losses for the farmers, making (d) incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is (c), as it accurately reflects the information provided in the passage.

S59. Ans.(c)
Sol. The passage does not mention millets being chosen for their high market price and profitability, making statement (I) incorrect. It does clearly state that Rohan applied his engineering expertise to introduce innovative farming practices, which were met with remarkable success, confirming statement (II) as correct. Statement (III) is incorrect because the passage describes how Rohan's initiatives led to a collective advancement in agricultural practices within the community, indicating that the innovative practices did have a significant effect.

S60. Ans.(d)
Sol. Statement (I) is misleading because, while the passage does mention that millets were chosen due to their suitability to the village's climate and resistance to pests, it does not specifically state that ease of cultivation and low maintenance were the primary reasons. Statement (II) is correct and aligns with the passage, which credits Rohan's engineering skills and innovative practices for the significant improvement in millet yields. Statement (III) is incorrect because the passage clearly indicates that Rohan's agricultural efforts and the founding of his agro-based company significantly impacted the economic challenges faced by farmers, particularly by increasing their profits by 30% through direct transactions that eliminated middlemen.

S61. Ans.(d)
Sol. Statement (I) is not entirely accurate according to the passage. While Rohan's journey suggests a blend of traditional wisdom and technological innovation, the passage emphasizes his reliance on engineering expertise to introduce innovative farming practices, rather than solely on traditional wisdom. Therefore, (I) might not fully capture the essence of Rohan's approach as described. Statements (II) and (III) are correct based on the passage: (II) indicates that Rohan's agro-based company significantly reduced the exploitation of farmers by intermediaries through direct sales, and (III) mentions that Rohan's shift to agriculture was motivated by his desire to contribute to his family's legacy. Thus, the correct answer is (d), indicating that both (II) and (III) are correct reflections of the passage's details.

S62. Ans.(e)
Sol. The passage explicitly states that the establishment of Rohan's agro-based company led to the elimination of middlemen, which in turn significantly increased farmers' profits by 30%. This direct impact on the economic aspect of farming highlights the company's role in enhancing the financial well-being of the community. Options (a), (b), (c), and (d) describe plausible beneficial actions but are not directly mentioned in the passage as effects of the agro-based company. The correct impact, as specified in the passage, is the increase in profits due to the elimination of intermediaries, making (e) the correct answer.

S63. Ans.(c)
Sol. The passage specifies that Rohan and his brother chose to cultivate millets because these crops thrived in the village's climate and offered resistance to pests, perfectly aligning with their aspirations for sustainable farming. This decision was influenced by the suitability of millets to the local environmental conditions and their compatibility with the goals of sustainability, rather than factors like market profitability (a), Rohan's personal experience (b), government subsidies (d), or specific agricultural requirements such as water usage (e), making (c) the correct answer.

S64. Ans.(b)
Sol. The passage highlights that the primary challenge Rohan encountered was the village's reliance on age-old farming tools and techniques, which posed a barrier to maximizing millet production. This reliance on traditional methods limited the potential for agricultural efficiency and yield improvements, prompting Rohan to introduce modern technology and innovative practices. The other options, while plausible challenges in a broad sense, are not mentioned in the passage as specific obstacles Rohan faced. The text directly points to the reliance on outdated methods as the key challenge, making (b) the correct answer.

S65. Ans.(e)
Sol. The passage outlines multiple factors contributing to the expected slowdown in Germany's economic growth for 2023, including a decrease in purchasing power, which affects consumer expenditures negatively; increased costs related to construction and borrowing, which hinder investment in the construction sector and industries with high energy consumption; and a combination of labor shortages and high energy prices, which pose significant challenges to investment. Together, these issues create a complex environment that is not conducive to economic growth, making option (e) "All (I), (II), and (III)" the correct answer, as it collectively acknowledges the impact of these intertwined factors on Germany's economic outlook for 2023.

S66. Ans.(b)
Sol. The passage specifies that real GDP in Germany is expected to grow by 0.3% in 2024, which represents a downward revision from the 0.8% growth predicted in the Autumn Forecast. For 2025, the growth outlook remains unchanged at 1.2%. This indicates a more cautious or pessimistic view for 2024 compared to previous expectations, while the forecast for 2025 stays consistent with earlier predictions. Options (a), (c), (d), and (e) either incorrectly describe the growth rates or inaccurately represent the comparison with previous forecasts, making (b) the correct answer as it accurately summarizes the forecast changes and continuities mentioned in the passage.

S67. Ans.(c)
Sol. Refer to the lines, "The inflationary trend across both years is anticipated to be predominantly driven by the services sector, where a provisional surge in wage growth is expected to perpetuate inflation at an elevated plateau, as was anticipated in the Autumn Forecast of 2023."
According to the passage, the inflationary trend across both 2024 and 2025 is anticipated to be predominantly driven by the services sector, where a provisional surge in wage growth is expected to perpetuate inflation at an elevated plateau. This makes option (c) the correct answer, as it directly aligns with the passage's forecast that the inflationary pressure will mainly come from the services sector due to wage dynamics. Options (a), (b), (d), and (e) propose drivers not mentioned or emphasized in the passage as the primary sources of inflationary trends, making (c) the most accurate reflection of the provided information.

S68. Ans.(a)
Sol. The passage provides clear information to evaluate each statement:
(I) "In sum, real GDP is envisaged to register an increment of 0.3% in 2024 and 1.2% in 2025. This signifies a downward revision from the 0.8% posited in the Autumn Forecast for 2024..." directly supports that real GDP growth for 2024 has indeed been revised downwards from the Autumn Forecast, making statement (I) correct.
(II) Regarding HICP inflation, the passage states, "HICP inflation witnessed a retrenchment...to 6.0% for the totality of 2023, and further to 3.1% in January 2024. HICP inflation is forecasted to hit 2.8% in 2024 and 2.4% in 2025..." This contradicts statement (II), as it indicates a decline in HICP inflation rates rather than remaining constant at around 6% through 2024 and 2025.
(III) On the topic of energy prices, the passage mentions, "By contrast, the contribution of energy price increments to inflation is expected to be only nominal in the ensuing period." This invalidates statement (III), which posits energy price increments as a major driver of inflation in the coming years.
Therefore, only statement (I) is accurate based on the passage, making option (a) the correct answer. Statements (II) and (III) are contradicted by the passage's specific details regarding HICP inflation trends and the role of energy prices, respectively.

