SBI PO Mains 2017 Previous Year Question Paper with Free PDF Download Memory Based Paper-Jun 04, 2017

SBI PO Mains 2017 Previous Year Question Paper with Free PDF Download Memory Based Paper-Jun 04, 2017

1. Recently, RBI revised PCA framework for
banks. Here PCA stands for-
A. Prompt Clear Action
B. Primary Corrective Action
C. Primary Corporate action
D. Prompt Corrective Action
E. None of the above
2. Which bank has launched ‘Mingle’?
A. SBI B. ICICI
C. PNB D. Axis
E. BOB
3. RBI has said in a notification that all existing
asset reconstructions companies (ARC) must
have minimum net owned corpus of how
much amount by March 2019?
A. Rs. 500 crores B. Rs. 100 crores
C. Rs. 200 crores D. Rs. 400 crores
E. None of these
4. In the year 2017, the Indian government has
revised base year of which of the following
indices?
A. CPI B. WPI
C. IIP D. b and c only
E. All the above
5. How much fiscal deficit target in terms of GDP
percent, fixed by government for financial
year 2018?
A. 4.2 Percent B. 3.7 percent
C. 3.2 Percent D. 2.9 Percent
E. 2.7 percent
6. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India
(IBBI) constituted Technical Committee Under
_______ to give recommendations for laying
down Technical Standards for performance of
core services and other services under IBBI
(Information Utilities) Regulations 2017.
A. Dinesh Sharma B. Asim Dasgupta
C. R B Barman D. Sushil Mitra
E. None of the above
7. Recently IMF revised India’s GDP growth rate
forecast from earlier estimated 7.2 Percent to
______.
A. 7 Percent B. 6.9 Percent
C. 6.8 Percent D. 6.7 Percent
E. 6.5 Percent
8. Which of the following country hosted the
14th Edition of United Nations International
Day of Vesak 2017?
A. Greece B. France
C. Belgium D. Sri Lanka
E. None of these
9. Which of the following country has topped in
the World Economic Freedom (WEF) Index
2016?
A. Belgium B. Algeria
C. Hong Kong D. Switzerland
E. None of these
10. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) tightened the
rules around making the JLF more effective,
directing banks not to break any rules and to
meet all deadlines. Here JLF stands for-
A. Joint Lending Firms
B. Joint Lending Forum
C. Joint Lender’s Forum
D. Joint liability Forum
E. Joint litigation Forum
11. US-based think tank GFI in its report titled
‘Illicit Financial Flows to and from Developing
Countries: 2005-2014’, has estimated that
$770 billion worth of black money entered
India during 2005-2014. Here GFI stands for-
A. Global Financial Institution
B. Global Financial Investigator
C. General Financial Institution
D. Global Financial Integrity
E. Global Fair Institution
12. Working capital means
A. Current assets – current liabilities
B. Fixed assets – current assets
C. Fixed assets – fixed liabilities
D. Fixed liabilities – current liabilities
13. What do we call the risk of collapse of an
entire financial system or entire market?
A. Seismic Risk
B. Systemic Risk
C. Systematic Risk
D. Market Risk
E. Economic Risk
14. The Union Budget 2017-18 has allocated Rs.
__________ crore to the flagship MGNREGA
program?
A. 48,000 B. 44,000
C. 55,000 D. 42,000
E. 58,000
15. Reverse Repo Rate is a tool used by RBI to
A. Inject Liquidity
B. Absorb Liquidity
C. Increase the liquidity with banking system
D. To keep the liquidity at one level
E. None of the above

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16. What is a ante-dated cheque?
A. A cheque issued without drawer's signature
B. A cheque with only signature of the drawer
C. A cheque which has completed three
months from its date of issue
D. A cheque which has completed six months
from its date of issue
E. Cheque is written by drawer and dated at
some date in past but not expired
17. Which bank has launched 'Aadhaar Payment
Bridge System' (APBS) for small ticket micro-
finance loan disbursements?
A. SBI B. ICICI Bank
C. HDFC D. Federal Bank
E. RBL Bank
18. _______ is the rate at which banks borrow
funds overnight from the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI) against approved government
securities.
A. CRR B. SLR
C. Call Money D. MSF
E. Repo Rate
19. The National Financial Switch (NFS) facilitates
routing of ATM transactions through inter-
connectivity between the Bank’s Switches,
thereby enabling the citizens of the country to
utilize any ATM of a connected bank. The
National Financial Switch (NFS) is run by ___.
A. National Payments Corporation of India
(NPCI)
B. Industrial Finance Corporation of India
(IFCI)
C. Institute for Development and Research in
Banking Technology (IDRBT)
D. Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
E. None of these
20. Name the world’s highest wicket-taker in
women ODI cricket?
A. Jhualan Goswami B. Mithila Raj
C. Poonam Raut D. Anjum Chopra
E. Veda Krishnamoorthy
21. Who among the following has been elected as
the chairman of ‘FIFA governance committee’
at the world football governing body's?
A. Altamas Kabir B. R C Lahoti
C. Mukul Mudgal D. P Sathasivam
E. None of these
22. Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) are
allowed to accept/renew public deposits for a
maximum period of ___.
A. 12 months B. 24 months
C. 48 months D. 60 months
E. None of these
23. Consider the following statements regarding
Payment Banks:
A) Payment Banks can't advance loans or
issue credit cards.
B) Payment Banks can accept demand
deposits up to Rs 5 lakh.
C) Payment Banks offer remittance services,
mobile payments/transfers/purchases.
D) Payment Banks offer banking services like
ATM/debit cards, net banking and third party
fund transfers.
Which of the above options are correct:
A. A, C and D only B. B, C and D only
C. A and D only D. All of the above
E. Only A & B
24. Recently NITI Aayog has constituted an
‘Expert Task Force’ to provide a major thrust
to job creation by enhancing India’s exports.
Who will head the task force?
A. Dr. Rajesh Kumar
B. Rahul Ranjan Sinha
C. Dr. Rajiv Kumar
D. R. B. Barman
E. None of these
25. Unified Payments Interface (UPI) launched by
the National Payments Corporation of India
(NPCI) would do the following function-
1) It would eliminate the need to exchange
sensitive information about bank account
numbers during a financial transaction.
2) It allows sharing of a bill among peers.
3) It allows individual to even request the
money from its debtors.
Select the correct answer-
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 only D. 1, 2 and 3
E. 3 only
26. Kavinder Singh is related to which game?
A. Boxing B. Archer
C. Hockey D. Shooting
E. Wrestling
27. The base year for calculating key economic
growth from 2004-05 changed to?
A. 2010-11 B. 2011-12
C. 2008-09 D. 2007-08
E. 2005-06

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28. After the merger of five associates Banks in
State Bank of India (SBI), now the total
number of ATMs reached across the country is
_____.
A. 60,000 ATMs B. 69,000 ATMs
C. 59,000 ATMs D. 72,000 ATMs
E. 45,000 ATMs
29. The target of digital transactions through UPI,
USSD, Aadhar, IMPS for 2017-18 is ____.
A. 22,00 crore B. 1600 crore
C. 2000 crore D. 2,500 crore
E. 19,00 crore
30. Finland has become the first country in
Europe to pay its unemployed citizens a basic
monthly income, amounting to___.
A. 226 euros B. 324 euros
C. 560 euros D. 421 euros
E. 611 euros
31. Government has approved Rs 681 crore as
seed capital for building a total corpus of ____
under the electronic development fund meant
to support entrepreneurship and innovation in
electronics and IT.
A. Rs 5,125 crores B. Rs 6,355 crores
C. Rs 5,732 crores D. Rs 6,831 crores
E. Rs 7,233 crores
32. Government of India has changed Cost
Inflation Index (CII) base year from 1981 to
___.
A. 2000 B. 2002
C. 2001 D. 2005
E. 2004
33. Institute for Development & Research in
Banking Technology (IDRBT) is in?
A. Hyderabad B. Bengaluru
C. Chennai D. Mumbai
E. New Delhi
34. Amendment to Section _______ of Negotiable
Instruments Acts to include the electronic
image of a truncated cheque and a cheque in
electronic form.
A. 7 B. 8
C. 2 D. 5
E. 6
35. The target for agricultural credit in 2017-18
has been fixed at a record level of _____.
A. Rs. 5 lakh crores B. Rs. 10 lakh crores
C. Rs. 20 lakh crores D. Rs. 25 lakh crores
E. Rs. 15 lakh crores
36. A class of derivative whose value is at least
partly derived from one or more underlying
stock exchange securities? (Trade,
Commodity, Credit, Interest Rate, Equity)
A. Derivative
B. Stock Derivative
C. Future Derivative
D. Equity Derivative
E. Other than the given options
37. The government has decided to make tax
evasion of over ____________ under the
proposed Goods and Services Tax (GST) the
regime as a non-bailable offence.
A. Rs 6 crore B. Rs 3 crore
C. Rs 5 crore D. Rs 8 crore
E. Rs 10 crore
38. As per report of Stockholm International
Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) India’s
military expenditure in 2016 grew by-
A. 7 per cent B. 8.5 per cent
C. 8 per cent D. 7.5 per cent
E. 6.5 per cent
39. India Licensing Expo (ILE), India's first and
most influential brand licensing show will take
place on 20 August 2017 in ___.
A. Hyderabad B. Bengaluru
C. Chennai D. Mumbai
E. New Delhi
40. Foreign direct investment (FDI) in India grew
18 per cent during 2016 to touch __________
data released by the Department of Industrial
Policy and Promotion (DIPP).
A. $42 billion B. $46 billion
C. $50 billion D. $39 billion
E. $49 billion
Direction (41-45): Read the following
passage carefully and answer the questions
that follow.
At first sight, it looks as though Panchayati
raj, the lower layer of federalism in our polity,
is as firmly entrenched in our system as is the
older and higher layer comprising the Union
Government and the States. Like the
democratic institutions at the higher level,
those at the panchayat level, the Panchayati
raj institutions (PRIs), are written into and
protected by the Constitution. All the essential
features, which distinguish a unitary system
from a federal one, are as much enshrined at
the lower as at the upper level of our federal
system. But look closely and you will discover
a fatal flaw. The letter of the Constitution as

4
well as the spirit of the present polity have
exposed the intra-State level of our federal
system to a dilemma of which the inter-State
and Union-State layers are free. The flaw has
many causes. But all of them are rooted in an
historical anomaly, that while the dynamics of
federalism and democracy have given added
strength to the rights given to the States in
the Constitution, they have worked against
the rights of panchayats.

