SBI Clerk Prelims Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2022-Mock-2 with Free PDF Download link Online

SBI Clerk Prelims Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2022-Mock-2 with Free PDF Download link Online

SBI Clerk Prelims Previous Year Paper 2022 Mock 2

Directions (1-5): Study the given information carefully and answer the following questions:
Six persons sit around a circular table. Some face inside and some face outside. T sits second to the left of V and both face in same direction. Two persons sit between V and A. One person sits between A and G. G does not sit adjacent to T. L sits immediate left of G. L does not face same direction as G. G, A and C face same direction but do not face inside the centre.

Q1. How many persons face inside the centre?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
(e) None of these

Q2. Who among the following sits immediate left of C?
(a) V
(b) G
(c) A
(d) L
(e) T

Q3. How many persons sit between T and L, when counted from the left of L?
(a) One
(b) None
(c) Three
(d) Two
(e) None of these

Q4. Which among the following pair sit opposite to each other?
(a) A-T
(b) C-V
(c) G-V
(d) A-L
(e) L-T

Q5. If L and C interchanges their positions, then who among the following sits third to the right of L?
(a) V
(b) G
(c) C
(d) A
(e) None of these

Directions (6-7): In each of the questions below some statements are given followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Q6. Statements: All grammar is poetry. Some poetry is not novel. All novel is book.
Conclusion: I. Some book can be poetry. II. All grammar being book is a possibility.
(a) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.

Q7. Statements: Only a few lion is tiger. All tiger is cat. No cat is dog.
Conclusion: I. No tiger is dog. II. All lion is dog.
(a) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.

Directions (10-11): In each of the questions below some statements are given followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Q10. Statements: Only a few News are TV. All TV are Remote.
Conclusion I: All News can be Remote
II: All Remote can be TV
(a) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.

Q11. Statements: All Girl are Female. No Female are Train.
Conclusion I: No Girl is Train
II: Some Train can be Girl
(a) If only conclusion I follows.
(b) If only conclusion II follows.
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow.

Directions (14-18): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and X live in a four-storey building such as ground floor is numbered as 1, above it is floor 2 then topmost floor is numbered as 4. Each of the floor has 2 flats in it as flat-1 and flat-2. Flat-1 of floor-2 is immediately above flat-1 of floor-1 and immediately below flat-1 of floor-3 and so on. In the same way flat-2 of floor-2 is immediately above flat-2 of floor-1 and immediately below flat-2 of floor-3 and so on. Flat 1 is in the west of Flat 2.
Two floors gap between S and R. S lives in the west of U. One floor gap between P and R, who lives in the South-east of P. One floor gap between Q and T. X lives in the North-east of T.

Q14. Who among the following lives just below the flat of P?
(a) T
(b) Q
(c) X
(d) V
(e) S

Q15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Find the one who does not belong to that group?
(a) S-U
(b) P-T
(c) V-X
(d) T-R
(e) P-Q

Q16. S lives to the ___ of T?
(a) North
(b) South-east
(c) North-west
(d) South
(e) South-west

Q17. Who among the following lives in flat - 1 of 2nd floor?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) X
(d) U
(e) None of these

Q18. Which of the following persons live on the same floor?
(a) P-X
(b) T-R
(c) U-Q
(d) Both (B) and (E)
(e) X-V

Directions (19-23): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
Eight cities i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are categorized in three different zones i.e., A1, A2 and A3 but not necessarily in the same order. Not more than three cities are placed in one zone. A is not placed in A2 zone. H is placed in the same zone as A. B is not placed in A1 zone. B is placed with G in the same zone. G is not placed in A3 zone. Only F is placed with D in the same zone. E is not placed in the zone in which H is placed. H is not placed in A3 zone.

Q19. Which among the following cities are/are placed in A3 zone?
(a) D
(b) C
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) F
(e) Both (a) and (d)

Q20. Which among the following statements is/are not true?
I. C is placed in A1 zone
II. F is placed in A3 zone
III. C is placed in the same zone as G
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Only (II)
(e) Both (II) and (III)

Q21. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group, which of the following does not belong to the group?
(a) A- A1
(b) B- A3
(c) H- A1
(d) F- A3
(e) B- A2

Q22. Which among the following zone has categorized only two cities?
(a) A1
(b) A3
(c) Either (A) or (B)
(d) Either (B) or (E)
(e) A2

Q23. Which among the following cities are/are placed in A2 zone?
(a) H
(b) Both (C) and (D)
(c) E
(d) B
(e) None of these

Q24. In the word 'COMPETITION', how many pairs of the letters have the same number of letters between them in the word as in English alphabet?
(a) Four
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) Three
(e) More than four

Q25. How many such numerals are there in the number '584697123' which will remain at the same position when arranged in descending order from left to right?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) None
(e) More than Three

Directions (26-30): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Seven Persons i.e. P, Q, R, S, J, K and L are sitting in a linear row with some of them facing in North direction and some are facing in the South direction. Not more than two persons sitting together faces in the same direction. L sits fifth to the right of P. L does not sits at the corner. K sits second to the right of L. S sits third to the right of K. J sits to the immediate left of Q and both faces in opposite direction. J does not sit next to K. R and S faces in opposite direction. R faces in South direction.

Q26. How many persons are facing in North direction?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None of these

Q27. How many persons sit between J and R?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None of these

Q28. Who among the following sits third to the left of K?
(a) J
(b) Q
(c) P
(d) L
(e) None of these

Q29. Which among the following pair sits at the extreme end of the row?
(a) P-S
(b) J-L
(c) P-L
(d) Q-S
(e) P-R

Q30. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?
(a) P-Q
(b) K-L
(c) J-Q
(d) R-Q
(e) L-K

Q31. In the word 'STATIONERY', how many pairs of the letters have the same number of letters between them in the word as in English alphabet?
(a) Four
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) Three
(e) More than four

Directions (32-35): These questions are based on the following arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions below it.
B 7 E H $ 3 L % 8 I F M 4 1 A R 6 # ↑ 9 D 5 K U 2 T

Q32. Which element is exactly midway between seventh from the left end and sixth from the right end?
(a) A
(b) R
(c) 4
(d) 6
(e) 1

Q33. If from the above arrangement all the numbers are deleted, which one will be fourth to the right of tenth from the right end?
(a) ↑
(b) #
(c) R
(d) D
(e) None of these

Q34. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also immediately followed by a number?
(a) None
(b) Three
(c) Two
(d) One
(e) More than three

Q35. How many such symbols are there in the given arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a number, but not immediately preceded by another symbol?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

Directions (36-40): In the following questions, two equations I and II are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer accordingly.

