SBI PO Prelims 2022 Previous Year Question Paper with Free PDF Download Memory Based Paper-DEC 17, 2022
SBI PO Prelims Memory Based Paper (Held
on: 17th Dec 2022 Shift 1)
Total Time: 1 Hour Total Marks: 100
Instructions
Sl No. of Maximum Negative Positive Sectional
Section Name
No. Question Marks Marks Marks Timing
English
1 30 30 0.25 1 20 Min
Language
Quantitative
2 35 35 0.25 1 20 Min
Aptitude
Reasoning
3 35 35 0.25 1 20 Min
Ability
1.) A total of 60 minutes is allotted for the examination.
2.) The server will set your clock for you. In the top right corner of your screen, a
countdown timer will display the remaining time for you to complete the exam. Once the
timer reaches zero, the examination will end automatically. The paper need not be
submitted when your timer reaches zero.
3.) There will, however, be sectional timing for this exam. You will have to complete each
section within the specified time limit. Before moving on to the next section, you must
complete the current one within the time limits.
English Language
1. Some parts of a sentence are given below. Find the part of the sentence (+1, -0.25)
which is not really contributing to the main theme of the passage or find
the odd sentence out and rearrange the remaining sentences to make a
coherent paragraph. If none of the options is correct as it is, choose option
(5). If the sequence is the one which is not given, then choose option (4), as
your choice.
(A)centres for polishing /(B)diamonds and gems/(C)India is one of the
largest/(D)and manufacturing jewellery/(E)retail supermarkets are
expanding
a. CABD
b. CBDA
c. ABED
d. None of the above
e. No improvements required
2. Some parts of a sentence are given below. Find the part of the sentence (+1, -0.25)
which does not really contribute to the main theme of the passage or find
the odd sentence out and rearrange the remaining sentences to make a
coherent paragraph. If none of the options is correct as it is, choose option
(5). If the sequence is the one that is not given, then choose option (4), as
your choice.
(A)philosophical ethics or moral philosophy/(B)to answer various kinds of
ethical questions /(C), discipline that attempt to use reason /(D)India's
infrastructure and transport sector contributes /(E)the word 'ethics' can
refer to
a. ABCD
b. AECD
c. EACB
d. None of the above
e. No improvements required
3. Some parts of a sentence are given below. Find the part of the sentence (+1, -0.25)
which does not really contribute to the main theme of the passage or find
the odd sentence out and rearrange the remaining sentences to make a
coherent paragraph. If none of the options is correct as it is, choose option
(5). If the sequence is the one that is not given, then choose option (4), as
your choice.
(A) resulting in habitat loss/(B)rainforests as well as endemic rainforest
species/(C)since 1965, the use of high-yielding varieties of seeds/(D)and
pollution of the atmosphere /(E)are rapidly disappearing due to
deforestation,
a. BEAD
b. ECBA
c. DBEC
d. None of the above
e. No improvements required
4. Some parts of a sentence are given below. Find the part of the sentence (+1, -0.25)
which is not really contributing to the main theme of the passage or find
the odd sentence out and rearrange the remaining sentences to make a
coherent paragraph. If none of the options is correct as it is, choose option
(5). If the sequence is the one which is not given, then choose option (4),
as your choice.
(A)the Indian private sector was faced with increasing/(B)in the structure
of experience/(C)the states of awareness are also associated with/(D)the
states of experience/(E)so that the structure represented in awareness is
mirrored
a. ABDE
b. CDEB
c. CADE
d. None of the above
e. No improvements required
5. Some parts of a sentence are given below. Find the part of the sentence (+1, -0.25)
which is not really contributing to the main theme of the passage or find
the odd sentence out and rearrange the remaining sentences to make a
coherent paragraph. If none of the options is correct as it is, choose option
(5). If the sequence is the one which is not given, then choose option (4),
as your choice .
(A)gardening provides /(B)of self-sufficiency/(C)British territorial
expansion in India throughout the 19th century/(D)by growing your own
food/(E)a powerful feeling
a. CBDE
b. ACBE
c. AEBD
d. None of these
e. No improvements required
6. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words: (+1, -0.25)
The Reserve Bank of India on Friday asked the banks and other lenders to
report the accounts restructured due to coronavirus ___(1)___ to credit
bureaus. Lenders should make necessary ___(2)___ to their system and
___(3)___ it to credit bureaus within two months, the banking regulator
said. All commercial banks including small finance banks, local area
banks and regional rural banks, primary (urban) co-operative banks/state
co-operative banks/district central co-operative banks, India Financial
Institutions (Exim Bank, NABARD, NHB and SIDBI) and non-banking financial
companies (including housing finance companies) were ___(4)___ to
apprise the credit bureaus about restructuring the accounts. The regulator
modified the format to ___(5)___ the restructuring of accounts due to
COVID-19.