S69. Ans.(c)
Sol. Evaluating each statement based on the passage:
(I) The passage states, "Moreover, the labor market's robustness, alongside an increment in real wages, is slated to buttress private consumption across the forecasted horizon." This supports statement (I), indicating that labor market conditions and wage increases are indeed expected to bolster private consumption.
(II) Concerning exports and imports, the passage mentions, "The prospect of a trade-led revitalization appears tenuous, as exports and imports are anticipated to ascend at parallel magnitudes in the ensuing forecast intervals." This directly contradicts statement (II), which suggests that exports and imports are projected to grow at differing rates. According to the passage, they are expected to grow at parallel magnitudes, not at differing rates.
(III) Regarding fiscal policies, the passage notes, "More austere fiscal policies are poised to cast a pall over the near-term growth outlook." This validates statement (III), indicating that stricter fiscal measures are expected to have a negative impact on short-term economic growth.
Therefore, statement (II) is incorrect based on the passage, making option (c) the correct answer. The passage specifically indicates that exports and imports will grow at parallel rates, thereby maintaining trade balance, not disrupting it as suggested by statement (II).

S70. Ans.(c)
Sol. The phrase "cast a pall over" suggests creating an atmosphere of gloom or diminishing the prospects of something. When applied to "the near-term growth outlook" in the context of discussing "more austere fiscal policies," it indicates that such policies (which typically involve reduced government spending, higher taxes, or both to reduce budget deficits) are expected to negatively impact economic growth in the short term. This interpretation aligns with option (c), which correctly surmises that tighter government spending and taxation policies are anticipated to have a dampening effect on economic growth in the near term. Options (a), (b), (d), and (e) either misinterpret the impact of austere fiscal policies or contradict the intended meaning conveyed in the passage.

S71. Ans.(c)
Sol. The phrase "squaring the circle" traditionally refers to the attempt to do something that is considered impossible or extremely difficult, such as creating a square with the same area as a given circle using only a finite number of steps with a compass and straightedge. In the context of the passage, it metaphorically describes the challenge of reconciling Germany's growth aspirations with the reality of labor shortages, highlighting how difficult it is to achieve desired economic growth in the face of such workforce constraints. Therefore, option (c) accurately captures the essence of the phrase as used in the passage, indicating the attempt to achieve something seemingly impossible or very difficult.

S72. Ans.(a)
Sol. The word "Ecstatic" most suitably expresses the feeling of Ratul because it means feeling or expressing overwhelming happiness or joyful excitement. This matches Ratul's reaction to the news of being shortlisted for the best performance award, as he was overwhelmed with happiness and at a loss for words, indicating an intense level of joy.
Meanings of all words:
(a) Ecstatic - Feeling or expressing overwhelming happiness or joyful excitement.
(b) Despondent - In low spirits from loss of hope or courage.
(c) Bewildered - Perplexed and confused; very puzzled.
(d) Insouciant - Showing a casual lack of concern; indifferent.
(e) Apathetic - Showing or feeling no interest, enthusiasm, or concern.

S73. Ans.(e)
Sol. The correct sequence to form a coherent paragraph from these sentences is: BDAC.
Logic:
B sets the stage for the story by introducing the protagonist and the legend of the treasure. It's the natural starting point because it provides the background information necessary for the narrative.
D logically follows as it shows the protagonist's reaction to the legend. It transitions from the introduction of the legend to the protagonist's decision, making it the next piece of the narrative.
A is the next in the sequence because, after deciding to find the treasure, the next logical step is the protagonist embarking on the journey to find it. This sentence describes the action taken as a result of the decision mentioned in D.
C concludes the story by revealing the outcome of the journey. It's the natural end to the narrative as it resolves the quest introduced at the beginning.
Each step in the sequence (BDAC) is linked by cause and effect, and the flow of actions is logical and chronological, from hearing about the treasure, deciding to find it, embarking on the journey, and finally discovering it.

S74. Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct sequence to form a coherent paragraph from these sentences is: DBAC.
Logic:
D sets the context for the economic scenario being addressed. It introduces the problem that needs to be solved, which is the sluggish economy and the need for policies to spur growth and reduce unemployment. It's the natural starting point because it outlines the challenges faced by the policymakers.
B follows as it presents the actions taken by the government in response to the economic challenges mentioned in D. It describes the specific policy measures implemented to address the issue, making it the next logical step in the narrative.
A is the subsequent step because it details the immediate effects of the government's policy on the economy. After implementing tax cuts and increased public spending, the logical outcome would be an increase in consumer spending and demand, which is essential for economic recovery.
C concludes the narrative by illustrating the longer-term impact of increased consumer demand on businesses and employment. This sentence shows how businesses respond to the conditions created by the policies described in B and the increased demand mentioned in A, completing the story of economic recovery.
The sequence (DBAC) logically follows the flow of economic policy intervention from problem identification through policy implementation to immediate and longer-term economic impacts, demonstrating a cause-and-effect relationship that leads to economic recovery.

S75. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct sequence to form a coherent paragraph from these sentences is: DBAC.
Logic:
D introduces the initial conflict and characters, setting the stage for the narrative. It's the natural starting point because it presents the situation that leads to the development of the story.
B follows as it describes the action taken by the cat in response to the mouse's plea, transitioning from the potential peril the mouse faces to the beginning of their unexpected friendship.
A is the next logical step because, after the cat decides to release the mouse, the narrative needs to explain the immediate outcome of that decision. This sentence shows the cat's rationale for its actions, reinforcing the transition from adversaries to friends.
C concludes the story by expanding on the consequences of the cat's decision. It moves beyond the initial act of kindness to describe the development of their relationship, illustrating how their bond grows over time.
This sequence (DBAC) logically follows the progression of a narrative from conflict to resolution, demonstrating the development of a friendship between two unlikely characters. Each sentence builds on the previous one, leading to a cohesive and complete story.

S76. Ans.(c)
Sol. To fill in the blanks in the given sentence, we need to choose the correct sequence of words that logically and grammatically fit into the sentence.
The sentence reads: "The discovery of an old book in the attic (I)____ the mysteries of her ancestry, (II)____ a (III)____ web of lineage and intrigue."
Let's analyze the sentence structure and the given words:
The first blank (I) should describe what the discovery of the old book did to the "mysteries of her ancestry." The correct word here is "unraveled," as it means to solve or explain something that is mysterious or complicated.
The second blank (II) follows the result of unraveling the mysteries, which should be "revealing," indicating that something was made known or disclosed.
The third blank (III) should describe the kind of "web of lineage and intrigue" that was revealed. The appropriate word here is "complex," as it conveys the idea of something that is composed of many interconnected parts.
Therefore, the correct sequence of words to fill in the blanks is:
(I) unraveled
(II) revealing
(III) complex
So, the answer is (c) (B), (C), (A).