Q36.
I. x² - 13x + 42 = 0
II. y² - 17y + 72 = 0
(a) If x > y
(b) If x ≥ y
(c) If x < y
(d) If x ≤ y
(e) If x = y or the relation cannot be established

Q37.
I. x² -18x+77=0
II. y² + 6y - 91 = 0
(a) If x > y
(b) If x ≥ y
(c) If x < y
(d) If x ≤ y
(e) If x = y or the relation cannot be established

Q38.
I. 2x² + 11x + 15 = 0
II. 2y² + 17y + 35 = 0
(a) If x > y
(b) If x ≥ y
(c) If x < y
(d) If x ≤ y
(e) If x = y or the relation cannot be established

Q39.
I. 2x² + 5x - 3 = 0
II. 3y² - 2y - 1 = 0
(a) If x > y
(b) If x ≥ y
(c) If x < y
(d) If x ≤ y
(e) If x = y or the relation cannot be established

Q40.
I. x² + 5x + 6 = 0
II. y² + 7y + 12 = 0
(a) If x > y
(b) If x ≥ y
(c) If x < y
(d) If x ≤ y
(e) If x = y or the relation cannot be established

Q44. 4 2/3 + 7 1/2 - 6 3/4 = ? - 19/12
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 7
(e) 5

Q45. 76% of 75 + 45% of 560 = ? + 59
(a) 250
(b) 306
(c) 280
(d) 272
(e) 236

Q46. 2^5 + 2^10 = ? × 12
(a) 68
(b) 72
(c) 80
(d) 88
(e) 96

Q47. √256 + √784 = ? × √121
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 6
(e) 2

Q48. 80% of 350 + 45% of 800 = ? × 256
(a) 1.75
(b) 2
(c) 2.25
(d) 2.5
(e) 3

Q49. 115% of 360 + 180% of 270 = ? × 225
(a) 4.5
(b) 3
(c) 3.25
(d) 3.5
(e) 4

Q50. 9^7 × 729 = 3^4 × 9^6 ÷ 81
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) 6

Q51. If area of a rectangle is 375cm² and the ratio of perimeter of the rectangle to its length is 16:5, then find the breadth of the rectangle?
(a) 15cm
(b) 12cm
(c) 18cm
(d) 20cm
(e) 25cm

Q52. Anurag invested Rs. 15000 in scheme A on simple interest for two years at 15% per annum. If he again invests the total amount received from scheme A in scheme B on compound interest at 20% per annum for two years, then find the interest obtained in scheme B?
(a) Rs. 7260
(b) Rs. 4850
(c) Rs. 5860
(d) Rs. 8580
(e) Rs. 6390

Q53. Six men can complete a work in 128 days, then find how many men will be required to complete 66 2/3% of the same work in 32 days?
(a) 14
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 16
(e) 24

Q54. A train running at the speed of 144kmph crosses a pole in 15 seconds. Find the time taken by the same train to cross the pole with the speed of 108kmph (in sec)?
(a) 21
(b) 24
(c) 27
(d) 22.5
(e) 20

Q55. Two person P and Q entered in a business with investments of Rs. 11000 and Rs. 13200 respectively. If Q left the business after 'X' months and at the end of a year P & Q get equal profit share, then find X?
(a) 10
(b) 9
(c) 8
(d) 11
(e) 7

Q56. In 84 liters mixture, the ratio of alcohol to water is 3 : 4. If some quantity water is added to the mixture, then the ratio of alcohol to water becomes 2 : 5. Find the added quantity of water (in liter).
(a) 40
(b) 32
(c) 42
(d) 36
(e) 52

Q57. If speed of B is 20% more than that of A, then find the time taken by A to cover the same distance which is covered by B in five hours?
(a) 4 hours
(b) 5 hours
(c) 6 hours
(d) 7 hours
(e) 3 hours

Q58. Pipe A and pipe B can fill a tank in 15 hours and 18 hours respectively. Both the pipes opened together, after five hours pipe A closed. Find the total time taken to fill the tank.
(a) 12 hours
(b) 15 hours
(c) 9 hours
(d) 14 hours
(e) 16 hours

Q59. A shopkeeper fixes the marked price (MP) of a shoe 40% above the cost price (CP). At what amount should he sell the product to gain a profit of 20%, if he marks the price at Rs 1050.
(a) Rs 1000
(b) Rs 750
(c) Rs 960
(d) Rs 900
(e) Rs 840

Q60. If a number is reduced by 25%, then it becomes 150. Find by what percent should it be increased to make it 250?
(a) 35%
(b) 25%
(c) 45%
(d) 75%
(e) 20%

Directions (61-64): Read the paragraph carefully and answer the questions.
Total boys in class A are equal to total girls in class B and girls in class A are half of the total boys in B. Total boys in class A are 15 more than total girls in same class and sum of total boys & girls in class B is 30.

Q61. Find the difference between total boys and girls in class B?
(a) 15
(b) 10
(c) 5
(d) 0
(e) 20

Q62. Find total number of boys in both classes?
(a) 20
(b) 30
(c) 25
(d) 40
(e) 45

Q63. If total girls in class C are 20% more than that of in class B and total boys in class C are 33 1/3% more than total girls in the same class, then find total students in class C?
(a) 46
(b) 64
(c) 60
(d) 54
(e) 56

Q64. Find the ratio of total students in class A to that of in class B?
(a) 5 : 8
(b) 5 : 4
(c) 4 : 5
(d) 5 : 6
(e) 5 : 7

Directions (65-70): The table given below shows the number of registered voters and the percentage of people who cast their votes at five different centers. Read the data carefully and answer the questions.