For the consumer bureau, the label of the field ‘written off and settled
status’ is modified as ‘Credit Facility Status’ and it will also have a new
catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19’, RBI said. For the
commercial bureau, the existing field ‘Major reasons for restructuring’ will
have a new catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19’, it added.
The ___(6)___ field ‘account status’ will have a new catalogue value, viz.,
‘restructured due to COVID-19' for MFI bureau.
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 1.
a. Insatiable
b. Separately
c. Grievously
d. Intercept
e. None of these
7. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words: (+1, -0.25)
The Reserve Bank of India on Friday asked the banks and other lenders to
report the accounts restructured due to coronavirus ___(1)___ to credit
bureaus. Lenders should make necessary ___(2)___ to their system and
___(3)___ it to credit bureaus within two months, the banking regulator
said. All commercial banks including small finance banks, local area banks
and regional rural banks, primary (urban) co-operative banks/state co-
operative banks/district central co-operative banks, India Financial
Institutions (Exim Bank, NABARD, NHB and SIDBI) and non-banking financial
companies (including housing finance companies) were ___(4)___ to
apprise the credit bureaus about restructuring the accounts. The regulator
modified the format to ___(5)___ the restructuring of accounts due to
COVID-19.
For the consumer bureau, the label of the field ‘written off and settled
status’ is modified as ‘Credit Facility Status’ and it will also have a new
catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19’, RBI said. For the
commercial bureau, the existing field ‘Major reasons for restructuring’ will
have a new catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19’, it added.
The ___(6)___ field ‘account status’ will have a new catalogue value, viz.,
‘restructured due to COVID-19' for MFI bureau.
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 2.
a. Degenerate
b. Conjecture
c. Piteous
d. Modification
e. None of these
8. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words: (+1, -0.25)
The Reserve Bank of India on Friday asked the banks and other lenders to
report the accounts restructured due to coronavirus ___(1)___ to credit
bureaus. Lenders should make necessary ___(2)___ to their system and
___(3)___ it to credit bureaus within two months, the banking regulator
said. All commercial banks including small finance banks, local area
banks and regional rural banks, primary (urban) co-operative banks/state
co-operative banks/district central co-operative banks, India Financial
Institutions (Exim Bank, NABARD, NHB and SIDBI) and non-banking financial
companies (including housing finance companies) were ___(4)___ to
apprise the credit bureaus about restructuring the accounts. The regulator
modified the format to ___(5)___ the restructuring of accounts due to
COVID-19.
For the consumer bureau, the label of the field ‘written off and settled
status’ is modified as ‘Credit Facility Status’ and it will also have a new
catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19’, RBI said. For the
commercial bureau, the existing field ‘Major reasons for restructuring’ will
have a new catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19’, it added.
The ___(6)___ field ‘account status’ will have a new catalogue value, viz.,
‘restructured due to COVID-19' for MFI bureau.
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 3.
a. Report
b. Recuperate
c. Reiterate
d. Fathom
e. Emend
9. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words: (+1, -0.25)
The Reserve Bank of India on Friday asked the banks and other lenders to
report the accounts restructured due to coronavirus ___(1)___ to credit
bureaus. Lenders should make necessary ___(2)___ to their system and
___(3)___ it to credit bureaus within two months, the banking regulator
said. All commercial banks including small finance banks, local area
banks and regional rural banks, primary (urban) co-operative banks/state
co-operative banks/district central co-operative banks, India Financial
Institutions (Exim Bank, NABARD, NHB and SIDBI) and non-banking financial
companies (including housing finance companies) were ___(4)___ to
apprise the credit bureaus about restructuring the accounts. The regulator
modified the format to ___(5)___ the restructuring of accounts due to
COVID-19.
For the consumer bureau, the label of the field ‘written off and settled
status’ is modified as ‘Credit Facility Status’ and it will also have a new
catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19’, RBI said. For the
commercial bureau, the existing field ‘Major reasons for restructuring’ will
have a new catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19’, it added.
