SBI PO Prelims 2019 Previous Year Question Paper with Free PDF Download Shift 2 Memory Based Paper-Jun 09, 2019

SBI PO Prelims 2019 Previous Year Question Paper with Free PDF Download Shift 2 Memory Based Paper-Jun 09, 2019

Direction (1 – 3) : A number
arrangement machine when given an
input line of numbers rearranges them
following a particular rule in each step.
The following is an illustration of input
and rearrangement.
Input: 734269 825497 647538 219354
961357 321658
Step I: 962437 794528 465783 123945
753169 236185
Step II: 123945 236185 465783 753169
794528 962437
Step III: 135924 135268 357468 135796
579248 379246
Step IV: 3458 31048 152848 33554
351832 211824
Step V: 20 16 28 20 22 18
Step V is the last step of the
rearrangement. As per the rules followed
in the above steps, find out in each of the
following questions the appropriate steps
for the given input.
Input: 856347 745982 329584 512379
954267 463512

1. If 20 is related to 28 in step V and
973215 is related to 743658 in step II. In
the same way, in step III, 579248 is
related to __.
A. 135246
B. 357468
C. 579246
D. 359248
E. None of the above

2. What is the difference between the
second element from the left end in step
II and second element from the right end
in step IV?
A. 156723
B. 118964
C. 127704
D. 138567
E. 102488

3. Which element is third to the right of
second element from the left end in Step
IV?
A. 33518
B. 31024
C. 351832
D. 351824
E. 151832
Direction (4 – 6) : Study the following
data carefully and answer the questions
accordingly.
7 People A, C, F, J, N, R and V, all related
to V in some way are facing North. J sits
3rd from the extreme end. V’s father sits
second to the right of J. Only 3 people are
there between V’s father and V’s sister.
As many people sit to the left of V’s sister
as to the right of V’s mother. Only one
person sits between N and V’s mother. N
is the son of C. A sits third to the right of
C. C is the father of R. F sits to the
immediate right of R. V’s wife sits second
to the left of V.

4. How many people sit to the right of V?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
E. Five

5. Who sits second to the left of V?
A. C
B. R
C. A
D. J
E. N

6. How is N related to A?
A. Father
B. Father in law
C. Mother
D. Sister
E. Can’t be determined

Direction: Study the following data
carefully and answer the questions
accordingly.
7. A & B → A is 15 m to the north of B
A @ B → A is 23 m to the east of B
A # B → A is 20 m to the south of B
A % B→ A is 12 m to the west of B
If P % Q # R & S @ T # U, V @ U, then
what is the distance between V and Q?
A. 20 m
B. 25 m
C. 30 m
D. 15 m
E. 35 m

2
Direction (8 – 10) : Study the following
data carefully and answer the questions
accordingly.
The following words are coded in this
manner:
‘Words make sentences meaningful’ is
coded as 8 $ A, 2!R, 6#C, 14 $ F
‘Rain stops every week’ is coded as 2^E,
2#O, 8+A, 8!E
‘Eagerly receives ___(a)___’ is coded as
12%R, 4^R, 12+V
‘Rarely prepares tasty food’ is coded as
12%R, 2~S, __(b)__, 8 @ O

8. What is the code for ‘every motivated’?
A. 5#F 6 @ R
B. 2^E 6 $ T
C. 6#F 8 $ D
D. 5 $ F 7 @ E
E. 7 @ R 5%R

9. What will come in the blank ‘(a)’?
A. Prepares
B. Rarely
C. Tasty
D. Food
E. Eagerly

10. What will come in the blank ‘(b)’?
A. 5 $ F
B. 8*D
C. 10+E
D. 7#D
E. 9^Y

Direction (11 – 12) : Study the
following data carefully and answer the
questions accordingly.
The following codes are used:
clubs (♣), diamonds (♦), hearts (♥)
and spades (♠)
A♥B means A is to the North of B.
A♣B means A is to the South of B.
A♠B means A is to the East of B.
A♦B means A is to the West of B.
There are 3 buses travelling from Z to Y.
Bus 1: K 16♦ Z, J 10♣ K, M 9♦ J, D
18♥ M, C 29♠ D, P 9♥ C, Y 4♦ P
Bus 2: E 35♣ Z, F 6♦ E, G 13♥ F, H
19♦ G, K 39♥ H, Y 25♠ L
Bus 3: N 32♠ Z, Q 4♥ N, S 8♦ Q, T
4♥ S, C 20♦ T
11. What is the distance between D & T?
A. 57 m
B. 65 m
C. 45 m
D. 49 m
E. None of these

12. What is the direction of H with respect
to M?
A. South
B. North
C. South-East
D. South-West
E. Can’t be determined

Direction (13 – 15) : Study the
following data carefully and answer the
questions accordingly.
There are 8 people standing in 2
concentric square grounds. Four of them
are standing in the outer ground facing
inwards and four of them are standing in
the inner ground facing outwards. All are
standing in the middle of the side of the
square. There are 4 couples.
Q is to the immediate right of T. Q faces
V. There is only one person between V
and R’s husband. W faces the immediate
neighbour of R. W is not the spouse of T.
P neither faces W nor R. S is the
immediate neighbour of P. P faces the
center.

13. Who is the spouse of U?
A. W
B. V
C. S
D. P
E. Can’t be determined

14. Who among the following are the
immediate neighbours?
A. QR
B. PW
C. VW
D. SV
E. None of these

15. Who sits second to the right of T?
A. U
B. R
C. Q
D. V

3
E. W

Direction: In the question below is given
a statement followed by three
assumptions numbered I, II and III. An
assumption is something supposed or
taken for granted. You have to consider
the following assumption and decide
which of the assumption is implicit in the
statement.

16. Statement: Prime Minister Narendra
Modi on February 24 will launch the Rs
75,000-crore Pradhan Mantri Kisan
Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) scheme in
Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh, by transferring
the first of the three installments of Rs
2,000 each to over one crore farmers
having cultivable land up to two hectares.
Another one crore farmers will be covered
in the next 2-3 days.
Assumptions:
I. The central government had
announced the PM-KISAN scheme under
which Rs 6,000 per year will be given in
three installments to small and marginal
farmers holding cultivable land up to two
hectares.
II. The scheme has been made effective
from this fiscal itself and as a result,
farmers would get one installment before
March-end. This programme is part of the
government's effort to address farm
sector distress.
III. To provide an assured income
support to the small and marginal
farmers, the government is launching the
Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-
KISAN).
A. Only II is implicit
B. All I, II and III are implicit
C. None is implicit
D. Only I is implicit
E. Only III is implicit

Direction: In each question below is
given a statement followed by three
assumptions numbered I, II and III. An
assumption is something supposed or
taken for granted. You have to consider
the following assumption and decide
which of the assumption is implicit in the
statement.
17. Statement: The Indian authorities
have allowed commercial operations to all
the airports that were shut after a few
fighter jets of the Pakistani Air Force
entered the Indian side of Kashmir. The
authorities had informed all airlines that
airports near the Jammu & Kashmir
region and Dehradun have been closed.
Assumptions:
I. The Pakistani Air Force entered into the
Indian side of Kashmir after the Indian Air
Force entered the Pakistani territory and
bombed a terrorist training centre in
Pakistan.
II. Several airline executives confirmed
that the government has informed them
that flights to Jammu, Srinagar, Leh,
Amritsar, Dehradun & Dharamshala have
been suspended ‘till further notice.’
III. One official added that no Notice to
Airmen (NOTAM) has been issued yet. It
is a notification to the government that
the airlines have received, the source in
the know said.
A. None is implicit
B. Only I is implicit
C. Both II and III are implicit
D. Only III is implicit
E. Only II is implicit

Direction: In the question below, are
given a statement followed by three
courses of actions numbered I, II and III.
On the basis of the information given, you
have to assume everything in the
statement to be true, and then decide
which of the suggested courses of action
logically follow(s) for pursuing.

18. Statement: Early-stage startups and
small businesses in India have been
shying away from hiring women after the
government increased paid maternity
leave in 2017, a survey shows. An
amendment to the Maternity Benefits Act,
passed in March 2017, raised paid
maternity leave for women from 12
weeks to 26 weeks, benefitting 1.8
million women workers in the organised
sector. The law applies to all
establishments employing 10 or more
people, and the entitlement applies only
up to the first two children. LocalCircles,

4
a citizens’ forum which surveyed 9,000
early-stage startups and small
businesses, said hiring women who will
avail of maternity benefits, which
includes six months’ paid leave, has
turned into a significant economic burden
for startups that typically run on
shoestring budgets. In the survey, 46%
of the respondents said they hired mostly
male employees in the last 18 months.
Courses of action:
I. While the government late last year
said it will refund employers for seven
weeks of pay given to an employee on
maternity leave, startups and SMEs said
it isn’t enough to cover the cost. As per
the survey, 65% of the respondents said
that even 19 weeks of pay would be too
much for them to absorb.
II. According to the latest Monster Salary
Index report, women still earn 19% less
than their male counterparts in India.
This gap has decreased by 1% from last
year. Further, the report adds that
women-led businesses received only 65%
of the funding secured by male-led ones.
III. However, not all small startups agree
that maternity benefits need to be
scrapped. Rohan Shravan, founder of AI
startup Inkers Technology said that
among his team of nine employees, three
are women, and unlike many firms of its
size, they even offer extended paternity
leave benefit to employees.
A. All follow
B. Neither I nor III follows
C. Only I follows
D. None follows
E. Only III follows

Direction (19 – 22) : Study the given
information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Ten boxes P, Q, R, S, T, A, B, C, D and E
are arranged in a stack from top to
bottom (where the one at the bottom is
numbered as 1 and the one at the top is
numbered as 10 ) but not necessarily in
the same order. Boxes which are kept at
even-numbered position contain different
fruits such as apple, pear, orange, litchi
and kiwi.
Two boxes are kept between the box
which contains orange and Box A. The
box which contains orange is kept at
either 8th or 10th position in the stack. Box
R is kept above Box P but below Box S.
Total number of boxes which contain
fruits below and above the box which
contains kiwi is the same. Box A is above
Box T but not immediately above. The
number of boxes kept between box A and
Box T is same as the number of boxes
kept between box T and Box D. The box
which contains pear is kept above the box
which contains litchi. Box C is kept
immediately above Box Q. Only three
boxes are kept between box E and Box D
where Box E is kept above box D. Box D
doesn’t contain Kiwi. The box which
contains apple is kept below Box T but not
immediately below. Neither box R nor box
Q contains Pear. Box B contains apple.
The box which contains orange is not kept
immediately above Box E.

19. How many boxes are kept between
Box C and the box which is kept at fourth
from the bottom?
A. Three
B. Four
C. More than four
D. Two
E. None of these

20. Which fruit is contained by T?
A. Litchi
B. Kiwi
C. Apple
D. Orange
E. None

21. What is the position of Box S from the
top of the stack?
A. First
B. Second
C. Fourth
D. Third
E. Sixth

22. Which of the following can be said for
the box R?
I. Box R contains Kiwi.
II. Box R is kept immediate above E.

5
III. Box R is kept exactly between Box A
and Box T.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Only III
D. Both I and II
E. None of the above

Direction: The question consists of a
question and three statements numbered
I, II and III given below. You have to
decide whether the data provided in
which of the statements are sufficient to
answer the question. Choose your answer
from the options based on this.

23. Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and
H are staying on an eight-storey building.
Lowermost floor is numbered 1 and the
topmost floor is numbered 8. Who among
the following lives on the bottom floor?
I. B lives 3 floors above F. G lives just
above B. One person lives between B and
A.
II. A lives on an odd-numbered floor. C
lives two floors below A.
III. E lives just above D. Two persons live
between D and H.
A. I and II
B. II and III
C. Either I and III or II and III
D. Any of two
E. All of them

Direction (24 – 27) : Study the
information given below and answer the
questions based on it.
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I are nine people
standing in 3 parallel rows facing north,
in such a way that there is an equal
distance between adjacent persons. Each
row contains three positions. They speak
different language Hindi, Marathi,
Gujarati, English, Tamil, and Telugu.
1) I, D and G are standing in 3 different
rows and they all speak a different
language.
2) One who speaks Gujarati is immediate
left of the one who speaks Marathi in
Row-1.
3) There are 3 students who can speak
English and all are standing in different
rows.
4) H is standing in row-1 and speaks
English. Also, he is at the right end.
5) G speaks neither Hindi nor English and
speaks only that language which is not
spoken by any other student.
6) One who speaks Tamil is in Row-2 and
is diagonally opposite to the one who
speaks Hindi and Telugu in Row-3.
7) One who Speaks Telugu in row-2 is in
parallel to the students who speak
Gujarati in row-1 and Hindi in row-3.
8) B is the only one who speaks Gujarati
and is diagonally opposite to A. I is in the
second row and D cannot speak English.
9) In Row-3 F is on the extreme right end.
And He finds no difficulty to talk to E.

24. Who is standing in the middle of row-
3?
A. B
B. D
C. C
D. A
E. H

25. Who is immediate neighbour of the
one who speaks English in Row-2?
A. E
B. A
C. I
D. F
E. C

26. Who is not standing in row-2?
A. A
B. C
C. I
D. E
E. None of these

27. Who does not speak English?
A. H
B. A
C. D
D. C
E. None of these

Direction (28 – 29) : Read the given
passage below and answer the questions.
Amid a changing environment, with
natural homes of birds getting depleted
as natural forests make way for
plantations and other such modified

6
terrains, comes the good news of how the
great Indian hornbill adapts to such
change. A group of researchers from
NCBS-TIFR in Bengaluru and Nature
Conservation Foundation in Mysuru
observed eight hornbill nests, three
located in contiguous forests and five
located in modified habitats such as
coffee plantations. They found that the
birds followed similar nesting behaviour
but adapted to the changing
environment. The team chose to study
the great Indian hornbills nesting in the
Anamalai hills. For comparison, the
researchers located the study in the
modified habitat in the Valparai plateau
and the contiguous forests in the
Anamalai Tiger Reserve and the
Vazhachal Reserve forests. The modified
habitat included tea, coffee and
cardamom plantations, and tribal
settlements.

28. Which of the following is not an apt
conclusion on the basis of the information
provided?
A. Some of the nests were discovered
during the study with the help of local
tribal assistants.
B. Great hornbills may adapt to habitat
modification provided that their key
requirements for food and nesting are
fulfilled in the habitats like coffee and
forest fragments.
C. Considering that hornbills use same
nest over years, protection of these
known nest trees and retention of large
trees that can be potential nests is
absolutely essential.
D. None of the above.
E. All of the above.

29. Which of the following is/are a
suitable course of action in lieu of the
information provided?
A. Hornbills are secondary cavity nesters
and choose cavities formed in large trees
for nesting. Also, they are monogamous,
and the female, after copulation, seals
herself in the hole until the initial
breeding period of two-four months is
over.
B. The team also highlighted the potential
of rainforest fragments and coffee
plantation for conservation of hornbills
outside of protected areas.
C. In addition, it is necessary to have a
diversity of native tree species,
particularly figs, laurels and other food
plants.
D. Along with other threats such as
hunting, modified land use, ensuing
forest fragmentation, felling of large trees
with the potential for nesting, the loss of
fruit bearing trees could also affect
hornbill nesting habits.
E. Considering that hornbills use same
nest over years, protection of these
known nest trees and retention of large
trees that can be potential nests is
absolutely essential.

30. Direction: Study the information
given below and answer the questions
based on it.
Revenue growth at mid-tier IT services
firms such as Hexaware, Zensar, Mphasis
and L&T Infotech is set to pick up,
boosted by strong deal wins as they see
customers keen to invest more in
technology projects. While they are
projected to outpace large rivals such as
Infosys and Wipro in growth, the pressure
on their margins is likely to be higher.
Which of the following can be logically
inferred from the above information?
A. All indicators show that these mid-tier
IT service firms will again grow better
than industry average in FY2020. Their
pipeline is better than last year. They are
growing both existing accounts and
getting new logos and deals especially in
the last quarter.
B. It is broad-based growth, across
geographies, verticals and service lines,
unlike their large peers where we see
softness in a few geographies and
verticals.
C. Mid-tier companies are sharpening
their overall strategy, by increasing focus
on certain markets and businesses than
spread thin.
D. While these firms are growing fast,
their margins continue to be under
pressure. The pricing pressure in the

7
traditional segment can erode their
margins further.
E. All can be inferred.

Direction (31 – 34) : Study the
following information carefully and
answer the given questions.
Six persons i.e. M, N, O, P, Q and R who
all are sitting around a hexagonal table
facing towards the center. They all are of
different height and weight such that the
one who is the tallest is not the lightest
among all. They all are of different age
i.e. 14, 22, 28, 30, 35 and 60 but not
necessarily in the same order.
The one who is the heaviest among all sits
third to the right of N, who is 60 years of
age. The one who is twice the age of Q is
the third lightest among all. The one who
is 35 years of age is the second tallest,
who sits second to the right of Q, who is
not the immediate neighbour of N. Only
one person sits between N and the one
who is the third heaviest among all, who
is 14 years of age. The one who is
younger than Q is not the lightest. Q is
shorter than only two people. O's age is
half the age of M. M sits third to the right
of the one who is the shortest in height
among all. The one who is older than P is
taller than Q. The one who is 30 years old
is the heaviest among all. The one who
sits opposite to R is the second heaviest
among all. R sits second to the right P. M
is taller than the one who is 14 years old.
31. Who among the following faces P?
A. M
B. O
C. N
D. Q
E. R

32. Who among the following is the third
lightest person?
A. M
B. R
C. N
D. O
E. Q

33. Four of the following five are alike in
a certain way and hence form a group.
Find the one that does not belong to the
group.
A. O
B. Q
C. R
D. N
E. P

34. Who among the following is the
shortest person in this group?
A. O
B. R
C. P
D. N
E. Q

Direction: The question below consists
of a question and two statements
numbered I and II given below it. You
have to decide whether the data provided
in the statements are sufficient to answer
the question.

35. Among M, N, O, P, Q and R, who got
the highest salary?
I. O got more salary than only two
persons. N got more salary than M but not
the highest. Q got more salary than only
R.
II. M got less salary than only two
persons. Q got a higher salary than R but
less than O. O got less salary than M. N
got less salary than P.
A. The data in statement II alone are
sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement I alone is not
sufficient to answer the question
B. The data even in both statements I and
II together is not sufficient to answer the
question
C. The data either in statement I alone or
in statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question
D. The data in statement I alone are
sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in statement II alone is not
sufficient to answer the question
E. The data in both statements I and II
together is necessary to answer the
question

8
Direction : Study the information given
below and answer the questions based on
it.
There are 6 persons in a list A, B, C, D, E
and F. They got different marks in an
examination. C got more marks than D
but less than B. E got more marks than F
and F got the least marks among them.
The one who got the highest marks got
400 marks and the one who got the least
marks got 60 marks. The one who got the
highest marks, his position in the list is
number 1 and the one who got the least
marks, his position in the list is number
6.

36. If A got 400 marks and E’s position in
the list is 2nd last and the persons who got
last 3 positions in the list, their average
marks is 95, then what will be the total
marks of D and E together?
A. 245
B. 235
C. 225
D. 200
E. None of these

Direction (37 – 39) : Study the
following information carefully and
answer the questions given below.
There are five vehicles of different types
viz., Bus, Van, Bike, Truck and Jeep in a
garage but not necessarily in the same
order. They are serviced at different
timing in a single day. The duration of
their servicing in the garage may or may
not be different. The total duration of the
servicing in the garage by the mechanic
is of 11 hours. There is no gap between
the servicing time of all vehicles. The
duration of servicing is either a full hour
or half an hour but not in one third or one
fourth. The van was serviced in the
garage from 12:30 pm to 3 pm. Jeep was
taken for servicing immediately after the
Van. The servicing hour of Jeep in the
garage is three hours. The duration of
servicing of Truck is more than the
duration of servicing of Bike in the garage
by 1 hour. Truck was serviced just after
the servicing of Bike. The truck was not
serviced at the last. The bus was serviced
in the garage before Van but not
immediately before. The duration of
servicing of the bus is of 1.5 hours. The
servicing of the bike is after 6:00 am.

