SBI PO Mains 2023 Previous Year Question Paper with Free PDF Download Memory Based Paper-Dec 5, 2023

SBI PO Mains 2023 Previous Year Question Paper with Free PDF Download Memory Based Paper-Dec 5, 2023

SBI PO Mains Memory Based Question Paper PDF (Dec 05, 2023)
Directions (Q1–Q5):
Read each question carefully and choose the correct answer.
Q1. A introduces B saying, 'His mother is the only daughter of my mother.' How is B related to A?
(a) Father
(b) Nephew
(c) Brother
(d) Cousin
(e) Son
Q2. Introducing a boy, a woman said, 'He is the son of my husband's sister.' How is the boy related to the
woman?
(a) Cousin
(b) Brother
(c) Son
(d) Nephew-in-law
(e) Nephew
Q3. P is the brother of Q. Q is the sister of R. R is the father of S. How is P related to S?
(a) Brother
(b) Uncle
(c) Grandfather
(d) Father
(e) Cannot be determined
Q4. Pointing to a man, a woman said, 'His wife is the only daughter of my father.' How is the woman
related to the man?
(a) Wife
(b) Mother
(c) Daughter
(d) Cousin
(e) Sister
Q5. Pointing to a photograph, Rani said, 'She is the daughter of my grandfather's only son.' How is the girl
related to Rani?
(a) Mother
(b) Niece
(c) Daughter
(d) Sister
(e) Cousin
Directions (Q6–Q7):
Study the coding pattern carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Q6. In a certain code, 'CASH' is written as 'FDVK' (each letter shifted forward by 3 place(s) in the
alphabet). Using the same logic, how is 'HSAC' written?
(a) CASH
(b) FDVK
(c) KVDF
(d) KVDX
(e) None of these
Q7. In the same code language, 'TRAIN' is written as 'VTCKP'. How many letters in 'TRAIN' will remain at
the same position when written in reverse order?
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) 1
(d) Zero
(e) Four
Directions (Q8–Q10):
Take the statements as true even if they seem at variance with common knowledge, and decide which
conclusion(s) follow.
Q8. Statements: Only a few cats are dogs. No dog is a rat. Conclusions: I. Some cats are not rats. II. All
rats being cats is a possibility.
(a) Either follows
(b) Only I follows
(c) Only II follows
(d) Both I and II follow
(e) Neither follows
Q9. Statements: Only a few pens are books. All books are copies. Conclusions: I. Some pens are copies.
II. All pens can never be copies.
(a) Either follows
(b) Neither follows
(c) Only I follows
(d) Both I and II follow
(e) Only II follows
Q10. Statements: Only a few phones are laptops. Some laptops are tablets. Conclusions: I. All phones are
tablets. II. Some phones are tablets.
(a) Either follows
(b) Both I and II follow
(c) Only II follows
(d) Only I follows
(e) Neither follows
Directions (Q11–Q12):
Read each question carefully and choose the correct answer.
Q11. If the letters of the word COMPUTER are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, which letter
is third from the left?
(a) O
(b) C
(c) M
(d) E
(e) U
Q12. In the word CAPITAL, how many pairs of letters have as many letters between them (in the word) as
in the English alphabet (either forward or backward)?
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2
(e) 0
Directions (Q13–Q17):
Study the arrangement carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Seven people sit in each of two rows. Row 1 (A, B, C, D, E, F, G) faces north; Row 2 (P, Q, R, S, T, U, W)
faces south, and members of the two rows face each other position-for-position (position 1 of Row 1 faces
position 1 of Row 2, and so on).
Row 1 (positions 1→7, left to right): B, E, A, G, C, F, D.
Row 2 (positions 1→7, left to right): T, P, W, S, R, Q, U.
Facing pairs: B–T, E–P, A–W, G–S, C–R, F–Q, D–U.
Q13. Who faces A?
(a) W
(b) P
(c) R
(d) S
(e) U
Q14. Who sits immediately to the right of C in Row 1?