The ___(6)___ field ‘account status’ will have a new catalogue value, viz.,
‘restructured due to COVID-19' for MFI bureau.
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 4.
a. Terminate
b. Retort
c. Asked
d. Perpetrated
e. None of these
10. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words: (+1, -0.25)
The Reserve Bank of India on Friday asked the banks and other lenders to
report the accounts restructured due to coronavirus ___(1)___ to credit
bureaus. Lenders should make necessary ___(2)___ to their system and
___(3)___ it to credit bureaus within two months, the banking regulator
said. All commercial banks including small finance banks, local area
banks and regional rural banks, primary (urban) co-operative
banks/state co-operative banks/district central co-operative banks, India
Financial Institutions (Exim Bank, NABARD, NHB and SIDBI) and non-
banking financial companies (including housing finance companies)
were ___(4)___ to apprise the credit bureaus about restructuring the
accounts. The regulator modified the format to ___(5)___ the
restructuring of accounts due to COVID-19.
For the consumer bureau, the label of the field ‘written off and settled
status’ is modified as ‘Credit Facility Status’ and it will also have a new
catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19’, RBI said. For the
commercial bureau, the existing field ‘Major reasons for restructuring’ will
have a new catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19’, it added.
The ___(6)___ field ‘account status’ will have a new catalogue value,
viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19' for MFI bureau.
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 5.
a. Excluding
b. Detached
c. Existing
d. Incorporate
e. Execute
11. Fill in the blanks with the appropriate words: (+1, -0.25)
The Reserve Bank of India on Friday asked the banks and other lenders to
report the accounts restructured due to coronavirus ___(1)___ to credit
bureaus. Lenders should make necessary ___(2)___ to their system and
___(3)___ it to credit bureaus within two months, the banking regulator
said. All commercial banks including small finance banks, local area
banks and regional rural banks, primary (urban) co-operative banks/state
co-operative banks/district central co-operative banks, India Financial
Institutions (Exim Bank, NABARD, NHB and SIDBI) and non-banking financial
companies (including housing finance companies) were ___(4)___ to
apprise the credit bureaus about restructuring the accounts. The regulator
modified the format to ___(5)___ the restructuring of accounts due to
COVID-19.
For the consumer bureau, the label of the field ‘written off and settled
status’ is modified as ‘Credit Facility Status’ and it will also have a new
catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19’, RBI said. For the
commercial bureau, the existing field ‘Major reasons for restructuring’ will
have a new catalogue value, viz., ‘restructured due to COVID-19’, it added.
The ___(6)___ field ‘account status’ will have a new catalogue value, viz.,
‘restructured due to COVID-19' for MFI bureau.
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank no 6.
a. Exhilarate
b. Reconcile
c. Discern
d. Refined
e. Existing
12. Directions: The following sentence has been split into five segments. (+1, -0.25)
Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
Education do not (A)/ mean teaching people (B)/ to know what they do
not (C)/ know; it means teaching them (D)/ to behave as they do not
behave (E)/ .
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
13. Directions: The following sentence has been split into five segments. (+1, -0.25)
Identify the segment that contains a grammatical error.
A COVID-19 pandemic is (A)/ an ongoing global pandemic (B)/ of
coronavirus disease 2019 (C)/ caused by severe acute (D)/ respiratory
syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) (E)/ .
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
14. In the sentence given below, one/more parts have errors and others are (+1, -0.25)
correct. Find out which part has an error and mark it as your answer. If
there is no error, mark 'No error' as your answer .
My father gave me a (A)/ five hundred squares (B)/ feet house from his
property (C)/so that I can live a respectful life(D)
a. Only A
b. Only B
c. B and C
d. Only C
e. No error
15. In this question, a sentence has been divided into four parts (A), (B), (C) (+1, -0.25)
and (D). Read the sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical
error in it. The error if any, will be in one part of the sentence. Mark that
part as your answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘No error’. Ignore the
error of punctuation if any.
I bought (A) some Mughal silver charming ornaments (B) at the Hauz
Khas market (C) and enjoyed visiting the ruins yesterday. (D)
a. (D)
b. No error
c. (B)
d. (C)
e. (A)
16. Read the following sentence and determine whether there is any error in (+1, -0.25)
it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. If the sentence is
error-free, then select ‘No Error’ as your answer.