S77. Ans.(d)
Sol. For this question, we need to fill in the blanks in a way that makes the sentence both grammatically correct and meaningful in context. Let's analyze the sentence and the given words:
The first blank (I) should describe the kind of moonlight under which the clandestine rendezvous takes place. The correct word here is "luminescent," as it refers to light emitted by something that is not caused by heat and fits the context of moonlight.
The second blank (II) should describe what the clandestine meeting did to their unspoken pact. "Cemented" is the appropriate word, as it means to make something stronger or more solid.
The third blank (III) should describe the nature of the bond or allegiance formed, using a metaphorical or descriptive term. "Tapestry" fits well here, as it suggests a complex or intricate pattern, symbolizing the complexity and depth of their allegiance veiled in secrecy.
Therefore, the correct sequence of words to fill in the blanks is:
(I) luminescent
(II) cemented
(III) tapestry
So, the answer is (d) (C), (B), (A).

S78. Ans.(a)
Sol. For this sentence, we need to select words that accurately fit the context and make the sentence coherent and grammatically correct. Let's analyze the sentence and the options provided:
The first blank (I) should describe the overall noise or atmosphere of the metropolis. "Cacophony" fits here as it refers to a harsh, discordant mixture of sounds, typical of a bustling city environment.
The second blank (II) should describe the nature or characteristic of the metropolis. "Bustling" is the correct choice, as it conveys the idea of a busy, active, and crowded place.
The third blank (III) should describe what he found amidst this setting. "Solace" is appropriate, indicating comfort or consolation in a time of distress or sadness, which in this context is provided by the beauty of a sunset.
Hence, the correct sequence of words to complete the sentence is:
(I) cacophony
(II) bustling
(III) solace
This means the correct answer is (a) (A), (B), (C).

S79. Ans.(e)
Sol. The highlighted words in each sentence—'faith' in sentence (A), 'entrusted' in sentence (B), and 'delegate' in sentence (C)—all pertain to the act of placing confidence in someone else's capabilities or intentions, or the act of giving someone responsibility because of that confidence. While 'delegate' also carries the connotation of assigning responsibilities or tasks, the common thread among these words is the underlying trust required to perform these actions.
Given the alternatives:
(a) withhold - means to hold back or keep from giving, which is the opposite of what is described.
(b) possess - means to have or own something, not related to the act of trusting or delegating.
(c) reserve - means to keep back or save for future use, not directly related to trust.
(d) retain - means to keep possession of, not directly related to the concept of trust.
(e) trust - is the act of believing in the reliability, truth, ability, or strength of someone or something.
The most suitable synonym for the highlighted words in the given context is (e) trust, as it directly reflects the act of believing in someone else's abilities or intentions, which is common to all the given sentences.

S80. Ans.(d)
Sol. The highlighted words in the sentences are:
rejuvenate in sentence (A), which means to make someone or something look or feel younger, fresher, or more lively.
sustain in sentence (B), which means to strengthen or support physically or mentally.
safeguard in sentence (C), which means to protect something from harm or damage.
Considering the meanings of the highlighted words, the most suitable synonym for all three is: (d) preserve
This word is a synonym for "rejuvenate" in the context of maintaining or restoring vitality, for "sustain" in the context of maintaining support or upkeep, and for "safeguard" in the context of protecting something from harm or damage.

S81. Ans.(c)
Sol. The highlighted words in the given sentences—pacity, satiate, and quench—all involve actions that alleviate or fully meet a need or desire. Specifically, they relate to soothing discomfort, satisfying hunger, and quenching thirst, respectively. The task is to find an antonym, a word that conveys the opposite meaning:
(a) gladden means to make glad or happy, which does not serve as an antonym to the actions of soothing, satisfying, or quenching since it doesn't imply the opposite of fulfilling a need or desire.
(b) indulge refers to allowing oneself to enjoy a particular pleasure, which also doesn't act as an antonym; instead, it aligns more closely with the concept of satisfying a desire.
(c) aggravate means to make a situation worse or to intensify negative feelings, which directly opposes the idea of soothing, satisfying, or quenching needs and desires. It suggests the action of increasing discomfort or dissatisfaction, making it the suitable antonym.
(d) blandish is to coax or influence through flattery, which doesn't inherently contrast with the actions described in the sentences; it's more related to persuasion than to the negation of comfort or satisfaction.
(e) console involves offering comfort in a time of grief or disappointment, which, similar to gladden, does not inherently oppose the act of soothing, satisfying, or fulfilling a need.
Given the meanings of these options, the most suitable antonym for pacify, satiate, and quench in the context of the sentences provided is (c) aggravate. This choice accurately reflects the opposite of calming, satisfying, or quenching thirst, as it involves exacerbating discomfort or dissatisfaction rather than alleviating it.

S82. Ans.(e)
Sol. To determine the correct usage of the word "right" in the given sentences, we need to understand the different meanings and contexts in which "right" can be used. The word "right" can function as a noun, verb, adjective, or adverb, and its correct application depends on the context.
(I) "Despite the intricate calculations, he decided to right his thesis on the quantum theory's implications on temporal paradoxes." - In this sentence, "right" is likely intended to mean "write" or to compose in written form. The correct word should be "write," not "right." Hence, this usage is incorrect.
(II) "She exercised her right to vote, believing in the importance of contributing to the democratic process." - In this sentence, "right" is correctly used as a noun meaning a moral or legal entitlement to have or do something.
(III) "He turned right at the corner, following the directions to reach the new bookstore downtown." - In this sentence, "right" is correctly used as an adverb indicating direction, opposite of left.
Given these explanations, the correct option that depicts the sentences with the correct usage of the word "right" is:
(e) Both (II) and (III)

S83. Ans.(d)
Sol. The word "query" can be used as a noun or a verb, and it generally refers to a question, especially one addressed to an official or organization, or to a request for information from a database. Let's evaluate the usage of "query" in each sentence based on this understanding:
(I) "Upon encountering an error in the report, she sent a query to the IT department seeking clarification and assistance." - In this sentence, "query" is correctly used as a noun referring to a question or request for information, making this usage correct.
(II) "After reviewing the database, he formulated a complex SQL query to extract the specific information needed for the upcoming project presentation." - Here, "query" is correctly used in the context of databases, referring to a request for information or data from a database system. This usage is also correct.
(III) "She submitted a query to the customer service team, hoping for a quick resolution to her issue with the online order." - In this sentence, "query" is again correctly used as a noun referring to a question or request for information, making this usage correct as well.
Given these explanations, the correct option that depicts the sentences with the correct usage of the word "query" is:
(d) All are correct