At both levels of our federal system there is
the same tussle between those who have
certain rights and those who try to encroach
upon them if they believe they can. Thus, the
Union Government was able to encroach upon
certain rights given to the States by the
Constitution. It got away with that because
the single dominant party system, which
characterised Centre-State relations for close
upon two decades, gave the party in power at
the Union level many extra-constitutional
political levers. Second, the Supreme Court
had not yet begun to extend the limits of its
power. But all that has changed in recent
times. The spurt given to a multi-party
democracy by the overthrow of the
Emergency in 1977 became a long-term trend
later on because of the ways in which a
vigorously democratic multi-party system
works in a political society which is as
assertively pluralistic as Indian society is. It
gives political clout to all the various
segments which constitute that society.
Secondly, because of the linguistic
reorganisation of States in the 1950s, many
of the most assertive segments have found
their most assertive expression as States.
Thirdly, with single-party dominance
becoming a thing of the past at the Union
level, governments can be formed at that
level only by multi-party coalitions in which
State-level parties are major players. This has
made it impossible for the Union Government
to do much about anything unless it also
carries a sufficient number of State-level
parties with it. Indian federalism is now more
real than it used to be, but an unfortunate
side-effect is that India's Panchayati raj
system, inaugurated with such fanfare in the
early 1980s, has become less real.
By the time the PRIs came on the scene, most
of the political space in our federal system

5
had been occupied by the Centre in the first
30 years of Independence, and most of what
was still left after that was occupied by the
States in the next 20. PRIs might have hoped
to wrest some space from their immediate
neighbour, the States, just as the States had
wrested some from the Centre. But having at
last managed to checkmate the Centre's
encroachments on their rights, the States
were not about to allow the PRIs to do some
encroaching of their own.

By the 1980s and early 1990s, the only
national party left, the Congress, had gone
deeper into a siege mentality. Finding itself
surrounded by State-level parties, it had built
walls against them instead of winning them
over. Next, the States retaliated by blocking
Congress proposals for Panchayati raj in
Parliament, suspecting that the Centre would
try to use panchayats to bypass State
Governments. The suspicion fed on the fact
that the powers proposed by the Congress for
panchayats were very similar to many of the
more lucrative powers of State Governments.
State-level leaders also feared, perhaps, that
if panchayat-level leaders captured some of
the larger PRIs, such as district-level
panchayats, they would exert pressure on
State-level leaders through intra-State multi-
party federalism.

It soon became obvious to Congress leaders
that there was no way the Panchayati raj
amendments they wanted to write into the
Constitution would pass muster unless State-
level parties were given their pound of flesh.
The amendments were allowed only after it
was agreed that the powers of panchayats
could be listed in the Constitution.
Illustratively, they would be defined and
endowed on PRIs by the State Legislature
acting at its discretion.

This left the door wide open for the States to
exert the power of the new political fact that
while the Union and State Governments could
afford to ignore panchayats as long as the
MLAs were happy, the Union Government had
to be sensitive to the demands of State-level
parties. This has given State-level actors
strong beachheads on the shores of both
inter-State and intra-State federalism. By
using various administrative devices and non-
elected parallel structures, State
Governments have subordinated their PRIs to
the State administration and given the upper
hand to State Government officials against
the elected heads of PRIs. Panchayats have
become local agencies for implementing
schemes drawn up in distant State capitals.
And their own volition has been further
circumscribed by a plethora of “Centrally-
sponsored schemes”. These are drawn up by
even more distant Central authorities but at
the same time tie up local staff and resources
on pain of the schemes being switched off in
the absence of matching local contribution.
The "foreign aid" syndrome can be clearly
seen at work behind this kind of "grass roots
development".

41. The central theme of the passage can be best
summarized as
A. Our grassroots development at the
panchayat level is now driven by the "foreign
aid" syndrome.
B. Panchayati raj is firmly entrenched at the
lower level of our federal system of
governance.
C. A truly federal polity has not developed
since PRIs have not been allowed the
necessary political space.
D. The Union government and State-level
parties are engaged in a struggle for the
protection of their respective rights.
E. None of these
42. The sentence in the last paragraph, “And their
own volition has been further
circumscribed...”, refers to:
A. The weakening of the local institutions'
ability to plan according to their needs.
B. The increasing demands made on elected
local leaders to match central grants with
local contributions.
C. The empowering of the panchayat system
as implementers of schemes from State
capitals.
D. The process by which the prescribed
Central schemes are reformulated by local
elected leaders.
E. None of these
43. What is the "dilemma" at the intra-State level
mentioned in the first paragraph of the
passage?
A. Should the state governments wrest more
space from the Union, before considering the
Panchayati system?
B. Should rights similar to those that the
States managed to get be extended to
panchayats as well?
C. Should the single party system which has
withered away be brought back at the level of
the States?
D. Should the States get "their pound of
flesh" before allowing the Union government
to pass any more laws?
E. None of these
44. Which of the following most closely describes
the 'fatal flaw' that the passage refers to?
A. The ways in which the democratic multi-
party system works in an assertively
pluralistic society like India's are flawed.
B. The mechanisms that our federal system
uses at the Union government level to deal
with States are imperfect.
C. The instruments that have ensured
federalism at one level, have been used to
achieve the opposite at another.
D. The Indian Constitution and the spirit of
the Indian polity are fatally flawed.
E. None of these
45. Which of the following best captures the
current state of Indian federalism as
described in the passage?
A. The Supreme Court has not begun to
extend the limits of its power.
B. The multi-party system has replaced the
single party system.
C. The Union, state and Panchayati raj levels
have become real.
D. There is real distribution of power between
the Union and State level parties.
E. None of these

Direction (46-50): Read the given passage
carefully and answer the questions that
follow.

The world is leaning on its biggest economy to
sustain the global recovery, according to the
International Monetary Fund. The fund left its
forecast for global growth unchanged in the
latest quarterly update to its World Economic
Outlook, released Monday in Kuala Lumpur.
The world economy will expand 3.4 percent

6
this year, up from 3.2 percent in 2016, and by
3.6 percent next year, the IMF said. The
forecasts for this year and next are
unchanged from the fund’s projections in
April. Beneath the headline figures, though,
the drivers of the recovery are shifting, with
the world relying less than expected on the
US and the UK and more on China, Japan, the
euro zone and Canada, according to the
Washington-based IMF.
The dollar fell to its lowest in 14 months last
week as investors discounted the ability of
President Donald Trump’s administration to
deliver on its economic agenda after efforts by
the Republican Senate to overhaul healthcare
collapsed. The IMF estimated US growth at
2.1 percent this year and again in 2018,
consistent with what the fund said June 27 in
its annual assessment of the US 2.3 percent
and 2.5 percent, respectively, in 2017 and
2018. The economy expanded by 1.6 percent
in 2016. “US growth projections are lower
than in April, primarily reflecting the
assumption that fiscal policy will be less
expansionary going forward than previously
anticipated,” the IMF said in the latest report.
In June, the IMF said it had dropped
assumptions of a boost to growth from
Trump’s plans to cut taxes and increase
infrastructure spending. Trump’s budget
director, Mick Mulvaney, wrote in July that the
administration’s goal is “sustained 3 percent
economic growth,” and he named the
program “MAGAnomies” after Trump’s
campaign slogan, “Make America Great
Again”.
Meanwhile, as the UK works through its Brexit
negotiations, the IMF also chopped its
forecast for UK growth this year by 0.3
percentage point to 1.7 percent on weaker-
than-expected activity in the first quarter.
“This forecast underscores exactly why our
plans to increase productivity and ensure we
get the very best deal with the EU, are vitally
important,” the UK Treasury said in an
emailed statement. “The fundamentals of our
economy are strong.”
Other countries are picking up the slack. The
IMF’s projection for growth in China is 6.7
percent for 2017 – the same as its estimate
made June 14 in an annual staff report, and
up 0.1 point from April’s world economic
outlook. For 2018 the fund sees Chinese
growth at 6.4 percent, an increase of 0.2
points from three months ago. In the report,
the IMF looked for average annual growth of
6.4 percent in China during 2018 through
2020. “Rich market valuations and very low
volatility in an environment of high policy
uncertainty raise the likelihood of a market
correction, which could dampen growth and
confidence, said the fund, which also cited
China’s credit growth and protectionist
policies as threats.
While risks to the global outlook are “broadly
balanced” in the near term, medium term
risks are titled to the downside, the IMF said.
IMF urged advanced countries with weak
demand and low inflation to continue
supporting growth through monetary and
fiscal policy while cautioning central banks
against raising borrowing costs too quickly.
The fund said widespread protectionism or a
“race to the bottom” on financial and
regulatory oversight would leave all countries
worse off.
46. Which of the following statements can
definitely be concluded from the given
passage?
(i) IMF does not perceive any considerable
long term risk to global market in the short
term
(ii) IMF views China’s credit and growth policy
as a risk to global outlook
(iii) The US can perform well in global outlook
by abandoning its protectionist policies
A. Both (i) and (ii)
B. Both (i) and (iii)
C. Only (i)
D. Only (ii)
E. Only (iii)
47. Which of the following is TRUE in the context
of IMF’s growth forecast of China?
(i) An annual average growth of 6.4 percent
during 2018 through 2020
(ii) No change in its forecast for 2017 from its
Annual Staff report of June 14th
(iii) The forecast for 2018 has grown a
meager 0.2 percent from previous quarter
A. Only (ii) and (iii)
B. Only (i) and (ii)
C. Only (i) and (iii)
D. None of these
E. All of the above