(a) D
(b) F
(c) A
(d) F
(e) E
Q15. How many people sit between P and Q in Row 2?
(a) Four
(b) Five
(c) One
(d) Three
(e) 3
Q16. Who faces the person sitting at the extreme right end of Row 1?
(a) R
(b) U
(c) S
(d) U
(e) Q
Q17. Who faces T?
(a) C
(b) A
(c) B
(d) B
(e) G
Directions (Q18–Q22):
Study the arrangement carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Seven people A, C, E, B, G, D, F sit around a circular table facing the centre, each from a different city.
Seated clockwise: A, C, E, B, G, D, F.
Cities: A–Delhi, C–Pune, E–Kolkata, B–Mumbai, G–Jaipur, D–Chennai, F–Surat.
(For a person facing the centre, left = clockwise, right = anticlockwise.)
Q18. Who sits to the immediate left of the person from Delhi?
(a) C (Pune)
(b) D (Chennai)
(c) G (Jaipur)
(d) F (Surat)
(e) C (Pune)
Q19. Who sits third to the right of E?
(a) E
(b) B
(c) C
(d) A
(e) D
Q20. Counting clockwise from B, how many people sit between B and F?
(a) 2
(b) Two
(c) Zero
(d) Three
(e) One
Q21. Who sits second to the left of D?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) G
(d) F
(e) E
Q22. The person from which city sits to the immediate right of A?
(a) E (Kolkata)
(b) B (Mumbai)
(c) D (Chennai)
(d) C (Pune)
(e) F (Surat)
Directions (Q23–Q27):
Study the arrangement carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Nine boxes J, K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R are stacked one above another (bottom to top, as fixed by the given
clues): M → K → N → L → O → P → J → Q → R.
Q23. How many boxes are there between box P and box O?
(a) Two
(b) None
(c) 0
(d) Three
(e) Four
Q24. Which box is immediately above box K?
(a) L
(b) O
(c) N
(d) Q
(e) R
Q25. Which box is fifth from the bottom?
(a) O
(b) K
(c) O
(d) J
(e) N
Q26. How many boxes are above box N?
(a) 6
(b) Four
(c) Three
(d) Five
(e) Two
Q27. Which box is at the bottom of the stack?
(a) M
(b) J
(c) R
(d) Q
(e) K
Directions (Q28–Q32):
Study the arrangement carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U, V were born in different years: 1960, 1968, 1972, 1980, 1985, 1990, 1998.
(Older = born earlier.)
(Order eldest→youngest, fixed from the given clues: R(1960), U(1968), P(1972), V(1980), S(1985), Q(1990),
T(1998).)
Q28. Who is the eldest?
(a) V
(b) T
(c) R
(d) U
(e) P
Q29. How many people are younger than V?
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) Five
(e) 3
Q30. Who is exactly in the middle in the age order?
(a) Q
(b) V
(c) V
(d) U
(e) S
Q31. In which year was S born?
(a) 1985
(b) 1972
(c) 1980
(d) 1968
(e) 1990
Q32. How many people are younger than Q?
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) Three
(d) 0
(e) Zero
Directions (Q33–Q35):
Study the statements and decide which conclusion(s) logically follow.
Q33. Statements: A > B = C ≥ D. Conclusions: I. A > D II. B ≥ D. Which is/are true?
(a) Cannot be determined
(b) Only I is true
(c) Neither is true
(d) Only II is true
(e) Both I and II are true
Q34. Statements: A ≥ B = C > D. Conclusions: I. A > D II. B ≥ D. Which is/are true?
(a) Neither is true
(b) Cannot be determined
(c) Only I is true
(d) Only II is true
(e) Both I and II are true
Q35. Statements: A > B = C > D. Conclusions: I. A > D II. B ≥ D. Which is/are true?
(a) Cannot be determined
(b) Only I is true
(c) Only II is true
(d) Both I and II are true
(e) Neither is true
Directions (Q36–Q40):
Choose the correct answer for each question.
Q36. Which generation of computers introduced the use of microprocessors?