37. Which among the following was
serviced from 3:00-6:00 pm?
A. Bus
B. Bike
C. Truck
D. Jeep
E. Van

38. Which among the following was
serviced just after bus?
A. Truck
B. Bike
C. Van
D. Jeep
E. None of these

39. What is the duration (in hours) of the
Bike’s servicing?
A. 2.5 hour
B. 3 hour
C. 3.5 hour
D. 1.5 hour
E. 2 hour

Direction: The question given below
consists of a statement, followed by three
arguments numbered I, II and III. You
have to decide which of the arguments
is/are ‘strong’ arguments and which
is/are ‘weak’ arguments and accordingly
choose your answer from the alternatives
given below each question.
40. Statement: India has conveyed to
Russia that it will not be part of the
project now to develop a fifth-generation
fighter aircraft (FGFA) and may join the
programme at a later stage, according to
Defence Minister Nirmala Sitharaman. It
was conveyed to Russia that they can go
ahead with the project and we may join it
at a later stage.
Which among the following arguments
support the above statement in the best
possible manner?
Arguments:
I. India and Russia had signed an inter-
governmental agreement for the mega
project in 2007, vowing to take the

9
military ties between the two strategic
partners to the next level.
II. However, the project has been stuck
for the last 11 years as there have been
serious differences between the two sides
on sharing the cost of developing the jet,
technologies to be used in it and number
of aircraft to be produced.
III. The government is adopting a layered
approach to achieve the final goal of
theatre command and that the thrust was
on a bottom-up approach.
A. None is strong.
B. Only III and II are strong.
C. Only III is strong.
D. All except III and I are strong.
E. All are strong.

41. After GST and demonetisation, rising
interest rates are set to hurt SMEs.
Interest rates for loans against property
(LAP) extended to small and medium
sized enterprises (SMEs) are set to rise in
the coming months of 2018 ‘ Rising
interest rates, in addition to the muted
operating environment for small
businesses in India, will lead to an
increase in delinquencies on LAP
extended to SMEs’. The introduction of
the goods and services tax (GST) in July
2017 and the government's
demonetization policy have placed stress
on the SME sector, which rising interest
rates will exacerbate.
Which of the following can be logically
inferred from the statement above?
A. In addition to rising delinquencies over
the last few years would force lenders to
be more cautious while underwriting
loans. This would limit refinancing
options, adversely affecting existing
borrowers.
B. But losses will be limited because these
loans are secured and have relatively low
loan-to-value ratios.
C. Rising interest rates will limit
refinancing options and increase
repayment amounts, increasing risks for
asset backed securities (ABS) backed by
LAP to SMEs.
D. The ABS (asset backed securities)
backed by LAP extended to SMEs have
non-amortizing cash reserves,
substantial excess spread and the
possibility to extend the life of the loans
and hence the life of the transactions.
E. None can be inferred.

Direction: Two statements are followed
by three conclusions I, II and III. You
have to consider the statements to be
true, even if they seem to be at variance
from commonly known facts. You have to
decide which of the given conclusions can
definitely be drawn from the given
statements and indicate your answer
accordingly.

42. Statements:
I. The world’s largest bee — a giant insect
roughly the size of a human thumb — has
been rediscovered in a remote part of
Indonesia in its first sighting in nearly 40
years, researchers said.
II. Despite its conspicuous size, no one
had observed Wallace’s giant bee —
discovered in the 19th century by British
naturalist Alfred Russel Wallace.
Conclusions:
I. Several previous expeditions to the
region where the bee lives failed to spot
it.
II. Indonesia is home to an abundant
variety of flora and fauna but there are
fears for some animal and insect
communities as forests being cut down
for agriculture threaten many species’
natural habitat.
III. The bee which lives in the Indonesian
island region of North Moluccas, makes
its nest in termite mounds, using its large
fang-like mandibles to collect sticky resin
to protect its home from the termites.
A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Both conclusions II and III follow
C. Only conclusion III follows
D. Only conclusion II follows
E. Both conclusions I and II follow

Direction: Study the following
information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
Six people i.e. L, M, N, P, R and S are
sitting around a triangular table but not
necessarily in the same order. Three of
them sit at the corner of the table and

10
three of them sit in the middle of the side.
Some of them are facing inside the table
and some of them are facing outside the
table. Not more than two persons sit
adjacent to each other who are facing the
same direction. Two persons sit between
R and P. P faces inside. S sits second to
the right of R. L faces the opposite
direction to R. Only one person sits
between N and S who does not sit at the
corner of the table. M and N face the
same direction as P. M sits 2nd to the left
of L.

43. Four of the following five are alike in
a certain way and hence from a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to
that group?
A. R
B. M
C. N
D. P
E. L

44. Who amongst the following sits
second to the right of the one who sits
third to the left of N?
A. R
B. L
C. P
D. S
E. None of these

45. How many persons sit between S and
N when counted from the right of N?
A. Three
B. Two
C. One
D. None
E. None of these

Direction (46 – 47) : In the following
questions 3 series are given. You have to
find the value of a, b and c by identifying
the pattern of the series and then you
have to establish the relation among a, b
and c?
46. I. 1, 601, 721, 751, a, 766
II. 753, 769, b, 765, 763, 764
III. 23, 24, 50, 153, c, 3085
A. a > b = c
B. a = b > c
C. a = b < c
D. a > b < c
E. None of these

47.I. 102, 107, 117, 134, a
II. 130, 115, 135, 110, b
III. c, 80, 120, 300, 1050
A. b < a = c
B. b > a = c
C. b = a > c
D. b = a < c
E. None of these

Direction (48 – 50) : Study the
following information carefully and
answer the given questions:
In the diagram, Population Density (in
population per square kilometer) and
Land Area (in square kilometer) of 4
villages A, B, C and D for the year 2001
is given.
Population Density of a village = Total
population of the village / Area (in square
km) of the land of the village
Gender Ratio of a village = (Total number
of males in a village/Total number of
females in a village) × 100

48. Gender ratio of village C is 125 less
than that of A . If female population of
villages A and C are equal, then find the
male population in village A
A. 1600
B. 2400
C. 4400
D. 2500
E. None of these

49. If population of female in village D
was 4000, then what is the gender ratio
of village D?
A. 120
B. 60

C. 71

11
D. 120
E. None of these

50. Land of a village E is 4 square
kilometer. If the population density of a
village E in the year 2010 was 50% with
respect to that in year 2001. In the year
2001, ratio of population density of a
village B to that of village E is 1 : 4, then
what was the population of village E in the
year 2010?
A. 3200
B. 1600
C. 2400
D. 4800
E. None of these

Direction (51 – 55) : Study the
following information carefully and
answer the given questions:
The diagram, given below shows the data
related to loan fair. In total z number of
people contacted for a loan fair, from
which x number of people visited loan fair
and 9600 people shown interest for a
loan. Out of the total number of people
shown interest for a loan only 32%
applied for the loan. Out of the total
number of people applied for the loan,
only 20% are eligible for a loan. Out of
the total number of people eligible for a
loan, loan of only y% people are
disbursed.

51. If out of the number people who have
applied for loan, 2880 were not eligible
for a loan, then how many people are
eligible for a loan?
A. 1440
B. 11520
C. 360
D. 720
E. None of these

52. If 6000 people, who visited loan fair
but not shown interest and 7400 people,
who were contacted but did not visit the
loan fair, then how many people
contacted for the loan fair?
A. 21000
B. 24000
C. 25000
D. 22500
E. 23000

53. Ratio of the number of people, who
did not visit the loan fair and the number
of people, who visited the loan fair but not
shown interest is 7 : 5 . If the total
number of people contacted for the loan
fair is 19200, then find the value of x.
A. 19200
B. 16000
C. 14400
D. 13600
E. 12600

54. Loan of 40% of the people did not
disbursed who were eligible for a loan,
then find the ratio of the number of
people, who shown interest and the
number of people, whose loan disbursed.
A. 2000 : 9
B. 1250 : 24
C. 2000 : 27
D. 625 : 24
E. None of these

55. Number of people who were eligible
for a loan but whose loans were not
disbursed is equal to the 9% of the
number of people who shown interest in
the loan but did not apply for a loan. Find
the value y.
A. 12.5
B. 25
C. 16.67
D. 20
E. None of these

Direction (56 – 58) : Study the
following information carefully and
answer the given questions:
An apple pie of R cm radius has to cut into
x identical pieces. Area of top surface of
each piece was 0.77 cm2 but later on it
was found 50% of pie was rotten so the
remaining 50% was cut into (x – 3) pieces
of area 0.616 cm2 each.

12
56. Find the value of X.
A. 10
B. 12
C. 8
D. 6
E. None of these

57. Find the circumference of the original
pie.

A. cm

B. cm

C. cm

D. cm

E. None of these

58. If entire pie would have been cut into
11 identical pieces what would have been
top surface area of each piece?
A. 0.64 cm2
B. 0.56 cm2
C. 0.28 cm2
D. 0.42 cm2
E. None of these

Direction (59 – 61) : Study the
following information carefully and
answer the given questions.
Data below represent number of people
required for various project to be
completed in various days:

59. If 64 people were working for Project
A, then how many days did it take to
complete the work?
A. 44 days
B. 22 days
C. 33 days
D. 36 days
E. None of these

60. If in Team P, total number of workers
= 0.5Z x 2M, then what is the number of
days required by Team P to complete
Project C?
A. 75 days
B. 60 days
C. 90 days
D. 80 days
E. None of these

61. If 0.5 Y people work on project B for
10 days and then 0.5Y people join the
project after 10 days. How many days will
it take to complete the Project B?
A. 35 days
B. 40 days
C. 45 days
D. 50 days
E. None of these

Direction (62 – 66) : Study the
following information carefully and
answer the given questions.
There were some red, some green and
some white balls in a bag. Probability of

drawing 1 white ball from the bag is . If

there were 6 more red balls in the bag,
the probability of getting 1 green ball

would have been less.

62. If ratio of number of red balls and
white balls is 7 : 5, then what is the
probability of drawing 2 balls such that
one is red and other is white?
A. 5/29
B. 14/87
C. 15/58
D. 28/87
E. None of these

63. If sum of red, green and white balls is
30, then what is the probability of
drawing 2 white ballsfrom the bag?
A. 3/29
B. 5/58
C. 9/58
D. 10/87
E. None of these

64. If Probability of drawing 1 green ball

from the bag is , then what is the

probability of drawing 2 balls such that
none of them is red?
A. 3/29

13
B. 4/29
C. 8/29
D. 8/87
E. None of these

65. If sum of green and white balls is 16,
then what is the probability of drawing 2
balls of same colour?

A.

B.

C.

D.

E. None of these

66. If probability of drawing 1 ball such

that it is not green is , then sum of the

number of red and white balls is
A. 20
B. 30
C. 24
D. 16
E. None of these

67. In the family of Amit, there are 4
members- Amit, his wife, his only son and
his only daughter. Three years ago, age
of Amit was 4 years more than the sum
of the ages of his son and daughter, then
what is the present age of their daughter?
I. Amit's wife is 7 years younger to him
and her present age is twice the present
age of their son.
II. Three years hence, the respective
ratio between the ages of his daughter
and his son will be 6 : 5.
III. Two years hence, the age of Amit will
be 1 years less than the sum of the ages
of his son and daughter.
Which of the following statement(s)
is/are sufficient to answer the question?
A. All the three statements together
B. Only statement III
C. Only statements II and III together
D. Only statements I and III together
E. Only statements I and II together

68. A starts a business with Rs. 60,000.
After 3 months B joins the business with
investment Rs. 45,000. At the end of the
year share of A in the total profit is
Rs.________. If they earned 40% profit
on their total investment in the business
at the end of the year, then which of the
following will fill in the blank?
A. Rs. 15120
B. Rs. 20160
C. Rs. 25280
D. Rs. 26880
E. None of these

Directions (69 - 73): Study the
following information carefully and
answer the given questions.
In a school 4 students A, B, C and D
appeared in an English examination
which is consist of 15 short and 4 long
questions are asked. Each of short
question carry 5 marks and each of long
questions carry 10 mark and for a spelling
error 0.5 mark is deducted. For not
attempting a question, zero marks is
awarded. In the English exam, A
answered (x + 6) short questions, x long
questions and did (2x + 10) spelling
errors. Ratio of number of spelling errors
made by A and B is 8 : 3. Total marks
scored by D is 86. Ratio of short and long
questions answered by B In the English
exam is 5 : 1 and he scored total 102
marks. C scored 35 marks more in short
questions than long questions except
spelling errors and the number of spelling
errors made by C is equal to the
difference of the number of spelling
errors made by A and B. Number of short
questions answered by D is average of
that answered by A and B. Percentage of
number of long questions answered
among all the question answered by D is
20%. Average of the number of spelling
errors made by all four students A, B, C
and D is 10. Each student attempts
integral number of short as well as long
questions.

69. Total marks scored by A is how much
less than the total marks scored by B is
A. 30
B. 33
C. 35
D. 39

14
E. None of these

70. Average number of short questions
answered by A, B, C and D is 11.75, then
the total marks scored by C in the English
exam is
A. 70
B. 75
C. 86
D. 93
E. None of these

71. Ratio of the total number of questions
answered by B and that by D is
A. 4 : 3
B. 4 : 5
C. 6 : 5
D. Cannot be determined
E. None of these

72. A student E, scored 30 marks more
than that by C, whose total marks is more
than that by A but less than that by D. If
the number of spelling errors made by E
are 10 more than that by C, then the total
marks scored by C is what percent less
than that by E?
A. 37.5%

B. 33 %

C. 25%
D. 30%
E. None of these

73. Sum of the total number of long
questions answered by A, B and D is
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
E. None of these

Direction (74 – 78) : Study the
following information carefully and
answer the given questions.
The following chart shows the opening,
closing, high and low price of a share of a
company XYZ on given 5 days-Monday,
Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday and
Friday.
Opening and closing price of the shares of
the company XYZ are represented by
ceiling and floor of the black box and floor
and ceiling of the white box respectively.
The high and low price of the share of the
company XYZ are represented by ceiling
and floor of the line respectively.
For example: On Monday, opening price
= 60, closing price = 52, high price = 66
and low price = 40

74. What is the ratio of average high price
and average low price of the share of the
company XYZ on Monday, Tuesday,
Wednesday and Friday?
A. 4 : 3
B. 5 : 4
C. 5 : 3
D. 10 : 3
E. None of these

75. A trader, bought 150 shares of the
company XYZ on opening price of
Tuesday and sold 40% these shares on
highest price of the share on Thursday
and rest on opening price of Friday. Rate
of commission while buying the shares is
Flat Rs. 200 and while selling it is 8% of
the selling price, then what is the total
loss incurred by the trader in this
transaction?
A. Rs. 488
B. Rs. 542
C. Rs. 552
D. Rs. 826
E. None of these

76. A trader, bought X shares of the
company XYZ on Wednesday and sold
20% of the shares on Wednesday itself.
If he sold 4/9th of the remaining shares
on closing price of the Thursday and the
remaining shares on opening price of
Friday. If rate on commission while selling

15
the shares is Rs. 100 for sales amount
upto Rs. 3000 and 10% above that
amount. If on Friday he gets Rs. 5240 for
selling shares after deduction of
commission, then the value of x is
A. 240
B. 270
C. 300
D. 360
E. None of these

77. A trader, bought 250 shares of the
company XYZ on Monday. Commission
while buying shares per lot (each time)
up to Rs. 5000 is flat Rs. 250 and above
that 5% of the difference amount. He sold
3/5th of shares on Tuesday closing price
and remaining at high price of
Wednesday. Commission while selling
shares per lot (each time) up to Rs. 4000
is flat Rs. 100 and above that 8% of the
difference amount. In this transaction he
made profit of Rs. 130, then at what price
he bought the shares?
A. Rs. 52
B. Rs. 65
C. Rs. 54
D. Rs. 56
E. None of these

78. Average closing price of shares of the
company XYZ is what percent more than
the average opening price for the given 5
days?
A. 5%
B. 20%
C. 10%
D. 8%
E. None of these

Direction: Each question below is
followed by two statements I and II. You
have to determine whether the data given
in the statement is sufficient for
answering the question. You should use
the data and your knowledge of
Mathematics to choose the best possible
answer.
79. In an examination, Ravi scored ‘x’%
marks but failed by 102 marks. In the
same examination Ram scored (3x – 4)
% marks, thus scored 78 marks above
passing marks. Find the value of ‘x’.
Statement I: Maximum marks of the
examination are 600.
Statement II: Difference between the
marks obtained by Ravi and Ram is 180.
A. The data in Statement I alone are
sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in Statement II alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.
B. The data in Statement II alone are
sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in Statement I alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.
C. The data either in Statement I or in
Statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
D. The data in both Statements I and II
together are necessary to answer the
question.
E. The data even in both Statements I
and II together are not sufficient to
answer the question.

Direction: Each question below is
followed by two statements I and II. You
have to determine whether the data given
in the statement is sufficient for
answering the question. You should use
the data and your knowledge of
Mathematics to choose the best possible
answer.
80. Find the length of Train A.
Statement I: Train A of length (x + 50) m
can cross a man moving at the speed of
5 m/s in the opposite direction of that of
train A in 10 seconds. It can cross the
same man in 15 seconds if he is moving
in the same direction.
Statement II: Train A of length (x + 50)
m can cross another train B of length (x
+ 150) m moving in the opposite
direction at a speed of 10 m/s in 20
seconds. It can cross train B in 28
seconds if train B is standing on the
platform.
A. The data in Statement I alone are
sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in Statement II alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.
B. The data in Statement II alone are
sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in Statement I alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.

16
C. The data either in Statement I or in
Statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
D. The data in both Statements I and II
together are necessary to answer the
question.
E. The data even in both Statements I
and II together are not sufficient to
answer the question.