7
48. IMF has cut growth forecast of UK by 0.3
percent. What does it imply for the UK?
A. It should increase infrastructure spending
and cut taxes
B. It made a mistake to withdraw itself from
Europe
C. It should work on its fundamental for faster
economic recovery
D. It should ensure best deal out of Brexit
negotiations
E. None of these
49. According to the IMF, the advanced countries
with weak demand and low inflation should-
(i) discard their protectionist policies
(ii) support growth through monetary and
fiscal policy
(iii) keep a check on rapid increase in rate of
interest by central banks
A. Both (i) and (ii) B. Both (ii) and (iii)
C. Both (i) and (iii) D. Only (i)
E. Only (ii)
50. Which of the following factors can be
attributed to the fall of dollar to its lowest in
the 14 weeks period?
A. The US’ diminishing role in global recovery
B. The emergence of Japan, China and Euro
Zone as the driver of global recovery
C. The protectionist policies of Trump
D. The inability of Trump to keep his
economic promises
E. Less expansionary fiscal policy of the US
than expected

Direction (51-54): In the given question,
two sentences with two blanks in each are
followed by five options with two words in
each. Select that option as your answer which
can fill both the blanks of both the sentences I
and II.
51. I. When deciding the term of the loan, base
your _____ on the loan’s total cost and not
_____ payments.
II. The ______ to pay the workers on a
monthly basis is very beneficial for small firms
to keep a check on their ______ profit.
A. Monthly, advance
B. Decision, monthly
C. Determine, yearly
D. Mention, pay
E. None of these
52. I. Cyber-crime is at ______ proportions and
the chance that your website, your name and
your business can be _______ affected are
more of a reality than ever before.
II. An/a _______ of smallpox resulted in the
death of a substantial portion of the native
population of this country and has _______
affected the population of the nation.
A. Epidemic, severely
B. Severely, destroyed
C. Splutter, severely
D. Sagacious, Juxtaposed
E. None of these
53. I. Wood windows will require maintenance
and re-painting to ______ appearance and
______ of the wood against rot and insects.
II. Even though they were tired mentally and
physically, the soldiers continued to ______
their duty to serve their country with _______
and honour.
A. Lurk, germane B. Maintain, Integrity
C. Garnish, Integrity D. Profess, Heft
E. None of these
54. I. The Black Student _______ is holding a
cultural _____ workshop in the media centre
on Saturday.
II. We realized that it was a _____ of people
who were against religious ____ in the
society.
A. Jocular, Adept B. Convulsion, Niggle
C. Huff, Chasm D. Caucus, diversity
E. None of these

Direction (55-58): A sentence is divided into
three parts I, II and III. For each part a
correction statement is given. Determine the
part which requires correction and mark it as
your answer.
55. Rapid economic ascendance has brought
many challenges, / including high inequality;
rapid urbanization; challenges of, /
environmental sustainability; and external
imbalances.
I. Rapid economic ascendance has brought on
many challenges
II. high inequality; rapid urbanization;
challenges to
III. environmental sustainability; and external
imbalance
A. Only III B. Both I and II
C. Both I and III D. Only II
E. Only I

8
56. The academic literature provides mixed
findings, / for the relationship among
immigration and crime worldwide, / but finds
for the United States that immigration has no
impact on the crime rate.
I. The academic literature provided mixed
findings
II. for the relationship between immigration
and crime worldwide,
III. but finds for the United States that
immigration is in no impact on the crime rate.
A. Only II B. Only III
C. Both I and II D. Both II and III
E. Both I and III
57. Fascism has many faces, but the most
constant is that the supremacist delusion that
the West is the carrier of “universal
values”/and that, as exclusive interpreter and
custodian of these values; /the West is
obligated to act upon watchdog of democracy
and human rights throughout the globe.
I. Fascism has many faces, but the most
constant is that of the supremacist delusion
that the West is the carrier of “universal
values”
II. and that, as an exclusive interpreter and
curator of these values;
III. the West is obligated to act as a watchdog
of democracy and human rights throughout
the globe
A. Both I and II B. Both II and III
C. All I, II and III D. Only I
E. Both I and III
58. Several times we sat with the new people and
tried to put together agreements / that would
accommodate the needs of both of our
peoples, / each time it was us who gave
privileges to the new people.
I. Several times we sat with the new people
and tried to put forward agreements
II. That would accommodate the needs for
both of our peoples,
III. each time it was we who gave privileges
to the new people.
A. Only II
B. Only III
C. Both II and III
D. Both I and II
E. None of these.
Direction (59-61): In the given
question, a statement with one blank,
followed by three alternatives, is given. Out of
the given three alternatives, more than one
can fill the given blank. Choose the set of
words from the given options which can be
used to fill the blank.
59. Despite having a border dispute India and
China have ______ thereby creating a
‘managed relationship’.
i. Never exchanged a bullet on the border in
the last 40 years
ii. Preserved accord
iii. Not been belligerent towards each other
A. Only i B. Only ii
C. Both i and iii D. Both ii and iii
E. All the above
60. The need for rural communities to approach
development from a wider perspective has
______ rather than merely creating incentive
for agricultural or resource-based businesses.
i. Made things difficult and more complex
ii. Been a burdensome and strenuous task
iii. created more focus on a broad range of
development goals
A. Only i B. Only ii
C. Only iii D. Both i and ii
E. All the above
61. The best way to end violence against women
and girls is to prevent it from happening in
the first place by ______.
i. addressing its root and structural causes.
ii. redressing the wounds caused by it.
iii. Curbing it wherever visible.
A. Only i B. Only ii
C. Only iii D. Both i and ii
E. Both ii and iii

Direction (62-64): In the given question,
four statements are given which are
connected in different ways in the options
given below. Determine the option in which
the four statements have been the most
appropriately expressed.
62. The weather was stormy. The fishermen had
been warned the previous night. The
fishermen were in danger. Anyone could have
got drowned in such weather.
A. The weather was so stormy that anyone
could have got drowned and the fishermen
were in danger, so they had been warned the
previous night.

9
B. The weather was stormy enough to have
the fishermen in danger as they had been
warned the previous night and anyone could
have got drowned in such weather.
C. The fishermen had been warned the
previous night as they were in danger in the
weather was stormy and anyone could have
got drowned in such weather.
D. The fishermen were in danger as the
weather was stormy as they had been waned
the previous night and anyone could have got
drowned in such weather.
E. None of these
63. Timothy was with Philip since he was a child.
Timothy was a playful dog. Philip considered
Timothy to be a special dog. Philip thought
Timothy could always protect him.
A. Timothy was with Philip since he was a
child and was considered to be special by him
who was a playful dog and could always
protect him.
B. Timothy was with Philip who considered
him to be a special dog and could always
protect him as he was with him since he was
a child and was a playful dog.
C. Timothy was a playful dog who was with
Philip since he was a child and was considered
a special dog who could always protect him.
D. Timothy was with Philip who was a playful
child and considered him to be a special dog
and could always protect him.
E. None of these
64. The situation was difficult. The girl was only
seven years old. The girl had no relative to
look after her. The financial condition too was
grave.
A. The situation was difficult and grave as the
financial condition was bad and the girl was
only seven years old had no relative to look
after her.
B. The situation was difficult as the girl who
was only seven years old had no relative to
look after her and the financial condition was
grave as well.
C. The girl was only seven years old and the
financial condition was too grave as she had
no relative to look after because the situation
was difficult.
D. The situation was grave and difficult
however the girl was only seven years old and
had no relative to look after her and the
financial condition was grave.
E. None of these
65. Direction: In the given question, there are
four statements A, B, C and D that have to be
arranged in a logical order to make a
paragraph between 1 and 6.
1) In a move that will encourage banks to
lend more for housing and possibly make
high-value home loans cheaper, the Reserve
Bank of India (RBI) on Wednesday reduced
the capital requirement for home loans.
A) The repo rate is the rate at which it lends
to banks, while the reverse repo is the facility
through which it borrows from banks.
B) It also retained the cash reserve
requirement (CRR) at 4%.
C) The RBI has also improved the lendable
resources of banks by Rs 50,000 crore by
reducing the proportion of deposits that banks
have to invest in government bonds.
D) In its monetary policy review, the RBI
retained the repo rate at 6.25% and the
reverse repo rate at 6%.
6) Significantly, however, the RBI cut its
projection for consumer inflation to 2-3.5% in
the April to September period, down from
4.5%, and to 3.5-4.5% in October to March,
down from 5%.
A. CDAB B. DABC
C. DBAC D. CBDA
E. BACD
66. Direction: In the given question, there are
four statements A, B, C and D that have to be
arranged in a logical order to make a
paragraph between 1 and 6.
1) Quaint is not an obvious word to use
about America: a country built on revolution,
restless expansion and unabashed pursuit of
profits.
A) Often physical settings added to this sense
of quaintness.
B) From Boston to Philadelphia, or to the
lovingly-restored Georgian streets of
colonial Williamsburg in Virginia many New
World candles of liberty looked strikingly like
the Old all red-brick mansions cobbled lanes
and candle-lit inns, haunted by the host in
tricorne hats.
C) Museums and historic sites depicted the
birth of the United States as a morality tale
and an Anglo-Saxon family dispute, pitting
tyrannical King George and his redcoats
against freedom-loving colonial subjects.
D) Yet for years a cloud of quaintness hung
about many of the country's founding places.