(a) Fourth
(b) First
(c) Third
(d) Second
(e) Fifth
Q37. RAM stands for
(a) Read Application Memory
(b) Random Application Memory
(c) Random Access Memory
(d) Read Access Memory
(e) Rapid Access Memory
Q38. Which of these is an example of an operating system?
(a) Photoshop
(b) Chrome
(c) Excel
(d) MS Word
(e) Windows
Q39. Which key is used to refresh a webpage in most browsers?
(a) F10
(b) F2
(c) F12
(d) F5
(e) F1
Q40. A byte consists of how many bits?
(a) 32
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 8
(e) 16
Directions (Q41–Q45):
Study the data carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The monthly sales (in units) of five car models are: A = 2790, B = 3090, C = 2490, D = 2990, E = 2590. (Total
= 13950 units.)
Q41. Sales of model B are what percent of the total sales?
(a) 20.15%
(b) 24.15%
(c) 27.15%
(d) 22.15%
(e) 17.15%
Q42. What is the ratio of the sales of model A to model D?
(a) 1:1
(b) 3:2
(c) 2:3
(d) 299:279
(e) 279:299
Q43. Sales of model A are what percent more than sales of model E?
(a) 7.72%
(b) 4.72%
(c) 12.719999999999999%
(d) 10.719999999999999%
(e) 2.7199999999999998%
Q44. In a pie chart of this data, what is the central angle for model D?
(a) 77°
(b) 89°
(c) 71°
(d) 65°
(e) 83°
Q45. What is the average monthly sales of all five models?
(a) 2790
(b) 2640
(c) 2890
(d) 2690
(e) 2940
Directions (Q46–Q50):
Study the data carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The monthly sales (in units) of five car models are: A = 5790, B = 6090, C = 5490, D = 5990, E = 5590. (Total
= 28950 units.)
Q46. Sales of model B are what percent of the total sales?
(a) 26.04%
(b) 19.04%
(c) 16.04%
(d) 23.04%
(e) 21.04%
Q47. What is the ratio of the sales of model A to model D?
(a) 599:579
(b) 3:2
(c) 2:3
(d) 579:599
(e) 1:1
Q48. Sales of model A are what percent more than sales of model E?
(a) 8.58%
(b) 0.5800000000000001%
(c) 3.58%
(d) 6.58%
(e) -1.42%
Q49. In a pie chart of this data, what is the central angle for model D?
(a) 86°
(b) 68°
(c) 62°
(d) 80°
(e) 74°
Q50. What is the average monthly sales of all five models?
(a) 5890
(b) 5940
(c) 5640
(d) 5790
(e) 5690
Directions (Q51–Q54):
Study the information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Out of 1030 students, three sports — cricket, football and tennis — are surveyed. Only cricket = 143, only
football = 123, only tennis = 113. Cricket & football only = 40, football & tennis only = 30, cricket & tennis only
= 20, all three = 25.
Q51. How many students like cricket (in total)?
(a) 238
(b) 213
(c) 228
(d) 243
(e) 218
Q52. How many students like exactly two of the three sports?
(a) 85
(b) 95
(c) 90
(d) 100
(e) 80
Q53. How many students like football (in total)?
(a) 208
(b) 213
(c) 218
(d) 223
(e) 228
Q54. How many students like none of the three sports?
(a) 536
(b) 526
(c) 541
(d) 531
(e) 546
Directions (Q55–Q58):
Study the information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Out of 2030 students, three sports — cricket, football and tennis — are surveyed. Only cricket = 243, only
football = 223, only tennis = 213. Cricket & football only = 40, football & tennis only = 30, cricket & tennis only
= 20, all three = 25.
Q55. How many students like cricket (in total)?
(a) 338
(b) 313
(c) 318
(d) 328
(e) 343
Q56. How many students like exactly two of the three sports?
(a) 80
(b) 95
(c) 85
(d) 100
(e) 90
Q57. How many students like football (in total)?
(a) 328
(b) 313
(c) 308
(d) 323
(e) 318
Q58. How many students like none of the three sports?