81. According to the Union Budget 2019-
20, the government has proposed to
allocate how much amount for PSU Bank
recapitalisation?
A. Rs 75,000 crore
B. Rs 80,000 crore
C. Rs 90,000 crore
D. Rs 70,000 crore
E. Rs 60,000 crore

82. Which insurance company has
launched a specially designed mentorship
program ‘Wings’, to empower the female
workforce?
A. Life Insurance Corporation of India
B. Bajaj Allianz Life Insurance
C. Aviva Life Insurance
D. Bharti AXA Life Insurance
E. Aegon Life Insurance

83. Abhijeet Gupta, a sports person is
associated with which sports?
A. Hockey
B. Chess
C. Basketball
D. Golf
E. Volley Ball

84. In the Union Budget 2019-20, how
much amount has been allocated for the
Indian Railways?
A. Rs 55,837 crore
B. Rs 65,837 crore
C. Rs 70,000 crore
D. Rs 75,837 crore
E. Rs 85,837 crore

85. The Government of India, the
Government of Kerala and the
__________ signed a Loan Agreement of
USD 250 million for the First Resilient
Kerala Program to enhance the State’s
resilience against the impacts of natural
disasters and climate change.
A. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
B. Asian Development Bank
C. World Bank
D. International Monetary Fund
E. None of these

86. Which of the following state
government has launched the flagship
scheme ‘Mukhyamantri Yuva Swabhiman
Yojana’?
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Punjab
C. Haryana
D. Madhya Pradesh
E. None of these

87. What is the target (in terms of GDP)
of fiscal deficit for financial year 2019-20?
A. 4.6 %
B. 4 %
C. 3.3 %
D. 3 %
E. 3.5%

88. Which State Government has
launched the scheme “Jalamrutha”?
A. Uttarakhand
B. UP
C. Sikkim
D. Karnataka
E. Tamil Nadu

89. Which bank has partnered with
M1Xchange Trade Receivables
Discounting System (TReDS) platform for
MSME bill discounting?
A. State Bank of India
B. Bank of Baroda
C. Bank of Maharashtra
D. Bank of India
E. Corporation Bank

90. Who won the gold medal in the World
University Game in the 100m dash event
in Italy?
A. Dutee Chand
B. Hima Das
C. PU Chitra
D. Mandeep Kaur
E. None of the above

17
91. Who won the International Cricketer
of the Year Award in CEAT Cricket Rating
(CCR) Awards 2019?
A. Rohit Sharma
B. Kagiso Rabada
C. Jonny Bairstow
D. Virat Kohli
E. Mahendra Singh Dhoni

92. Which of the following plan adopted
by Northeast Frontier Railway (NFR) to
keep wild elephants away from train
tracks that have won the ‘Best Innovation
Award’?
A. Plan Bird
B. Plan Ant
C. Plan Bee
D. Plan Bat
E. None of these

93. Reserve bank of India (RBI) has
finalised three years roadmap to improve
regulation and supervision of the central
bank. What is the name of the roadmap?
A. Unnati 2022
B. Upkar 2021
C. Umang 2022
D. Utkarsh 2022
E. Uphar 2022

94. What is the theme of International
Day of Happiness 2019?
A. Have right to live happy
B. Forgotten Sufferers
C. Never Alone
D. Happier Together
E. Live Happy

95. Deposits in Jan Dhan accounts have
crossed how much mark
A. Rs 50 thousand crore
B. Rs 75 thousand crore
C. Rs 1 lakh crore
D. Rs 1.25 lakh crore
E. Rs 1.50 lakh crore

96. Who is the first female pilot to enter
the Atlantic Ocean solo in a light Space
Aircraft (LSA)?
A. Aarohi Pandit
B. Keithair Misquitta
C. Avani Chaturvedi
D. Mohana Singh
E. Bhawana Kanth

97. According to the survey conducted by
the Randstad Employer Brand Research
(REBR) 2019, which company is India’s
most attractive employer brand?
A. Google India
B. Amazon India
C. Microsoft India
D. Sony India
E. Infosys

98. As per Forbes World’s Best Bank
survey, which of the following banks has
been identified as number one bank by
customers in India?
A. ICICI Bank
B. HDFC Bank
C. State Bank of India
D. Punjab National Bank
E. None of these

99. Recently Pinaka has been turned from
Rocket System into Guided Missile, which
has been manufactured in India. Pinaka is
developed by which Organization?
A. ISRO
B. DRDO
C. ISSDC
D. SAC
E. SHAR

100. Receivables Exchange of India Ltd
(RXIL) was incorporated on 25th
February 2016 as a joint venture between
National Stock Exchange of India Limited
(NSE) and ________.
A. IDBI
B. NABARD
C. SIDBI
D. BSE
E. RBI

101. The fifth character of IFSC Code is 0
(zero) and reserved for ______.
A. future use
B. account information
C. branch location
D. cash withdrawal
E. branch city

102. Which of the following companies
has signed an agreement with Ministry of

18
Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) to
enhance its Swachh Bharat e-Learning
Portal features?
A. Microsoft India
B. Amazon India
C. Oil and Natural Gas Corp
D. Facebook India
E. Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited

103. Which of the following committees
has been constituted by the Reserve Bank
of India to review existing state of
mortgage securitisation in India and
suggest measures to develop market
further?
A. T. N. Manoharan committee
B. Harsh Vardhan committee
C. Sunil Mehta committee
D. Arjit Basu committee
E. Rajnish Kumar committee

104. The lenders of Essar Steel have told
the Supreme Court that the NCLAT has
misconstrued and misinterpreted the
provisions of the Insolvency and
Bankruptcy Code (IBC) to such an extent
that the statute itself has been literally
rewritten. What is the full form of NCLAT?
A. National Company Law Appellate
Terminal
B. National Company Law Appellate
Tribunal
C. National Company Law Appellate
Treaty
D. National Commission of Law Appellate
Tribunal
E. None of these

105. Which of the following is not one of
the areas in which gender parity is
measured for the Global Gender Gap
Report?
A. Health
B. Education
C. Economics
D. Politics
E. Environment

106. Which of the following banks and the
Commonwealth Bank of Australia
(CommBank) has teamed up for ‘World
First’ Blockchain Bond Transaction?
A. Asian Development Bank
B. Reserve Bank of India
C. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
D. Federal Reserve System
E. World Bank

107. Which bank has signed an
agreement to buy a stake in a subsidiary
of BSE's India International Exchange
(INX)?
A. AXIS Bank
B. HDFC Bank
C. ICICI
D. Yes Bank
E. SBI

108. The NewSpace India Ltd. (NSIL) is
the new commercial arm of _______.
A. Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO)
B. Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
(BARC)
C. Indian Space Research Organisation
(ISRO)
D. National Aeronautics and Space
Administration (NASA)
E. None of these

109. On 3rd March 2019, central
government approved the proposal for
setting up of a “Centre for Disability
Sports” in which city?
A. Lucknow
B. Visakhapatnam
C. Kochi
D. Gwalior
E. Pune

110. Trading of priority sector lending
certificates (PSLCs) on the government's
____________ portal by banks will
attract integrated goods and services tax.
A. e-vishnu
B. e-indra
C. e-kuber
D. e-shiva
E. e-mohini

111. Which state/UT has topped the list
of states with the maximum percentage
of Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY)
beneficiaries availing at least four refills?
A. Uttarakhand
B. Gujarat

19
C. Delhi
D. Tamil Nadu
E. Himachal Pradesh

112. Which of the following countries
hosted the G-20 Finance Ministers and
Central Bank Governors’ meeting?
A. Fukuoka, Japan
B. Beijing, China
C. New Delhi, India
D. Sydney, Australia
E. Paris, France

113. The Union Government has
constituted a Working Group for the
revision of the current series of Wholesale
Price Index (WPI). Who is the chairman
of the 18-member committee?
A. Prof. Aman Mishra
B. Dr. Ratan Jain
C. Sarita Singh
D. Prof. Ramesh Chand
E. None of these

114. Who has been appointed Managing
Director (MD) of the National Housing
Bank (NHB)?
A. Sarada Kumar Hota
B. Siddh Nath Singh
C. Israr Ahmed
D. Biswa Sarma
E. T Latha

115. Which of the following countries
inaugurated the first model village built
with Indian assistance?
A. Nepal
B. Sri Lanka
C. Bangladesh
D. Bhutan
E. Japan

116. Recently, which city has declared as
the UNESCO World Heritage Site?
A. Lucknow
B. Jaipur
C. Bhopal
D. Jodhpur
E. Indore

117. Persons resident in India as defined
under Foreign Exchange Management
Act, 1999 are eligible to invest in
Sovereign Gold Bond (SGB). Eligible
investors include Individuals, HUFs,
trusts, _________________ and
charitable institutions.
A. Leaders
B. Foreign customers
C. PSBs
D. NBFC
E. Universities

118. Which company has announced the
launch of its new Wings application in
India on Google Play Store?
A. Airtel
B. MTNL
C. Vodafone
D. BSNL
E. Jio

119. Who has been appointed as
Additional Director on the board of YES
Bank for a period of two years?
A. R Gandhi
B. R S Pathak
C. Baba Kalyani
D. Bhuvneshwar Prasad Sinha
E. None of these

120. The World Happiness report 2019
was released by UN & Sustainable
Development Solutions Network in which
Finland has been ranked on top. The
report was produced in partnership with
___.
A. Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU)
B. World Bank
C. Institute of Economics and Peace
D. World Intellectual Property
Organization
E. Ernesto Illy Foundation

Direction (121 – 123) : Read the given
passage carefully and answer the
questions that follow. Certain words are
printed in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of these.
Meritocracy has become a leading social
ideal. Politicians across the ideological
spectrum continually return to the theme
that the rewards of life – money, power,
jobs, university admission – should be
distributed according to skill and effort.
The most common metaphor is the “even

20
playing field” upon which players can rise
to the position that fits their merit.
Conceptually and morally, meritocracy is
presented as the opposite of systems
such as hereditary aristocracy, in which
one’s social position is determined by the
lottery of birth. Under meritocracy,
wealth and advantage are merit’s rightful
compensation, not the fortuitous windfall
of external events.
Most people don’t just think the world
should be run meritocratically, they think
it is meritocratic. In the United Kingdom,
84% of respondents to the 2009 British
Social Attitudes survey stated that hard
work is either “essential” or “very
important” when it comes to getting
ahead, and in 2016 the Brookings
Institute found that 69% of Americans
believe that people are rewarded for
intelligence and skill. Respondents in both
countries believe that external factors,
such as luck and coming from a wealthy
family, are much less important. While
these ideas are most pronounced in these
two countries, they are popular across
the globe.
Although widely held, the belief that merit
rather than luck determines success or
failure in the world is demonstrably false.
This is not least because merit itself is, in
large part, the result of luck. Talent and
the capacity for determined effort,
sometimes called “grit”, depend a great
deal on one’s genetic endowments and
upbringing.
This is to say nothing of the fortuitous
circumstances that figure into every
success story. In his 2016 book Success
and Luck, the US economist Robert Frank
recounts the long-shots and coincidences
that led to Bill Gates’s stellar rise as
Microsoft’s founder, as well as to Frank’s
own success as an academic. Luck
intervenes by granting people merit, and
again by furnishing circumstances in
which merit can translate into success.
Source:
https://scroll.in/article/956459/the-
myth-of-meritocracy-leads-the-rich-and-
powerful-to-see-themselves-as-
productive-geniuses
121. What ideas does the author refer to
when he/she says, “While these ideas are
most pronounced in these two countries,
they are popular across the globe.”?
A. Skills and efforts alone can lead to
success.
B. Luck and inheritance grant merit and
favourable conditions leading to success.
C. Merit can lead to success only if you
are a resident of UK or America.
D. External efforts like inheritance and
luck do not affect the chance of being
rich.
E. Both A & D

122. Which of the following statements
can be correctly inferred from the
passage?
A. The idea behind 'even playing field' is
to bring everyone to their lowest possible
level.
B. Even though meritocracy is popular all
over the world, only UK and America have
successfully implemented it.
C. It is a common fallacy that hard work
and skill alone can bring success.
D. In hereditary aristocracy, a lottery is
drawn at the birth to determine his/her
career.
E. None of the above

123. Which of the following correctly
describes the tone of the last paragraph?
A. Fictitious
B. Factual
C. Fallacious
D. Flippant
E. Forceful

Direction )124 – 127) : Which of the
following phrases (i), (ii), and (iii) given
below each sentence should replace the
phrase printed in bold letters to make the
sentence grammatically correct? Choose
the best option among the five given
alternatives that reflect the correct use of
phrase in the context of the
grammatically correct sentence. If the
sentence is correct as it is, mark (E) i.e.,
"No correction required" as the answer.

124. The strategy of human lockdown is
being unprecedented in human

21
history and the World Health
Organisation has called it the most
“aggressive disease containment effort in
history”.
i. Was unprecedented in human history
ii. Was unprecedented during human
history
iii. Was unprecedented in the history of
human beings
A. Only i
B. Only ii
C. Only iii
D. Both i and iii
E. No correction required

125. The Netherlands became a world
power in the 17th century, thanks to
enormous wealth generates by its
East and West India Companies which
propelled it to the forefront of scientific
discovery and artistic endeavor.
i. enormous wealth generated by its East
and West India Companies
ii. enormous wealth being generated by
its East and West Companies
iii. enormous wealth had generated by its
East and West Companies
A. Only i
B. Only ii
C. Only iii
D. Both i and ii
E. No correction required

126. The announcement by the king of
England was met with scorn, anger
and ridicule on social media.
i. Had met on scorn, anger and ridicule in
ii. Was meeting of scorn, anger and
ridicule on
iii. Had been meet with scorn, anger and
ridicule on
A. Only i
B. Only ii
C. Only iii
D. Both ii and iii
E. No correction required

127. Dutch author Marieke Lucas
Rijneveld has become one of the
youngest writers because shortlisted
for a Booker prize, after their debut
novel made the final line-up for the
International Booker.
i. Was to be shortlisted for a Booker Prize
ii. To be shortlisted for a Booker Prize
iii. To be shortlisted within a Booker Prize
A. Only i
B. Only ii
C. Only iii
D. Both ii and iii
E. No correction needed.

Direction (128 – 130) : Read the given
passage carefully and answer the
questions that follow. Certain words are
printed in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of these.
When it comes to English books, it is
authors like Kavita Kané, Utkarsh Patel,
and, more recently, Saiswaroopa Iyer,
who seem to have passionately taken up
the cause of feminist revisionist
mythology.
Kané has written a string of books over
the years that are determinedly feminist
in nature. She picks the most unusual
characters (sometimes even creates
them!) to tell her readers what-may-
have-been. Her first was titled Karna’s
Wife: The Outcast’s Queen (2014), which
told the story of Karna through his
(fictional) wife, Uruvi.
It is interesting that Kané chose to
introduce an entirely new character to tell
Karna’s story in the space of mythological
fiction. The Mahabharata speaks of no
one called Uruvi. Karna is married to
Vrushali, Duryodhana’s charioteer’s
sister, and to another woman named
Supriya. Both are blink-and-miss
characters, with little to say or do in the
epic. But in Kané’s re-imagined world,
Karna’s second wife is Uruvi. She is a
woman passionately in love with her
husband and plays an active role in his
unfolding narrative.
Here, we deal with not one but two
subaltern voices – of the woman and of
the low caste. Kane’s inspiration for this
name seems to have come from some
references in later Tamil literature, where
Karna’s wife is named Ponnaruvi.
However, it is conjectured that Ponnaruvi
was an epithet for either Vrushali or
Supriya or both.

22
Kané’s next was Sita’s Sister (2014),
where she constructed the life and
character of the little-known wife of
Lakshmana, Urmila. The Ramayana takes
scant notice of her, and when it does,
consigns her to what is essentially a 14-
year long coma. But Kané imagined her
as a living, breathing heroine who holds
the fort when everything is crumbling and
everyone important has left.
Source:
https://scroll.in/article/828515/indian-
mythology-is-a-new-medium-of-choice-
for-feminist-narratives-and-its-working)

128. Given below is a possible inference
that can be drawn from the facts stated
in the last paragraph. You have to
examine the inference in the context of
the passage and decide upon its degree
of truth or falsity.
'The Ramayana hardly takes any notice of
Lakshmana's wife Urmila who held the
fort during an attack and was heavily
injured by the falling rubble.'
A. Definitely false
B. Probably false
C. The data are inadequate
D. Probably true
E. Definitely true

129. Which of the following is true about
'Uruvi' with reference to the passage?
A. The author, through Uruvi, shows
casteism in the Mahabharata, which was
not present in the original version.
B. The author created Uruvi all by herself
without any historical reference.
C. The author feels that the Mahabharata
had done injustice to Uruvi by telling her
story from Karna's point of view.
D. In the original version of the
Mahabharata, Uruvi is completely ignored
in Karna's story.
E. None of the above.

130. Which of the following statements is
NOT true with respect to the passage?
A) Kavita Kané, Utkarsh Patel, and
Saiswaroopa Iyer are writing the
mythology from a female perspective.
B) Uruvi is not completely fictional.
C) According to Kavita Kané only people
belonging to the low caste were second
class citizens.
A. Only A
B. Both A & B
C. Both B & C
D. Only C
E. None are correct

Direction (131 – 135) : The following
question carries four statements, each of
which have been jumbled. You have to
unjumble these parts and answer the
questions that follow.
1) A force within a field (A)/ moulds a
young, naive person into (B) / the word
mentor is usually (C)/ applied to the one
who (D)
2) Careers and not just at the start as
(A)/ it is important throughout our (B)/ a
good mentor can help one to (C)/
navigate one’s career successfully (D)
3) May not be when we meet them the
most (A)/ a common perception when
seeking (B)/ a mentor in that area is that
we should (C)/ do it when we are new to
a profession but that (D)
4) In reality, that’s not always the (A)/
dynamic or the demographic, of the
mentor-mentee relationship, (B)/
guidance too, especially at the workplace
(C)/ as capable grownups need (D)

131. What should be the correct
sequence of statement 1?
A. CDBA
B. ABCD
C. BDCA
D. CADB
E. DBCA

132. What should be the correct
sequence of statement 2?
A. CDAB
B. ACDB
C. BACD
D. BDAC
E. CBAD

133. What should be the correct
sequence of statement 3?
A. DBAC
B. ACDB

23
C. BCAD
D. BCDA
E. ABCD

134. What should be the correct
sequence of statement 4?
A. ABCD
B. ABDC
C. DCAB
D. CDBA
E. CABD

135. Which one of the four sentences
does not fit into the major theme of the
paragraph?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. None of these

Direction: In each of the questions given
below, a passage has been given which
are either situational based or describes
a scenario. Below each passage, a
question has been given which is framed
to make you to infer something out of it.
Mark out the correct inference as your
answer.
136. A gang of professional kidnappers in
Bihar abducts men who demand dowry
and gets them to marry the women
without taking money. The gang, led by
Hukam Singh (Jaaved Jaaferi),
presumably does well for itself, since
Hukam lives in what appears to be a
palace. The men dragooned into marriage
are miserable. The women should be too,
but aren’t.
According to the sentence, what is
expected from the women?
A. Wretched
B. Troubled
C. Injured
D. Downtrodden
E. Elated

Direction (137 – 139) : Read the given
passage carefully and answer the
questions that follow. Certain words are
printed in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of these.
The 150-kilometre road trip from Narnaul
to Delhi took all of three hours. For young
Ashok Khemka, it was well worth the
effort. The newly minted IAS officer,
posted in Narnaul, had a date with a
charming young woman in Delhi and was
keen to see her. The young lady in
question was his fiancée and Ashok, on
his maiden posting as an IAS officer of the
Haryana cadre, was naturally eager to
meet her as often as possible.
As a member of the 1991 batch of
LBSNAA in Mussoorie, he had found
himself in the crosshairs of groom
hunters. Ambitious parents of
marriageable daughters descended
(and possibly still do) on the
academy on an annual basis to stalk
young trainees in the hope of finding
an “IAS match”. Khemka had managed
to evade them all. It was in Delhi that he
had met Jyoti, the woman destined to
illuminate his home.
She had graduated from the University of
Delhi and was contemplating a course in
journalism. But Jyoti’s father had taken a
shine to Khemka and was keen on the
match. Jyoti had a deep respect for her
father’s opinion, so she had decided to go
with the flow. Jyoti and Ashok were
engaged in a quiet ceremony at her home
on the auspicious occasion of Dussehra in
1993. Every alternate weekend, he would
head to Shakti Nagar in Delhi to meet her,
before hightailing it back to Narnaul. He
had no idea that someone was keeping
tabs on his movements.
As a sub-divisional officer (SDO), Khemka
reported to the deputy commissioner of
the district. He had not exactly hit it off
with his boss, who fancied himself a man
of culture and a connoisseur of music and
dance.
Source:
https://scroll.in/article/957076/ashoka-
khemka-ias-has-been-transferred-53-
times-in-28-years-when-did-he-first-
displease-his-boss

137. Which of the these presents a
contrast to the following sentence as
mentioned in paragraph 2: Ambitious
parents of marriageable daughters

24
descended (and possibly still do) on the
academy on an annual basis to stalk
young trainees in the hope of finding an
“IAS match”.
A. Parents prefer educational
qualifications of the groom rather than
their personality traits.
B. Very little is known about the
daughters' opinion on their marriages
with the 'IAS match'.
C. Parents have resorted to desperate
measures to find the ideal groom.
D. Parents with to fulfil their daughters'
ambition of getting an IAS husband.
E. None of the above.