Centers | Total number of registered voters | Percentage of people who cast vote
A | 1200 | 80%
B | 1000 | 89%
C | 750 | 90%
D | 1500 | 70%
E | 800 | 85%

Note: Total number of registered voters = People who cast their vote + People who didn't cast their vote

Q65. Find the average number of people who casted their vote at centers A and D?
(a) 1000
(b) 1055
(c) 1505
(d) 1550
(e) 1005

Q66. Number of people who did not casted their vote at center D are how many more/less than that of at center C?
(a) 375
(b) 350
(c) 400
(d) 325
(e) 300

Q67. Find the respective ratio of registered voters at center B to number of people who did not casted their vote at center E?
(a) 3:25
(b) 25:3
(c) 23:19
(d) 19:23
(e) 21:23

Q68. Find the registered voters at center D is what percentage of registered voters at center B?
(a) 125%
(b) 50%
(c) 120%
(d) 150%
(e) 100%

Q69. Find the difference between number of people who casted their vote at center A and that who did not casted their vote at center E?
(a) 890
(b) 960
(c) 240
(d) 840
(e) 800

Q70. In center F, 200 more people casted their vote than that of C and the number people who did not casted their vote in center F is 20% less than that of in center A. Find the total number of registered voters in center F.
(a) 1267
(b) 1188
(c) 1277
(d) 1006
(e) 1067

Directions (71-79): Read the given passage carefully and answer the following questions. Certain parts have been highlighted to help answer the questions.
Delhi has a long history, and has been an important political centre of India as the capital of several empires. Earliest coverage of Delhi's history is in the onset of the Tomar's kingdom in the 8th century. It is considered to be a city built, destroyed and rebuilt several times, as outsiders who successfully invaded the Indian Subcontinent would **ransack** the existing capital city in Delhi, and those who came to conquer and stay would be so impressed by the city's strategic location as to make it their capital and rebuild it in their own way. In the medieval era, Delhi was ruled by the Tomara dynasty and Chauhan from 736 to 1193.
The Delhi Sultanate is the name given for a series of five successive dynasties, which remained as a dominant power of Indian subcontinent with Delhi as their capital. During Sultanate period, the city became a center for culture. The Delhi Sultanate came to an end in 1526, when Babur defeated the forces of the last Lodi sultan, Ibrahim Lodi at the first Battle of Panipat, and formed the Mughal Empire. The Mughals ruled the area for three centuries. During the 16th century, the city declined as the Mughal capital was **shifted**. The fifth Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan built the walled city of Shahjahanabad within Delhi, and its landmarks, the Red Fort and Jama Masjid. His reign would be considered the zenith of the empire. After the death of his successor Aurangzeb, the Mughal Empire was plagued by a series of **revolts**. They lost major portions to the Marathas, Sikhs and many governors of erstwhile Mughal provinces like Bengal, Awadh and Hyderabad. The Marathas **captured** Delhi in the battle of Delhi in 1757 and continued to control it until 1803 when they were defeated by the British during the second Anglo-Maratha War. In 1803, the Delhi was captured by the British East India Company. During Company Rule in India, the Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah II was reduced to merely a figurehead. The Indian Rebellion of 1857 sought to end company rule and declared Bahadur Shah II the Emperor of India. However, the British soon recaptured Delhi and their other territories, ending the short-lived rebellion. This also marked the beginning of direct British Rule in India. In 1911, the capital of British India was shifted from Calcutta to New Delhi, the last inner city of Delhi designed by Edwin Lutyens. After India's Independence from the British, New Delhi became the capital of the newly formed Republic of India.

Q71. In the earliest times, why did the encroachers of Indian subcontinent prefer Delhi as their capital?
(a) As Delhi was a huge place, they used it as a shelter for their soldiers during wars
(b) Because they were very impressed by the tactical location of Delhi
(c) Because Delhi had always been blessed with resources and treasures
(d) As Delhi had always been an important city, they wanted to show their power by capturing it and making it their capital
(e) None of these

Q72. How Delhi came to be known as "Delhi Sultanate" in the medieval era?
(a) Because Delhi has always been the capital of India, so by considering its importance this name was given
(b) Tomara dynasty and Chauhan conquered Delhi and decided to change its name to Delhi Sultanate
(c) The name was given due to the rise of the Mughal Empire who ruled Delhi for many years
(d) It was named for the five successive dynasties who ruled Indian subcontinent with Delhi as their capital
(e) None of these

Q73. What marked the end of Delhi sultanate?
(a) When Babur defeated the forces of the last Lodi sultan.
(b) When the last Lodi sultan was renounced and Babur was elected as the governor.
(c) when the last Lodi sultan died due to a prolonged disease
(d) When the last Lodi Sultan was compelled to relinquish his throne due to series of protests that emerged within the state.
(e) None of these

Q74. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about Mughal Empire?
(a) The duration of Shah Jahan's reign was the most successful Mughal period
(b) Aurangzeb was a descendant of Shah Jahan
(c) Shah Jahan was the fifth Mughal emperor who built Shahjahanbad
(d) Mughal empire was formed in Delhi after the first battle of Panipat.
(e) None of these

Q75. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the events took place in Delhi?
(A) Britishers started ruling over other territories and gained dominance over Delhi again
(B) The Indian rebellion started with the aim to end the British company rule
(C) Capital of British India was changed to Delhi from Calcutta
(a) BAC
(b) ABC
(c) ACB
(d) CAB
(e) None of these

Q76. Which of the following words is the synonym of "ransack" highlighted in the passage?
(a) concur
(b) plunder
(c) lenient
(d) resemble
(e) flourish

Q77. Which of the following words is the synonym of 'Revolt' given in the passage?
(a) acquit
(b) upheaval
(c) retrograde
(d) mutiny
(e) None of these

Q78. Which of the following words is an antonym of 'Capture' given in the passage?
(a) provocation
(b) censure
(c) partial
(d) liberty
(e) None of these

Q79. Which of the following words is an antonym of 'shifted' given in the passage?
(a) secured
(b) carried
(c) relocated
(d) removed
(e) None of these

Directions (80-83): In each of the questions given below, a grammatically correct and contextually meaningful sentence has been divided into various phrases. These phrases have been jumbled. You are required to choose the correct rearrangement of the jumbled phrases to form a coherent sentence. If the given phrases are in correct sequential order and do not require rearrangement then choose option 'No rearrangement required' as your answer choice.

Q80. and its feeding characteristics could affect (A)/ composition in the South Korean forests (B)/ the growing wild boar population has become a social issue (C)/ the physical condition and the plant species (D)
(a) ACBD
(b) CADB
(c) CDAB
(d) DACB
(e) No rearrangement required

Q81. studies of morphological variation within (A)/ to understand local adaptation and (B)/ potential patterns of gene flow (C)/ and among populations provide an opportunity (D)
(a) ACBD
(b) CDAB
(c) CBAD
(d) ADBC
(e) No rearrangement required

Q82. their unique assemblages of species and are (A)/ sensitive to environmental change because (B)/ oceanic islands are biologically important for (C)/ of their isolation and small species source pools (D)
(a) CABD
(b) ACDB
(c) CDAB
(d) DACB
(e) No rearrangement required

Q83. Korean wild boars, because of their (A)/ adaptability, are a widespread large (B)/ mammal, however, they sometimes cause (C)/ problems by invading farms and eating the crops (D)
(a) ACBD
(b) CADB
(c) DCAB
(d) BACD
(e) No rearrangement required

Directions (84-89): In each question below two sentences with blanks have been given. Followed by sentences five words have also been given. Find out which one of the following words will be most suitable for the given blanks.