S84. Ans.(b)
Sol. The word "reliant" is an adjective that means dependent on something or someone for support or aid. Let's analyze the use of "reliant" in each sentence to determine which ones use the word correctly: (I) "As technology advances, society becomes increasingly reliant on digital tools for daily tasks and communication." - In this sentence, "reliant" is correctly used to describe society's dependence on digital tools. This usage is correct.
(II) "He was reliant to believe that the weather would improve, despite the forecast predicting rain all week." - In this sentence, "reliant" is not used correctly. The intended meaning seems to be about belief or hope rather than dependence. A more appropriate word might be "reluctant" or "optimistic," depending on the intended meaning. Therefore, this usage is incorrect.
(III) "The remote village, reliant on solar panels for electricity, showcased the potential of sustainable energy in off-grid communities." - Here, "reliant" is correctly used to describe the village's dependence on solar panels for electricity. This usage is correct.
Given these explanations, the correct option that depicts the sentences with the correct usage of the word "reliant" is:
(b) Both (I) and (III)

S85. Ans.(b)
Sol. To select the best alternatives for the bold word in the given sentence, let's analyze the context and meaning of the sentence and the given words:
The original sentence is: "Given the dark clouds gathering in the sky, it's likely that we'll see rain before the afternoon is over."
The word in focus is "likely," which means there is a high probability or chance of something happening. Now, let's look at the meanings of the given words to match them with "likely":
(I) scarcely - this means barely or hardly; it suggests a low probability, which is the opposite of "likely."
(II) probably - this means there is a high probability or likelihood of something happening, which aligns with the meaning of "likely."
(III) conceivably - this can mean imaginably or possibly; it indicates that something could happen. Given these definitions, the best alternatives for "likely" in the context of the sentence would be words that convey a sense of probability or possibility that rain will occur before the afternoon is over. Therefore, the correct answer is:
(b) Both (II) and (III) - because both "probably" and "conceivably" suggest that there is a chance of rain, aligning with the original meaning conveyed by "likely."

S86. Ans.(d)
Sol. To find the best alternatives for the bold word in the given sentence, we need to understand the sentence's context and the meaning of the given words:
The original sentence is: "He enjoyed the movie, though he had already read the book and knew the ending."
The word in focus is "though," which is used to introduce a statement that contrasts with or seems to contradict something that has been said previously.
Now, let's look at the meanings of the given words to see which ones can serve as alternatives to "though":
(I) however - this word is used to introduce a statement that contrasts with or contradicts the previous statement, similar to "though."
(II) hence - this word is used to indicate a consequence or a result, not a contrast, so it does not fit the context of "though."
(III) nevertheless - like "however," this word is used to introduce a statement that contrasts with or contradicts something that has been mentioned before, making it similar to "though."
Given these definitions, the best alternatives for "though" in the context of the sentence would be words that introduce a contrasting statement or contradiction.
Therefore, the correct answer is:
(d) Both (I) and (III) - because both "however" and "nevertheless" can introduce a contrasting statement, aligning with the original use of "though" in the sentence.

S87. Ans.(c)
Sol. Sentence (II) and (IV) contain grammatical errors.
(I) "Despite the heavy rain, the event proceeded as planned, and many attendees appreciated the dedication shown." - This sentence is grammatically correct as it properly connects the clauses with appropriate punctuation and coherent structure.
(II) "Everyone in the classroom were eagerly waiting for the announcement that the school year was finally over." - This sentence has a subject-verb agreement error. The correct verb form should be "was" because the subject "Everyone" is singular. Therefore, the corrected sentence should read: "Everyone in the classroom was eagerly waiting for the announcement that the school year was finally over."
(III) "The committee decided that the proposal, while innovative, did not align with the organization's current priorities." - This sentence is grammatically correct. It clearly expresses the committee's decision regarding the proposal without any structural or grammatical errors.
(IV) "Having lost the game, the team's spirits were low, but its coach's encouraging words lifted there mood significantly." - This sentence contains a homophone error. The word "there" is incorrect in this context; it should be "their" to denote possession. The correct sentence should read: "Having lost the game, the team's spirits were low, but its coach's encouraging words lifted their mood significantly."
Therefore, the correct option is (c) Both (II) and (IV) are incorrect, as they contain grammatical errors, while (I) and (III) are grammatically correct.

S88. Ans.(c)
Sol. (I) "As the deadline approaches, the team worked tirelessly to ensure the project's completion on time, despite facing numerous challenges." - This sentence has a tense consistency error. It mixes the present tense "approaches" with the past tense "worked." The sentence should maintain a consistent tense throughout.
(II) "The recent study reveals that, despite common belief, eating chocolate in moderation can have benefits for heart health." - This sentence is grammatically correct. It properly presents a claim and supports it in a clear, coherent manner.
(III) "Each of the participants have their own unique perspective, which they will share during the discussion panel next week." - This sentence contains a subject-verb agreement error. "Each" is singular, so the verb should be "has" instead of "have."
(IV) "The novel's intricate plot, combined with the author's attention to detail, makes it a compelling read for enthusiasts of the genre." - This sentence is grammatically correct. It effectively uses a singular verb "makes" to match the singular subject formed by the entire phrase describing the novel.
Therefore, the correct option is (c) Both (II) and (IV) are correct, as they are the only sentences without grammatical errors.

S89. Ans.(d)
Sol. (I) "In an effort to reduce waste, the city council announced that it will be implementing a new recycling program next month." - This sentence is grammatically correct. It clearly states an action by the city council with proper future tense usage.
(II) "The teacher, along with her students, are planning a field trip to the museum to enhance their understanding of history." - This sentence contains a subject-verb agreement error. The main subject "The teacher" is singular, so the verb should also be singular: "is planning." The correct sentence would be: "The teacher, along with her students, is planning a field trip to the museum to enhance their understanding of history."
(III) "Not only does the new policy aim to increase efficiency, but it also seeks to improve the overall customer experience." - This sentence is grammatically correct. It uses the correct structure for expressing two goals of the new policy.
(IV) "Despite his initial reservations, he found that the course offered valuable insights over the subject, exceeding his expectations." - This sentence has a minor prepositional error. The correct preposition should be "into" rather than "over" when talking about insights related to a subject. The corrected sentence would be: "Despite his initial reservations, he found that the course offered valuable insights into the subject, exceeding his expectations."
Therefore, the correct option is (d) Both (I) and (III) are correct, as they do not contain grammatical errors, unlike (II) and (IV).