138. Which of the following statements is
NOT true with respect to the passage?
A. Jyoti's father met Ashoke at LBSNAA in
Mussoorie where he was groom hunting.
B. Jyoti did not like Ashoke but still met
him only because her father wanted her
to do so.
C. Jyoti and Ashok lived together after
their engagement.
A. Only A
B. Both A & B
C. Both B & C
D. Only B
E. None are correct

139. Which of the following statements
can be correctly inferred from the
passage?
I. Ashoke did not get along with his boss
with reasons unknown.
II. Ashok's boss had him followed
because Ashok had shown dislike towards
his choice of music.
III. Jyoti did not complete the journalism
course because she was married.
A. Only I
B. Both I & II
C. Both II & III
D. Only II
E. All are incorrect

Direction (140 – 144) : In the following
question, a sentence with two blanks is
given, indicating that something has been
omitted. The sentence is followed by two
columns, I and II, each carrying three
words. One or more than one of the three
words mentioned in column I will the first
blank. Similarly, one or more than one of
the three words mentioned in column II
will the second blank. You have to identify
the correct pair(s) of words that would fill
the blanks to make the sentence
grammatically correct and meaningful.
Them mark the relevant option as your
answer.

140. The recent ___ I____ regarding
language use and learning _____II_____
on the primacy of communicative
activities in the classroom.

A. a-e
B. a-d & c-d
C. c-d
D. None of the given options
E. b-e & a-f

141. The new restaurant has already
become a huge ______I______ with
people _____II______ up for hours for a
seat each night.

A. c-d
B. a-e & b-e
C. None of the given options
D. c-f & c-e
E. b-d

142. French revolutionaries
_____I______ death by guillotine to be a
more ______II______ method of
execution.

A. a-d, c-f, a-e
B. b-d & b-e & b-f
C. a-e & a-f
D. c-f & c-d
E. None of the given options

25
143. When we ______I_______ a
repayment of a loan instalment, we
_____II______ the amount of the loan.

A. b-f, a-e & c-f
B. None of the given options
C. c-d
D. b-e
E. a-d & a-e

144. The petrol market is _____I_______
so fast that some major petroleum
companies have ______II________
refining petrol.

A. c-e & a-d
B. a-e
C. b-f & c- d
D. a-d & c-f
E. None of the given options

Direction (145 – 147) : Read the given
passage carefully and answer the
questions that follow. Certain words are
printed in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of these.
Defence expenditure is an important
component of national security and every
country allocates a significant portion of
its resources for this purpose. However,
given the scarcity of resources and the
competing demands from other sectors, a
nation’s ability to meet all its Defence
requirements is not unlimited. Even the
United States, the only military
superpower, is unable to afford many of
its major programmes, forcing it to scale
down the number of items to be procured.
The sheer size of the Defence budget and
its impact on other sectors of the
economy thus, more often raises the
question as to how much a country can
afford for its Defence.
In the absence of any clear framework of
evaluating affordability of Defence
spending, many analysts tend to view the
same from the perspective of a country’s
share of Defence in gross domestic
product (GDP) over a period of time, or
by comparing these shares with those of
other countries. This method of relative
measurement, however, suffers from
ambiguities as it does not take into
account a country’s specific security
concerns and the economic compulsions
in its totality. In the global context, the
affordability of military spending of some
of the world’s major military spenders
varies not only in degree but also from
time to time. While the variation in the
degree of affordability indicates the
changing security threats that are
perceived differently by countries, the
fluctuation in affordability over time
points to the fact that what may be
affordable at one point in time, may not
be so at another time. Among the major
powers, except for Japan, no other
country has been able to sustain
consistently high level of Defence
spending (in percentage of GDP) over a
length of time. The macro economy,
which guides major spending heads of the
government, could be a factor in
controlling Defence spending over a
period of time. In the US, the present
level of military spending has contributed
to fiscal distress, raising doubts whether
such large-scale military spending is
affordable or sustainable in the future.
Source:
https://idsa.in/jds/2_1_2008_IndiaAffor
dableDefenceSpending_LKBehera

145. What does the author mean by “...a
nation’s ability to meet all its Defence
requirements is not unlimited.”?
A. National expenditure is defined by the
allotment made for the defence sector
and all other sectors receive their funding
beyond that.
B. The defence expenditure has remained
within the government’s desired
objectives of budgetary balance,
economic stability and equitable growth.
C. National expenditure cannot focus only
on defence sector as there are other
sectors that also require funding and
resources are limited.
D. A nation cannot meet all its defence
requirements as resources are often

26
limited which has to be equally
distributed among all sectors in a nation.
E. A nation can only meets its defence
requirements once all other sectors have
been properly funded which makes its
options limited in the defence sector.

146. Which of the following is either a
synonym or an antonym of the
highlighted word used in the passage?
AMBIGUITIES
I. Equivocations
II. Luminosities
III. Transparencies
A. Only III
B. Both I and III
C. Both II and III
D. Both I and II
E. All of these

147. Which of the following statements is
true about affordability of military
spending based on the given passage?
I. Military spending is a constant entity in
a country’s budget and is only affected by
the demands of other sectors on national
expenditure.
II. One can analyse what a country
considers as a security threat by
observing the variation in the degree of
affordability of military spending.
III. Critics often question the affordability
or sustainability of large-scale military
spending.
A. Only III
B. Both I and III
C. Both I and II
D. Both II and III
E. All of these

Direction: In the following question, a
passage is given which describes a
situation or a scenario. A question is
asked with reference to the passage.
Mark the option that correctly answers
that question.
“In the midst of a hot dreary summer,
there now sits a lonely drummer. All the
beats and music have now drowned in the
humdrum life going out of bound, leaving
behind this lonely dreamer.”
148. What is the author’s approach
towards the above passage?
A. Derisive
B. Gloomy
C. Aggressive
D. Apologetic
E. Motivating

Direction (149 – 151) : Read the given
passage carefully and answer the
questions that follow. Certain words are
printed in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of these.
Good Food is First Food. It is not junk
food. It is the food that connects nature
and nutrition with livelihoods. This food is
good for our health; it comes from the
rich _________(A)____________ of our
regions; it provides employment to
people. Most importantly, cooking and
eating it gives us pleasure.
In 2013, we had published the first
edition of First Food series. I had written
then that food is about culture and
biodiversity. We often do not think that
food diversity, indeed cultural diversity, is
linked to the diversity in the biological
world. We argued then that we must
celebrate the knowledge of plants and
their properties and how best to cook
them to bring out the flavours and smells.
We said then — and we are saying again
now — that only when we value the
biodiversity on our plates, will we be able
to protect the biodiversity in the wild.
In 2017 came the second edition First
Food: Culture of Taste. In this book, as in
the first, we offered recipes of foods along
with the knowledge of plant diversity. We
did this because it was becoming clear the
world was (and is) facing an obesity
pandemic — much of the food we eat
today is bad for health, with no nutrition
or goodness. More importantly, it is now
clear that this change in our diet —
moving away from home-cooked,
nutritious foods borne out of culinary
traditions and age-old knowledge — is not
incidental or accidental. We are children
of the age of processed and factory-
grown foods, who have been trans-
mutated through a deliberate and

27
subliminal marketing that has changed
our habits and our culture of food.
We need a re-discovery of this knowledge
of food and culture. All is not lost yet —
we still eat home-cooked, bio-diverse and
nutritious food. But this scenario is
changing rapidly. Already, there is
evidence that the incidence of diabetes —
a disease with strong links to bad food —
is increasing, not just among the affluent
but also the poor of urban India.
Source -
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/f
ood/good-food-is-first-food-and-we-
must-nurture-its-economy-68432

149. Which of the following word can fill
the blank (A) in the first paragraph of the
passage?
A. Mainstream
B. Biodiversity
C. Ability
D. Propaganda
E. Additional

150. Which of the following is/ are False
with reference to the given passage?
I. Obesity pandemic is occurring in the
world today, not only because people do
not have access to nutritious food, but
also because of stress and lifestyle
related issues.
II. Advertisements have a negative
tendency on our food habits.
III. There is an epidemic of diabetes
among the urban poor in India.
A. Only I
B. Only III
C. Both I and II
D. Both II and III
E. None of these

151. Rephrase the following segment
from the passage to convey a similar
idea:
“We said then — and we are saying again
now — that only when we value the
biodiversity on our plates, will we be able
to protect the biodiversity in the wild. “
A. Food variety allows us to appreciate
nature better.
B. Food variety is essential for the
protection of wildlife.
C. A vegan lifestyle is more effective in
giving us a good health.
D. Food variety allows us better
understanding and thereby higher
impetus to protect the natural variety of
the country.
E. None of these.

Direction: In the following question, a
passage is given which describes a
situation or a scenario. A question is
asked with reference to the passage.
Mark the option that correctly answers
that question.
“When another old cave is discovered in
the south of France, it is not usually news.
Rather, it is an ordinary event. Such
discoveries are so frequent these days
that hardly anybody pays heed to them.
However, when the Lascaux cave
complex was discovered in 1940, the
world was amazed. Painted directly on its
walls were hundreds of scenes showing
how people lived thousands of years
ago.”

152. What is the author’s approach
towards the above passage?
A. Dogmatic
B. Ethical
C. Cynical
D. Factual
E. Humorous

Direction (153 – 155) : Read the given
passage carefully and answer the
questions that follow. Certain words are
printed in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of these.
Financial exclusion is the main cause of
poverty. Lack of opportunities and access
to finance besides financial illiteracy are
the main causes of financial exclusion.
Financial inclusion is proving to be a
major thorn in the path of Indian
economic growth. Access to finance by
the poor, disadvantaged and unprivileged
group is a prerequisite for poverty
reduction and social upliftment. One of
the main reasons why the large section of
the rural population still remains under
below poverty line is lack of opportunities
and access to finance besides financial

28
illiteracy. Large sections of the rural
population have no access to financial
services and their only recourse is to
borrow from money lenders, who charge
exorbitant rates. Also, ignorance is rife,
with concepts like insurance virtually
unheard of. One of the main reasons why
mass poverty is persisting in India is that
the problem of financing the poor still
remains unresolved (RBI, 2011a), with
almost all states show more than 60% of
populations below the poverty line.
Projections based on NSSO data present
a disturbing picture as population cut offs
for average consumption for almost all
states fall between the sixth and seventh
deciles, statistics for which are available
in its report “Key indicators of household
expenditure in India.” Further fine-tuned,
they deliver a precise percentage of
population below the average spends
(Sunday Times, 2012). The large section
of population below the expenditure
curve also points to a worrying inequity in
incomes, something that should concern
planners as the government looks to
target benefits for those who need them
through initiatives like food security and
employment guarantees (Sunday Times,
2012).
Source: http://www.lcbr-
archives.com/media/files/Manojkumar-
Gandhi.pdf

153. As per the passage, which of the
followings are a prerequisite for poverty
reduction and social upliftment?
I. Financial inclusion of the poor and the
under privileged section of the society is
a necessary prerequisite for poverty
reduction and social upliftment.
II. Financial exclusion of the poor and the
under privileged section of the society is
a necessary prerequisite for poverty
reduction and social upliftment.
III. The poor and the under privileged
section of the society need to be
financially educated in order to reduce
poverty and gain social upliftment.
A. Only III
B. Both I and III
C. Both I and II
D. Both II and III
E. All of these

154. Given below are five statements
from the passage. Choose the
statement/statements which is
grammatically or contextually incorrect.
A. One of the main reasons why the large
section of the rural population still
remains under below poverty line is lack
of opportunities and access to finance
besides financial illiteracy.
B. Also, ignorance is rife, with concepts
like insurance virtually unheard of.
C. Financial exclusion is the main cause
of poverty.
D. Further fine-tuned, they deliver a
precise percentage of population below
the average spends (Sunday Times,
2012).
E. Financial inclusion is proving to be a
major thorn in the path of Indian
economic growth.

155. Which of the following options is a
correct inference regarding mass poverty
from the given passage?
A. Mass poverty persists in India because
the marginal population does not have
access to social security.
B. Mass poverty persists in India because
Indians are lazy and don’t like to work.
C. Mass poverty persists in India because
the marginal population are uneducated
and have no access to mainstream
finance providers.
D. Mass poverty persists in India because
there are no mainstream financiers
providing financial solutions to the poor.
E. Mass poverty persists in India as it is a
government conspiracy.

29
###ANSWERS###

1. Ans. B.
The logic for the given arrangement is:
Step I - In even numbers, group of 2
digits are reversed and in odd numbers,
all the digits are reversed.
Step II - All the numbers are arranged in
ascending order from left to right.
Step III - First odd numbers and then
even numbers are arranged in ascending
order within the numbers.
Step IV - Group of 2 digits are multiplied.
Step V - Add all the digits within the
numbers.
Input: 856347 745982 329584 512379
954267 463512
Step I: 743658 479528 235948 973215
762459 645321
Step II: 235948 479528 645321 743658
762459 973215
Step III: 359248 579248 135246 357468
579246 135792
Step IV: 151832 351832 31024 152848
351824 33518
Step V: 20 22 10 28 23 20
2. Ans. C.
The logic for the given arrangement is:
Step I - In even numbers, group of 2
digits are reversed and in odd numbers,
all the digits are reversed.
Step II - All the numbers are arranged in
ascending order from left to right.
Step III - First odd numbers and then
even numbers are arranged in ascending
order within the numbers.
Step IV - Group of 2 digits are multiplied.
Step V - Add all the digits within the
numbers.
Input: 856347 745982 329584 512379
954267 463512
Step I: 743658 479528 235948 973215
762459 645321
Step II: 235948 479528 645321 743658
762459 973215
Step III: 359248 579248 135246 357468
579246 135792
Step IV: 151832 351832 31024 152848
351824 33518
Step V: 20 22 10 28 23 20
3. Ans. D.
The logic for the given arrangement is:
Step I - In even numbers, group of 2
digits are reversed and in odd numbers,
all the digits are reversed.
Step II - All the numbers are arranged in
ascending order from left to right.
Step III - First odd numbers and then
even numbers are arranged in ascending
order within the numbers.
Step IV - Group of 2 digits are multiplied.
Step V - Add all the digits within the
numbers.
Input: 856347 745982 329584 512379
954267 463512
Step I: 743658 479528 235948 973215
762459 645321
Step II: 235948 479528 645321 743658
762459 973215
Step III: 359248 579248 135246 357468
579246 135792
Step IV: 151832 351832 31024 152848
351824 33518
Step V: 20 22 10 28 23 20
4. Ans. A.

Family Tree,

5. Ans. C.

30
Family Tree,

6. Ans. B.

Family Tree,

7. Ans. B.
8. Ans. B.
The logic behind the coding is:
Every word is coded by number, symbol
& letter.
Logic behind Number:
If Number of letters is even: Add 4 to the
total number of letters
If Number of letters is odd: Subtract 3
from the total number of letters
Logic behind symbol:

Logic behind Letter: 3rd letter of every
word from the right is taken.
9. Ans. A.
The logic behind the coding is:
Every word is coded by number, symbol
& letter.
Logic behind Number:
If Number of letters is even: Add 4 to the
total number of letters
If Number of letters is odd: Subtract 3
from the total number of letters
Logic behind symbol:

Logic behind Letter: 3rd letter of every
word from the right is taken.
10. Ans. C.
The logic behind the coding is:

31
Every word is coded by number, symbol
& letter.
Logic behind Number:
If Number of letters is even: Add 4 to the
total number of letters
If Number of letters is odd: Subtract 3
from the total number of letters
Logic behind symbol:
12. Ans. C.

Logic behind Letter: 3rd letter of every
word from the right is taken.
11. Ans. D.

13. Ans. A.

32
14. Ans. C.

15. Ans. A.

16. Ans. B.

The correct answer is option B, i.e. All I,
II and III are implicit.
An assumption is a thing that is accepted
as true or as certain to happen, without
proof.
From the statement, it is evident that it is
about the PM-KISAN scheme which is
entitled to small and medium farmers
having cultivable land up to two hectares.
The first installment as promised by the
Prime Minister Narendra Modi will be
processed on February 24.
Assumption (I) is a perfect assumption
based on the information provided. The
figure of 6000 is evident from the
information stated, ‘first of the three
installments of Rs 2,000 each’.
Assumption (II) is also appropriate. The
idea of the scheme launched in this fiscal
is evident from the fact that PM is
launching it now and before March end
the first transaction would be done. It
also highlights the general idea behind
the scheme to help the distressed
farmers.
Similarly, assumption (III) is also
appropriate as it follows the flow of the
ideas stated and brings out the financial
benefit the scheme will provide to the
farmers.
Thus, all of the assumptions are relevant
thus the most appropriate answer choice
is option B.
17. Ans. A.

The correct answer is option A, i.e.
None is implicit.
An assumption is a thing that is accepted
as true or as certain to happen, without
proof.
From the statement, it is evident the
Indian authorities have allowed
commercial operations to all the airports
near the Jammu & Kashmir region and
Dehradun that were shut after a few
fighter jets of the Pakistani Air Force
entered the Indian side of Kashmir. And
further information regarding its
components is also mentioned.
Assumption (I) can be rejected as the
information stated in it is not backed by
the context given.
Assumption (II) is not an apt assumption
that can be made on the basis of the
information provided. All the places
mentioned for example Amritsar,
Dharamshala are not evident from the
given context.
Assumption (III) is rejected as it is
contradictory to the information stated. It
states that no NOTAM has been issued
whereas the given information states that
information has been sent to the
authorities.
Thus, all of the assumptions are
irrelevant and can be rejected and the
most appropriate answer choice is option
A

33
18. Ans. D.
The correct answer is option D, i.e.
None follows.
A course of action is something that
needs to be done considering the present
scenario in mind.
From the statement, it is evident that it’s
about Maternity leave granted to the
women employees as per the law and
how the companies have been avoiding
hiring female staff in order to avoid
maternity leaves to them. Thus, a
suitable course of action must be in the
sense to avoid this injustice being done to
women.
Course of action (I) can be rejected as it
presents a course of action that is already
stated by the government (past tensE..
Moreover, it further presents the problem
and does not present the solution to it
and is thus rejected.
Course of action (II) is rejected as it
simply presents facts and does not
suggest any course of action.
Based on similar grounds, course of
action (III) is also rejected. Course of
action (III) also shows the views of the
startups and the stats but it fails to
provide a solution to the problem.
Thus, all the courses of actions are
irrelevant and can be rejected.
19. Ans. C.
The box which contains orange is kept at
either 8th or 10th position in the stack.
Two boxes are kept between the box
which contains orange and Box A.
Number of boxes which contain fruits is
same below and above the box which
contains kiwi.
Case 1

Case 2
Number of boxes kept between box A and
Box T is same as the number of boxes
kept between box T and Box D.
Box A is above Box T but not immediately
above.
The box which contains orange is not kept
immediately above Box E.
Case 1 (A)

Case 1 (B)

Case 2

34
Only three boxes are kept between box E
and Box D where Box E is kept above box
D.
(Hence, Case 1(A) and Case2 will get
eliminated)
The box which contains apple is kept
below Box T but not immediately below.
Box B contains apple.
The box which contains pear is kept
above the box which contains litchi.
Box C is kept immediately above Box Q.
Neither box R nor box Q contains Pear.
Box R is kept above Box P but below Box
S.