10
..

6) This can also be found in several other
regions of the great America.
A. DACB B. DCAB
C. BACD D. ABCD
E. DBAC

Direction (67-70): In the following question,
a part of the sentence is underlined. Below
the sentence alternatives to the underlined
part are given at (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E)
which may help improve the sentence. Choose
the correct alternative.

67. The Sanskrit language is of a wonderful
structure; more perfect then the Greek, more
copious than the Latin, and more exquisitely
refined than either, yet bearing to both of
them a stronger affinity.
A. is of a wonderful structure; more perfect
than the Greek, most copious than the
B. is of a wonderful structure; more perfect
then the Greek, more copious then the
C. is of a wonderful structure; more perfect
than the Greek, more copious than the
D. is of a wonderful structure; more perfect
than the Greek, more copious than a
E. are of a wonderful structure; more perfect
than the Greek, more copious than the
68. Field hockey was considered to be the
national game of India, but this had been
recently denied by the Government of India,
clarifying on a Right to Information Act (RTI)
filed that India has not declared any sport as
the national game.
A. is considered to be the national game of
India, but this has been recently denied
B. was considered to be the national game of
India, but this has been recently deny
C. was considerable to be the national game
of India, but this has been recently denied
D. was considered to be a national game of
India, but this has been recently denied
E. was considered to be the national game of
India, but this has been recently denied
69. Indian small screen programming started off
in the mid-1970s where at that time there
was only one national channel Doordarshan,
which was government owned but 1982 saw
a revolution in TV programming in India, with
the New Delhi Asian games, India saw the
colored version of TV, that year.
A. and at that time their was only one
national channel
B. and at that time there was only one
national channel
C. and at that time there was alone one
national channel
D. and of that time there was only one
national channel
E. and at there time there was only one
national channel
70. India has some of the most biodiverse regions
in the world and hosts four of the world’s 35
biodiversity hotspots – or treasure-houses –
that is the Western Ghats, the Eastern
Himalayas, Indo-Burma and Nicobar Islands.
A. India had some of the most biodiverse
regions of the world and
B. India has some of a most biodiverse
regions of the world and
C. India has some of the most biodiverse
regions of the world and
D. India has some of the most biodiverse
region of the world and
E. India has some of the most biodiverse
regions of the world or
71. Direction: In the following question, a part of
the sentence is printed in bold. Below the
sentence alternatives to the bold part are
given at (A), (B), (C) and (D) which may help
improve the sentence. Choose the correct
alternative. In case the given sentence is
correct, your answer is (E) i.e. No correction
required.
The need for conservation of wildlife in India
is often questioned because of the
apparently incorrect priority on the face of
direct poverty of the people.
A. incorrect priority of the fact of direct
poverty of the people
B. incorrect priority in the face in direct
poverty of the people
C. incorrect priority in the mouth of direct
poverty of the people
D. incorrect priority in the face of direct
poverty of the people
E. No correction required

Direction (72-75): In the given question, a
theme followed by three passages is given.
Determine which passage is based on the
given theme and mark it as your option. More
than one passage can be based on the given
theme.

11
72. Women empowerment
A) With the slogan of women empowerment,
the question arises that “are women become
really strong” and “is long-term struggle has
ended”. Many programmes have been
implemented and run by the government such
as International Women’s day, mother’s day,
etc in order to bring awareness in the society
about the true rights and value of the women
in the development of the nation. Women
need to be progressed in the number of
spheres.
B) There is a high level of gender inequality in
India where women are ill-treated by their
family members and outsiders. Women in
India are always subjected to the honour
killings and they never given their basic rights
for the proper education and freedom. They
are the victims who have faced violence and
abuse in the male-dominated country.
C) Giving priority to the gender equality
facilitates women empowerment all over the
country. To get the high-level goal of women
empowerment, it should be promoted from
the childhood in each and every family. It
needs women to be strong physically,
mentally and socially.
A. Only C B. Both A and B
C. Both A and C D. All A, B, C
E. None of the above
73. Competition in the e-commerce sector
A) All of us want to come out on top. We want
to see others subordinated to our superiority.
Our goal is to dominate. If you do not
secretly, or overtly, harbor this desire, then
you should not be in e-commerce. If you see
some good ideas, note them, and implement
them on your own site.
B) If you want to beat your competition, you
are going to have to establish the best supply
chain and maintain the best wholesaler
relationships. This does not always mean the
cheapest source. If you choose the cheapest
wholesaler or distributor, you may end up
compromising on quality or reliability.
C) The market for e-commerce solutions is
extremely competitive and we may find
ourselves unable to compete effectively.
Because there are relatively low barriers to
entry in the e-commerce market, we expect
continued intense competition as current
competitors expand their product offerings
and new competitors enter the market.
A. Only B B. Only C
C. Both A and B D. All A, B, C
E. None of the above
74. Money versus peace of mind
A) Peace of mind is the most important thing
in life, nothing can replace it not even heaps
of money. Money is just a commodity, it can
be earned as well as spent in exchange of
worldly pleasures, but peace of mind is a
state.
B) Since we have done away with the barter
system, we’ve developed various forms of
currency and coins. Money is one of the most
important factors determining one’s success
and life in today’s world. It is true that 40% of
our happiness depends on our actions. Out of
the remaining 60%, 50% is via the genes and
10% via uncontrollable factors. You can’t lose
the important 40% determiner of your
happiness for something called money, can
you?
C) Today, everyone is running: some are
running after money, some are running after
the people they love, some are running after
the situations they desire. No one is at a
stable position i.e. no one is at peace. Inner
peace reflects the peace of mind. In today’s
era, everyone is extremely busy in making
their lives perfect.
A. Only B B. Only C
C. Only A D. Both B and C
E. All A, B, C
75. Impact of Artificial Intelligence
A) Artificial intelligence today is properly
known as narrow AI (or weak AI), in that it is
designed to perform a narrow task (e.g. only
facial recognition or only internet searches or
only driving a car). However, the long-term
goal of many researchers is to create general
AI (AGI or strong AI). While narrow AI may
outperform humans at whatever its specific
task is, like playing chess or solving
equations, AGI would outperform humans at
nearly every cognitive task.
B) Autonomous weapons are artificial
intelligence systems that are programmed to
kill. In the hands of the wrong person, these
weapons could easily cause mass casualties.
Moreover, an AI arms race could inadvertently
lead to an AI war that also results in mass
casualties.

12
C) One of AI’s greatest impacts could be in
food production — an industry challenged by a
rapidly growing world population, competition
for natural resources and plateauing
agricultural productivity. The Food and
Agriculture Organization of the United Nations
(FAO) estimates that the earth’s population
will balloon to 9.7 billion people on by 2050
A. Only A B. Only B
C. Both A and B D. Both A, B, C
E. All A, B, C

Direction (76-80): Study the data given
below and answer the following question. The
pie charts shown below shows the distance
covered by a boat moving upstream and
downstream in different days of a week. And
the table shows the speed of stream in km/hr.
in different days of a week.

76. If the time taken by boat to travel upstream
on Sunday is equal to the time taken by it to
travel downstream on Thursday and the speed
of boat in still water on Thursday is 13 kmph
then find the speed of boat in still water on
Thursday?
A. 27 kmph B. 25kmph
C. 26 kmph D. 28 kmph
E. Can’t determine
77. If the time taken by boat to travel upstream

on Monday is hrs more than the time

taken by it to travel downstream on the same
day, then find the speed of boat in still stream
on Monday if speed of boat in still water is 10
kmph
A. 2.2 kmph B. 1.8 kmph
C. 2.0 kmph D. 2.5 kmph
E. Can’t be determined
78. If the speed of boat in still water on Friday
was 22 km/hr and the speed of boat in still
water on Tuesday was 10/11 times of Friday
and time taken to travel downstream on
Friday is 20/11 hrs more than the time taken
by it to travel downstream on Tuesday, then
find the speed of stream (in kmph) on
Wednesday?
A. 1.5 B. 2
C. 4 D. None of the above
E. Can’t be determined
79. The speed of boat in still water on Saturday
was 20 km/hr. if the time taken by boat to
travel downstream on Saturday is 25/32
times taken to travel upstream on Sunday,
then find the time taken by the boat to cover
a distance of 21.25 km upstream when the
speed of stream is same as that of Sunday.
A. 3 hrs. B. 2.5 hrs.
C. 4 hrs. D. None of these
E. Can’t be determined
80. If the time taken by boat to travel upstream
on Sunday is 6 hours more than the time
taken by it to travel downstream on Thursday
and the speed of boat in still water on
Thursday is 13 kmph, then find the upstream
speed of boat on Sunday?
A. 17 kmph B. 20 kmph
C. 12 kmph D. 15 kmph
E. Can’t be determined

Direction (81-84): There are three bags A,
B and C. In each bag there are three types of
coloured balls Yellow, Green and Black.
In bag A, no. of yellow coloured balls are y
and no. of green coloured balls are g. Number
of green coloured balls are 4 more than the
number of yellow coloured balls. When one
ball is picked at random then the probability

13
of getting black colour ball is , The value of

y is less then g. In bag B, number of

yellow coloured balls is more than
that of bag A. If two balls are picked at
random from bag B then the probability of

getting both green colour ball is . Total
number of balls in bag B is 75.
In bag C, the ratio of number of green
coloured balls and number of black coloured
balls is 7 : 5. Total number of green and black
coloured balls is 36. If one ball is picked at
random then the probability of getting one

yellow ball is
81. If x number of yellow balls from bag B are
taken and placed into bag A and 20% of black
balls from bag A are taken and placed into in
bag B. If we pick one ball from bag B then the

probability that the ball is of black colour is
. Then find the value of x?
A. 2 B. 4
C. 1 D. 1/2
E. 3/2
82. If one ball picked at random from each of the
bag A and bag B then find the probability that
both of the balls are of the same colour?