Q84. (I) The batsman got criticized for ___________ batting against opponent team.
(II) This month bitcoin has marked its ninth consecutive month of ___________ funding rates.
(a) swift
(b) expedite
(c) cult
(d) hinder
(e) sluggish

Q85. (I) After a month in hospital, the young boy began his ___________ journey to recovery.
(II) A/An ___________ operating environment for Lebanese reinsurers has remained after Beirut explosion.
(a) quandary
(b) arduous
(c) rampant
(d) repugnant
(e) ferocious

Q86. (I) Experts suggests that diabetes can be controlled with a ___________ diet.
(II) ___________ rules at Japan's PM office require officials to come in person for official meetings.
(a) persist
(b) insist
(c) rigid
(d) timid
(e) agitate

Q87. (I) Lockdowns are ___________ again across the whole of China.
(II) As satellite and space junk begin ___________ , U.S. will revive the rules.
(a) parity
(b) empirical
(c) vacating
(d) delicate
(e) proliferating

Q88. (I) The government has decided to send a four-member team to ___________ the condition of the schools.
(II) The UN's atomic safety watchdog wasn't able to ___________ the Russian-occupied nuclear power plant.
(a) stare
(b) supervise
(c) overlook
(d) neglect
(e) inspect

Q89. (I) The cancelation of hundreds of flights in the U.K. caused ______ at many airports.
(II) Central Bank can shrink the $9tn balance sheet without causing market ______.
(a) concord
(b) haggle
(c) devious
(d) mayhem
(e) None of these

Directions (90-95): There are certain words omitted in the passage given below and followed by a number and a highlighted word. The options given contain an answer that will fit in those given blanks. Choose the correct word to be used to make the sentence coherent and grammatically correct. If the highlighted word is the best fit for the corresponding blank, choose "No correction required" as your answer.

Corruption is both a major cause and a ______ (90) (Lapse) of poverty around the world. It occurs at all levels of society, from local and national governments, civil society, judiciary functions, large and small businesses, military and other services and so on. Corruption ______ (91) (effect) the poorest the most, in rich or poor nations, though all elements of society are affected in some way as corruption ______ (92) (exhausted) political development, democracy, economic development, the environment, people's health and more.
The issue of corruption is very much inter-related with other issues. At a global level, the international economic system that has shaped the current form of globalization in the past decades requires further ______ (93) (zest) for it has also created conditions whereby corruption can ______ (94) (flourish) and exacerbate the conditions of people around the world who already have little say about ______ (95) (its) own destiny. At a national level, people's effective participation and representation in society can be undermined by corruption, while at local levels, corruption can make day to day lives more painful for all affected.

Q90.
(a) result
(b) inquiry
(c) period
(d) indication
(e) No correction required

Q91.
(a) garners
(b) flourishes
(c) fluctuates
(d) affects
(e) No correction required

Q92.
(a) frangible
(b) undermines
(c) impetus
(d) marred
(e) No correction required

Q93.
(a) scrutiny
(b) enchant
(c) captivate
(d) intrigue
(e) No correction required

Q94.
(a) heinous
(b) decorum
(c) lucid
(d) cherish
(e) No correction required

Q95.
(a) her
(b) their
(c) them
(d) his
(e) No correction required

Directions (96-100): Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
A. The court further observed that it was known that eight people had been killed, and they were farmers and a journalist.
B. Instilling a sense of urgency in the Government, a Bench also ordered the State to facilitate immediate medical care to the needy people.
C. The Supreme Court on Thursday gave the Uttar Pradesh Government 24 hours to file a status report.
D. Furthermore, the government of Uttar Pradesh has formed a special inquiry team to look into the incident.
E. The status report is related to the identification of the accused in the First Information Report (FIR) registered on the Lakhimpur Kheri violence.

Q96. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after Rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Q97. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after Rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Q98. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after Rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Q99. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after Rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Q100. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after Rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Solutions

S1. Ans.(b)
Sol. T sits second to the left of V and both face in same direction. Here, we have two possible cases: Case-1 and Case-2. Two persons sit between V and A. One person sits between A and G. G does not sit adjacent to T.
L sits immediate left of G. L does not face same direction as G. G, A and C face same direction but do not face inside the centre. Case-1 is eliminated here.
So, the final arrangement is:
[Diagram: Circular arrangement with T, A, L, G, V, C facing various directions]

S2. Ans.(a)
Sol. T sits second to the left of V and both face in same direction. Here, we have two possible cases: Case-1 and Case-2. Two persons sit between V and A. One person sits between A and G. G does not sit adjacent to T.
[Diagram]
S3. Ans.(c)
Sol. T sits second to the left of V and both face in same direction. Here, we have two possible cases: Case-1 and Case-2. Two persons sit between V and A. One person sits between A and G. G does not sit adjacent to T.
[Diagram]
L sits immediate left of G. L does not face same direction as G. G, A and C face same direction but do not face inside the centre. Case-1 is eliminated here.
So, the final arrangement is:
[Diagram]

S4. Ans.(e)
Sol. T sits second to the left of V and both face in same direction. Here, we have two possible cases: Case-1 and Case-2. Two persons sit between V and A. One person sits between A and G. G does not sit adjacent to T.
[Diagram]
L sits immediate left of G. L does not face same direction as G. G, A and C face same direction but do not face inside the centre. Case-1 is eliminated here.
So, the final arrangement is:
[Diagram]

S5. Ans.(c)
Sol. T sits second to the left of V and both face in same direction. Here, we have two possible cases: Case-1 and Case-2. Two persons sit between V and A. One person sits between A and G. G does not sit adjacent to T.
[Diagram]
L sits immediate left of G. L does not face same direction as G. G, A and C face same direction but do not face inside the centre. Case-1 is eliminated here.
So, the final arrangement is:
[Diagram]

S7. Ans.(a)
Sol.
[Diagram: Venn diagram showing lion, tiger, cat, dog]

S8. Ans.(c)
Sol.
[Diagram: Family tree]

S9. Ans.(d)
Sol.
[Diagram: Family tree]

S10. Ans.(e)
Sol.
[Diagram: Venn diagram showing News, TV, Remote]