20. Ans. A.
The box which contains orange is kept at
either 8th or 10th position in the stack.
Two boxes are kept between the box
which contains orange and Box A.
Number of boxes which contain fruits is
same below and above the box which
contains kiwi.
Case 1

Case 2
Number of boxes kept between box A and
Box T is same as the number of boxes
kept between box T and Box D.
Box A is above Box T but not immediately
above.
The box which contains orange is not kept
immediately above Box E.
Case 1 (A)

Case 1 (B)

Case 2

Only three boxes are kept between box E
and Box D where Box E is kept above box
D.
(Hence, Case 1(A) and Case2 will get
eliminated)
The box which contains apple is kept
below Box T but not immediately below.
Box B contains apple.
The box which contains pear is kept
above the box which contains litchi.

35
Box C is kept immediately above Box Q.
Neither box R nor box Q contains Pear.
Box R is kept above Box P but below Box
S.

21. Ans. D.
The box which contains orange is kept at
either 8th or 10th position in the stack.
Two boxes are kept between the box
which contains orange and Box A.
Number of boxes which contain fruits is
same below and above the box which
contains kiwi.
Case 1

Case 2

Number of boxes kept between box A and
Box T is same as the number of boxes
kept between box T and Box D.
Box A is above Box T but not immediately
above.
The box which contains orange is not kept
immediately above Box E.
Case 1 (A)

Case 1 (B)

Case 2

Only three boxes are kept between box E
and Box D where Box E is kept above box
D.
(Hence, Case 1(A) and Case2 will get
eliminated)
The box which contains apple is kept
below Box T but not immediately below.
Box B contains apple.
The box which contains pear is kept
above the box which contains litchi.
Box C is kept immediately above Box Q.
Neither box R nor box Q contains Pear.
Box R is kept above Box P but below Box
S.

36
22. Ans. D.
The box which contains orange is kept at
either 8th or 10th position in the stack.
Two boxes are kept between the box
which contains orange and Box A.
Number of boxes which contain fruits is
same below and above the box which
contains kiwi.
Case 1

Case 2

Number of boxes kept between box A and
Box T is same as the number of boxes
kept between box T and Box D.
Box A is above Box T but not immediately
above.
The box which contains orange is not kept
immediately above Box E.
Case 1 (A)
Case 1 (B)

Case 2

Only three boxes are kept between box E
and Box D where Box E is kept above box
D.
(Hence, Case 1(A) and Case2 will get
eliminated)
The box which contains apple is kept
below Box T but not immediately below.
Box B contains apple.
The box which contains pear is kept
above the box which contains litchi.
Box C is kept immediately above Box Q.
Neither box R nor box Q contains Pear.
Box R is kept above Box P but below Box
S.

37
23. Ans. E.
As we can see that if we use any two
there are so possibilities so we take all of
them.
From I, II and III,

So C lives on 1st floor.
So all of them are necessary.
Hence, option E.
24. Ans. C.
C is standing in the middle of row-3
Detail Explanation:
As given that I, D and G are in three
different rows. And the one who speaks
Gujarati is in immediate left of the one
who speaks Marathi. This raises two
cases for row-1
Case-1 The one who speaks Marathi is in
extreme right end.
__________, ______Gujrati______,
________Marathi_____

Case-2 The one who speaks Marathi is in
the middle of the Row.
_____Gujrati______,
_____Marathi_______,
_______________
Since H is standing in Row- at the right
end and speaks a foreign language (i.e.
English). Thus it eliminates the Case-1.
Case 2 is the only valid case.
ROW 1- ___Gujrati_____,
_______Marathi____, ______ (H)
English____.
Since in statement 9 it is mention that B
is the only one who speaks Gujarati and
is diagonally opposite to A. This can be
valid only when A is at the right end of
the Row-2. Thus A is the right end in the
row-2...
Row-1 ___(B) Gujrati___,
______Marathi_____,_____(H)
English_____.
Row-2______________, ____________
, ________(A)___________.
The one who speaks Tamil in a row -2 is
diagonally opposite to the one who
speaks Telugu and Hindi in Row-3.
This raises 2 cases
Case-1
Row-1 __ (B) Gujrati___,
___Marathi___, ____ (H) English___.
Row-2 _____________,
__Tamil________, ________ (A)
______.
Row-3 ______Telgu____, _________,
_____Hindi_____
Case-2
Row-1 __ (B) Gujrati___,
___Marathi___, ____ (H) English___.
Row-2 _____________,
__Tamil________, ________ (A)
______.
Row-3 ______Hindi ___, _________,
_____Telgu _____
According to statement 8 Case -2 is valid
and Case-1 is invalid.
Thus
Row-1 __ (B) Gujrati___,
___Marathi___, ____ (H) English___.
Row-2 ___Telgu__________,
__Tamil________, ________ (A)
______.
Row-3 ______Hindi ___, _________,
_____Telgu _____
Since there are 3 students who speak
English and they are standing in different
rows. Thus it implies A speaks English and
the one who is in the center of Row-3 also
speaks English.
Row-1 __ (B) Gujrati___,
___Marathi___, ____ (H) English___.
Row-2 ___Telgu__________,
__Tamil_____, ___English (A) ______.

38
Row-3 ______Hindi ___,
__English_______, _____Telgu _____
G speaks the language that is not spoken
by any other student it implies he speaks
Marathi.
I is in Row-2 and D is in Row-3 and
speaks English. Thus, again two cases
rise Either D speaks Hindi or Telugu. It is
also stated That F is the right end of Row
-3 Thus it is known that F speaks Telugu
and he finds no difficulty while speaking
to E, Implies both speak the same
language. I am in row-2 and he speaks
Tamil.
While the only left student is C who is the
middle of the Row-3 and speaks English.
Final Arrangement -

25. Ans. C.
A is the one in Row-2 who speaks English
and his to his immediate right there is no
one. While I is standing to his
immediately Left. Thus I is the only
immediate neighbor of A (who speaks
English)
Detail Explanation:
As given that I, D and G are in three
different rows. And the one who speaks
Gujarati is in immediate left of the one
who speaks Marathi. This raises two
cases for row-1
Case-1 The one who speaks Marathi is in
extreme right end.
__________, ______Gujrati______,
________Marathi_____

Case-2 The one who speaks Marathi is in
the middle of the Row.
_____Gujrati______,
_____Marathi_______,
_______________
Since H is standing in Row- at the right
end and speaks a foreign language (i.e.
English). Thus it eliminates the Case-1.
Case 2 is the only valid case.
ROW 1- ___Gujrati_____,
_______Marathi____, ______ (H)
English____.
Since in statement 9 it is mention that B
is the only one who speaks Gujarati and
is diagonally opposite to A. This can be
valid only when A is at the right end of
the Row-2. Thus A is the right end in the
row-2...
Row-1 ___(B) Gujrati___,
______Marathi_____,_____(H)
English_____.
Row-2______________, ____________
, ________(A)___________.
The one who speaks Tamil in a row -2 is
diagonally opposite to the one who
speaks Telugu and Hindi in Row-3.
This raises 2 cases
Case-1
Row-1 __ (B) Gujrati___,
___Marathi___, ____ (H) English___.
Row-2 _____________,
__Tamil________, ________ (A)
______.
Row-3 ______Telgu____, _________,
_____Hindi_____
Case-2
Row-1 __ (B) Gujrati___,
___Marathi___, ____ (H) English___.
Row-2 _____________,
__Tamil________, ________ (A)
______.
Row-3 ______Hindi ___, _________,
_____Telgu _____
According to statement 8 Case -2 is valid
and Case-1 is invalid.
Thus
Row-1 __ (B) Gujrati___,
___Marathi___, ____ (H) English___.
Row-2 ___Telgu__________,
__Tamil________, ________ (A)
______.
Row-3 ______Hindi ___, _________,
_____Telgu _____
Since there are 3 students who speak
English and they are standing in different
rows. Thus it implies A speaks English and
the one who is in the center of Row-3 also
speaks English.
Row-1 __ (B) Gujrati___,
___Marathi___, ____ (H) English___.
Row-2 ___Telgu__________,
__Tamil_____, ___English (A) ______.
Row-3 ______Hindi ___,
__English_______, _____Telgu _____

39
G speaks the language that is not spoken
by any other student it implies he speaks
Marathi.
I is in Row-2 and D is in Row-3 and
speaks English. Thus, again two cases
rise Either D speaks Hindi or Telugu. It is
also stated That F is the right end of Row
-3 Thus it is known that F speaks Telugu
and he finds no difficulty while speaking
to E, Implies both speak the same
language. I am in row-2 and he speaks
Tamil.
While the only left student is C who is the
middle of the Row-3 and speaks English.
Final Arrangement -

26. Ans. B.
C is the one is standing in Row-3, not in
Row-2. Hence Option (b) C is the correct
answer.
Detail Explanation:
As given that I, D and G are in three
different rows. And the one who speaks
Gujarati is in immediate left of the one
who speaks Marathi. This raises two
cases for row-1
Case-1 The one who speaks Marathi is in
extreme right end.
__________, ______Gujrati______,
________Marathi_____

Case-2 The one who speaks Marathi is in
the middle of the Row.
_____Gujrati______,
_____Marathi_______,
_______________
Since H is standing in Row- at the right
end and speaks a foreign language (i.e.
English). Thus it eliminates the Case-1.
Case 2 is the only valid case.
ROW 1- ___Gujrati_____,
_______Marathi____, ______ (H)
English____.
Since in statement 9 it is mention that B
is the only one who speaks Gujarati and
is diagonally opposite to A. This can be
valid only when A is at the right end of
the Row-2. Thus A is the right end in the
row-2...
Row-1 ___(B) Gujrati___,
______Marathi_____,_____(H)
English_____.
Row-2______________, ____________
, ________(A)___________.
The one who speaks Tamil in a row -2 is
diagonally opposite to the one who
speaks Telugu and Hindi in Row-3.
This raises 2 cases
Case-1
Row-1 __ (B) Gujrati___,
___Marathi___, ____ (H) English___.
Row-2 _____________,
__Tamil________, ________ (A)
______.
Row-3 ______Telgu____, _________,
_____Hindi_____
Case-2
Row-1 __ (B) Gujrati___,
___Marathi___, ____ (H) English___.
Row-2 _____________,
__Tamil________, ________ (A)
______.
Row-3 ______Hindi ___, _________,
_____Telgu _____
According to statement 8 Case -2 is valid
and Case-1 is invalid.
Thus
Row-1 __ (B) Gujrati___,
___Marathi___, ____ (H) English___.
Row-2 ___Telgu__________,
__Tamil________, ________ (A)
______.
Row-3 ______Hindi ___, _________,
_____Telgu _____
Since there are 3 students who speak
English and they are standing in different
rows. Thus it implies A speaks English and
the one who is in the center of Row-3 also
speaks English.
Row-1 __ (B) Gujrati___,
___Marathi___, ____ (H) English___.
Row-2 ___Telgu__________,
__Tamil_____, ___English (A) ______.
Row-3 ______Hindi ___,
__English_______, _____Telgu _____
G speaks the language that is not spoken
by any other student it implies he speaks
Marathi.
I is in Row-2 and D is in Row-3 and
speaks English. Thus, again two cases

40
rise Either D speaks Hindi or Telugu. It is
also stated That F is the right end of Row
-3 Thus it is known that F speaks Telugu
and he finds no difficulty while speaking
to E, Implies both speak the same
language. I am in row-2 and he speaks
Tamil.
While the only left student is C who is the
middle of the Row-3 and speaks English.
Final Arrangement -

27. Ans. C.
H, A, and C are the one who speaks
English. While D is the one who speaks
Hindi. Thus D is the correct option who
does not speak English.
Detail Explanation:
As given that I, D and G are in three
different rows. And the one who speaks
Gujarati is in immediate left of the one
who speaks Marathi. This raises two
cases for row-1
Case-1 The one who speaks Marathi is in
extreme right end.
__________, ______Gujrati______,
________Marathi_____

Case-2 The one who speaks Marathi is in
the middle of the Row.
_____Gujrati______,
_____Marathi_______,
_______________
Since H is standing in Row- at the right
end and speaks a foreign language (i.e.
English). Thus it eliminates the Case-1.
Case 2 is the only valid case.
ROW 1- ___Gujrati_____,
_______Marathi____, ______ (H)
English____.
Since in statement 9 it is mention that B
is the only one who speaks Gujarati and
is diagonally opposite to A. This can be
valid only when A is at the right end of
the Row-2. Thus A is the right end in the
row-2...
Row-1 ___(B) Gujrati___,
______Marathi_____,_____(H)
English_____.
Row-2______________, ____________
, ________(A)___________.
The one who speaks Tamil in a row -2 is
diagonally opposite to the one who
speaks Telugu and Hindi in Row-3.
This raises 2 cases
Case-1
Row-1 __ (B) Gujrati___,
___Marathi___, ____ (H) English___.
Row-2 _____________,
__Tamil________, ________ (A)
______.
Row-3 ______Telgu____, _________,
_____Hindi_____
Case-2
Row-1 __ (B) Gujrati___,
___Marathi___, ____ (H) English___.
Row-2 _____________,
__Tamil________, ________ (A)
______.
Row-3 ______Hindi ___, _________,
_____Telgu _____
According to statement 8 Case -2 is valid
and Case-1 is invalid.
Thus
Row-1 __ (B) Gujrati___,
___Marathi___, ____ (H) English___.
Row-2 ___Telgu__________,
__Tamil________, ________ (A)
______.
Row-3 ______Hindi ___, _________,
_____Telgu _____
Since there are 3 students who speak
English and they are standing in different
rows. Thus it implies A speaks English and
the one who is in the center of Row-3 also
speaks English.
Row-1 __ (B) Gujrati___,
___Marathi___, ____ (H) English___.
Row-2 ___Telgu__________,
__Tamil_____, ___English (A) ______.
Row-3 ______Hindi ___,
__English_______, _____Telgu _____
G speaks the language that is not spoken
by any other student it implies he speaks
Marathi.
I is in Row-2 and D is in Row-3 and
speaks English. Thus, again two cases
rise Either D speaks Hindi or Telugu. It is
also stated That F is the right end of Row
-3 Thus it is known that F speaks Telugu
and he finds no difficulty while speaking
to E, Implies both speak the same

41
language. I am in row-2 and he speaks
Tamil.
While the only left student is C who is the
middle of the Row-3 and speaks English.
Final Arrangement -

28. Ans. E.
The correct answer is option E, i.e. All
of the above, i.e. all of the above are
not an appropriate set of conclusions
that can be derived from the
information provided.
The given question asks which of the
following is not an apt conclusion on the
basis of the information provided thus we
must look for any such information that
cannot be derived from the passage
stated.
Option A is not based on the passage as
the role of ‘local tribal assistants’ is not
mentioned in the given context.
Option B talks about a possibility
(because of the word ‘may’) and is thus
not a conclusion. Moreover, it poses a
particular case of hornbills adapting to
the environment if their requirements are
fulfilled, which is not explicitly evident
from the information provided.
Option C discusses the idea of hornbills
using same nest over the years which is
contradicting to the idea of adapting to a
changed environment.
As all options A, B and C are irrelevant
and are not based on the information
provided thus, the most correct answer
choice is option E.
29. Ans. D.
The correct answer is option D, i.e.
Along with other threats such as
hunting, modified land use, ensuing
forest fragmentation, felling of large
trees with the potential for nesting,
the loss of fruit bearing trees could
also affect hornbill nesting habits.
A course of action is something that
needs to be done considering the present
scenario in mind.
Option A is not a course of action and is a
general statement about Hornbills. Thus,
it is rejected.
Option B is in past tense (‘highlighted’)
thus it is rejected.
Option C is an incomplete action, if
considered because it does not answer to
the question ‘In addition to what?’ and is
also eliminated.
Both options D and E look appropriate
course of actions. Between options D and
E, option D is more appropriate. Option E
talks about the idea of the ‘same nest’
and thus contradicts the idea that
hornbills are adaptive to change. Thus,
option E can also be rejected and as a
result between options D and E, option D
is relevant.
Thus, the most correct answer choice is
option D and rest of the options can be
rejected.
30. Ans. C.
The correct answer is option 3, i.e. Mid-
tier companies are sharpening their
overall strategy, by increasing focus
on certain markets and businesses
than spread thin.
‘Inference’ is a conclusion reached on the
basis of evidence and reasoning.
We first make sure to read the statement
carefully and then see what immediate
inferences can be drawn based on our
first reading. The next step is to look at
the statements given in the options,
analyze them and see if they seem
relevant with respect to the
information/data provided to us.
From the statement, we can infer that
mid-tier IT companies are growing in
terms of revenue with the advent of
technology projects. Though, they are
expected to outcast giants like Infosys
and Wipro, the pressure on their margins
is likely to increase.
(1) can be rejected as the ‘indicators’
mentioned in the beginning of the
sentence are not mentioned anywhere in
the given context. Also no information is
evident regarding new logos.
(2) can also be rejected as no information
is evident on the basis of the given
context regarding expansion across
geographies, verticals and service lines.

42
(4) can be eliminated as it just a rephrase
of the information already provided in the
given statement.
From the given assumptions (3) is the
most appropriate deduction that can be
made.
(3) can be logically inferred on the basis
of the fact that these companies are
improving their strategy (which has
impacted their revenue growth) by
targeting certain markets and businesses
(new technology projects).
As all the other options except (3) are
irrelevant with respect to the data
provided in the statement. Thus, the
correct answer is option 3.
31. Ans. B.
The one who is heaviest among all sits
third to the right of N, who is 60 years of
age. The one who is 30yrs is the heaviest
among all. Only one person sits between
N and the one who is second heaviest
among all, who is 14 years of age. Q is
shorter than only two person. So, there
will two possible case of sitting
arrangement.

The one who is 35 years of age is second
tallest, who sits second to the right of Q,
who is not the immediate neighbour of N.
O who is half the age of M. So M is 28
years of age and O is 14 years of age.

The one who sits opposite to R is the
second heaviest among all. R sits second
to the right P. So, case 1 will be
eliminated. Continuing with remaining
step, the one who is older than P is the
taller than Q. The one who is twice the
age of Q is third lightest among all. So, Q
is 30 years of age.
M sits third to the right of the one who
shortest in height among all. That means
R is shortest of them all. M is taller than
the one who is 14 years old.

32. Ans. C.
The one who is heaviest among all sits
third to the right of N, who is 60 years of
age. The one who is 30yrs is the heaviest
among all. Only one person sits between
N and the one who is second heaviest
among all, who is 14 years of age. Q is
shorter than only two person. So, there
will two possible case of sitting
arrangement.

The one who is 35 years of age is second
tallest, who sits second to the right of Q,
who is not the immediate neighbour of N.
O who is half the age of M. So M is 28
years of age and O is 14 years of age.

The one who sits opposite to R is the
second heaviest among all. R sits second
to the right P. So, case 1 will be
eliminated. Continuing with remaining
step, the one who is older than P is the
taller than Q. The one who is twice the

43
age of Q is third lightest among all. So, Q
is 30 years of age.