A. B.

C. D. None of the above
E. Can’t be determined
83. Difference between the number of green balls
in bag A and bag C is how much percent
more/less than the sum of the number of
black balls in bag A and bag C together?
A. 97.5% B. 91%
C. 75% D. 79.5%
E. None of the above
84. Ram counted balls in Bag C and Bag A but
mistakenly he counted green balls in bag B
instead of C. What is error percentage
(approx.)?
A. 3% B. 2%
C. 5% D. 4%
E. 1%
Directions (85-86): Each of A, B, C and D
need a unique time to do a certain work. A
can do the work in x days and B can do the
work in 2x days. A started the work and do it

for days then he is replaced by B and B

completed remaining work in same time as C
and D together can complete the whole work.
The ratio of the efficiency of C and D is 4 : 5.
85. If C and D work for alternative days starting
from C then they can do the total work

in days.

Then find x value?
A. 33.33 B. 66.66
C. 30 D. 70
E. 80
86. If E and F together work for 24 days then
they are replaced by A and B respectively
then they can do the remaining work in 20
days. If the efficiency of E and F is 5 : 4, If E
and F together complete the whole work then
find the difference between the work done by
E alone and the total work done by F alone ?
A. 1/7 B. 1/9
C. 1/6 D. 3/7
E. 1/3
87. ABCD is a trapezoid. PQRS and MLKJ are two
rhombus. Diagonal of PQRS are 6 cm and 8
cm. One of the angle of MLKJ is 120 degree
and the diagonal bisecting that angle
measures 15 cm. Side of PQRS = AB, side of
MLKJ = CD. Find MN (median of trapezoid)

A. 15 B. 20
C. 10 D. 12
E. Can’t determine
88. A vessel contains 2.5 litres of water and 10
litres of milk. 20% of the contents of the
vessel are removed. To the remaining
contents, x litres of water is added to reverse
the ratio of water and milk. Then y litre of
milk is added again to reverse the ratio of
water and milk. Find y.
A. 128 B. 120
C. 60 D. 30
E. 130

14
Directions (89-92): A,B,C,D and E are five
persons to complete jobs X and Y. Line graph
shows the data regarding the number of days
taken by these persons to complete the job X
and Y.

89. A and B working on job Y alternatively for 10
days. C and D worked alternatively for n days.
If 1/15 of the job is remained then how many
days c alone can finish the job?
A. 14
B. 12
C. 13
D. None of the above
E. Can’t be determined
90. If A worked on job X for 5 days each and C
worked for 3 days. the remaining job was
done by E and D. If the ratio of the number of
days for which D and E worked is in ratio 1:1,
then find the number of days for which C,D
and E worked?
A. 6 B. 3
C. 9 D. 5
E. Can’t be determined

91. If the ratio of the number of days for which D
and C worked on job Y is 12:5 and completed
the work then find the difference between
number of days for which C and D worked.
A. 7 B. 14
C. 21 D. Can’t be determined
E. All of above
92. If B worked on job Y with 4/9 times his work
efficiency and assisted by D every 3rd day
then find the number of days for which B and
D worked to complete the job.
A. 18 B. 13
C. 16 D. 12
E. None of the above
Directions (93-96): Find the correct
relationship between the given quantities:

93. Quantity 1: Find A value where S is an acute
angle and PQ||RS

Quantity 2: A=25

A. Quantity 1 < Quantity 2
B. Quantity 2 < Quantity 1
C. Quantity 1 = Quantity 2
D. Can’t establish a relation
E. None of the above
94. There are 63 cards in a box numbered from
01 to 63. Every card is numbered with only 1
number.
Quantity 1: Probability of picking up a card
whose digits, if interchanged, result in a
number which is 36 more than the number
picked up.
Quantity 2: Probability of picking up a card,
the number printed on which is a multiple of 8
but not that of 16.
A. Quantity 1 < Quantity 2
B. Quantity 2 < Quantity 1
C. Quantity 1 = Quantity 2
D. Can’t establish a relation
E. None of the above
95. Quantity 1: Number of hours in which A, B
and C can complete the work if A, B and C
alone can finish it in 25, 20 and 15 hours
respectively.
Quantity 2: Number of hours in which B can
finish the work if A working alone finishes it in
20 hours while working together they finish it
in 5 hours.
A. quantity 1 > quantity 2
B. quantity 1 ≥ quantity 2
C. quantity 1 ≤ quantity 2
D. quantity 1 < quantity 2
E. quantity 1 = quantity 2

15
96. Quantity 1: In an examination, Ankita scored
35 marks less than Puneeta. Puneeta scored
65 more marks than Meenakshi. Rakhi scored
115 marks, which is 20 marks more than
Meenakshi's. Simpy scored 108 marks less
than the maximum marks of the test. What
approximate percentage of marks did Simpy
score in the examination, if she got 67 marks
more than Ankita?
Quantity 2: The length of a rectangle is
increased by 60%. By what percent would the
width have to be decreased to maintain the
same area?
A. Quantity1 < Quantity2
B. Quantity1 ≤ Quantity2
C. Quantity1 ≥ Quantity2
D. Quantity1 > Quantity2
E. None of these
97. Directions: The question given below is
followed by two statements. You have to
determine whether the data given in the
statements are sufficient for answering the
question. You should use the data and your
knowledge of Mathematics to choose between
the possible answers.
How many students from institute 'A' got the
placement?
I. Number of students studying in institutes A
and B are in the ratio of 3:4 respectively.
II. Number of students who got placement
from institute B is 120% of the number of
students who got placement from institute A
III. 80% of the students studying in institute
B got placement.
A. I and II both B. Only I
C. Only II D. Any one of the three
E. Question cannot be answered even with the
information in all three statements
98. Direction: The question given below is
followed by some statements. Read the
question carefully and determine which of the
given statements is/are necessary/required to
answer the question.
What is the cost of flooring the rectangular
hall?
I. Length and the breadth of the hall are in
the ratio of 3:2
II. Length of the hall is 48 m and cost of
flooring is ₹ 850 Per sq.m.
III. Perimeter of the hall is 160 m and cost of
flooring is ₹ 850 per sq m
A. I and II B. I and III
C. Only III D. I and either II or III
E. Any two of the three
99. Directions: The question given below is
followed by two statements. You have to
determine whether the data given in the
statements are sufficient for answering the
question. You should use the data and your
knowledge of Mathematics to choose between
the possible answers.
What is the rate of interest Percent per
annum?
I. An amount doubles itself in 5 yr on simple
interest.
II. Difference between the compound interest
and the simple interest earned on a certain
amount in two years is ₹ 400.
III. Simple interest earned per annum is ₹
2000
A. Only I
B. II and III
C. Any two of three
D. Either I alone or II and III together
E. Either I and II or I and III
100. Direction: The question given below is
followed by some statements. Read the
question carefully and determine which of the
given statements is/are necessary/required to
answer the question.
Find the two-digit number?
I. The difference between the number and the
number formed by interchanging the digit is
27
II. The difference between two digits is 3.
III. The digit at unit's place is less than that at
ten's place by 3
A. I and III B. I and either II or III
C. II and III D. All of these
E. None of these
101. Directions: The following question is followed
by few statements. You have to study the
question and all the statements given and
decide whether the information provided in
the statement(s) is sufficient/required to
answer the question or not:
If k is an integer and x(x – k) = k + 1, what is
the value of x?
I. x < k
II. x = k + 1
III. x = 3 – k

16
A. Only statement I is sufficient.
B. Only statement II is sufficient
C. Any of the two statements out of I, II and
III are sufficient
D. All three are together sufficient
E. None of these

Direction (102-106): Study the given table
carefully and answer the questions that
follow.

Given below is a table which tells us about the
profit or loss% made on 4 items sold by 6
companies, A, B, C, D, E, and F.
Some of the data is missing in the table which
one has to calculate using the given data.

102. The ratio of the selling price of item I and II
for company A is 4 : 3. Find the profit or
loss% made on item II if the ratio of their cost
price was 8 : 9. It is known that company A
made profit on item I.