S90. Ans.(a)
Sol. (I) "The research team was surprised to find that their results contradicted previous studies, leading them to further investigate the anomaly." - This sentence is grammatically correct. It clearly conveys the research team's response to unexpected results and their subsequent action.
(II) "Among the many challenges faced by the committee was finding a consensus on the proposed budget, which proved to be more difficult than anticipated." - This sentence is also grammatically correct. It effectively highlights a specific challenge encountered by the committee using a passive construction that is appropriate for the context.
(III) "The number of participants attending the conference exceed the organizers' expectations, which necessitated additional preparations." - This sentence contains a subject-verb agreement error. The subject "The number of participants" is singular, so the verb should also be singular: "exceeds." The corrected sentence should read: "The number of participants attending the conference exceeds the organizers' expectations, which necessitated additional preparations."
(IV) "Following the seminar, feedback from attendees were overwhelmingly positive, indicating the event's success in meeting its objectives." - This sentence has a subject-verb agreement error. The subject "feedback" is singular, so the verb should be "was" instead of "were." The corrected sentence should read: "Following the seminar, feedback from attendees was overwhelmingly positive, indicating the event's success in meeting its objectives."
Thus, Both (III) and (IV) contain grammatical errors due to incorrect subject-verb agreement.

S91. Ans.(d)
Sol.
Given, 1.25x% - x% = 12
0.25x% = 12
400 × 0.25x/100 = 12
x = 12
So, 1.25x = 5/4 × 12 = 15
So, y = 100 - (12 + 20 + 15 + 23) = 30
12 = x & y = 30
Total people visited to mall on Sunday = 12/100 × 400 = 48
Total people visited to mall on Monday = 80
Total people visited to mall on Tuesday = 60
Total people visited to mall on Wednesday = 92
Total people visited to mall on Thursday = 120
Males visited mall on Monday = 2/5 × 80 = 32
Females visited mall on Monday = 48
New number of females visited mall on Monday = 48 × 5/4 = 60
New number of males visited mall on Monday = 80 - 60 = 20
Required percentage = 20/60 × 100 = 33.33%

S92. Ans.(e)
Sol.
Given, 1.25x% - x% = 12
0.25x% = 12
400 × 0.25x/100 = 12
x = 12
So, 1.25x = 5/4 × 12 = 15
So, y = 100 - (12 + 20 + 15 + 23) = 30
12 = x & y = 30
Total people visited to mall on Sunday = 12/100 × 400 = 48
Total people visited to mall on Monday = 80
Total people visited to mall on Tuesday = 60
Total people visited to mall on Wednesday = 92
Total people visited to mall on Thursday = 120
People went to movie = 30
People went to food court = 92 - 30 = 62
Females went to food court = 30
Males went to food court = 62 - 30 = 32
Males went to movie =32 - 12 = 20
Required ratio = (30 - 20):120 = 1:12

S93. Ans.(e)
Sol.
Given, 1.25x% - x% = 12
0.25x% = 12
400 × 0.25x/100 = 12
x = 12
So, 1.25x = 5/4 × 12 = 15
So, y = 100 - (12 + 20 + 15 + 23) = 30
12 = x & y = 30
Total people visited to mall on Sunday = 12/100 × 400 = 48
Total people visited to mall on Monday = 80
Total people visited to mall on Tuesday = 60
Total people visited to mall on Wednesday = 92
Total people visited to mall on Thursday = 120
Let the total male on Sunday and Thursday be x
and females on Sunday and Thursday be f and 13f respectively.
ATQ,
x + f = 48 .. (i)
And
x + 13f = 120 .. (ii)
From (i) & (ii)
6 = f, x = 42
Required answer = 2x = 84

S94. Ans.(c)
Sol.
Given, 1.25x% - x% = 12
0.25x% = 12
400 × 0.25x/100 = 12
x = 12
So, 1.25x = 5/4 × 12 = 15
So, y = 100 - (12 + 20 + 15 + 23) = 30
12 = x & y = 30
Total people visited to mall on Sunday = 12/100 × 400 = 48
Total people visited to mall on Monday = 80
Total people visited to mall on Tuesday = 60
Total people visited to mall on Wednesday = 92
Total people visited to mall on Thursday = 120
Total people visited to mall on Saturday = 1/2 × (140) = 70
Males visited on Saturday = 125% of 48 = 60
Females visited on Saturday = 10
Required percentage = 10/400 × 100 = 2.5%

S95. Ans.(a)
Sol.
Given, 1.25x% - x% = 12
0.25x% = 12
400 × 0.25x/100 = 12
x = 12
So, 1.25x = 5/4 × 12 = 15
So, y = 100 - (12+20+15+23) = 30
12 = x & y = 30
Total people visited to mall on Sunday = 12/100 × 400 = 48
Total people visited to mall on Monday = 80
Total people visited to mall on Tuesday = 60
Total people visited to mall on Wednesday = 92
Total people visited to mall on Thursday = 120
Required difference = 120 - 48 = 72

S96. Ans.(a)
Sol.
(I): x² - 10x + 21 = 0
x² - 7x - 3x + 21 = 0
3, 7 = x
(II): y² - 24y + 144 = 0
y² - 12y - 12y + 144 = 0
12, 12 = y
Option (a) z² - 19z + 84 = 0
z² - 12z - 7z + 84 = 0
z = 12, 7
Only option (a), rest of the options are eliminated

S97. Ans.(c)
Sol.
A + B = 4.5 = -(-p/2)
9 = p
(I) 2x² - 9x + 10 = 0
2x² - 5x - 4x + 10 = 0
2.5, 2 = x
C = 1/2 × 2 = 1 (A=2)
So, B = 2.5
Put y = 1 in the equation (II),
(II) 4y² - Ry + 15 = 0
4 - R + 15 = 0
R = 19
4y² - 19y + 15 = 0
4y² - 15y - 4y + 15 = 0
3.75, 1 = y
3.75 = D
Required sum = 3.75 + 2.5 = 6.25

S98. Ans.(d)
Sol.
A + B = 4.5 = -P/2
9 = P
(I) 2x² - 9x + 10 = 0
2x² - 5x - 4x + 10 = 0
2.5, 2 = x
C = 1/4 × 2 = 1 (A=2)
So, B = 2.6
Put y = 1 in the equation (II),
(II) 4y² – Ry + 15 = 0
4 - R + 15 = 0
R = 19
4y² - 19 × 15 = 0
4y² - 15y - 4y + 15 = 0

S99. Ans.(a)
Sol.
0.5, 5, 60, 480, 2880, 11520, P=23040
× 12 × 10 × 8 × 6 × 4 × 2
Wrong number = 5