(a) 1231
(b) 1241
(c) 1236
(d) 1246
(e) 1226
Directions (Q59–Q64):
Study the bar graph data carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Number of Male (M) and Female (F) employees in five firms: P: M=183, F=143 | Q: M=213, F=163 | R:
M=263, F=213 | S: M=153, F=173 | T: M=223, F=203.
Q59. What is the total number of employees in firm R?
(a) 516
(b) 476
(c) 436
(d) 456
(e) 496
Q60. What is the ratio of males in firm P to females in firm Q?
(a) 6:5
(b) 3:2
(c) 4:5
(d) 5:4
(e) 183:163
Q61. What is the total number of female employees across all five firms?
(a) 905
(b) 885
(c) 915
(d) 875
(e) 895
Q62. In which firm is the number of females greater than the number of males?
(a) S
(b) Q
(c) T
(d) R
(e) P
Q63. What is the average number of male employees per firm?
(a) 203
(b) 205
(c) 207
(d) 211
(e) 209
Q64. Males in firm Q are what percent of the total employees in firm Q?
(a) 51.6%
(b) 53.6%
(c) 59.6%
(d) 56.6%
(e) 61.6%
Directions (Q65–Q70):
Study the bar graph data carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Number of Male (M) and Female (F) employees in five firms: P: M=283, F=243 | Q: M=313, F=263 | R:
M=363, F=313 | S: M=253, F=273 | T: M=323, F=303.
Q65. What is the total number of employees in firm R?
(a) 676
(b) 636
(c) 696
(d) 656
(e) 716
Q66. What is the ratio of males in firm P to females in firm Q?
(a) 4:5
(b) 283:263
(c) 5:4
(d) 3:2
(e) 6:5
Q67. What is the total number of female employees across all five firms?
(a) 1415
(b) 1405
(c) 1385
(d) 1375
(e) 1395
Q68. In which firm is the number of females greater than the number of males?
(a) R
(b) P
(c) Q
(d) T
(e) S
Q69. What is the average number of male employees per firm?
(a) 311
(b) 305
(c) 307
(d) 309
(e) 303
Q70. Males in firm Q are what percent of the total employees in firm Q?
(a) 49.3%
(b) 59.3%
(c) 51.3%
(d) 54.3%
(e) 57.3%
Directions (Q71–Q120):
Choose the correct answer for each question.
Q71. Repo rate is the rate at which
(a) Government borrows from RBI
(b) RBI borrows from the government
(c) RBI lends to commercial banks
(d) Banks lend to each other
(e) Commercial banks lend to RBI
Q72. SBI's headquarters is located in which city?
(a) Kolkata
(b) Chennai
(c) Mumbai
(d) New Delhi
(e) Bengaluru
Q73. Which of the following is a regulator for the insurance sector in India?
(a) NABARD
(b) SEBI
(c) IRDAI
(d) RBI
(e) PFRDA
Q74. The apex bank for agriculture and rural development in India is
(a) SIDBI
(b) IDBI
(c) NHB
(d) NABARD
(e) EXIM Bank
Q75. CRR refers to
(a) Cash Reserve Ratio
(b) Capital Reserve Ratio
(c) Cash Retention Rate
(d) Currency Reserve Rate
(e) Credit Rating Ratio
Q76. What is the full form of NPCI?
(a) National Payment Council of India
(b) National Private Corporation of India
(c) National Public Credit Institution
(d) None of these
(e) National Payments Corporation of India
Q77. Which scheme promotes financial inclusion through zero-balance bank accounts in India?
(a) PM Mudra Yojana
(b) Stand-Up India
(c) Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana
(d) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
(e) Atal Pension Yojana
Q78. Basel III norms are primarily concerned with
(a) Fiscal deficit
(b) Currency exchange
(c) Liquidity and capital adequacy
(d) Inflation targeting
(e) Interest rate control
Q79. Which committee's recommendations led to major banking sector reforms in India, including
prudential norms?