A. 12.25% profit B. 12.25% loss

C. D.
E. None of these

103. The marked price of items are same for each
company. The marked price of items are:
Item I – Rs. 2500, item II – Rs. 1750, item III
– Rs. 2400, item IV – Rs. 3200. For company
C, a discount% of 10% is given on item III
while two successive discounts of the equal %
was given on item I by company D. Find the
successive discount% given by company D if
the cost price paid by company C for item III
was equal to the cost price paid by company
D for item I. Company C made profit on item
III while company D suffered loss on item I.
A. 15% B. 12%
C. 20% D. 16%
E. 25%
104. Company F marked item IV at 25% higher
than its cost price. Selling price of this item is
Rs. 4140. Find the marked price of item IV, if
‘d’ is discount% and profit% made by selling
the item is (3d – 9)%.
A. Rs. 4400
B. Rs. 4500
C. Rs. 4680
D. Rs. 5140
E. None of these
105. The selling price of the items sold by
Company E was Rs. 2400, Rs. 2100, Rs. 1870
and Rs. 2030 in the order from I to IV. They
made a profit on items I and IV while they
lost money on item II. Find the profit or loss
made on item III if the company made an
overall profit of 5% by selling all the items.
A. Rs. 200 B. Rs. 400
C. Rs. 500 D. Rs. 420
E. Rs. 560
106. The average selling price of item I sold by
company C and company A is Rs. 3493. The
cost price of the item I for company A and
company C is in the ratio of 5 : 4. Find the %
by which the selling price of this item sold by
Company C is greater or less than the selling
price of this item sold by company A. Both
companies made profit on the item.
A. 17.2% B. 18.54%
C. 19.25% D. 20.6%
E. 21.36%

Directions (107-108): The following
information should be used to solve the
following 2 questions. The information given
in a question or the answer may be used in
the other question as the 2 questions are
linked. Please solve carefully before
proceeding:
3 partners – A, B, and C – invested in a
business through different means – cash
capital, land assets and equity certificates.
Cash invested by the 3 were in the proportion
2:3:7 respectively; land assets were invested
in the ratio 4:3:5 respectively; and equity
certificates were invested in proportion 1:5:4
respectively.

17
107. If total cash invested was Rs. 42 lakhs, total
land worth invested was Rs. 93 lakhs, total
value of equity certificates was Rs. 65 lakhs,
and all invested for the same time, then what
will be profit share of ‘A’ if the total profit at
the end of 1st cycle is Rs. 1.5 crores?
A. Rs. 45.65 lakhs B. Rs. 37.755 lakhs
C. Rs. 33.375 lakhs D. Rs. 29.895 lakhs
E. None of the above
108. In the next cycle the investments made were
doubled but in the same proportion as in the
previous cycle. However, the period they were
invested changed for this cycle. A invested for
10 months, B invested for 2.5 years and C
invested for 20 months. What is C’s
approximate profit share if the total profit this
time was Rs.3 crores?
A. Rs. 2.25 crores B. Rs. 2.50 crores
C. Rs. 1.63 crores D. Rs. 1.27 crores
E. Rs. 2.22 crores
Direction (109-110): Study the following
information carefully and answer the question
given billow:
Two trains A & B are travelling in the same
direction at a certain speed. Length of the
train A is 300 metres and the speed of the
train B is 30km/hr. The train A passes a man
who is walking at a speed of 4km/hr along the
line in the same direction as ‘A’ in 30
seconds.
109. If the train A reached the station in 15
minutes after it had passed the man. In what
time the man reached the station?
A. 1 hour B. 1.5 hours
C. 2 hours D. 2.5 hours
E. Data insufficient
110. If the train A passes the train B completely in
5.4 minutes find the length of the train B in
metres?
A. 500m B. 750m
C. 822m D. 850m
E. 600m
Directions (11-112): Study the following
diagram and convert it into other diagrams by
implementing the instructions which is given
in each step to get next step.

18
Step 1- Diagonally interchange second letter,
if box contain only one letter then consider it
as a first letter and no interchange process
takes place.

Step 2-
I) if box contain even number
a) If one letter is consonant and other one is
vowel then vowel increase by 4 values and
opposite it and consonant letter first opposite
then increases by 5 values and interchange
both positions.
b) If both letters are vowel then increases
both letters position by 5 values and
interchange their positions and opposite both
letters.
c) If both letters are consonant then
decreases both letters positions by 6 values
and interchange their positions and opposite
both letters.
d) If there is only one letter either vowel or
consonant, if letter is vowel then vowel letter
decreases by 7 values and opposite this vowel
letter and then increases by 6 values. If this
letter is consonant then increase letter value
by 7 and opposite this consonant letter and
then decrease by 6 values.
II) If box contain odd number
a) If one letter is consonant and other one is
vowel then vowel decrease by 4 values and
opposite it and consonant letter first opposite
then decreases by 5 values and interchange
both positions.
b) If both letters are vowel then decreases
both letters position by 5 values and
interchange their positions and opposite both
letters.
c) If both letters are consonant then increases
both letters positions by 6 values and
interchange their positions and opposite both
letters.
d) If there is only one letter either vowel or
consonant, if letter is vowel then vowel letter
increases by 7 values and opposite this vowel
letter and then decreases by 6 values. If this
letter is consonant then decrease letter value
by 7 and opposite this consonant letter and
then increase by 6 values.
Step 3-is coded in some special pattern

As per the rules followed in the above step,
find out the appropriate steps for the given
input and answer the following questions.

111. Which element comes in step-3 in the second
column of third row?
A. SS8 B. TE6
C. NR2 D. H7
E. None of these
112. Which element replaces IE6 in step-3?
A. NR2 B. H7
C. TE6 D. SS8
E. None of these

Direction (113-114): In the form of
inference/conclusions are based on the
passages given below. Each passage is
followed by five inferences. You are required
to examine each inference separately in the
context of the passage and decide upon its
degree of truth or falsity. Give answer
More than a decade of abrasion in budgetary
assistance and support from the Union
government, has seriously affected Indian
Railways’ capacity to finance its plan
expenditures. The situation has come to a
pass where the railways must now think of
novel and radical ways to get longer mileage
from its investments. Significantly the
resource crunch has had grievous impact on
the railways. As a result, it will not be in a
position to acquire necessary equipment and
this will seriously affect the railways’ capacity
to serve the needs of the economy in future.
113. Railways had so far believed in conventional
ways in inducing income.
A. If the inference is definitely true, i.e., it
properly follows from the statement of facts
given.
B. In the inference is probably true though
not definitely true in the light of the facts
given.
C. If the data are inadequate i.e., from the
facts given you cannot say whether the
inference is likely to be true or false.
D. If the inference is probably false though
not definitely false in the light of the facts
given.
E. If the inference is definitely false i.e., it
cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given
or it contradicts the given facts.
114. The fiscal position of railways in the earlier
plan period was better than the current plan
period.
A. If the inference is definitely true, i.e., it
properly follows from the statement of facts
given.
B. In the inference is probably true though
not definitely true in the light of the facts
given.
C. If the data are inadequate i.e., from the
facts given you cannot say whether the
inference is likely to be true or false.
D. If the inference is probably false though
not definitely false in the light of the facts
given.
E. If the inference is definitely false i.e., it
cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given
or it contradicts the given facts.

Direction (115-117): Study the information
given below and answer the questions based
on it.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are
sitting in a straight line and facing north. No
two successive persons are sitting together
according to the alphabetical order. (I.e. A
cannot sit with B, Similarly B cannot sit with
either A or C). They like different colours i.e.
Red, Blue, Black, Yellow, Brown, Pink, Silver
and White, not necessarily in the same order.
B is 3rd to the left of C who likes Blue. One
person sits between B and the one who likes
Black. E is 2nd to the right of C. The one who
likes Brown is immediate left of E. One person
sits between the one who likes Brown and the
one who likes Pink. D likes Red and sits 2nd to
the right of F. G is not neighbour of C. A

19
doesn’t like Brown. The one who likes Silver is
immediate left of the one who likes White.
115. Who among the following likes Yellow?
A. B B. A
C. E D. H
E. G
116. Who among the following is 3rd to the right of
the one who likes Blue?
A. No one B. G
C. E D. H
E. A
117. How many persons sit between B and the one
who Red?
A. 0 B. 1
C. 2 D. 3
E. 4

Direction (118-120): Study the following
information carefully and answer the
questions given below:

‘#’ – Either the hour or minute hand of clock
on 3
‘$’ – Either the hour or minute hand of clock
on 12
‘%’ – Either the hour or minute hand of clock
on 4
'@' – Either the hour or minute hand of clock
on 8
‘+’ – Either the hour or minute hand of clock
on 5
Example: Time ‘#%’ represents 3:20PM All
the times are in PM.
The first symbol represents hours and second
symbol represents minutes
118. A trains reaches station at time '% @' If it
gets late by 3 hours 35 minutes, then at what
time it reaches the station?
A. @+ B. @@
C. @# D. #+
E. %#
119. A person has to catch a train that is scheduled
at ‘@+’. It takes the person 5 hours to reach
the railway station from his home. At what
time should he leave from his home for the
railway station to arrive at the station to
reach exactly 5 minutes before the departure
of the train?
A. #@ B. @#
C. ## D. #%
E. %%
120. A train is scheduled to leave the station at
‘@@’. A person has reached the station 20
minutes before the train’s scheduled time. At
what time the person has reached the station?
A. @# B. @%
C. %@ D. %#
E. $+

Direction (121-125): Study the information
given below and answer the questions based
on it.

6 cars- M, N, O, P, Q and R are parked in a
straight line not necessarily in the same
order. Distance between each car is
successive multiple of 3 but not necessarily in
the order. The distance between car N and car
O is 36m and no car is parked between them.
The distance between car M and car O is
102m. Car R is 99m to the right of car N. Only
one car is parked between car O and car R.
Car M is parked to the immediate left to car P.
The distance between car M and car P is 12m
more than the distance between car P and car
N. The distance between R and M is more
than 60m. The distance between car P and car
Q is 93m. If car Q moves 20m to the north
then takes a left turn and moves 50m then
again takes a left turn and moves for 10m
and stops at point Z. Car A is 16m to the west
of point Z. Car A moves 66m towards west
and stops at point Y.
121. In which of the following direction is point Z
with respect to car N?
A. South-east B. North-east
C. North-west D. South-west
E. North
122. What is the distance between car P and car R?
A. 132m B. 112m
C. 126m D. 144m
E. 99m
123. Point Y is in which of the following direction
and distance with respect to car M?
A. 10m, South B. 10m, North
C. 20m, South D. 20m, North
E. 10m, North west
124. What is the distance between point Z and
Point Y?
A. 82m B. 88m
C. 84m D. 76m
E. 66m

20
125. What is the maximum distance between two
cars?
A. 171m B. 175n
C. 165m D. 163m
E. 172m

Direction (126-127): Each passage is
followed by a set of five statements. Answer
according to the directions given for each
question.