S100. Ans.(d)
Sol.
0.5, 6, 60, 480, 2880, 11520, P=23040
× 12 × 10 × 8 × 6 × 4 × 2
Wrong number = 5
A=5
(I) 23040 - 2880 = 4032 × 5
20160 = 20160
It is correct.
(II) P is completely divisible by A
It is correct.
(III) P>4320A
23040 > 21600
It is correct

S101. Ans.(a)
Sol. Approximate time period of investment in the business of Anvi and Madhu be 6 months and 4 months respectively.
The Profit-sharing ratio of Anvi, Vaishnav and Madhu
= 4800 × 6: P × 6 + (P + 300) × 6: P/2 × 4
= 14400: 6P + 900: P
ATQ,
P/(14400 + 6P + 900) = 200/1400
7P = 6P + 15300
P = 15300

S102. Ans.(a)
Sol.
Let the speed of the boat in still water be x km/hr
ATQ,
1.5S/(x + 3) = 15
S = 10x + 30 … (i)
And
S/(x + 11) = 5
S = 5x + 55 … (ii)
From (i) & (ii)
10x + 30 = 5x + 55
5x = 25
x = 5
x value put in (i)
S = 10(5) + 30
= 80

S103. Ans.(a)
Sol.
Given, A+B=24
And B+C=12
A= 14, B= 10, and C = 2 (From 14≥A>B>9 and 10≥B>C>1)
Quantity (I) Required value = A+5
14+5=19
Quantity (II) Required value = 2C+B
= 2(2) + 10 = 14
So, Quantity I > Quantity II

S104. Ans.(b)
Sol.
Let the approximate rate of interest = 20%
And time period 2 years
Composite compound interest = (20 + 20 + 20×20/100)% = 44%
Amount received = P + P × 44/100 = 144P/100
ATQ,
144P/100 × 44/100 = 792
P = 1250

S105. Ans.(e)
Sol.
Let the speed of the train be s m/sec
Given, 300/s = t
300/t = s … (i)
And
540/s = (t + 12)
540/(t + 12) = s … (ii)
From (i) & (ii)
300/t = 540/(t + 12)
(t + 12) × 5 = 9t
60 = 4t
t = 15
Speed of the train = 300/15
s = 20
Required distance = 20 × (15 - 6)
= 180 meters

S106. Ans.(a)
Sol.
Possible values of X and Y
2 × 20 = 40
4 × 10 = 40
8 × 5 = 40
1 × 40 = 40
When we add one in the above question only 8 × 5 = 40 can make single digit.
So, X or Y = 9 and Y or X = 6
Required product = 9 × 6 = 54

S107. Ans.(e)
Sol.
Series I.
a=297 d=401 c=525 669 833 1017 1221
104 124 144 164 184 204
20 20 20 20 20
Series II.
b=300 318 336 354 372 390
18 18 18 18 18
Series III.
456 472 408 552 z=296
+16 -64 +144 -256
+4² -8² +12² -16²
a=297, d=401, c=525, b=300 and z=296
Option (a) a + d - c > z
297+401-525 > 296
173<296
It is incorrect.
Option (b) a + d - c < z
297+401- 525 < 296
173<296
it is correct
(c) a + d = b + z + 102
297 + 401 = 300 + 296 + 102
698 = 698
It is correct.

S108. Ans.(a)
Sol.
Series I.
a=297 d=401 c=525 669 833 1017 1221
104 124 144 164 184 204
20 20 20 20 20
Series II.
b=300 318 336 354 372 390
18 18 18 18 18
Series III.
456 472 408 552 z=296
+16 -64 +144 -256
+4² -8² +12² -16²
a=297, d=401, c=525, b=300 and z=296
(A) d=401 it is prime number
It is correct.
(B) a=297 is an odd number but z=296 is an even number.
It is incorrect.
(C) Quotient = 525/7 = 75
75 = 1/4 × 300
75=75
It is correct.

S109. Ans.(e)
Sol.
1260 ÷ 12 ÷ 7 + 38 - 30 = ?
? = 15 + 38 - 30
? = 23

S110. Ans.(b)
Sol.
? = 300 + 343 - 86 × 50/100
? = 600

S111. Ans.(b)
Sol.
24/100 × 450 + ?² = 256 - 4
?² = 252 - 108
? = 12

S112. Ans.(d)
Sol.
? × (44/100 × 750 + 110) = 88/100 × 2500
? × 440 = 2200
? = 5

S113. Ans.(a)
Sol.
Marked price of B and C is 6x and 7x.
Cost price of B = 6x × 100/150 = 4x
Selling price of A = 3x
Marked price of D = 810 - 7x
Selling price of D = 90/100 × (810 - 7x)
Cost price of D = (810 - 7x) × 100/150
Marked price of A = 100/85 × 3x
Selling price of B = 6x × 85/100
Selling price of C = 7x × 85/100
Products | Cost price | Selling price | Marked price
A | | 3x | 3x × 100/85
B | 4x | 6x × 85/100 | 6x
C | | 7x × 85/100 | 7x
D | 100/150 (810 - 7x) | 90/100 (810 - 7x) | 810 - 7x
ATQ,
(6x × 85/100 - 4x)/4x × 100 = (510-400)/400 × 100 = 27.5%
M = 27.5

S114. Ans.(d)
Sol.
Marked price of B and C is 5x and 7x.
Cost price of B = 6x × 100/150 = 4x
Selling price of A = 3x
Marked price of D = 810 - 7x
Selling price of D = 90/100 × (810 - 7x)
Cost price of D = (810 - 7x) × 100/150
Marked price of A = 100/85 × 3x
Selling price of B = 6x × 85/100
Selling price of C = 7x × 85/100
Products | Cost price | Selling price | Marked price
A | | 3x | 3x × 100/85
B | 4x | 6x × 85/100 | 6x
C | | 7x × 85/100 | 7x
D | 100/150 (810 - 7x) | 90/100 (810 - 7x) | 810 - 7x
Cost price of A = 100/153 × 3x
ATQ,
3x × 100/85 - 100/153 × 3x = 80
x = 51
Selling price of B = 6x × 85/100 = 5.1x
5.1 × 51 = Rs 260.1

S115. Ans.(d)
Sol.
Marked price of B and C is 6x and 7x.
Cost price of B = 6x × 100/150 = 4x
Selling price of A = 3x
Marked price of D = 810 - 7x
Selling price of D = 90/100 × (810 - 7x)
Cost price of D = (810 - 7x) × 100/150
Marked price of A = 100/85 × 3x
Selling price of B = 6x × 85/100
Selling price of C = 7x × 85/100
Products | Cost price | Selling price | Marked price
A | | 3x | 3x × 100/85
B | 4x | 6x × 85/100 | 6x
C | | 7x × 85/100 | 7x
D | 100/150 (810 - 7x) | 90/100 (810 - 7x) | 810 - 7x
6x + 7x = 1326
102 = x
Cost price of C = 142 + 4x = 550
Required difference = 550 - (810 - 7x) × 100/150 = 550 - 64 = Rs 486