(a) Tarapore Committee
(b) Rangarajan Committee
(c) Narasimham Committee
(d) Raghuram Rajan Committee
(e) Chakravarty Committee
Q80. MCLR stands for
(a) Minimum Credit Lending Rate
(b) Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate
(c) Monetary Credit Lending Ratio
(d) Market Cost Lending Rate
(e) Maximum Credit Lending Rate
Q81. The regulator of the capital markets in India is
(a) SEBI
(b) RBI
(c) PFRDA
(d) IRDAI
(e) NABARD
Q82. Which bank is known as the 'lender of last resort' in India?
(a) EXIM Bank
(b) SIDBI
(c) SBI
(d) NABARD
(e) RBI
Q83. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) in India was enacted in which year?
(a) 2014
(b) 2018
(c) 2020
(d) 2016
(e) 2012
Q84. What is the current statutory minimum capital adequacy ratio prescribed under Basel III norms?
(a) 8%
(b) 12%
(c) 10.5%
(d) 9%
(e) 6%
Q85. Which of the following is India's first digital-only (neo) banking initiative associated with?
(a) Traditional branch banking
(b) Regional rural banking
(c) Cooperative banking
(d) Postal banking
(e) App-based banking without physical branches
Q86. SLR stands for
(a) Statutory Lending Rate
(b) Standard Lending Ratio
(c) State Liquidity Ratio
(d) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
(e) Secured Liquidity Reserve
Q87. Which institution issues currency notes in India (except the one-rupee note)?
(a) SEBI
(b) RBI
(c) NABARD
(d) SBI
(e) Ministry of Finance
Q88. The Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana provides loans to which category of borrowers?
(a) Government employees
(b) Farmers only
(c) Large corporates
(d) Foreign investors
(e) Micro and small enterprises
Q89. Which of these is NOT one of the four pillars of Basel III?
(a) Leverage
(b) Capital
(c) Funding and Liquidity
(d) Foreign Exchange Reserves
(e) Risk Coverage
Q90. The Reserve Bank of India was established in which year?
(a) 1947
(b) 1969
(c) 1950
(d) 1955
(e) 1935
Q91. Which of the following banks was India's first bank to be nationalised, way back in 1955 (via SBI
Act)?
(a) Bank of Baroda
(b) Canara Bank
(c) Imperial Bank of India (renamed SBI)
(d) Punjab National Bank
(e) Central Bank of India
Q92. What does 'KYC' stand for in banking?
(a) Key Yield Calculation
(b) Keep Your Contract
(c) Know Your Customer
(d) Keep Your Cash
(e) Know Your Credit
Q93. Which regulatory body oversees pension funds in India?
(a) NABARD
(b) RBI
(c) IRDAI
(d) SEBI
(e) PFRDA
Q94. The 'Bank Rate' is also known as the
(a) Prime lending rate
(b) Reverse repo rate
(c) SLR
(d) Discount rate
(e) Repo rate
Q95. NEFT stands for
(a) National Emergency Funds Transfer
(b) New Electronic Fund Transaction
(c) National Electronic Funds Transfer
(d) National Exchange Fund Transfer
(e) None of these
Q96. Which of the following is India's largest public sector bank by assets?
(a) Union Bank of India
(b) State Bank of India
(c) Punjab National Bank
(d) Canara Bank
(e) Bank of Baroda
Q97. What is the full form of GDP?
(a) General Domestic Price
(b) Gross Domestic Product
(c) Gross Distribution Product
(d) Government Development Programme
(e) Gross Development Plan
Q98. Which index measures inflation at the retail level in India?
(a) Sensex
(b) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
(c) Nifty
(d) Consumer Price Index (CPI)
(e) Index of Industrial Production
Q99. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of RBI has how many members?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 5
(d) 4
(e) 7
Q100. Which of the following is NOT a scheduled commercial bank category in India?
(a) Public Sector Banks
(b) Regional Rural Banks
(c) Chit Fund Companies
(d) Foreign Banks
(e) Private Sector Banks
Q101. What is the minimum paid-up capital requirement for a Small Finance Bank in India as prescribed
by RBI guidelines?