Whenever ISIS carries out a new atrocity,
whether it's beheading a group of Egyptian
Christians or enslaving Yazidi women in Iraq
or burning its victims alive, the big question
most people have is: Why on Earth is ISIS
doing this? What could possibly be the point?
Adding to your list of enemies is never a
sound strategy, yet ISIS' ferocious campaign
against the Shia, Kurds, Yazidis, Christians,
and Muslims who don't precisely share its
views has united every ethnic and religious
group in Syria and Iraq against them. ISIS is
even at war with its most natural ally, al
Qaeda in Syria. The Nazis and the Khmer
Rouge went to great lengths to hide their
crimes against humanity. Instead, ISIS posts
its many crimes on social media for global
distribution with seemingly no thoughts for
the consequences.
126. Which if the above can be safely inferred from
the above passage?
A. The ISIS is not motivated as much by
political gains and perceptions as by the
coverage its activities attract.
B. The Nazis and Khymer Rouge were large
scale terrorist organisations like the ISIS.
C. The Nazis and Khymer Rouge had very
little access to media that pervaded
boundaries since they lived in a world that
was much less connected as it is now.
D. The ISIS is at loggerheads with its natural
ally, the Al Qaeda so that it may establish
natural superiority in the region of the Levant.
E. The ISIS is a fundamentalist group that
believes that we all live in a post apocalyptic
world where concepts of right and wrong do
not matter.
127. Before the arrival of new trainer, the sales
output in AMS learning system Ltd. had been
rising by 20% per year on the average over
the past ten years. However, after new
training innovations by the trainer (which
included computerization of training processes

21
and reduction in the need for additional work
force) annual sales output has only risen by
10% this year. It appears that Joe’s
innovation has caused the reduction in the
annual growth rate.
Which of the following, if true, would most
seriously weaken the conclusion above?
A. The investment in computerization has a
provision for depreciation of the cost of the
computers
B. Increases in selling price did not follow
increases in the cost of the inputs.
C. The innovation brought in by the new
trainer were intended as long term
investments and not made for short term
profit growth.
D. General demand for the training provided
by the company has declined.
E. None of these

Direction (128-130): Study the given
information carefully and answer the given
questions.
An input-output is given in different steps.
Some mathematical operations are done in
each step. No mathematical operation is
repeated in next step but it can be repeated
with some other mathematical operation (as
multiplication can be used with subtraction in
step 1 and same can be used with addition in
step 2)

As per the rules followed in the steps given
above, find out in each of the following
questions the appropriate step for the given
input
128. What is the result of addition of numbers
obtained in step 3?
A. 96 B. 97
C. 98 D. 108
E. None of these
129. What is the result of multiplication of
individual numbers in block obtained in last
step?
A. 14 B. 16
C. 18 D. 20
E. None of these
130. What is the result of division of 2nd block and
1st block values in step 2?
A. 03 B. 04
C. 02 D. 06
E. None of these
131. Direction: In the given question, a statement
is given with some assumptions as options.
An assumption is something supposed or
taken for granted. You have to consider the
statement and the following assumptions and
decide which of the assumptions is implicit in
the statement.
Statement:
The school, which used to provide free
breakfast to ensure that the students receive
at least one proper meal a day, stopped the
facility from January as the Charity Society
which used to fund the breakfast withdrew the
support due to drop in donations.
Which of the following is an assumption
implicit in the above statement?
A. The students may not receive any proper
meal in a day from January
B. In future the donation to the Charity
Society may further decrease.
C. The donations received by the Charity
Society are used for social welfare.
D. The families either do not have the ability
to provide proper meal to their children or
ignorant of what a proper meal is.
E. None of these.
132. Direction: Each of the following question
given below consists of a question and three
statements. You have to decide whether the
data provided in the statements are sufficient
to answer the question.
There are eight persons sitting in the two
rows facing each other. In one row, person I,
J, K, M are sitting and in other row, persons
Q, S, T, U are sitting. Who faces the person
U?
Statement 1: Q is sitting second to the left of
the person U. K and J are immediate
neighbours of each other. M is at one of the
extreme ends.
Statement 2: U is sitting opposite to the
person who is second to the left of the person
K. I is sitting second to the right of the person
J. Q and T are immediate neighbours.
Statement 3: K faces Q. T is second to the left
of the person S. M is second to the left of
person T. S is sitting immediate right of Q
A. Statement I alone is sufficient to answer
the question.
B. Statement II alone is sufficient to answer
the question.
C. All the statements I, II and III taken
together are sufficient to answer the
question.
D. Neither of the I, II, III statements are
sufficient to answer the question.
E. Any of the two statements taken together
are sufficient to answer the question.
133. Directions: In each of the following
questions, a question is followed by
information given in three statements. You
have to study the question alone with the
statements and decide the information given
in which statement is/are sufficient to answer
the question.
Eight boxes A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are kept
one above another. Which of the following box
is at the bottom position?
I. Two boxes are between D and E. D is above
E. Three boxes are between E and B.
II. Box B is just above D. Two boxes are
between D and E. Box F is just below box E.
III. Two boxes are between E and G. Box C is
above box F.
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. Either I and III or II and III
D. Any of two
E. All of them
134. Read the paragraph and answer the questions
given below:
The building owners wants the rent control by
government to be removed. They say that the
rent will increase but it will be for a short
time. The increased rent will lead to more
investment in real estate and lead to more
number of residential buildings. Thus, the
increased supply will lower the rent rapidly.

22
So, removing the rent control will lower the
rent.
Which of the assumption if true will seriously
damage the argument?
A. The increase in rent is necessary due to
inflation and economic crisis.
B. The probability that income from rent will
be fully invested in more real estate and
constructions.
C. Government introduced rent control to
prevent exploitation due to lack of proper
housing especially to people migrating to
cities.
D. The demand will remain the same but the
supply will increase.
E. None of the above

Direction (135-136): Study the following
information carefully and answer the
questions given below:

Twelve persons A, C, F, H, I, J, K, L, Q, S, T
and W are sitting in two squares, such that
the larger square have middle and corners
seats. The smaller square has only middle
seats. The persons sitting on larger square
are facing towards the centre and person
sitting on smaller square are facing outside
the centre. The smaller square is embedded in
the larger one. A, who is sitting at one of
corners, is sitting second to the right of F. L
and S have only one member between them.
The one, who is sitting opposite to T, is
second to right of J. C and K are immediate
neighbors, such that one of them is sitting at
one of the middle seat. I is sitting third to the
left of Q, who is sitting at one of the middle
seat. J is not immediate member of either of
K or A. W faces K. H has same members
between him and J as between person A and
I. W is sitting second to the right of T, who is
immediate left of S, who is sitting in smaller
square. (Note: The person sitting on Middle
seat means that the person is in between two
corner seats).
135. Four of the following five are alike in a certain
way based on the given seating arrangement
and thus form a group. Which one of the
following does not belong to group?
A. L B. S
C. I D. J
E. None of them
136. Who faces opposite to the person who is
sitting second to the left of Q in smaller
square?
A. T B. L
C. S D. H
E. J

Direction (137-138): Study the following
information carefully and answer the given
questions.
There are equal number of males and females
in a family. Family members are A, B, C, D, E,
F, G & H. There are also three married
couples in the family and two of them are
children. F is the sister-in-law of G. G is the
daughter of B. A is the son of H and brother of
G. F is the mother of C. C is the niece of G. D
is the brother-in-law of A. A is the father of E.
H is the grandfather of E.
137. What is the relation of D with respect to B?
A. Son of B B. Grandson of B
C. Son-in-Law of B D. Brother-in-law of B
E. None of these

138. Who is granddaughter of H?
A. G B. C
C. E D. F
E. None of these
139. Direction: Each passage is followed by a set
of five statements. Answer according to the
directions given for each question.