S116. Ans.(e)
Sol.
Marked price of B and C is 6x and 7x.
Cost price of B = 6x × 100/150 = 4x
Selling price of A = 3x
Marked price of D = 810 - 7x
Selling price of D = 90/100 × (810 - 7x)
Cost price of D = (810 - 7x) × 100/150
Marked price of A = 100/85 × 3x
Selling price of B = 6x × 85/100
Selling price of C = 7x × 85/100
Products | Cost price | Selling price | Marked price
A | | 3x | 3x × 100/85
B | 4x | 6x × 85/100 | 6x
C | | 7x × 85/100 | 7x
D | 100/150 (810 - 7x) | 90/100 (810 - 7x) | 810 - 7x
810 - 7x + 4x = 733.5
76.5 = 3x
x = 25.5
Selling price of product D = 90/100 (810 - 7x) = 90/100 (810 - 7(25.5))
= 90/100 (810 - 178.5)
= Rs 568.35
Selling price of product A = 3x = 3 × 25.5 = Rs 76.5
Required percentage = 568.35/76.5 × 100 = 742.9 ≈ 743%

S117. Ans.(d)
Sol.
Marked price of B and C is 5x and 7x.
Cost price of B = 6x × 100/150 = 4x
Selling price of A = 3x
Marked price of D = 810 - 7x
Selling price of D = 90/100 × (810 - 7x)
Cost price of D = (810 - 7x) × 100/150
Marked price of A = 100/85 × 3x
Selling price of B = 6x × 85/100
Selling price of C = 7x × 85/100
Products | Cost price | Selling price | Marked price
A | | 3x | 3x × 100/85
B | 4x | 6x × 85/100 | 6x
C | | 7x × 85/100 | 7x
D | 100/150 (810 - 7x) | 90/100 (810 - 7x) | 810 - 7x
Total discount percentages given on products A and D = (10 + 15) % = 25%
Profit percentage on product C = 25%
Cost price of product C = 7x × 85/100 × 100/125 = 7x × 85/125
= 7x × 17/25
Required answer = (7x - 7x × 17/25)/(7x × 17/25) × 100
= ((175 - 119)/25)/(119/25) × 100 = 47.058 ≈ 47%

S118. Ans.(e)
Sol.
Cost price = Rs x
Marked price = Rs (1225 + x)
Selling price = 1225 + x - 0.27x = Rs (0.73x + 1225)
x × 108/100 = 0.73x + 1225
0.35x = 1225
3500 = x
Quantity I. 3500 - 2500 = Rs 1000
Quantity II. New cost price = 8/7 × 3500 = Rs 4000
Profit = 25/100 × 4000 = Rs 1000
So, Quantity I = Quantity II

S119. Ans.(b)
Sol.
Quantity I. Possible values of a = 8,9,10,11,12
6a - 2a⁴ + 51a
-2a⁴ this number will give only negative number.
Quantity II: Given, 2 ≤ b ≤ 4.
48b + 9 × 64^(1/b),
Only b = 2, 3
When b = 2
48b + 9 × 64^(1/b)
48(2) + 9 × 64^(1/b) = 168
When b = 3
48b + 9 × 64^(1/b)
48(3) + 9 × 64^(1/b) = 180
So, Quantity I < Quantity II

S120. Ans.(e)
Sol.
The pattern of the series I:
1702, A=1720, 1742.5, 1774, 1819, 1882
18 22.5 31.5 45 63
4.5 9 13.5 18
4.5 4.5 4.5
The pattern of the series II:
344, 316, 354, 306, 364, B=296
-28 +38 -48 +58 -68
Required value = (296+1720+4)/20 = 101

S121. Ans.(a)
Sol.
People | Inbound calls | Outbound calls
A | 80 × 3/8 = 30 | 80 - 30 = 50
B | ______ | ______
C | 72 × 7/12 = 42 | 30
D | 36 × 1/4 = 9 | 27
E | 60 × 3/5 = 36 | 24
F | 48 × 2/2 + a | 48 × a/2 + a
outbound domestic calls = 3x/4x
inbound domestic calls = 5y/6y
outbound internation calls = 3x/4x
inbound internation calls = 5y/6y
ATQ,
(3x+5y)/(4x+6y) = 4/5
x = y
3x+4x+5x+6y=90
18x=90
5 = x
Total international calls = 55

S122. Ans.(d)
Sol.
People | Inbound calls | Outbound calls
A | 80 × 3/8 = 30 | 80 - 30 = 50
B | ______ | ______
C | 72 × 7/12 = 42 | 30
D | 36 × 1/4 = 9 | 27
E | 60 × 3/5 = 36 | 24
F | 48 × 2/2 + a | 48 × a/2 + a
48 × 2/(2+a) - 48 × a/(2+a) = 16
6 - 3a = 2 + a
1 = a

S123. Ans.(b)
Sol.
People | Inbound calls | Outbound calls
A | 80 × 3/8 = 30 | 80 - 30 = 50
B | ______ | ______
C | 72 × 7/12 = 42 | 30
D | 36 × 1/4 = 9 | 27
E | 60 × 3/5 = 36 | 24
F | 48 × 2/2 + a | 48 × a/2 + a
Outbound calls by B = 120% of 30 = 36
Inbound calls by B = 90 - 36 = 54
Required percentage = 54/60 × 100 = 90%

S124. Ans.(d)
Sol.
People | Inbound calls | Outbound calls
A | 80 × 3/8 = 30 | 80 - 30 = 50
B | — | —
C | 72 × 7/12 = 42 | 30
D | 36 × 1/4 = 9 | 27
E | 60 × 3/5 = 36 | 24
F | 48 × 2/2 + a | 48 × a/2 + a
Total inbound domestic calls by C and D = 24
Total inbound calls by C and D = 42 + 9 = 51
Total outbound calls by C and D = 30 + 27 = 57
Total inbound international calls by C and D = 51 - 24 = 27
Total outbound international calls by C and D = 44 - 27 = 17
Total outbound domestic calls by C and D = 57 - 17 = 40