S11. Ans.(a)
Sol.
[Diagram: Venn diagram showing Girl, Female, Train]

S12. Ans.(d)
Sol. I. P > N (False) II. F < H (False)
S13. Ans.(a)
Sol. I. L < N (True) II. H ≤ V (False)

S14. Ans.(d)
Sol. From the given statements, Two floors gap between S and R. S lives in the west of U. Here we get 2 possible cases – Case 1 and Case 2.
[Table: Floors 4-1, Flat 1, Flat 2]
One floor gap between P and R, who lives in the South-east of P. case 2 is ruled out now. One floor gap between Q and T. X lives in the North-east of T. So, the final arrangement is-
[Table: S, U, P, Q, V, X, T, R]

S15. Ans.(b)
Sol. From the given statements, Two floors gap between S and R. S lives in the west of U Here we get 2 possible cases – Case 1 and Case 2.
[Table]
One floor gap between P and R, who lives in the South-east of P. case 2 is ruled out now. One floor gap between Q and T. X lives in the North-east of T. So, the final arrangement is-
[Table]

S16. Ans.(a)
Sol. From the given statements, Two floors gap between S and R. S lives in the west of U. Here we get 2 possible cases – Case 1 and Case 2.
[Table]
One floor gap between P and R, who lives in the South-east of P. case 2 is ruled out now. One floor gap between Q and T. X lives in the North-east of T. So, the final arrangement is-
[Table]

S17. Ans.(e)
Sol. From the given statements, Two floors gap between S and R. S lives in the west of U. Here we get 2 possible cases – Case 1 and Case 2.
[Table]
One floor gap between P and R, who lives in the South-east of P. case 2 is ruled out now. One floor gap between Q and T. X lives in the North-east of T. So, the final arrangement is-
[Table]

S18. Ans.(d)
Sol. From the given statements, Two floors gap between S and R. S lives in the west of U. Here we get 2 possible cases – Case 1 and Case 2.
[Table]
One floor gap between P and R, who lives in the South-east of P. case 2 is ruled out now. One floor gap between Q and T. X lives in the North-east of T. So, the final arrangement is-
[Table]

S19. Ans.(e)
Sol. From the given statements, A is not placed in A2 zone. So, here we have two possible cases i.e., case 1 and case 2. H is placed in the same zone as A. B is not placed in A1 zone. B is placed with G in the same zone. G is not placed in A3 zone.
[Table]
H is not placed in A3 zone. So, case 2 gets eliminated here. Only F is placed with D in the same zone. E is not placed in the zone in which H is placed. So, the final arrangement is-
[Table]

S20. Ans.(c)
Sol. From the given statements, A is not placed in A2 zone. So, here we have two possible cases i.e., case 1 and case 2. H is placed in the same zone as A. B is not placed in A1 zone. B is placed with G in the same zone. G is not placed in A3 zone.
[Table]
H is not placed in A3 zone. So, case 2 gets eliminated here. Only F is placed with D in the same zone. E is not placed in the zone in which H is placed. So, the final arrangement is-
[Table]

S21. Ans.(b)
Sol. From the given statements, A is not placed in A2 zone. So, here we have two possible cases i.e., case 1 and case 2. H is placed in the same zone as A. B is not placed in A1 zone. B is placed with G in the same zone. G is not placed in A3 zone.
[Table]
H is not placed in A3 zone. So, case 2 gets eliminated here. Only F is placed with D in the same zone. E is not placed in the zone in which H is placed. So, the final arrangement is-
[Table]

S22. Ans.(b)
Sol. From the given statements, A is not placed in A2 zone. So, here we have two possible cases i.e., case 1 and case 2. H is placed in the same zone as A. B is not placed in A1 zone. B is placed with G in the same zone. G is not placed in A3 zone.
[Table]
H is not placed in A3 zone. So, case 2 gets eliminated here. Only F is placed with D in the same zone. E is not placed in the zone in which H is placed. So, the final arrangement is-
[Table]

S23. Ans.(b)
Sol. From the given statements, A is not placed in A2 zone. So, here we have two possible cases i.e., case 1 and case 2. H is placed in the same zone as A. B is not placed in A1 zone. B is placed with G in the same zone. G is not placed in A3 zone.
[Table]
H is not placed in A3 zone. So, case 2 gets eliminated here. Only F is placed with D in the same zone. E is not placed in the zone in which H is placed. So, the final arrangement is-
[Table]

S24. Ans.(e)
Sol.
[Diagram]

S25. Ans.(c)
Sol.
[Diagram]

S26. Ans.(d)
Sol. From the given conditions, L sits fifth to the right of P. L does not sits at the corner. K sits second to the right of L. S sits third to the right of K. J sits to the immediate left of Q and both faces in opposite direction. J does not sit next to K. R and S faces in opposite direction. Here there are two cases possible i.e., case 1 and case 2.
Case 1
Case 2
[Diagram]
R faces in South direction. Here case 2 gets eliminated. So, the final solution is given below.
[Diagram]

S27. Ans.(b)
Sol. From the given conditions, L sits fifth to the right of P. L does not sits at the corner. K sits second to the right of L. S sits third to the right of K. J sits to the immediate left of Q and both faces in opposite direction. J does not sit next to K. R and S faces in opposite direction. Here there are two cases possible i.e., case 1 and case 2.
Case 1
Case 2
[Diagram]
R faces in South direction. Here case 3 gets eliminated. So, the final solution is given below.
[Diagram]

S28. Ans.(c)
Sol. From the given conditions, L sits fifth to the right of P. L does not sits at the corner. K sits second to the right of L. S sits third to the right of K. J sits to the immediate left of Q and both faces in opposite direction. J does not sit next to K. R and S faces in opposite direction. Here there are two cases possible i.e., case 1 and case 2.
Case 1
Case 2
[Diagram]
P J Q K R L S
S L R K Q J P
R faces in South direction. Here case 2 gets eliminated. So, the final solution is given below.
[Diagram]
P J Q K R L S

S29. Ans.(a)
Sol. From the given conditions, L sits fifth to the right of P. L does not sits at the corner. K sits second to the right of L. S sits third to the right of K. J sits to the immediate left of Q and both faces in opposite direction. J does not sit next to K. R and S faces in opposite direction. Here there are two cases possible i.e., case 1 and case 2.
Case 1
P J Q K R L S
S L R K Q J P
R faces in South direction. Here case 2 gets eliminated. So, the final solution is given below.
[Diagram]
P J Q K R L S

S30. Ans.(c)
Sol. From the given conditions, L sits fifth to the right of P. L does not sits at the corner. K sits second to the right of L. S sits third to the right of K. J sits to the immediate left of Q and both faces in opposite direction. J does not sit next to K. R and S faces in opposite direction. Here there are two cases possible i.e., case 1 and case 2.
Case 1
P J Q K R L S
S L R K Q J P
R faces in South direction. Here case 2 gets eliminated. So, the final solution is given below.
[Diagram]
P J Q K R L S
S L R K Q J P

S31. Ans.(d)
Sol.
STATIONERY

S32. Ans.(e)
Sol. 7th from the left is- L and 6th from the right end is- D, the element exactly between them- 1.