M sits third to the right of the one who
shortest in height among all. That means
R is shortest of them all. M is taller than
the one who is 14 years old.

33. Ans. E.
All persons age are even number
except option E person.
The one who is heaviest among all sits
third to the right of N, who is 60 years of
age. The one who is 30yrs is the heaviest
among all. Only one person sits between
N and the one who is second heaviest
among all, who is 14 years of age. Q is
shorter than only two person. So, there
will two possible case of sitting
arrangement.

The one who is 35 years of age is second
tallest, who sits second to the right of Q,
who is not the immediate neighbour of N.
O who is half the age of M. So M is 28
years of age and O is 14 years of age.

The one who sits opposite to R is the
second heaviest among all. R sits second
to the right P. So, case 1 will be
eliminated. Continuing with remaining
step, the one who is older than P is the
taller than Q. The one who is twice the
age of Q is third lightest among all. So, Q
is 30 years of age.

M sits third to the right of the one who
shortest in height among all. That means
R is shortest of them all. M is taller than
the one who is 14 years old.

34. Ans. B.
The one who is heaviest among all sits
third to the right of N, who is 60 years of
age. The one who is 30yrs is the heaviest
among all. Only one person sits between
N and the one who is second heaviest
among all, who is 14 years of age. Q is
shorter than only two person. So, there
will two possible case of sitting
arrangement.

The one who is 35 years of age is second
tallest, who sits second to the right of Q,
who is not the immediate neighbour of N.
O who is half the age of M. So M is 28
years of age and O is 14 years of age.

The one who sits opposite to R is the
second heaviest among all. R sits second
to the right P. So, case 1 will be
eliminated. Continuing with remaining

44
step, the one who is older than P is the
taller than Q. The one who is twice the
age of Q is third lightest among all. So, Q
is 30 years of age.

M sits third to the right of the one who
shortest in height among all. That means
R is shortest of them all. M is taller than
the one who is 14 years old.

35. Ans. C.
From statement I:
O got more salary than only two persons.
N > M but N did not get the highest
salary. Q got highest salary than only R.
P > N > M > O > Q > R
From statement II:
M got less salary than only two persons.
Q > R, O > Q. M > O. P > N
P > N > M > O > Q > R
Hence, the data in statement I or in
statement II alone is sufficient to answer
the question.
36. Ans. C.
From this information their positions are
in decreasing order-
A(400)>B>C>D>E>F(60)
It is given D, E and F have average marks
= 95
So total marks=95 x 3= 285
F got 60 marks so-
D+E=285-60= 225 marks
37. Ans. D.
As the total time is 11 hours on adding all
given times we will get bike serviced for
1 and half hour and Truck for 2 and half
hours.
Jeep has to be serviced after Van and as
per the given condition the first vehicle
will be Bus followed by Bike,Truck,Van
and Jeep and accordingly the following
time is obtained
38. Ans. B.
As the total time is 11 hours on adding all
given times we will get bike serviced for
1 and half hour and Truck for 2 and half
hours.
Jeep has to be serviced after Van and as
per the given condition the first vehicle
will be Bus followed by Bike,Truck,Van
and Jeep and accordingly the following
time is obtained

39. Ans. D.
As the total time is 11 hours on adding all
given times we will get bike serviced for
1 and half hour and Truck for 2 and half
hours.
Jeep has to be serviced after Van and as
per the given condition the first vehicle
will be Bus followed by Bike,Truck,Van
and Jeep and accordingly the following
time is obtained

40. Ans. C.
The correct answer is option 3, i.e. Only
III is strong.
We first make sure to read the statement
carefully and then see what immediate
inferences can be drawn based on our
first reading. The next step is to look at
the arguments given in the options,
analyze them and see if they seem

45
relevant with respect to the
information/data provided to us. Finally,
it is very important to study the question
closely.
The above statement deals with the fact
that India has opted out from the deal
with Russia and the latter has been
conveyed that it can go ahead with the
project and India may join it at a later
stage.
Argument (I) can be rejected on first
reading as it deals with the details of the
deal and does not answers the question
asked.
Argument (II) can also be rejected as it
hints at the idea of the problems between
the two nations. It might look as an
appropriate answer choice but does not
provides a suitable reason as to why India
may be interested in the project in later
stages (as mentioned in the statement).
Argument (III) generalizes the approach
of India that it is adopting a layered
approach and might be interested in the
project later on. It captures the essence
of the given statement and thus, answers
the question in the complete manner.
Thus, option 3 captures the correct
arguments that support the statement in
the best possible manner and is our
answer choice. Hence, rest of the options
can be rejected.
41. Ans. A.
The correct answer is option 1, i.e. In
addition to rising delinquencies over
the last few years would force
lenders to be more cautious while
underwriting loans. This would limit
refinancing options, adversely
affecting existing borrowers.
Option 1 is the most appropriate
inference that can be made based on the
information provided. It captures all the
important points like ‘rising
delinquencies’, ‘effect of limit on the
refinancing options thereby, affecting the
customers’ are evident both from the
given statement and the option choice.
Rest of the arguments can be rejected.
Option (2) is very unpredictable and it
cannot be said with surety about the loss
limitation. Both options (3) and (4) can
also be rejected as no idea of ABS (asset
backed securities) is evident from the
information provided in the given
statement.
Thus, the most appropriate answer is
option 1.
42. Ans. A.
The correct answer is option A, i.e.
Only conclusion I follows.
In this type of question, conclusion is
not specifically mentioned. It needs
to be deduced from the given
statements.
From both the statements, we infer
that the world’s largest bee which is
roughly the size of a human thumb has
been rediscovered in a remote part of
Indonesia. And despite of its conspicuous
size, no one had observed Wallace’s giant
bee which was discovered in the 19th
century by British naturalist Alfred Russel
Wallace.
Conclusion 1 is evident from the
information stated in the second
statement which states that ‘despite
of its (bee’s) conspicuous size, no one
had observed Wallace’s giant bee’. Thus,
it can be concluded that previous
expeditions failed to spot it.
Conclusion 2 is irrelevant as the idea of
forests being cut down for agriculture in
Indonesia is not supported by the
information stated in the given context.
Conclusion 3 is also rejected as the
specific location where the bee can be
traced, and its large fang-like mandibles
is not mentioned in both the statements.
As only conclusion I follows the direction
of the given statements thus, the most
correct answer choice is option A and rest
of the options can be rejected.
43. Ans. E.
1) Two persons sit between R and P.
Here, we have two possible cases i.e.
Case 1 and Case 2.
2) P faces inside.

3) S sits second to the right of R.
Here, we have two more possible cases
i.e. Case 3 and Case 4.

46
4) Only one person sits between N and S
who does not sit at corner of the table.
Here, our case 1 and 3 get eliminated and
we further proceed with case 2 and 4.
5) L faces opposite direction to R.
6) M sits 2nd to the left of L.

7) M and N faces same direction as P and
not more than two persons sit adjacent to
each other who are facing same direction.
Here, Case 4 gets eliminated.
So, S faces outside and our final
arrangement will be:

Clearly, L does not belong to that group
because except L all are facing inside the
table.
44. Ans. C.
1) Two persons sit between R and P.
Here, we have two possible cases i.e.
Case 1 and Case 2.
2) P faces inside.

3) S sits second to the right of R.
Here, we have two more possible cases
i.e. Case 3 and Case 4.

4) Only one person sits between N and S
who does not sit at corner of the table.
Here, our case 1 and 3 get eliminated and
we further proceed with case 2 and 4.
5) L faces opposite direction to R.
6) M sits 2nd to the left of L.

7) M and N faces same direction as P and
not more than two persons sit adjacent to
each other who are facing same direction.
Here, Case 4 gets eliminated.
So, S faces outside and our final
arrangement will be:

Clearly, P sits second to the right of the
one who sits third to the left of N.
45. Ans. A.
1) Two persons sit between R and P.
Here, we have two possible cases i.e.
Case 1 and Case 2.
2) P faces inside.

3) S sits second to the right of R.
Here, we have two more possible cases
i.e. Case 3 and Case 4.

47
4) Only one person sits between N and S
who does not sit at corner of the table.
Here, our case 1 and 3 get eliminated and
we further proceed with case 2 and 4.
5) L faces opposite direction to R.
6) M sits 2nd to the left of L.

7) M and N faces same direction as P and
not more than two persons sit adjacent to
each other who are facing same direction.
Here, Case 4 gets eliminated.
So, S faces outside and our final
arrangement will be:

Clearly, three persons sit between S and
N when counted from the right of N.
46. Ans. B.
Pattern of the series I:
1 + 600 = 601

So, a = 761
Pattern of the series II:
753 + 16 = 769
769 – 8 = 761
761 + 4 = 765
765 – 2 = 763
763 + 1 = 764
So, b = 761
Pattern of the series III:
23 × 1 + 1 = 24
24 × 2 + 2 = 50
50 × 3 + 3 = 153
153 × 4 + 4 = 616
616 × 5 + 5 = 3085
So, c = 616
Hence, a = b > c
47. Ans. A.
Pattern of the series I (double
difference):
107 – 5 = 102
117 – (5 + 5) = 107
134 – (5 + 5 + 7) = 117
134 – (5 + 5 + 7 + 9) = 160
So, a = 160
Pattern of the series II:
130 – 15 = 115
115 + 20 = 135
135 – 25 = 110
110 + 30 = 140
So, b = 140
Pattern of the series II:
160 × 0.5 = 80
80 × 1.5 = 120
120 × 2.5 = 300
300 × 3.5 = 1050
So, c = 160
Hence, b < a = c.
48. Ans. C.

Let the female population in village A and
C be F
Population of male in village A = (6000 –
F)
Population of male in village C = (4000 –
F)
According to the question:

× 100 + 125 = × 100
On solving above equation, we get F =
1600
Hence, male population in village A =
6000 – 1600 = 4400
49. Ans. E.

48
Population of village D = 9600
Male population of village D = 9600 –
4000 = 5600

Gender ratio of village D = × 100 =
140
50. Ans. A.
Population density of village B in 2001 =
400
Then, population density of village E in
2001 = 1600 (since, ratio of population
density of a village B to that of village E
is 1 : 4)
Population density of village E in 2010 =
800 (50% of 1600)
Population of village E in 2010 = 800 × 4
= 3200
51. Ans. D.
Total number of people shown interest for
a loan = 9600
Total number of people who have applied
for loan = 37.5% of 9600

= × 9600 = 3600
Since, 2880 were not eligible for a loan,
So, total no. of people eligible for loan =
3600 – 2880 = 720
52. Ans. E.
Total number of people shown interest for
a loan = 9600
Total number of people visited for a loan
fair = 9600 + 6000 = 15,600
Total number of people contacted for a
loan fair = 15,600 + 7400 = 23,000.
53. Ans. C.
Total number of people contacted for loan
fair = z
Here, z is given as 19200
Total number of people visited for the
loan fair = x
Total number of people who have shown
interest for the loan fair = 9600
Total number of people who did not visit
for the loan fair = z – x or, 19200 – x
Total number of people who visited but
did shown interest loan = x – 9600
Now, according to the question =

=
⇒ x = 14,400
54. Ans. E.
Total number of people eligible for loan =
20% of 37.5% of 9600

or, × × 9600 = 720
Loan of 40% of the people did not
disbursed who were eligible for a loan =
40% of 720

or, = 288
Total number of people whose loan
disbursed = 720 – 288 = 432

Hence, required ratio = =
55. Ans. E.
Total number of people eligible for loan =
20% of 37.5% of 9600

or, × × 9600 = 720
Total number of people who shown
interest but did not apply for loan =
62.5% of 9600

or, × 9600 = 6000
Now, 9% of 6000 = 540 = whose loans
were not disbursed
So, people whose loans were disbursed =
720 – 540 = 180
Hence, value of y = 180
56. Ans. C.
Total area of pie = (X × 0.77) cm2
50% was rotten, therefore, the area of
remaining 50% = (X – 3) × 0.616 cm2
So, (X – 3) × 0.616 cm2 × 2 = (X × 0.77)
cm2
⇒ (1.232 – 0.77)X = 3.696

⇒ X = = 8
57. Ans. E.
Area of original pie = 8 × 0.77 cm2
pr2 = 8 × 0.77 cm2

⇒ r = = 1.4 cm
hence, the circumference of the original
pie = 2pr = 2 × 3.14 × 1.4 = 8.792 cm
58. Ans. B.

49
Area of original pie = 8 × 0.77 cm2 = 6.16
cm2
Pie is cut into 11 pieces

So, area of each piece = = 0.56 cm2
59. Ans. C.
Work unit of project A in both situation 1
and situation 2 are same.
X × 88 = (X + 8) × 66
⇒ 8X – 6X = 48
⇒ X = 24
Now, According to question:
24 × 88 = 64 × Required number of days
Hence, required number of days =

= 33 days
60. Ans. C.
Work unit of project C in both situation 1
and situation 2 are same.
⇒ Z2 × 75 = M2 × 108

⇒ = = =

⇒ =
Total unit work of project C = 36 × 75 =
2700
Days required by Team P to complete

Project C = = = 90 days
61. Ans. B.
Work unit of project B in both situation 1
and situation 2 are same.
⇒ Y(Y – 1) = (Y + 6)(Y – 6)
⇒ Y2 – Y = Y2 – 36
⇒ Y = 36
So, total work units = 36 × 35 = 1260
According to the question:
0.5Y × 10 + (0.5Y + 0.5Y) × D = 1260
⇒ 5Y + YD = 1260
⇒ YD = 1260 – 180
⇒ D = 1080/36
⇒ D = 30
Total days in which work completed = 30
+ 10 = 40 days
62. Ans. D.
Let the number of white balls = w, the
number of green balls = g and the
number of red balls = r, then

=
⇒ (g + r) = 2w
⇒ g = (2w – r)
According to question

⇒ – =

⇒ =

⇒ =
⇒ 20g = w(w + 2)
⇒ 20(2w – r) = w(w + 2)
Let r = 7x, then w = 5x
⇒ 20(10x – 7x) = 5x(5x + 2)
⇒ 12 = (5x + 2)
⇒ x = 2
So, number of red balls = 7x = 14,
number of white balls = 5x = 10 and
number of green balls = (2w – r) = 6
Hence, the required probability =

= = .
63. Ans. A.
Let the number of white balls = w, the
number of green balls = g and the
number of red balls = r, then

=

⇒ =
⇒ w = 10

Hence, the required probability = =

= .
64. Ans. C.
Let the number of white balls = w, the
number of green balls = g and the
number of red balls = r, then

=
⇒ (w + g + r) = 3w
According to question

⇒ =
⇒ (w + g + r) = 5g
Let (w + g + r) = 15x, then
w = 5x, g = 3x and r = 15x – 5x – 3x =
7x
Also given

⇒ – =

50
⇒ =
⇒ x = 2
So, number of red balls = r = 7x = 14,
number of white balls = w = 5x = 10 and
number of green balls = g = 3x = 6
Hence, the required probability =

= = .
65. Ans. B.
Let the number of white balls = w, the
number of green balls = g and the
number of red balls = r, then g + w = 16

Given =

⇒ w =

⇒ g = 16 – w = 16 – =
According to question

⇒ – =

⇒ =

⇒ =
⇒ r2 + 98r – 2272 = 0
⇒ r2 + 112r – 14r – 2272 = 0
⇒ r = 14 or –112

So, g = = = 6 and w =
16 – g = 10

Hence, the required probability = +

+ = + +

= = .
66. Ans. C.
Let the total number of balls in the bag =
(3 × 5)x = 15x, then

Number of white balls = 15x × = 5x and
sum of the number of white and red balls

= 15x × = 12x, then
Number of red balls = 12x – 5x = 7x and
number of green balls = 15x – 12x = 3x
Also,

– =

⇒ =
⇒ x = 2
So, number of red balls = 7x = 14 and
number of white balls = 5x = 10
Hence, the required number of balls = 14
+ 10 = 24.
67. Ans. E.
Given, (Son’s present age – 3 years) +
(Daughter’s present age – 3 years) + 4
years = (Amit's present age – 3 years)
⇒Son’s present age + Daughter’s present
age = (Amit's present age – 1 year)
From statement III: (Son’s present age
+ 2 years) + (Daughter’s present age +
2 years) – 1 year = (Amit's present age
+ 2 years)
⇒Son’s present age + Daughter’s present
age = (Amit's present age – 1 year)
This information is already given in
question, so we cannot answer the
question from statement III.
⇒
From statement I: Wife's present age =
Amit’s present age – 7 years
Wife's present age = 2 × Amit’s son
present age
Also, Amit's present age = Wife’s present
age + 7 years = 2 × Son’s present age +
7
⇒Son’s present age + Daughter’s present
age = (2 × Son's present age + 6 years)
⇒Daughter’s present age = (Son's
present age + 6 years)
From statement II: Let 4 years hence
the age of Amit’s daughter = 6x years,
then
4 years hence the age of Amit’s son = 5x
years
3 years ago, the age of Amit = (6x – 4 –
3) + (5x – 4 – 3) + 4 = (11x – 10) years
Present age of Amit = (11x – 10) + 3 =
(11x – 7) years
From statements I and II together:
6x – 4 = 5x – 4 + 6
⇒x = 6
Hence, statements I and II together
sufficient to answer the question.
68. Ans. D.