S125. Ans.(a)
Sol.
People | Inbound calls | Outbound calls
A | 80 × 3/8 = 30 | 80 - 30 = 50
B | — | —
C | 72 × 7/12 = 42 | 30
D | 36 × 1/4 = 9 | 27
E | 60 × 3/5 = 36 | 24
F | 48 × 2/2 + a | 48 × a/2 + a
For minimum domestic calls, international calls should be the maximum.
International inbound calls = 25 (5²)
Domestic inbound = 30 - 25 = 5
International outbound calls = 49 (7²)
Domestic outbound = 50 - 49 = 1
Required difference = 5 - 1 = 4

S126. Ans.(a)
Sol.
4x(x - 5) × (100 + 2x)/100 = 3000
2x³ + 90x² - 500x = 75000
By hit and trial method (put x = 10, 15 and 25)
25 = x
Total article sold = 4x = 100
Total number of article A (sold + unsold) = 100/40 × 100 = 250

S127. Ans.(a)
Sol.
The selling price of A = x-5 + 5 = Rs x
So, selling price of C = Rs 3x
Profit on each article C = 30-5 = Rs 25
Selling price of each article C = y - 10 + 25 = Rs(y + 15)
ATQ, y + 15 = 3x
3x - y = 15
Option (A) is correct
(B) Discount on each article A = 20x/4x = Rs. 5
It is correct.

S128. Ans.(e)
Sol.
3750/2.5y = 40 - 15
y = 60
Required answer = (y - 10 + 2.5y) = (3.5y - 10)
= 200

S129. Ans.(c)
Sol.
12.5y/(y - 10) = 15
y = 60
Required percentage = x × (180/100)/20x × 100 = 9%

S130. Ans.(a)
Sol.
Required ratio = 1500/(20x/4x) = 300:1

S131. Ans.(d)
Sol. From statement (I): As when we remove 25 liters of solution three times then vessel gets empty
So, Quantity of mixture = 25 × 3 = 75 liters
From (II)
We can't find the milk in the initial mixture
From (I) and (II)
Quantity of water in the final mixture = 8/25 × 75 = 24 liters
According to the formula
Let the quantity of water in the initial mixture be x liters
24/x = (1 - 15/75)²
x = (24 × 5 × 5)/(4 × 4)
x = 37.5
Quantity of milk in the initial mixture = 75-37.5 = 37.5 liters

S132. Ans.(b)
Sol.
Let the marked price of the Q be Rs 300x
Marked price of P = 4/3 × 300x = Rs 400x
Cost price of P = 7/8 × 400 = Rs 350x
Selling price of Q = 300/2 = Rs 150x
From (I): We don't have any actual value so we can't find anything from here.
From (II): 350x - 150x = 200
x = 1
Cost price of P = Rs. 350

S133. Ans.(a)
Sol. From (I): From this statement we get the ages of P, Q and R in the ratio as we don't have any actual value of any member
From (II): From this statement we get the ages of A and D in the ratio as we don't have any actual value of any member

S134. Ans.(d)
Sol.
Let the salary of A and B be Rs 100x and Rs 100y respectively
Saving of A = 60/100 × 100x = Rs 60x
ATQ,
60x = 6000
x = 100
Salary of A = Rs 10000
Expenditure of A = 40/100 × 10000 = Rs 4000
Amount spends on food by A = 4000 × 20/100 = Rs 800
Amount invested on SIP by A = 4000 - 800 = Rs 3200
Amount spends by B = 40/100 × 100y = Rs 40y
Amount invested by B on SIP = 70/100 × 40y = Rs 28y
Also
28y - 3200 = 1980
y = 185
Salary of B = Rs 18500
Required difference = 18500 - 10000 = Rs 8500

S135. Ans.(b)
Sol.
Let the number of green pebbles be x
ATQ,
x/(5+6+x) = 7/18
18x = 77 + 7x
11x = 77
x = 7
Number of green pebbles = 7
Required probability = (6 × 5) × 2/(18 × 17) = 10/51

S136. Ans.(a)
Sol.
Let the length and height of the cuboid be 5x cm and 2x cm respectively
Breadth of the cuboid = 4x cm
Now,
ATQ,
(5x × 2x + 5x × 4x + 2x × 4x) × 2 = 76
38x² = 38
x = 1
Quantity (I): Cost of painting = 20 × 4 × 5 = Rs. 400
Quantity (II): Perimeter of the equilateral triangle = 12 cm
Side of equilateral triangle = 12/3 = 4 cm
Area of equilateral triangle = √3/4 × 16 = 4√3 cm²
Cost of painting = Rs 120√3
So, Quantity (I) > Quantity (II)

S137. Ans.(a)
Sol.
Quantity of milk in the initial mixture = 60/100 × 80 = 48 litres
Quantity of water in the initial mixture = 60 - 48 = 12 litres
After first replacement,
Quantity of milk = 48 - 20 × 4/5 = 32 liters
Quantity of water = 12 - 20 × 1/5 + 20 = 28 liters
Ratio of milk to water = 32:28 = 8:7
Now,
(32-15 × 8/15)/(28-15 × 7/15+x) = 1/1
24 = 21 + x
x = 3

S138. Ans.(d)
Sol. Let downstream speed be 8x km/hr & speed of boat in still water be 5x km/hr
Then upstream speed = 2x km/hr
ATQ
(P/8x)/((P+6)/(2(2x))) = 5/12
P = 30 km
And
(p-6)/2x - (p-6)/8x = 6
x = 1.5
Speed of boat in still water = 5x = 7.5 km/hr
Required distance = 7.5 × 5 = 37.5 km

S139. Ans.(a)
Sol.
Total earning = Rs 200
Let the highest earning be Rs x and the lowest earning be Rs y
Then, x - y = 45 … (i)
And x + y = 200 - (22.5 × 6) = 65 … (ii)
From (i) and (ii)
x = 55 and y = 10
Required average = 145/5 = 29

S140. Ans.(e)
Sol.
Work = efficiency × time
Let the efficiency of a boy and a girl be 2x and 5x units/day respectively
Total work = (15b + 12g) × a = (15 × 2x + 12 × 5x)a = 90ax units … (i)
Also,
Total work = (5b + 22g)c = (5 × 2x + 22 × 5x)c = 120cx units … (ii)
Equating (i) and (ii) we get
90a = 120c
a/c = 4/3
Hence, a + c will be multiple of 7.
Hence, option (e) is the correct answer.

SBI Clerk Mains Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2023 with Free PDF Download link Online

SBI Clerk Exam Other Previous Year Question Paper :

SBI Clerk Prelims Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2023 with Free PDF Download link Online

SBI Clerk Mains Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2022 Memory Based with Free PDF Download link Online

SBI Clerk Prelims Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2023-Mock-2 with Free PDF Download link Online