The average American voter does not care
about Libya. That may sound harsh, but it’s
generally true. The average American does
however care a great deal about gas prices.
So perhaps it is no surprise that as the regime
of Moammar Gadhafi falls, American news
outlets are trying to explain the news out of
Libya within the frame of prices at the pump.
Heck, it was the first idea that came to my
mind as I thumbed through the morning
news.
Adding insult to injury is the amount of fuel
being used to conduct these fuel-based
military operations in the Middle East. A
CNN.com article pointed out recently that,
“One out of eight U.S. Army casualties in Iraq
was the result of protecting fuel convoys. A
post on Scaling Green contained a video of
FTI Consulting’s Adam Siegel recalling a chat
with Gen. Richard Zilmer. In that

23
conversation, the former commander of
troops in the Anbar province of Iraq told
Seigel, “I need renewable energy because
getting fuel to my base is putting people's
lives at risk.”
Which of the above statements can be a just
explanation for the way American news
agencies are portraying the Libyan news?
A. The general American public has several
issues closer home related to everyday
politics to worry about and does not want to
spend precious time worrying about the fall of
an African country far away.
B. American news media, as is the tendency
of the rest of the Western media indulges in a
misguided portrayal of Middle Eastern
monarchies and dictatorships.
C. Renewable energy will not require convoys
to transport it and hence save American lives.
D. With the dearth of oil in the United States,
it is but natural that the USA should look out
for its interests and use the prospect of felling
a dictatorial regime for gains in oil.
E. American news outlets are pandering to the
general public and putting the Libyan crisis in
a context that the average American can
understand.
140. Study the following paragraph and answer the
given question.
BSNL has launched its Customer Acquisition
and Customer Communication Management
(CACMS) project that digitalizes mission
critical, customer-centric business process to
provide customer experience across all
channels throughout the customer lifecycle.
Which of the following will be an impact of the
CACMS launched by BSNL?
A. To centralize the business processes to
ensure faster service, accurate customer
responses and customer delight.
B. Customer onboarding is now being
increased from hours to days
C. Customer onboarding is now being
decreased from days to hours
D. Both 1 and 2
E. Both 1 and 3

Direction (141-145): Study the following
information carefully and answer the following
questions:
There are ten exams to be conducted from 9
to 13 of a month. There are two time slots for
every day, morning slot and evening slot. The
maximum marks of these exams are from 70
to 160. The maximum marks of every subject
are unique. The time durations of the exams
is from the range of 1hr to 5hr. The time
duration is also unique for each subject. The
subjects are Math, English, Physics, Bio,
Chemistry, Economics, History, Home
Science, Geography and Accounts.
The first exam is of math and of 2hrs. The
time duration of last exam is 15 minutes more
than first exam. The exam of English is of 80
marks and on the same day of the exam of
math. Total marks of the exams of first day
are 180 marks. There are two exams between
history and accounts. The last exam is of
accounts and of 110 marks. There are three
exams between English and the exam which is
of 90 marks. The exam of physics is in
morning and it is on an even date. The exam
of 3hr and 5hr are on the same day. The sum
of timings of math and physics is 5hr. The
exam of 130 marks and 90 marks are on the
same day. The exam of chemistry is not of 90
marks. The exam of geography is of 41/2 hrs.
and on the last day. The exam of home
science is on an even date and of least marks.
The exam of chemistry is before exam of
economics. The exam of 150 marks is of
maximum time duration. The exam of
economics is of economics is of least time
duration. The sum of time duration of
economics and history is of 5hrs.The exam of
Chemistry is of 31/2 hrs. duration. The
maximum marks of physics is 30 marks less
than that of biology. The maximum marks of
41/2 hrs. exam is 30 marks more than marks
of accounts. History is of maximum marks.
The maximum marks of home-science are
least of all.
141. Which two exams are scheduled for 10th of the
month?

A. Physics and Biology

B. Chemistry and History

C. Geography and Accounts

D. History and Home Science

E. Math and English

24
142. Find the odd one out?

A. Math B. Physics
C. Chemistry D. English
E. History
143. Which of the following is an incorrect
statement?
A. Math is of 100 marks exam
B. Chemistry is scheduled on 11th of the
month
C. History is of 4 hrs
D. Accounts is of 140 marks
E. Biology is of 5 hrs
144. Which statement is correct for Economics
exam?
A. Economics is of 90 marks
B. Economics exam is on the same day on the
exam of chemistry
C. Economics exam is of 1 hr
D. The exam of economics is on 11th of the
month
E. All are correct
145. Which is the correct combination of the Exam,
time, day and Maximum marks?
A. Math – 3hr – 9th – 130 marks
B. Math – 2hr – 9th – 100 marks
C. Physics – 3hr – 11th – 120 marks
D. Geography – 4.5 hr – 12th – 140 marks
E. All are correct

Direction (146-147): Study the information
given below and answer the questions based
on it.

First 10 numbers starting from 1 is written
from top to bottom. The word “COVER” is
written in alphabetical order against each
even number from top to bottom. Two letters
are between C and B. The number of letter is
written between M and E is same as O and G.
M is written above E. Two letters are written
between V and S. (No letter is repeated
against any number)
146. If there are 2 alphabets in English
alphabetical series between alphabets written
against numbers 2 and 4. Then how many
alphabets in English alphabetical series are
there between the alphabets written against
number 2 and 1?
A. Four B. Five
C. Six D. Seven
E. Eight
147. “G” is written against which of the following
number?
A. Number 7 B. Number 9
C. Number 10 D. Number 5
E. Number 1
148. Direction: Read the short passage given below
and answer the question that follows it.
Cash is the mother's milk of crime. Its appeal
to criminals is clear. Unlike cars or paintings,
it can be concealed immediately after being
pinched. It has no security features to prevent
its being easily and anonymously spent on
legal or illegal goods. Unlike nearly any other
object that can be stolen, it needs no fence.
But a new paper from the National Bureau of
Economic Research found that electronic
payments led to a drop of 9.8% in the overall
crime rate and caused the rates of burglary,
assault, and larceny to fall by 7.9%, 12.5%,
and 9.6% respectively. The introduction of
electronic payments was also associated with
a lower number of arrests, an indication that
the crime rates decline did not stem from
more aggressive policing. The paper said that
the shift from cash to cards since 1990 debit-
card transactions have risen 27-fold, whereas
cash volume has grown by just 4% a year
may have also contributed to the decline in
crime.
148. Which of the following conclusions can
most properly be drawn from the
information above?
A. Criminals' need for cash motivates much
predatory street crime.
B. The more payment transactions are
digitized, the less opportunity for crime
C. If cash motivates crime, an absence of
cash can reduce crime
D. A cashless economy leads to a safer
society
E. Instead of cash barter system should be
reintroduced.
Direction (149-153): Study the information
given below and answer the questions based
on it.

There are 10 shelves numbered 1, 2… 10.
They are arranged in two rows one above the
other. The shelves 1, 2, ….5 are in row 1 and
rest in row 2, which is above row 1. The
shelves are arranged in increasing order of

25
number given to them. Like the shelf number
1 is placed on extreme left of row 1, then
shelf number 2 and so on. Similarly, the shelf
number 6 is placed on extreme left of row 2,
and so on. Each shelf contains a certain
number of glass slabs and photo frames.
There is at least one glass slab in each shelf.
The length of each glass slab is 16 cm and
that of each photo frame is 8 cm. The shelf 2
has length 24cm. There is one shelf between
shelf 2 and Green shelf. The Green shelf
contains 1 glass slab and 4 photo frames
more than shelf 2. The Black shelf is just
above the Green shelf. The Black shelf
contains same glass slab as Green Shelf and 2
photo frames less than Green shelf. No shelf
is between the Blue shelf and the Black shelf.
There is one shelf between Blue shelf and Pink
shelf. The Pink shelf is not at the extreme
right end. The length of Blue shelf and Black
shelf is same but Black shelf has 1 glass slab
less than Blue shelf. The length of Pink shelf is
16cm less than the Black shelf. The Pink shelf
has same photo frames as Yellow shelf. The
Yellow shelf is even number shelf in row 1.
Total length of shelf 7 and shelf 8 is 88cm.
Shelf 7 is white colour which has length more
than Pink shelf. The white shelf has same
glass slab as Blue shelf. The Brown shelf is
just below the Orange shelf.
There is one shelf between Brown shelf and
Red shelf. The Orange shelf has same number
of glass slabs and photo frames as Pink shelf.
The Brown shelf has same glass slab as Yellow
shelf and same photo frames as Green shelf.
The Violet shelf is immediate next in number
to Green shelf. The Violet and Red shelf have
same length, and both have 2 glass slabs
each. The total length of row 1 is 248cm.
149. Which of the following is the colour of shelf 6?
A. Green B. Blue
C. Pink D. Orange
E. White
150. Which of the following is the length of the
Green shelf?
A. 48cm B. 72cm
C. 40cm D. 36cm
E. 56cm
151. What is the total length of shelf 1 and shelf 2?
A. 70 cm B. 90 cm
C. 80 cm D. 100 cm
E. 88 cm
152. What is the colour of the shelf which is just
below the Blue shelf?
A. Violet B. Green
C. Red D. Yellow
E. Brown
153. What is the total length of row 2?
A. 258cm B. 242cm
C. 240cm D. 252cm
E. 262cm
154. Direction: Read the short passage given
below and answer the question that follows it.

Grilling meat gives it great flavour. This taste,
though comes at a price, since the process
creates free radicals which damage DNA and
thus increase the eater's chances of
developing colon cancer. But recent research
has suggested that to find a way around this
problem, one should add beer when
barbecuing meat. Free radicals which form
from fat and protein in the intense heat of this
type of cooking can be stopped by applying
chemicals called antioxidants which mop them
up.
154. The conclusion above would be more
reasonably drawn if which of the following
were inserted into the argument as an
additional premise?
A. Beer reduces the health risk of barbecuing
meat
B. Steaks should be left unmarinated
C. Beer is rich in antioxidants
D. Unmarinated steaks have more free
radicals than those steeped in beer
E. Steaks can be marinated under proper
climatic conditions.
155. Prabir Sengupta was born on 8th May 1963.
He has seemed 65 per cent marks in the
selection process. He has been working for
the past fifteen years in an organization out of
which twelve years as Senior Manager-HR
after completing his post-graduation in HR
with 55 per cent marks. He has successfully
implemented HR system in his organization
during the last two years.
A. The candidate is to be selected.
B. The candidate is Not to be selected
C. The data provided are Not adequate to
take a decision.
D. The case is to be referred to Executive
Director
E. The case is to be referred to Chairman.

SBI PO Mains 2017 Previous Year Question Paper with Free PDF Download Memory Based Paper-Jun 04, 2017

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