51
Total profit at the end of the year = 40%
of (60000 + 45000) = Rs. 42000
Hence, the share of A in the total profit =

× 42000 = Rs.
26880.
69. Ans. C.
Let the number of long questions
answered by B and C be y and z
respectively, then
the number of short questions answered
by B = 5y
Number of spelling errors made by A =
(2x + 10), then
Number of spelling errors made by B =

=
For C, number of short questions
answered = (Number of long questions
answered by B × 10 + 35)/5
= (2z + 7)
Number of short questions answered by
D is average of that answered by A and B

= =

=

⇒Number of long questions answered by
D =

=
Number of spelling errors made by D = (4

× 10) – = (20 – 4x)

Total marks scored by D = 86
5(x + 5y + 6)/2 +10(x + 5y + 6)/8 – (20
– 4x)/2 = 86
⇒15(x + 5y + 6)/4 – (10 – 2x) = 86
⇒23x + 75y = 294 …. (i)
Also, 5 × 5y + 10 × y – 3(x + 5)/8 = 102
⇒280y – 3x = 831 …. (ii)
On solving equation (i) and (ii), we get
x = y = 3
∴ The number of question short and long
questions answered, number of spelling
errors and total marks scored will be as
follow

Required difference = 102 – 67 = 35.
70. Ans. A. A. A. A. A. A. A. A.
71. Ans. C.
Let the number of long questions
answered by B and C be y and z
respectively, then
the number of short questions answered
by B = 5y
Number of spelling errors made by A =
(2x + 10), then
Number of spelling errors made by B =

=
For C, number of short questions
answered = (Number of long questions
answered by B × 10 + 35)/5
= (2z + 7)
Number of short questions answered by
D is average of that answered by A and B

= =

=

⇒Number of long questions answered by
D =

=
Number of spelling errors made by D = (4

× 10) – = (20 – 4x)

Total marks scored by D = 86
5(x + 5y + 6)/2 +10(x + 5y + 6)/8 – (20
– 4x)/2 = 86
⇒15(x + 5y + 6)/4 – (10 – 2x) = 86
⇒23x + 75y = 294 …. (i)

52
Also, 5 × 5y + 10 × y – 3(x + 5)/8 = 102
⇒280y – 3x = 831 …. (ii)
On solving equation (i) and (ii), we get
x = y = 3
∴ The number of question short and long
questions answered, number of spelling
errors and total marks scored will be as
follow

Required ratio = (15 + 3) : (12 + 3) = 6
: 5.
72. Ans. D.
Let the number of long questions
answered by B and C be y and z
respectively, then
the number of short questions answered
by B = 5y
Number of spelling errors made by A =
(2x + 10), then
Number of spelling errors made by B =

=
For C, number of short questions
answered = (Number of long questions
answered by B × 10 + 35)/5
= (2z + 7)
Number of short questions answered by
D is average of that answered by A and B

= =

=

⇒Number of long questions answered by
D =

=
Number of spelling errors made by D = (4

× 10) – = (20 – 4x)

Total marks scored by D = 86
5(x + 5y + 6)/2 +10(x + 5y + 6)/8 – (20
– 4x)/2 = 86
⇒15(x + 5y + 6)/4 – (10 – 2x) = 86
⇒23x + 75y = 294 …. (i)
Also, 5 × 5y + 10 × y – 3(x + 5)/8 = 102
⇒280y – 3x = 831 …. (ii)
On solving equation (i) and (ii), we get
x = y = 3
∴ The number of question short and long
questions answered, number of spelling
errors and total marks scored will be as
follow

It is given that
Total marks of A < Total marks of C <
Total marks of D
68 < [5(2z + 7) + 10z – 5] < 86
⇒68 < (20z + 30) < 86
⇒38 < 20z < 56
∴Possible value of z = 2
So, total marks scored by C = (20z + 30)
= 70
Total marks scored by E = Total marks
scored by C + 30 = 70 + 30 = 100

Hence, the required percentage =
× 100 = 30%.
73. Ans. C.
Let the number of long questions
answered by B and C be y and z
respectively, then
the number of short questions answered
by B = 5y
Number of spelling errors made by A =
(2x + 10), then
Number of spelling errors made by B =

=
For C, number of short questions
answered = (Number of long questions
answered by B × 10 + 35)/5
= (2z + 7)
Number of short questions answered by
D is average of that answered by A and B

= =

53
=

⇒Number of long questions answered by
D =

=
Number of spelling errors made by D = (4

× 10) – = (20 – 4x)

Total marks scored by D = 86
5(x + 5y + 6)/2 +10(x + 5y + 6)/8 – (20
– 4x)/2 = 86
⇒15(x + 5y + 6)/4 – (10 – 2x) = 86
⇒23x + 75y = 294 …. (i)
Also, 5 × 5y + 10 × y – 3(x + 5)/8 = 102
⇒280y – 3x = 831 …. (ii)
On solving equation (i) and (ii), we get
x = y = 3
∴ The number of question short and long
questions answered, number of spelling
errors and total marks scored will be as
follow

Required sum = 3 + 3 + 3 = 9.
74. Ans. C.

Hence, the required ratio = (66 + 60 +
70 + 54) : (40 + 42 + 30 + 38) = 250 :
150 = 5 : 3.
75. Ans. B.
Total cost price of shares = 150 × 40 =
Rs. 6000
Total commission while buying = Rs. 200
Total selling price = 40% of 150 × 50 +
60% of 150 × 35 = 3000 + 3150 = Rs.
6150
Total commission while selling = 8% of
6150 = Rs. 492
Hence, the total loss incurred by trader =
6000 + 200 + 492 – 6150 = Rs. 542.
76. Ans. D.

Selling amount of shares on Friday = 0.8X

× × 35 = Rs.
Total commission while selling on Friday

= [100 + 10% of ( – 3000)] = ( –
200)
According to question

– ( – 200) = 5240

⇒ = 5040
X = 360
77. Ans. A.

Let he bought the shares at the price
Rs.x/share, then
Total cost price for shares = 250 × x =
Rs. 250x (It must be greater than Rs.
5000, because x ≥ 40)
Total commission while buying = Rs. 250
+ 5% of (250x – 5000) = Rs. 12.5x

54
Total selling price = of 250 × 50 + of
250 × 70 = 7500 + 7000 = Rs. 14500
Total commission while selling = [100 +
8% of (7500 – 4000)] + [100 + 8% of
(7000 – 4000)] = 200 + 8% of 6500 =
Rs. 720
So, the total profit = 14500 – (720 +
250x + 12.5x) = 130
⇒262.5x = 13650
⇒x = 52
Hence, the answer is A.
78. Ans. E.

Average closing price of shares of the
company XYZ for the given 5 days =

= 47
Average opening price of shares of the
company XYZ for the given 5 days =

= 47

Hence, the required percentage =
× 100 = 0%.
79. Ans. A.
Statement I:
Passing marks of the examination =

So, statement I alone is sufficient to
answer the question.
Statement II:
We already know that the difference in
the marks obtained by Ravi and Ram =

There is no additional information given
in the statement. So, the value of ‘x’ can’t
be determined.
So, statement II alone is not sufficient to
answer the question.
Thus, the data in Statement I alone are
sufficient to answer the question, while
the data in Statement II alone are not
sufficient to answer the question.
So option (a) is the correct answer.
80. Ans. C.
Statement I:
Let, s be the speed of Train A
According to the question,

Also,

Using both the equations, we get,

m/s

So,
Therefore, length of Train A = 300 m
So, statement I alone is sufficient to
answer the question.
Statement II:
Let, s be the speed of Train A
According to the question,

Also,

From both equations, we get

m/sec

So,

55
Therefore, length of Train A =

So, statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question.
Thus, the data either in Statement I or in
Statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
So option (c) is the correct answer.
81. Ans. D.
* The government has also proposed to
allocate Rs 70,000 crore for PSU bank
recapitalisation and has enhanced the
target for disinvestment to Rs 1,05,000
crore.
* FM Sitharaman specified multiple
provisions and structural changes
towards the banking sector, starting with
provision of about Rs 70,000 crore in
terms of additional capital infusion to
state-owned banks to support credit
improvement.
* The Budget also proposed to provide
PSU banks one-time 6-month credit
guarantee of Rs 1 lakh crore to buy high-
rated pooled assets of "sound" NBFCs,
adding that fundamentally sound NBFCs
will keep getting funding from banks,
Mutual Funds.
82. Ans. C.
● Aviva Life Insurance has announced the
launch of ‘Wings’, a specially designed
mentorship program to empower the
female workforce.
● The program is an initiative of the SHE
division of the company, for mentoring all
the women employees.
Note:
● Aviva Life Insurance is a joint venture
between Dabur Invest and Aviva
International Holdings, a UK-based
insurance group, whose association with
India goes back to 1834.
83. Ans. B.
Abhijeet Gupta claimed his fifth title as
India swept medals in all 16 sections of
the Commonwealth chess championship
here on Sunday.
After two other leaders, S. L. Narayanan
and Aravindh Chithambaram, drew their
top board battle in 32 moves, Abhijeet
caught Arjun Erigaisi in a checkmating
net in 39 moves to reach 7.5 points.
84. Ans. B.
• The Union Budget has allocated
₹65,837 crore outlay for Indian Railways
for the financial year 2019-20, in a bid to
expand the rail infrastructure.
• The capital expenditure has been
increased to ₹1.6 lakh crore in 2018-19
from ₹1.39 lakh crore a year ago.
85. Ans. C.
• The state government of Kerala and the
World Bank has signed USD 250 Million
loan agreement for the First Resilient
Kerala Program to enhance the State's
resilience against the impacts of natural
disasters and climate change.
• The Resilient Kerala Program will focus
on strengthening the State's institutional
and financial capacity to protect the
assets and livelihoods of poor and
vulnerable groups through an inclusive
and participatory approach.
• The 2018 floods and landslides in Kerala
led to severe impact on property,
infrastructure, and lives and livelihoods of
people.
86. Ans. D.
Madhya Pradesh CM Kamal Nath has
launched the state Government’s flagship
scheme ‘Mukhyamantri Yuva Swabhiman
Yojana’ to urban youths (21-30 years)
from economically weaker sections.
Under the scheme, Rs 4,000 stipend per
month will be given for 100 days of
employment every year.
87. Ans. C.
* The fiscal deficit target for the financial
year 2019-20 is 3.3% of GDP, lower
than the 3.4% estimated earlier in the
interim Budget presented in February
2019.
* The fiscal deficit is the difference
between the government’s total
expenditure and its total receipts
(excluding borrowing) during a fiscal
year. In simple words, it is the amount of
borrowing the government has to resort
to meet its expenses.
88. Ans. D.
• State Government of Karnataka, the
state which have largest drought-prone
land in the country has launched the
water conservation scheme
“Jalamrutha”.

56
• This scheme focuses on drought
proofing measures, including protection
and rejuvenation of waterbodies.
• It will deploy scientific approaches for
water budgeting, water harvesting and
water conservation through the use of
geospatial data, satellite imagery,
topographical and geological data.
• Under this scheme water conservation
strategy comprises four components of
water literacy, rejuvenation of water
bodies, creation of new water bodies as
well as development of watersheds and
afforestation activities.
• This will operate on a four-tier
institutional structure with planning and
execution committees being set up at
village, taluk, district and State levels.
• Karnataka Government has decided to
declare 2019 as the ‘Year of Water’ to
emphasise the importance of water
becoming a scarce commodity and the
need to conserve it.
89. Ans. C.
• Bank of Maharashtra (BoM) has
partnered with M1Xchange Trade
Receivables Discounting System (TReDS)
platform for MSME bill discounting.
• TReDS is a digital platform to support
micro, small and medium enterprises
(MSMEs) to get their bills financed at a
competitive rate through an auction
where multiple registered financiers can
participate.
• In addition to TReDS platform of
Receivables Exchange of India Ltd (RXIL)
& Invoicemart (A.TREDS Ltd), the bank
has now on-boarded as financier on the
TReDS platform of M1Xchange of Mynd
Solutions
90. Ans. A.
• National record holder Dutee Chand
became the first Indian woman track and
field athlete to clinch a gold medal at the
30th Summer University Games in
Napoli, Italy.
• She won the 100m dash event here.
• The 23-year-old Dutee clocked 11.32
seconds to win the gold as she led the
race from start to finish.
91. Ans. D.
• Virat Kohli won the International
Cricketer and Batsman of the Year award
during the CEAT Cricket Rating (CCR)
International awards 2019.
• Jasprit Bumrah adjudged as
International Bowler of the Year.
• Cheteshwar Pujara adjudged as
International Test Cricketer of the Year.
• Rohit Sharma adjudged as
International ODI Cricketer of the Year.
92. Ans. C.
A unique strategy adopted by Northeast
Frontier Railway (NFR) called ‘Plan Bee’ to
keep wild elephants away from train
tracks has won the ‘Best Innovation
Award’ in Indian Railways for the 2018-
19 fiscal. The prize is awarded by Indian
Railways and comprises of a citation and
a cash award of Rs.3 lakh.
• Plan Bee- It is an amplifying system that
imitates the buzz of a swarm of honey
bees to keep wild elephants away from
railway tracks.
• As per NFR officials, a mix of Plan Bee
and other measures have helped them
save 1,014 elephants from 2014 to June
2019.
93. Ans. D.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) board
has finalised a three- year roadmap
named “Utkarsh 2022” to improve
regulation and supervision and various
other functions of the central bank.
To identify issues that needed to be
addressed over the next three years, an
internal committee was formed.
It was headed by outgoing Deputy
Governor Viral Acharya.
94. Ans. D.
• The International Day of Happiness
2019 was celebrated on March 20 with
the theme Happier Together, focusing on
what we have in common, rather than
what divides us.
• International Day of Happiness
recognises the importance of happiness
in the lives of people around the world.
• The concept of International Day of
Happiness was conceptualised and
materialised by UN special advisor Jayme
Illien to inspire and spread a happiness
movement globally and the first ever
international day of happiness was
observed on March 20, 2013.
95. Ans. C.

57
• Deposits in bank accounts opened
under Jan Dhan scheme, launched about
five years ago by the Modi-government,
have crossed the Rs 1 lakh crore mark.
• As per the latest finance ministry data,
the total balance in over 36.06 crore
Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)
accounts was at Rs 1,00,495.94 crore as
on July 3.
96. Ans. A.
Captain Aarohi Pandit, a 23-year-old pilot
from Mumbai became the world's first
woman to cross the Atlantic Ocean solo in
a Light Sports Aircraft (LSA), thrilling her
family, friends and aviation circles.
She achieved the feat around midnight on
May 13-14 when she landed her tiny
aircraft at Iqaluit Airport in Canada, after
a gruelling 3,000 km long flight, under
adverse and extreme weather conditions
the following take-off from Wick, Scotland
(United Kingdom), with brief stopovers in
Greenland and Iceland.
97. Ans. B.
● According to the survey conducted by
the Randstad Employer Brand Research
(REBR) 2019, Amazon India is the
country’s most attractive employer
brand.
● Microsoft India emerged as the runner-
up, followed by Sony India.
● According to the REBR 2019 report,
Amazon scored high on financial health,
utilisation of the latest technologies and a
strong reputation.
● Others in the top 10 are Mercedes-Benz
(4th), IBM (5th), Larsen & Toubro (6th),
Nestlé (7th), Infosys (8th), Samsung
(9th), and Dell (10th).
● Google India had been inducted into the
REBR’s Hall of Fame category last year for
winning the coveted title of the most-
attractive employer brand for three
consecutive years.
98. Ans. B.
HDFC Bank has been identified as number
1 bank by customers in India, as per
Forbes World’s Best Bank survey.
HDFC Bank emerged as India’s No 1
bank. ICICI Bank was at number 2 and
SBI was surprisingly ranked 11th in the
list.
99. Ans. B.
• The Indigenous Pinaka rocket system of
the Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO), known for firing a
salvo of 12 rockets in just 44 seconds, is
being evolved into a precision-guided
missile, with enhanced range and
accuracy to hit its targets. The missile,
which has completed the initial trial, will
undergo developmental trials and is
expected to be delivered to the Army in
two years
• The initial version of the Pinaka rocket
was further developed into Pinaka Mark
II, which has an enhanced range of 70 to
80 km compared to Mark I, with a range
of 40 km. The rocket has been developed
by the Armament cluster of the DRDO,
with a lead from Pune-based Armament
Research and Development
Establishment (ARDE). Along with ARDE,
the High Energy Material Research
Laboratory in Pune and two DRDO
establishments in Hyderabad have
contributed to the development.
100. Ans. C.
• Reserve Bank of India has on December
1, 2016 authorised Receivables Exchange
of India Limited (RXIL) to launch India’s
first trade receivables exchange platform
- an online market place for MSMEs,
Buyers and Financiers.
• RXIL has been promoted by SIDBI, the
apex financial institution for promotion
and financing of MSMEs in India and
National Stock Exchange of India Limited
(NSE) the premier stock exchange in
India.
101. Ans. A.
• The IFSC is an 11-character code with
the first four alphabetic characters
representing the bank name, and the last
six characters (usually numeric, but can
be alphabetic) representing the branch.
• The fifth character is 0 (zero) and
reserved for future use.
102. Ans. A.
Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
(MoHUA) has partnered with Microsoft
India to use the platform Project Sangam
of Microsoft on its Swachh Bharat e-
Learning Portal.
103. Ans. B.

58
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
constituted a committee under Harsh
Vardhan, to review existing state of
mortgage securitisation in India and
suggest measures to develop market
further.
• The committee constitutes a six-
member panel that is headed by Harsh
Vardhan, Senior Advisor in Bain &
Company (a Management consulting
company).
• It shall submit its report to RBI by the
end of August 2019.
Objective:
• To review existing state of mortgage
backed securitisation in India and also
suggests measure to deepen housing
finance securitisation market.
• To assess role of various counterparties
in securitisation process which includes
servicers, rating agencies, trustees, and
also suggest steps to address key risks.
104. Ans. B.
• The full form of NCLT is National
Company Law Appellate Tribunal.
• It is a quasi-judicial body in India that
adjudicates issues relating to Indian
companies.
105. Ans. E.
• The Global Gender Gap Report ranks
144 countries on the progress they have
made towards gender parity in four areas
– health, education, economics and
politics.
• The report’s Gender Gap Index ranks
countries according to calculated gender
gap between women and men in four key
areas: health, education, economy and
politics to gauge the state of gender
equality in a country.
• The report measures women's
disadvantage compared to men, and is
not strictly a measure of equality.
106. Ans. E.
The World Bank and the Commonwealth
Bank of Australia (CommBank) have
teamed up to enable recording of
secondary market bond trading using
blockchain tech.
The institutions announced that their
successful recording of a secondary
transaction for bond-i, a blockchain-
operated debt instrument, on a
distributed ledger shows the “vast
potential” of the technology, and marks
the first bond to have both issuance and
trading recorded on a blockchain
platform.
Bond-i was first issued last August by the
World Bank, with the CommBank being a
sole arranger. The experiment helped the
World Bank raise $81 million at the time.
107. Ans. C.
ICICI Bank has entered into an
agreement with the BSE to buy a stake in
its subsidiary INX - located at GIFT City
Gujarat - for nearly Rs 31 crore.
India International Exchange (INX) - a
wholly-owned subsidiary of the BSE - is
India's first international exchange at
International Financial Services Centre
(IFSC) in GIFT City.
The investment is subject to regulatory
approvals and comes at a cash
consideration of up to Rs 305 million in
tranches to acquire up to 9.9 per cent
shareholding in INX, ICICI Bank said in a
regulatory filing.
108. Ans. C.
The Indian Space Research
Organisation’s (ISRO) new commercial
arm called NewSpace India Limited
(NSIL) was officially inaugurated in
Bengaluru, Karnataka.
NSIL will be responsible for
manufacturing the and production of
Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) and
Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV)
through technology transfer mechanisms.
109. Ans. D.
• On 3rd March 2019, central government
approved the proposal for setting up of a
Centre for Disability Sports at Gwalior.
• TThis centre at Gwalior will be set up
with an estimated cost of Rs 170.99
crores over a period of 5 years.
• Improved sports infrastructure will
ensure effective participation of Persons
with Disabilities (PwDs) in sports
activities and also enable them to
compete at national and international
levels.
• Setting up of this Centre will develop a
sense of belonging in Divyangjan to
facilitate their integration in society.
110. Ans. C.