S33. Ans.(b)
Sol. BEH $L % IF MAR #↑DKUT
Fourth to the right of tenth from the right end i.e sixth from the right end= #

S34. Ans.(d)
Sol. KU2

S35. Ans.(c)
Sol. H $ 3, L % 8

S36. Ans.(c)
Sol.
I. x² - 7x - 6x + 42 = 0
(x - 7)(x - 6) = 0
x = 6, 7
II. y² - 9y - 8y + 72 = 0
(y - 9)(y - 8) = 0
y = 8, 9
clearly, x < y

S37. Ans.(b)
Sol.
I. x² - 18x + 77 = 0
x² - 11x - 7x + 77 = 0
x(x - 11) - 7(x - 11) = 0
(x - 11)(x - 7) = 0
x = 7, 11
II. y² + 6y - 91 = 0
y² + 13y - 7y - 91 = 0
y(y + 13) - 7(y + 13) = 0
(y + 13)(y - 7) = 0
y = -13, 7
So, x ≥ y

S38. Ans.(a)
Sol.
I. 2x² + 11x + 15 = 0
2x² + 6x + 5x + 15 = 0
2x(x + 3) + 5(x + 3) = 0
(x + 3)(2x + 5) = 0
x = -3, -5/2
II. 2y² + 17y + 35 = 0
2y² + 10y + 7y + 35 = 0
2y(y + 5) + 7(y + 5) = 0
(y + 5)(2y + 7) = 0
y = -5, -7/2
So, x > y

S39. Ans.(e)
Sol.
I. 2x² + 6x - x - 3 = 0
(2x - 1)(x + 3) = 0
x = -3, 1/2
II. 3y² - 3y + y - 1 = 0
(3y + 1)(y - 1) = 0
y = -1/3, 1
clearly, no relation

S40. Ans.(b)
Sol.
I. x² + 3x + 2x + 6 = 0
(x + 2)(x + 3) = 0
x = -3, -2
II. y² + 4y + 3y + 12 = 0
(y + 4)(y + 3) = 0
y = -4, -3
clearly, x ≥ y

S44. Ans.(d)
Sol.
4 2/3 + 7 1/2 - 6 3/4 = ? - 19/12
(4 + 7 - 6) [2/3 + 1/2 - 3/4] = ? - 19/12
5 5/12 = ? - 19/12
? = 65/12 + 19/12
? = 84/12 = 7

S45. Ans.(a)
Sol.
3/4 × 76 + 4.5 × 56 = ? + 59
57 + 252 = ? + 59
? = 250

S46. Ans.(d)
Sol.
2^5 + 2^10 = ? × 12
2^5(1+32)/12 = ?
? = 88

S47. Ans.(a)
Sol.
√256 + √784 = ? × √121
16 + 28 = ? × 11
? = 44/11 = 4

S48. Ans.(d)
Sol.
4/5 × 350 + 45 × 8 = ? × 256
280 + 360 = ? × 256
? = 640/256 = 2.5

S49. Ans.(e)
Sol.
115/100 × 360 + 18 × 27 = ? × 225
414 + 486 = ? × 225
? = 900/225 = 4

S50. Ans.(b)
Sol.
9^7 × 729 = (3^4 × 9^6)/81
9^7 = (9^2 × 9^6)/(9^2 × 9^8) = 9^3
=> ? = 3

S51. Ans.(a)
Sol.
Let length and breadth of the rectangle be l cm and b cm respectively.
ATQ
2(l+b)/l = 16/5
10l + 10b = 16l
3l = 5b
l/b = 5/3
Let length and breadth of rectangle be 5x and 3x respectively.
5x × 3x = 375
x² = 25
x = 5
So, breadth of the rectangle = 15 cm

S52. Ans.(d)
Sol.
Amount received from scheme A = 15000 + (15000 × 15 × 2)/100
ATQ
Interest received from scheme B = 19500[(1 + 20/100)² - 1]
= 19500 × 11/25
= Rs. 8580

S53. Ans.(d)
Sol.
Let total work = 6 × 128 = 768 units
Required men = 768 × 2/3 × 1/32 = 16

S54. Ans.(e)
Sol.
Let length of train be 'l' meters
ATQ -
144 × 5/18 = l/15
l = 600 meters
Required time = 600 / (108 × 5/18) = 20 sec

S55. Ans.(a)
Sol.
ATQ, (11000 × 12)/(13200 × x) = 1/1
x = 10

S56. Ans.(c)
Sol.
Let x ltr. of water is added.
∴ (3/7 × 84) / (4/7 × 84 + x) = 2/5
=> 36/(48+x) = 2/5
=> 90 = 48 + x
=> x = 42 ltr.

S57. Ans.(c)
Sol.
Let the speed of A = 5x
So, speed of B is 5x × 120/100 = 6x
Required time = (6x × 5)/5x = 6 hours.