(a) ■50 crore
(b) ■500 crore
(c) ■100 crore
(d) ■1000 crore
(e) ■200 crore
Q102. Which committee recommended the establishment of Small Finance Banks and Payments Banks in
India?
(a) Verma Committee
(b) Nachiket Mor Committee
(c) Narasimham Committee
(d) Raghuram Rajan Committee
(e) Damodaran Committee
Q103. Which of the following is the regulator for microfinance institutions in India?
(a) SEBI
(b) RBI
(c) IRDAI
(d) PFRDA
(e) NABARD
Q104. What does 'ATM' stand for?
(a) Automatic Transaction Machine
(b) Auto Transfer Money
(c) Automated Teller Machine
(d) Available Teller Machine
(e) None of these
Q105. The full form of IMPS is
(a) Immediate Payment Service
(b) Interbank Mobile Payment Solution
(c) None of these
(d) Instant Money Payment System
(e) International Money Payment Service
Q106. Which organisation compiles India's foreign exchange reserves data?
(a) NITI Aayog
(b) RBI
(c) Ministry of Finance
(d) IRDAI
(e) SEBI
Q107. The Government of India's Union Budget is presented in which month (as per current practice)?
(a) April
(b) January
(c) February
(d) December
(e) March
Q108. Which of these is a direct tax in India?
(a) Excise Duty
(b) GST
(c) Service Tax
(d) Income Tax
(e) Customs Duty
Q109. GST in India was implemented in which year?
(a) 2016
(b) 2019
(c) 2017
(d) 2015
(e) 2018
Q110. Which institution is known as the 'banker's bank' in India?
(a) EXIM Bank
(b) RBI
(c) SBI
(d) SIDBI
(e) NABARD
Q111. What is the full form of SIDBI?
(a) State Industrial Development Bank of India
(b) Small Industries Development Bank of India
(c) State Infrastructure Development Bank of India
(d) Small Investment Development Bank of India
(e) None of these
Q112. Which of the following best describes 'fiscal deficit'?
(a) Excess of total expenditure over total receipts excluding borrowings
(b) Excess of exports over imports
(c) Excess of revenue over expenditure
(d) None of these
(e) Excess of imports over exports
Q113. Which of the following schemes provides collateral-free loans to street vendors?
(a) PM SVANidhi
(b) PM Awas Yojana
(c) Stand-Up India
(d) Ayushman Bharat
(e) PM Kisan
Q114. Which international body publishes the World Economic Outlook report?
(a) WTO
(b) UNDP
(c) World Bank
(d) IMF
(e) OECD
Q115. India's central bank digital currency (CBDC) is popularly known as
(a) e-Rupee (Digital Rupee)
(b) None of these
(c) Digi-Coin
(d) e-Cash
(e) Crypto Rupee
Q116. Which of the following is NOT a function of RBI?
(a) Managing foreign exchange
(b) Formulating monetary policy
(c) Regulating banks
(d) Issuing currency
(e) Collecting income tax
Q117. What is the full form of FDI?
(a) Foreign Direct Investment
(b) None of these
(c) Foreign Debt Instrument
(d) Federal Deposit Insurance
(e) Fixed Deposit Interest
Q118. Which bank was merged with Punjab National Bank in the 2020 bank merger exercise?
(a) Canara Bank
(b) Oriental Bank of Commerce and United Bank of India
(c) Bank of Baroda
(d) Indian Bank
(e) Union Bank of India
Q119. The full form of RTGS is
(a) Rapid Transfer Gross System
(b) Real Time Gross Settlement
(c) Real Transaction Gateway System
(d) Regional Transfer Gross Settlement
(e) None of these
Q120. Which of the following is the regulator for microfinance institutions in India?
(a) PFRDA
(b) RBI
(c) IRDAI
(d) NABARD
(e) SEBI
Directions (Q121–Q126):
Read the passage and fill each numbered blank with the most appropriate word from the options given.