59
• Trading of priority sector lending
certificates (PSLCs) on the government’s
e-Kuber portal by banks will attract
integrated goods and services tax (IGST).
• However, if the bank has already paid
Central and State GST for the transaction,
then it will not have to pay IGST.
• The clarification comes after the CBIC
received representations from a number
of banks on whether GST has to be paid
for trading of PSLC on the e-Kuber portal
of the Reserve Bank of India.
• PSLCs are aimed at encouraging banks
to lend more to priority sectors, such as
agriculture, small and marginal farmers
and micro enterprises. About 40 per cent
of the total lending of banks has to be to
these sectors.
• Banks that do higher lending can issue
these certificates, which can be bought by
banks that have a shortfall in their priority
sector lending. These are traded on the
RBI’s e-Kuber portal.
111. Ans. C.
• The government’s flagship pro-poor
scheme Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
(PMUY) has found maximum success in
Delhi, Goa, Haryana, Uttarakhand and
Puducherry.
• These are the states with the maximum
percentage of beneficiaries who availed at
least four cooking gas refills in the period
between May 2016 and June 2019.
• Telangana, Chhattisgarh and Tripura
were in the bottom of the list.
• Delhi topped the list of states with
maximum percentage of PMUY
beneficiaries availing at least four refills.
Delhi had 63,894 beneficiaries at the end
of December 2018. Of these, 86 per cent
or 54,695 availed at least 4 refills.
• An average PMUY beneficiary in the
national capital consumed 8 LPG refills in
the three-year period.
112. Ans. A.
The G-20 Finance Ministers and Central
Bank Governors’ Meeting was held in
Fukuoka, Japan.
Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman
attended the two-day meeting of G-20
Finance Ministers and Central Bank
governors in Japan.
The deliberations at the meeting would be
followed by the G-20 Leaders’ Summit
scheduled on June 28-29 at Osaka.
Saudi Arabia will host the G20 summit in
November 2020.
113. Ans. D.
Prof. Ramesh Chand (Member, Niti
Aayog) will be the chairman of the 18-
member committee.
The Office of Economic Adviser,
Department for Promotion of Industry
and Internal Trade will be the nodal office
for the Working Group.
Since 2011-12, significant structural
changes have taken place in the
economy.
114. Ans. A.
Sarada Kumar Hota has been appointed
as the Managing Director of the National
Housing Bank (NHB).
Earlier, Mr. Hota has served as the
managing director of Can Fin Homes
(subsidiary of Canara Bank).
115. Ans. B.
Sri Lanka inaugurates first model
village built with Indian assistance –
The first model village built with Indian
assistance under the Model Villages
Program was inaugurated at Ranidugama
in Gampaha in Sri Lanka.
116. Ans. B.
Popularly known as ‘Pink City’, Jaipur
made an official entry in the list of the
UNESCO World Heritage sites recently at
the 43rd session of the Unesco World
Heritage Committee.
The Walled City of Jaipur (Rajasthan)
known for its iconic architectural legacy
and vibrant culture, on made its entry
into the UNESCO World Heritage Site list.
The announcement was made after the
43rd Session of the UNESCO World
Heritage Committee, underway at Baku
(Azerbaijan).
With this, India now has 38 World
Heritage Sites(30 cultural properties, 7
natural properties and one mixed site).
117. Ans. E.
• Persons resident in India as defined
under Foreign Exchange Management
Act, 1999 are eligible to invest in SGB.

60
• Eligible investors include individuals,
HUFs, trusts, universities and charitable
institutions.
• Individual investors with subsequent
change in residential status from resident
to non-resident may continue to hold SGB
till early redemption/maturity.
118. Ans. D.
• Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL)
has announced the launch of its new
Wings application in India on Google Play
Store.
• As a part of the introductory offer, the
state-owned telecom operator is
providing one free month of free Wings
service to its new customers.
• The company has revealed that
customers will get one month of free
Wings services, though the service will be
available at an initial one-time annual fee
of Rs 1099 plus GST once the free period
is over
119. Ans. A.
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has
appointed R Gandhi (former Deputy
Governor of RBI) as Additional Director
on the board of private sector lender YES
Bank for a period of two years.
Gandhi was RBI Deputy Governor during
April 2014 and April 2017.
120. Ans. E.
The World Happiness Report 2019,
which ranks 156 countries by how happy
their citizens perceive themselves to be,
according to their evaluations of their
own lives, was launched today at the
United Nations. The report was produced
in partnership with The Ernesto Illy
Foundation.
According to the World Happiness
Report 2019, India's ranking went down
to 140.
* In 2018, India was placed on 133
positions.
* In this report, Pakistan stands at 67th
rank, China at 93, Bhutan at 95, Nepal at
100, Bangladesh at 125 and Sri Lanka at
130.
* The World Happiness Report 2019 has
disclosed the list of happiest and
unhappiest countries worldwide.
* Finland, for the second consecutive
year, has topped this list. It is followed by
Denmark, Norway, Iceland, Netherlands,
Switzerland, Sweden, New Zealand,
Canada and Austria.

This year’s happiness report focuses on
happiness and the community: how
happiness has evolved over the past
dozen years, with a focus on the
technologies, social norms, conflicts and
government policies that have driven
those changes.

Special chapters focus on generosity and
prosocial behaviour, the effects of
happiness on voting behaviour, big data,
and the happiness effects of internet use
and addictions.
121. Ans. E.
The passage talks about surveys where
people say that "…hard work is either
“essential” or “very important” when it
comes to getting ahead…" and "…external
factors, such as luck and coming from a
wealthy family, are much less important".
So, both options A & D are correct.
Hence, the correct answer is E.
122. Ans. C.
Only option C is correct. The reasons are
as follows:
A: 'even playing field' refers to a situation
in which everyone has the same chance
of succeeding. So, option A is wrong.
B & C: "Although widely held, the belief
that merit rather than luck determines
success or failure in the world is
demonstrably false" clearly states that no
one has successfully implemented
meritocracy. The phrases 'widely held
belief' and 'demonstrably false prove
option C is correct. So, option B is wrong
and option C is correct.
D: "…the lottery of birth…" refers being
born into a wealthy family. So, option D
is wrong.
Hence, the correct answer is C.
123. Ans. B.
To be factual means to provide us with
actual details or information rather than
ideas or feelings about it. The passage
mentions a belief and then uses facts to
state the truth. Hence, the correct answer
is B.

61
124. Ans. D.
In the sentence, the tense is incorrect.
“Being” is not followed by “is”. And out of
the options, both i and iii can make a
correct sentence. Option ii is incorrect as
‘during’ talks about a phase of time while
‘in’ is used to locate a specific moment in
time. Thus, the correct answer is option
D.
125. Ans. A.
The statement is in the simple past tense
form. Thus, the correct option will be A.
126. Ans. E.
In option i and ii, ‘met on’ and ‘meeting
of’ are incorrect phrases. In sentence iii,
the ‘been’ is followed by ‘ing’ form of the
verb. Moreover, the sentence is correct in
itself and no correction required. Thus
option E is the correct answer.
127. Ans. B.
“Because” is used to give reason or a
cause. Hence, it cannot be used in this
statement. Option i is incorrect because
the statement is in present perfect tense
and ‘was’ is not applicable here. In case
of option iii, one can’t be chosen ‘within’
a prize. One can be chosen for a prize or
nominated for a prize. Thus, the correct
option is statement ii. The correct answer
is option B.
128. Ans. A.
The first part that says the Ramayana
"...takes scant notice of her..." is correct.
But when the passage says "...essentially
a 14-year long coma..." it means that
Urmila was ignored for 14-years. She
wasn’t actually injured. To hold the fort
means to have responsibility for
something while someone else is absent.
There was no attack. Also, the last
paragraph is describing Kane's version of
the Ramayana, which is fiction. But the
inference implies that it is not fictional.
So, the given inference is definitely false.
Hence, the correct answer is A.
129. Ans. A.
Only option A is correct about 'Uruvi'. The
reasons are as follows:
A: The author describes Uruvi as "...of the
low caste..." and calls it a "...subaltern
voice...". This means that casteism has
not been in the Mahabharata originally.
So, option A is correct.
B: "Kane’s inspiration for this name
seems to have come from some
references in later Tamil literature, where
Karna’s wife is named Ponnaruvi.
However, it is conjectured that Ponnaruvi
was an epithet for either Vrushali or
Supriya or both." Here, 'this name' refers
to Uruvi. Clearly, Uruvi had inspirations
from history. So, option B is wrong.
C & D: "The Mahabharata speaks of no
one called Uruvi" which means that there
was no Uruvi in the original version to be
ignored or to be unjust. So, option C & D
are wrong.
Hence, the correct answer is A.
130. Ans. D.
Only option C is the correct option. The
reasons are as follows:
A: The passage gives two examples of
Kane's writings where the protagonist is
a female in the Mahabharata and the
Ramayana. The writers are also said to
"...have passionately taken up the cause
of feminist revisionist mythology." So,
option A is correct.
B: "Kane’s inspiration for this name
seems to have come from some
references in later Tamil literature, where
Karna’s wife is named Ponnaruvi.
However, it is conjectured that Ponnaruvi
was an epithet for either Vrushali or
Supriya or both." indicates that Uruvi was
not completely fictional. So, option B is
correct.
C: "...we deal with not one but two
subaltern voices..." These two subaltern
or people of lower status refer to being
woman and belonging to lower caste. So,
option C is wrong.
Hence, the correct answer is D.
131. Ans. A.
In the part C, the presence of indicator
‘The’ states that this is the beginning of
the sentence. Part C ends with the adverb
‘usually’ which means generally. Thus, it
needs a verb to qualify. Part D follows at
it makes perfect sense and it begins with
the verb ‘applied’. The sentence ends with
the pronoun who. Part B follows as it
means it is the mentor who moulds. It
makes perfect sense. Part A ends the
statement in the logical manner as it

62
concludes the role of the mentor. Option
A, CDBA, is the correct answer.
Thus, the correct sentence is: “The word
mentor is usually applied to the one who
moulds a young, naive person into a force
within a field”
132. Ans. C.
In English grammar, we can use ‘it’ as an
‘empty’ subject. It is ‘empty’ because it
doesn’t refer to anything. In this case, B
is the beginning of the sentence as the
word ‘it’ work as the dummy subject
which introduces the sentence. ‘Our’ is a
determiner which is preceded by noun.
So, A follows statement B as it is the only
part which begins with the noun. Thus, BA
becomes a pair.
Now, CD makes a pair as it talks about
how a good mentor can help one to
navigate one’ career successfully. Now
CD follows BA as it concludes the
statement in a meaningful manner. Thus,
BACD is the correct sequence. Option C is
the correct answer.
The correct sentence is: “It is important
throughout our careers and not just at the
start as a good mentor can help one to
navigate one’s career successfully”
133. Ans. D.
Out of the given of options, Option A is
invalid as ‘do’ does not introduces the
sentence. Similarly, may is a modal verb.
Introducing the sentence in the following
scenario does not make any sense. Thus,
option B and E becomes invalid.
Out of option C and D, statements BC
makes a pair. Statements C ends with the
modal ‘should’. Now ‘should’ is used to
give emphasis. It cannot be followed with
modal verb ‘may’ as it provides
possibility. Thus, the C must be followed
by statement D. The correct sequence is
BCDA. Thus, option D is the correct
answer.
The correct sentence is: “A common
perception when seeking a mentor in that
area is that we should do it when we are
new to a profession but that may not be
when we meet them the most”
134. Ans. B.
Statement A introduces the premise of
the statement. It talks about the scenario
in reality. Thus, A is the first part of the
statement. Thus, option C, D and E gets
invalid. Now, in option A and B, we see
statement AB as a pair.
Statement DC makes a pair as it talks
about capable grownups needs guidance
at the workplace. The pair makes perfect
sense as well.
Statements AB thus needs to be followed
by DC to make a complete sense. The
correct sequence is this ABDC. Option B
is the correct answer.
The correct sentence is: “In reality, that’s
not always the dynamic or the
demographic, of the mentor-mentee
relationship, as capable grownups need
guidance too, especially at the
workplace”
135. Ans. D.
The four sentences are:
1. The word mentor is usually applied to
the one who moulds a young, naive
person into a force within a field.
2. It is important throughout our careers
and not just at the start as a good mentor
can help one to navigate one’s career
successfully.
3. A common perception when seeking a
mentor in that area is that we should do
it when we are new to a profession but
that may not be when we meet them the
most.
4. In reality, that’s not always the
dynamic or the demographic, of the
mentor-mentee relationship, as capable
grownups need guidance too, especially
at the workplace.
Sentence 1, 2 and 3 talks about role and
function of a mentor in an individual’s
career. It also mentions where can or
cannot find a mentor.
However, statement 4 is a comment of
the mentor-mentee relationship. Thus, it
deviates from the functions of the mentor
to the relationship shared between
mentor and mentee and how even
grownups need guidance. Thus, option D
is the correct answer.
136. Ans. A.

Wretched when used as an adjective,
means to be in a very unhappy or
unfortunate state.

63
Troubled, as an adjective, means beset
by problems or difficulties.
Injured as an adjective, means harmed,
damaged, or impaired.
Downtrodden as an adjective, means
oppressed or treated badly by people in
power.
Elated as an adjective, means very happy
and excited because of something good
that has happened, or will happen.
The last sentence in the stanza says that
men are miserable, and women should be
too. This means that women were
expected to be miserable or unhappy.
Hence, the correct answer is A.
137. Ans. D.
“IAS match” indicates that parents are
ready to have a groom based on the fact
that the men have qualified IAS. So,
option A is correct.
The statement talks about the 'ambition'
of the parents. It doesn’t specify what the
groom or the bride think about the
marriage. So, option B is correct.
To descend means to make a sudden
attack on. The movement of the parents
being compared to an attack, shows how
desperate the parents were.so, option C
is correct.
The adjective "ambitious" is used for the
parents. The daughters' opinion is not
known. So, option D is wrong.
Hence, the answer is D.
138. Ans. E.
"It was in Delhi that he had met Jyoti...".
Here, he refers to Ashok. Ashok had met
Jyoti and most likely was introduced to
her father by Jyoti herself. So, option A is
wrong. The passage never goes out of the
way to say that Jyoti doesn't like Ashoke.
Given that she is the one who introduced
Ashok to her father, it is very likely the
she likes Ashok. So, option B is also
wrong. "Every alternate weekend, he
would head to Shakti Nagar in Delhi to
meet her, before hightailing it back to
Narnaul". Clearly Ashok and Jyoti did not
live together. So, option C is wrong.
Hence, the answer is E.
139. Ans. A.
To hit it off means to be friendly with each
other immediately. When you get along
with someone, you're friendly or
compatible with them. Ashoke "...had not
exactly hit it off with his boss..." which
means that Ashok and his boss didn't get
along very well. So, option I is correct.
Since it is not specified who followed
Ashok, option II is wrong. The passage
only states Jyoti's wish to do journalism.
So, option III is also wrong.
Hence, the correct answer is A.
140. Ans. C.
The word ‘recent’ is an adjective. It needs
a noun to modify. Thus, the first blank
needs a noun. Thus, the possibility comes
down to option a and c. In the second
blank, a verb is needed as it talks about
an idea or theory which depends on
primacy of communicative activities in
the classroom.
Thus, the word ‘rests’ fits in perfectly as
it means ‘be based on; depend on.’ Out
of all the combination of options given,
option C is the correct one. In the first
blank the word ‘theory’ fits and in the
second blank the word ‘rests’ fits.
Option C is the correct answer.
141. Ans. A.
The word ‘huge’ is an adjective. It needs
a noun to modify. Thus, the first blank
needs a noun. Thus, the possibility comes
down word ‘a’ or word ‘c’.
Option B won’t fit in the blank as word ‘b’
is not appropriate for blank 1. In case of
option C, word ‘f’ will not fit in second
blank because it does not make any
sense. Thus, only other option with word
‘c’ is option A. Both the words ‘c’ and ‘d’
fit perfectly in the blanks respectively,
and it is the correct answer.
142. Ans. B.
The sentence talks about what French
revolutionaries thought about guillotine
as a method of the death. Thus, word ‘b’
fits perfectly as it means ‘having been
thought about carefully’. In the second
blank, words d, e and f fit perfectly. Thus,
option B is the correct.
143. Ans. C.
The sentence talks about results of
repayment of loan. The word b won’t fit
in the first blank as the sentence is in
simple present tense. So out of the given
options, the one with word b gets invalid.
Now let’s look at option E. Even though

64
combination of a-e makes sense, because
if we withhold a repayment of loan, we
increase the repayment of loan, the
combination a-d does not make any
sense withholding repayment will not
reduce the amount of loan. Thus, the
most plausible combination is given in
Option C. Both the words fit perfectly and
make complete sense. Thus, Option C is
the correct answer.
144. Ans. B.
The second blank is preceded by helping
verb ‘have’. As per rule of grammar,
have/has +Verb(V3) (Past Participle).
Thus, word e fits the blank perfectly.
Similarly, is verb+ing form as the
sentence is present continuous tense.
Thus, word a and word c fits perfectly.
However, there is no option which
incorporates c with e and a with e. The
correct combination is offered by the
option B. Thus, it is the correct answer.
145. Ans. C.
The given passage is about expenditure
in the defence sector of an economy. The
passage states that it is important for
national security but is affected by limited
resources and the demands of other
sectors. These two points make the ability
of a nation to meet its defence
requirements limited. This has been
explained in option C making it the
correct answer.
146. Ans. B.
‘Ambiguities’ is the plural form of
‘ambiguity’ which means the quality of
being open to more than one
interpretation. The meaning of the given
options are as follows –
Equivocation – the use of ambiguous
language to conceal the truth or to avoid
committing oneself.
Luminosity – luminous quality.
Transparency - the quality of being open,
honest, and direct.
From the above meanings it is clear that
while ‘equivocation’ is synonymous to the
given word, ‘transparency’ is its antonym.
Thus, option B is the correct answer.
147. Ans. D.
As per the given passage, affordability of
military spending varies on two basis – it
varies in degree and also over time. Thus,
statement I is incorrect as it states that
military spending is constant.
The passage states that changes in
degree of affordability showcases the
changes in what is being perceived as
threat. This has been stated in sentence
II, making it true.
The passage ends with a commentary on
the US military spending and how it is
causing economic distress. Thus,
statement III is also correct.
Hence, option D is the correct answer.
148. Ans. B.
The author is portraying a sense of gloom
and nothingness in the passage with a
sense of loneliness. Hence the correct
option is C.
149. Ans. B.
The sentence with the blank states that
the food that comes from the relationship
between nature and nurture is a direct
result of the richness in the differences of
our regions. Off the given options,
‘biodiversity’ which means the variety of
plant and animal life in the world or in a
particular habitat, a high level of which is
usually considered to be important and
desirable, is the best fit word for the given
blank. Thus, option B is the correct
answer.
150. Ans. B.
The passage clearly blames the condition
of obesity on lack of good nutritious food.
(We did this because it was becoming
clear the world was (and is) facing an
obesity pandemic — much of the food we
eat today is bad for health, with no
nutrition or goodness.) thus, statement I
is true.
It also states that the current generation
is heavily influenced by mass media
which is also affecting their food habits.
(We are children of the age of processed
and factory-grown foods, who have been
trans-mutated through a deliberate and
subliminal marketing that has changed
our habits and our culture of food.) Thus,
statement II is also true.
But statement III is false. The passage
states that the incidence of diabetes is on
the rise among the urban poor.
‘Pandemic’ means prevalent over a whole
country or the world, which makes the

65
statement incorrect. Thus, option B is the
correct answer.
151. Ans. D.
The given sentence means that in order
to better protect our wilds and our
environment, we first need to appreciate
the offering in the form of a diverse
variety of nutritious food that nature
offers. This has been conveyed in option
D making it the correct answer.
152. Ans. D.
The author is describing facts about the
old caves discovered in France, without
passing off any judgements. Hence the
correct option is D.
153. Ans. B.
The first paragraph of the passage states
clearly that one of the biggest reasons
behind poverty is the financial exclusion
of the poor and under privileged groups
in India. The groups lack financial
education which leads to lack of
opportunities for the groups to become
financially stable. Thus, not only financial
inclusion is necessary, but also, the
groups need to financially educated.
Thus, both statements I and III are
necessary pre requisites for poverty
reduction and social upliftment. So,
option B is the correct answer.
154. Ans. E.
All given statements are grammatically
correct. But option E is contextually
incorrect. The passage clearly states that
it is financial ‘exclusion’ that is one of the
main reasons behind the growth of
poverty in the country. ‘Inclusion’ as
mentioned in option E implies a
completely opposite school of thought
making option E contextually incorrect.
155. Ans. C.
The passage states – ‘One of the main
reasons why mass poverty is persisting in
India is that the problem of financing the
poor still remains unresolved (RBI,
2011a), …’. This indicates that the reason
behind mass poverty is the problem of
access to proper financial sources. It is
further aggravated by the financial
illiteracy of the poor in the country.
Hence, option C is the correct inference
regarding mass poverty as per the
passage.

 

 

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