S58. Ans.(a)
Sol.
Let total capacity of the tank be 90 liters. (LCM of 15 and 18)
So, efficiency of A and B is 6 liters/hr. and 5 liters/hr. respectively.
ATQ
Let required time be T.
5 × T + 6 × 5 = 90
T = 60/5 = 12

S59. Ans.(d)
Sol.
Selling price is denoted by SP
Let the CP be 100a.
MP CP SP
140a 100a 120a
M.P. = Rs. 1050
∴ 140a = 1050
a = 1050/140 = 7.5
Hence
SP = Rs. (7.5 × 120)
SP = Rs. 900

S60. Ans.(b)
Sol.
Let the number be 100x
∴ When reduced by 25% it becomes 75x
∴ 75x = 150 => x = 2
∴ The number = 200
Now, % increase = ((250-200)/200 × 100)% = 25%

S61. Ans.(b)
Sol.
Let total boys in class A = total girls in class B = n
And total boys in class B = 2m
So, total girls in class A = 2m × 1/2 = m
Given, n - m = 15 ---------- (i)
And, n + 2m = 30 ---------- (ii)
From (i) & (ii) we get
n = 20 and m = 5
[Table: Class, Total boys, Total girls, Total Students]
A: 20, 5, 25
B: 10, 20, 30
Total: 30, 25
Required difference = 20 - 10 = 10

S62. Ans.(b)
Sol.
Let total boys in class A = total girls in class B = n
And total boys in class B = 2m
So, total girls in class A = 2m × 1/2 = m
[Table]
Required sum = 20 + 10 = 30

S63. Ans.(e)
Sol.
Let total boys in class A = total girls in class B = n
And total boys in class B = 2m
So, total girls in class A = 2m × 1/2 = m
Given, n - m = 15 ----- (i)
And, n + 2m = 30 ----- (ii)
From (i) & (ii) we get
n = 20 and m = 5
[Table]
Total girls in class C = 20 × 120/100 = 24
Total boys in class C = 24 × 4/3 = 32
Total students in class C = (24 + 32) = 56

S64. Ans.(d)
Sol.
Let total boys in class A = total girls in class B = n
And total boys in class B = 2m
So, total girls in class A = 2m × 1/2 = m
Given, n - m = 15 ----- (i)
And, n + 2m = 30 ----- (ii)
From (i) & (ii) we get
n = 20 and m = 5
[Table]
Required ratio = 25 : 30 = 5 : 6

S65. Ans.(e)
Sol.
Required average = (1200 × 80/100 + 1500 × 70/100)/2 = (960 + 1050)/2 = 1005

S66. Ans.(a)
Sol.
Required difference = 1500 × 30/100 - 750 × 10/100 = 450 - 75 = 375

S67. Ans.(b)
Sol.
Required ratio = 1000 : 800 × 15/100 = 1000 : 120 = 25 : 3

S68. Ans.(d)
Sol.
Required % = 1500/1000 × 100 = 150%

S69. Ans.(d)
Sol.
Required difference = 80/100 × 1200 - 800 × 15/100 = 960 - 120 = 840

S70. Ans.(e)
Sol.
Total number of people casted their vote in center F = 200 + 750 × 90/100 = 200 + 675 = 875
Total number of registered voters in center F = 875 + 192 = 1067

S71. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct choice is option (b) which can be inferred from the first paragraph which mentions," It is considered to be a city built, destroyed and rebuilt several times, as outsiders who successfully invaded the Indian Subcontinent would ransack the existing capital city in Delhi, and those who came to conquer and stay would be so impressed by the city's strategic location as to make it their capital and rebuild it in their own way"

S72. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct choice is option (d) which can be inferred from the second paragraph which mentions," The Delhi Sultanate is the name given for a series of five successive dynasties, which remained as a dominant power of Indian subcontinent with Delhi as their capital."

S73. Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct choice is option (a) which can be inferred from the second paragraph which mentions," During Sultanate period, the city became a center for culture. The Delhi Sultanate came to an end in 1526, when Babur defeated the forces of the last Lodi sultan, Ibrahim Lodi at the first Battle of Panipat, and formed the Mughal Empire."

S74. Ans.(e)
Sol. All the given statements are correct. Refer to the last paragraph which mentions," During Sultanate period, the city became a center for culture. The Delhi Sultanate came to an end in 1526 ....................................the Mughal Empire was plagued by a series of revolts."

S75. Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct sequence of the events is BAC. To validate the answer, refer to the last lines of the second paragraph which mentions," The Indian Rebellion of 1857 sought to end company rule and declared Bahadur Shah II the Emperor of India. However, the British soon recaptured Delhi and their other territories, ending the short-lived rebellion. This also marked the beginning of direct British Rule in India. In 1911, the capital of British India was shifted from Calcutta to New Delhi, the last inner city of Delhi designed by Edwin Lutyens."

S76. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct synonym for the highlighted word is "plunder"
concur means be of the same opinion; agree.
Plunder means go through (a place) stealing things and causing damage.
lenient means (of a punishment or person in authority) more merciful or tolerant than expected.
resemble means have a similar appearance to or qualities in common with (someone or something); look or seem like.
flourish means wave (something) about to attract attention.

S77. Ans.(d)
Sol. 'Mutiny' is a synonym of 'revolt'
revolt means take violent action against an established government or ruler; rebel.
acquit means free (someone) from a criminal charge by a verdict of not guilty.
retrograde means reverting to an earlier and inferior condition.
mutiny means an open rebellion against the proper authorities, especially by soldiers or sailors against their officers.
upheaval means a violent or sudden change or disruption to something

S78. Ans.(d)
Sol. 'Liberty' is an antonym of 'capture'
Capture means take into one's possession or control by force.
provocation means action or speech that makes someone angry, especially deliberately.
censure means express severe disapproval of (someone or something), especially in a formal statement.
partial means existing only in part; incomplete.
liberty means the state of being free within society from oppressive restrictions imposed by authority on one's way of life, behaviour, or political views.

S79. Ans.(a)
Sol. 'secured' is an antonym of 'shifted'.
Shifted: to change the place or position of.
Secured (verb): to make safe or certain; to fasten or attach firmly.
Carried (verb): to hold or support and move from one place to another.
Relocated (verb): to move to a different location.
Removed (verb): to take away or move from a place.

S80. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct rearrangement of the given phrases would be CADB. The sentence thus formed would be "The growing wild boar population has become a social issue and its feeding characteristics could affect the physical condition and the plant species composition in the South Korean forests".

S81. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct rearrangement of the given phrases would be ADBC. The sentence thus formed would be "Studies of morphological variation within and among populations provide an opportunity to understand local adaptation and potential patterns of gene flow".

S82. Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct rearrangement of the given phrases would be CABD. The sentence thus formed would be "Oceanic islands are biologically important for their unique assemblages of species and are sensitive to environmental change because of their isolation and small species source pools".

S83. Ans.(e)
Sol. The given phrases are already arranged in correct sequential order, thus, they do not require rearrangement.

S84. Ans.(e)
Sol. 'Sluggish' is the correct word for the both the given blanks.
(a) swift means happening quickly or promptly.
(b) expedite means make (an action or process) happen sooner or be accomplished more quickly.
(c) cult means a person or thing that is popular or fashionable among a particular group or section of society.
(d) hinder means make it difficult for (someone) to do something or for (something) to happen.
(e) sluggish means lacking energy or alertness.