Solar power, once considered too (A) for mass adoption, has become a viable alternative to fossil fuels.
Before falling panel costs, rural electrification (B) slow and expensive. Government subsidies now (C)
households to install rooftop panels affordably. This shift has (D) led to lower carbon emissions in several
states. Consequently, energy access (E) in remote regions, and clean energy adoption is spreading more (F)
than expected.
Q121. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (A)?
(a) copied
(b) reduced
(c) ignored
(d) revolutionised
(e) delayed
Q122. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (B)?
(a) dull
(b) useless
(c) remarkable
(d) was
(e) ordinary
Q123. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (C)?
(a) enables
(b) delayed
(c) refused
(d) forced
(e) prevented
Q124. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (D)?
(a) failure
(b) innovation
(c) mistake
(d) tradition
(e) gradually
Q125. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (E)?
(a) vanished
(b) fell
(c) rose
(d) stopped
(e) declined
Q126. Which of the following words will fit in the given blank (F)?
(a) widely
(b) hardly
(c) narrowly
(d) slowly
(e) rarely
Directions (Q127–Q133):
Each sentence is split into parts (A), (B), (C), (D). Identify the part that contains an error. If there is no error, mark
(e).
Q127. (A) One of the most / (B) important policies / (C) announced by the RBI / (D) were welcomed
widely.
(a) A
(b) D
(c) C
(d) No error
(e) B
Q128. (A) Neither the officer / (B) nor the clerks / (C) was present / (D) at the meeting today.
(a) C
(b) D
(c) No error
(d) B
(e) A
Q129. (A) The committee / (B) submitted their report / (C) to the finance ministry / (D) yesterday afternoon.
(a) A
(b) No error
(c) C
(d) D
(e) B
Q130. (A) She has been working / (B) in this branch / (C) since three years / (D) without a transfer.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) No error
(e) D
Q131. (A) The manager have / (B) approved the proposal / (C) submitted by the / (D) branch staff.
(a) A
(b) C
(c) No error
(d) D
(e) B
Q132. (A) A large number of / (B) applicants was interviewed / (C) for the post of / (D) probationary officer.
(a) A
(b) No error
(c) D
(d) C
(e) B
Q133. (A) He is senior / (B) than me / (C) by four years / (D) in this department.
(a) D
(b) A
(c) No error
(d) C
(e) B
Directions (Q134–Q138):
Choose the best replacement for the highlighted segment. If no change is needed, mark (e).
Q134. Each of the branches were audited last month.
(a) was audited
(b) No replacement required
(c) had been audit
(d) have been audited
(e) are audited
Q135. She is more cleverer than her sister.
(a) cleverer
(b) No replacement required
(c) cleverest
(d) most clever
(e) more clever than
Q136. He did not knew the answer to the question.
(a) No replacement required
(b) did not known
(c) does not knew
(d) had not knew
(e) know
Q137. The committee have decided to postpone the meeting.
(a) are deciding
(b) had decide
(c) No replacement required
(d) has decided
(e) have been deciding
Q138. The scenery of the hills were breathtaking.
(a) No replacement required
(b) was breathtaking
(c) are breathtaking
(d) were breathtaken
(e) have been breathtaking
Directions (Q139–Q146):
Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Central banks across the world have spent the past two years walking a tightrope between taming inflation
and avoiding a sharp economic slowdown.
In India, the Reserve Bank has largely succeeded in this balancing act, holding the policy repo rate steady
through much of the year while inflation gradually eased towards its target band.
Food prices, particularly volatile vegetable costs, have remained the biggest swing factor in headline inflation
readings, often overshadowing steadier trends in core inflation.
Meanwhile, robust services exports and resilient domestic consumption have helped cushion the economy
against external headwinds such as weaker global demand.
Economists now expect a shift towards a more accommodative policy stance if inflation continues to cool,
though they caution that any sudden spike in food prices could delay this shift.
Q139. What has the RBI largely succeeded in doing, as per the passage?