S85. Ans.(b)
Sol. 'Arduous' is the correct word for the both the given blanks.
(a) quandary means a state of perplexity or uncertainty over what to do in a difficult situation.
(b) arduous means involving or requiring strenuous effort; difficult and tiring.
(c) rampant means flourishing or spreading unchecked.
(d) repugnant means extremely distasteful; unacceptable.
(e) ferocious means savagely fierce, cruel, or violent.

S86. Ans.(c)
Sol. 'Rigid' is correct word for the given blanks in the statements.
(a) persist means continue in an opinion or course of action in spite of difficulty or opposition.
(b) insist means demand something forcefully, not accepting refusal.
(c) rigid means not able to be changed or adapted.
(d) timid means showing a lack of courage or confidence; easily frightened.
(e) agitate means make (someone) troubled or nervous.

S87. Ans.(e)
Sol. 'Proliferating' is the correct word for the given blanks in the statements.
(a) parity means the state or condition of being equal, especially as regards status or pay.
(b) empirical means based on, concerned with, or verifiable by observation or experience rather than theory or pure logic.
(c) vacating means leave (a place that one previously occupied).
(d) delicate means very fine in texture or structure; of intricate workmanship or quality.
(e) proliferating means increase rapidly in number; multiply.

S88. Ans.(e)
Sol. The correct word for the given blanks is 'inspect'
(a) stare means look fixedly or vacantly at someone or something with one's eyes wide open.
(b) supervise means observe and direct the execution of (a task or activity).
(c) overlook means fail to notice.
(d) neglect means fail to care for properly.
(e) inspect means examine (someone or something) to ensure that they reach an official standard.

S89. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct word for both the blanks is 'mayhem'.
concord means agreement or harmony between people or groups.
haggle means bargain persistently, especially over the cost of something.
devious means showing a skilful use of underhand tactics to achieve goals.
mayhem means violent or extreme disorder; chaos.

S90. Ans.(a)
Sol. The only word which will fit the blank to make the sentence coherent is result.
Result: a phenomenon that follows and is caused by some previous phenomenon
Inquiry: an act of asking for information.
Period: a length or portion of time.
Indication: a sign or piece of information that indicates something.
Lapse: a brief or temporary failure of concentration, memory, or judgement.

S91. Ans.(d)
Sol. The only word which will fit the blank to make the sentence coherent is affects.
Garners: gather or collect (something, especially information or approval).
Flourishes: to be in a vigorous state; thrive
Fluctuates: rise and fall irregularly in number or amount.
Affects: have an effect on; make a difference to
Effects: a change which is a result or consequence of an action or other cause.

S92. Ans.(b)
Sol. The only word which will fit the blank to make the sentence coherent is undermines.
Frangible: able to be broken into fragments; brittle or fragile.
Undermine: lessen the effectiveness, power, or ability of, especially gradually or insidiously.
Impetus: the force or energy with which a body moves.
Marred: impair the quality or appearance of; spoil.
Exhausted: very tired.

S93. Ans.(a)
Sol. The only word which will fit the blank to make the sentence coherent is scrutiny
Scrutiny: critical observation or examination
Enchant: fill (someone) with great delight; charm.
Captive: a person who has been taken prisoner or an animal that has been confined
Intrigue: arouse the curiosity or interest of; fascinate.
Zest: great enthusiasm and energy.

S94. Ans.(e)
Sol. The highlighted word is best suited for the given blank
Heinous: utterly odious or wicked.
Decorum: behavior in keeping with good taste and propriety.
Lucid: expressed clearly; easy to understand.
Cherish: protect and care for (someone) lovingly.
Flourish: grow or develop in a healthy or vigorous way

S95. Ans.(b)
Sol. The only word which will fit the blank to make the sentence coherent is their.
Since the word is referring “people”, the correct pronoun for this will be “their”. We know all the other pronouns cannot be used here.

S96. Ans.(e)
Sol. Statement (C) will be the introductory sentence as it best depicts the theme of the paragraph. Now, statement (C) will be followed by statement (E) as it further adds to the status report as discussed in the previous statement. Now, statement (E) will be followed by statement (B) as it states the initiatives taken by the Bench of the Supreme Court to instill a sense of urgency. Now, statement (B) will be followed by statement (A) as it further adds the observations of the court. Finally, statement (D) will be the concluding sentence. Hence, the correct rearrangement of the sentences would be 'CEBAD'.

S97. Ans.(b)
Sol. Statement (C) will be the introductory sentence as it best depicts the theme of the paragraph. Now, statement (C) will be followed by statement (E) as it further adds to the status report as discussed in the previous statement. Now, statement (E) will be followed by statement (B) as it states the initiatives taken by the Bench of the Supreme Court to instill a sense of urgency. Now, statement (B) will be followed by statement (A) as it further adds the observations of the court. Finally, statement (D) will be the concluding sentence. Hence, the correct rearrangement of the sentences would be 'CEBAD'.

S98. Ans.(d)
Sol. Statement (C) will be the introductory sentence as it best depicts the theme of the paragraph. Now, statement (C) will be followed by statement (E) as it further adds to the status report as discussed in the previous statement. Now, statement (E) will be followed by statement (B) as it states the initiatives taken by the Bench of the Supreme Court to instill a sense of urgency. Now, statement (B) will be followed by statement (A) as it further adds the observations of the court. Finally, statement (D) will be the concluding sentence. Hence, the correct rearrangement of the sentences would be 'CEBAD'.

S99. Ans.(c)
Sol. Statement (C) will be the introductory sentence as it best depicts the theme of the paragraph. Now, statement (C) will be followed by statement (E) as it further adds to the status report as discussed in the previous statement. Now, statement (E) will be followed by statement (B) as it states the initiatives taken by the Bench of the Supreme Court to instill a sense of urgency. Now, statement (B) will be followed by statement (A) as it further adds the observations of the court. Finally, statement (D) will be the concluding sentence. Hence, the correct rearrangement of the sentences would be 'CEBAD'.

S100. Ans.(a)
Sol. Statement (C) will be the introductory sentence as it best depicts the theme of the paragraph. Now, statement (C) will be followed by statement (E) as it further adds to the status report as discussed in the previous statement. Now, statement (E) will be followed by statement (B) as it states the initiatives taken by the Bench of the Supreme Court to instill a sense of urgency. Now, statement (B) will be followed by statement (A) as it further adds the observations of the court. Finally, statement (D) will be the concluding sentence. Hence, the correct rearrangement of the sentences would be 'CEBAD'.

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