(a) Raising rates continuously
(b) Eliminating inflation completely
(c) Reducing exports
(d) Ending food price volatility
(e) Balancing inflation control with growth
Q140. What is described as the biggest swing factor in headline inflation?
(a) Services exports
(b) Core inflation
(c) Vegetable/food prices
(d) Global demand
(e) Interest rates
Q141. What has helped cushion the economy against external headwinds?
(a) Falling exports
(b) Weaker rupee
(c) Robust services exports and domestic consumption
(d) Higher imports
(e) Rising food prices
Q142. What could delay a shift to an accommodative policy stance?
(a) Stronger rupee
(b) A sudden spike in food prices
(c) Rising exports
(d) Falling global demand
(e) Lower interest rates
Q143. Choose the word most similar in meaning to 'accommodative' as used in the passage.
(a) Harsh
(b) Restrictive
(c) Supportive/flexible
(d) Aggressive
(e) Neutral
Q144. Choose the word most similar in meaning to 'resilient' as used in the passage.
(a) Fragile
(b) Able to recover/withstand pressure
(c) Unstable
(d) Declining
(e) Weak
Q145. Choose the word most opposite in meaning to 'volatile' as used in the passage.
(a) Unpredictable
(b) Erratic
(c) Unstable
(d) Fluctuating
(e) Stable
Q146. Which best describes the overall tone of the passage?
(a) Dismissive
(b) Cautiously optimistic
(c) Indifferent
(d) Alarmed
(e) Hostile
Directions (Q147–Q152):
Pick the pair of words that fits both blanks.
Q147. The bank's ___ decision could ___ the way customers save money.
(a) small / end
(b) old / delay
(c) minor / stop
(d) failed / ruin
(e) landmark / transform
Q148. The manager ___ the team for their ___ performance during the audit.
(a) fired / great
(b) blamed / poor
(c) scolded / weak
(d) ignored / bad
(e) praised / outstanding
Q149. The RBI's ___ stance was seen as an attempt to ___ market volatility.
(a) hawkish / reduce
(b) vague / increase
(c) aggressive / spread
(d) careless / ignore
(e) weak / boost
Q150. The government has ___ several measures to ___ the spread of the disease.
(a) delayed / boost
(b) taken / increase
(c) introduced / curb
(d) ignored / stop
(e) removed / spread
Q151. Rising fuel costs have ___ transport expenses, which could ___ inflation further.
(a) increased / fuel
(b) hidden / control
(c) erased / calm
(d) reduced / lower
(e) frozen / stop
Q152. Despite his ___ efforts, he failed to ___ the judges.
(a) weak / please
(b) sincere / impress
(c) poor / satisfy
(d) lazy / convince
(e) honest / annoy
Directions (Q153–Q155):
Five sentences (A–E) form a paragraph on the given topic. Rearrange them in the correct order and answer the
questions.
A. Attackers increasingly target third-party vendors rather than banks directly.
B. Even so, experts warn that no system can guarantee complete protection.
C. Banks are investing heavily in real-time fraud detection systems as a result.
D. Regulators have responded by tightening vendor risk-management guidelines.
E. Cybersecurity threats to banking infrastructure have grown more sophisticated in recent years.
Q153. Which is the FIRST sentence?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) A
Q154. Which is the SECOND sentence?
(a) D
(b) C
(c) E
(d) B
(e) A
Q155. Which is the THIRD sentence?
(a) B
(b) E
(c) C
(d) A
(e) D
Descriptive Test
Task 1: Letter/Essay Writing (25 Marks)
Write a letter to the branch manager of your bank requesting the reversal of a wrongly levied penal charge on
your savings account, providing transaction details and requesting urgent resolution. (Alternatively, write a
200-250 word essay on: 'The Role of Digital Banking in Financial Inclusion.')
Task 2: Precis Writing (25 Marks)
Write a precis (in about one-third the original length) of a given passage on the impact of digital banking
adoption on rural financial inclusion in India, giving it a suitable title.

SBI PO Mains 2023 Previous Year Question Paper with Free PDF Download Memory Based Paper-Dec 5, 2023

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