The teacher said that (A)/ every girl in the class (B)/ must bring their
own costume (C)/ to participate in the dance competition. (D)
a. B
b. C
c. No Error
d. A
e. D
17. Which of the phrases given in the options should replace the word/phrase (+1, -0.25)
that is underlined in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the
sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, select ‘No
correction required’ as the answer.
Environmentalists call up fisheries to move away from carbon-spewing
engines and climate-harming practices such as bottom trawling.
a. call in fisheries to move away off
b. call at fisheries to move away from
c. call for fisheries to move away from
d. call to fisheries to move away off
e. No correction required
18. Which of the phrases given in the options should replace the word/phrase (+1, -0.25)
that is underlined in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the
sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, select ‘No
correction required’ as the answer.
A Seychelles giant tortoise, a species previously thought to be a strict
herbivore, has been filmed to chase and eating a baby bird in a 'horrifying
and amazing' attack, with researchers stating it was the first documented
example of deliberate hunting in the wild by the species.
a. has been filmed to be chased and eating
b. have been filmed to chase and eating
c. has been filmed chasing and eating
d. have been filmed to be chasing and eaten
e. No correction required
19. Which of the phrases given in the options should replace the word/phrase (+1, -0.25)
that is underlined in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? if the
sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, select 'No
correction required' as the answer.
Amount of less thana million rupees arerequired right now. Take the
money to the bank and withdraw it.
a. a millions rupees are
b. a million rupees is
c. a million rupees was
d. a million rupees to be
e. No correction required
20. In the given questions, a word in the sentence is printed in bold. Below the (+1, -0.25)
sentence, alternatives to the emboldened part are given which may help
improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative out of the given five
options.
The firm continues to placesignificantsignificance on regulatory
compliance and strives to fulfil supervisory standards, according to a
press statement.
a. Finicky
b. Initiate
c. Utmost
d. Partial
e. Subsequent
21. Below are some alternatives which may be used to improve the sentence (+1, -0.25)
by replacing the word in bold. You may choose option 1, 2, 3 or 4. In case
no improvement is needed, choose 5.
Shriya’s manner was considered most judicious as outwardly she was
very respectful but shut me up in the most barefaced way.
a. impertinent
b. persistent
c. relevant
d. permanent
e. No improvement
22. Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the (+1, -0.25)
questions that follow.
The International Monetary Fund ( IMF) Executive Board approved on
September 30 a new, temporary Food Shock Window (FSW) under its
emergency financing instruments (Rapid Credit Facility-RCF/Rapid
Financing Instrument-RFI). A combination of climate shocks and the
pandemic has disrupted food production and distribution, driving (A) the
cost of feeding people and families. Russia’s invasion of Ukraine has
pushed the price of food and fertilizers even higher and exacerbated the
shortages in food supplies—hurting food importers and some exporters
alike. The Food Shock Window will provide, for a period of a year, a new
channel for emergency Fund financing to member countries that have
an urgent balance of payment needs due to acute food insecurity, a
sharp increase in their food import bill, or a shock to their cereal exports.
Access will be consistent with the actual balance of payments needs,
capped at 50 percent of the quota, and will be added to the current
annual access limits under the RCF/RFI. The cumulative access limits
under the RFI regular window and the RCF exogenous shock window,
currently at 150 percent of quota, will be increased to 175 percent of quota
for members that will borrow through the FSW. A review is planned for the
end of June 2023. The Executive Board also amended the policy for Staff-
Monitored Programs (SMPs), to allow for Program Monitoring with Board
involvement (PMB). The Executive Board’s role will be limited to assessing
the robustness of the member’s policies to meet the program’s
objectives and to monitoring program implementation, including policies
aiming to facilitate the transition to an upper credit tranche (UCT) quality
IMF-supported program. Countries considering an SMP would be
encouraged to request a PMB if they are the subject of an ongoing
concerted international effort by creditors or donors to provide
substantial new financing or debt relief, or have significant outstanding
Fund credit under emergency financing instruments. The PMB will be
reviewed before the end of September 2023.
What is the highest limit on the actual balance of payments needs?
a. as per the requirements of the country
b. fifty percentage of the quota
c. 150% of the quota
d. will be decided by the executives committee
e. not given in the passage
23. Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the (+1, -0.25)
questions that follow.
The International Monetary Fund ( IMF) Executive Board approved on
September 30 a new, temporary Food Shock Window (FSW) under its
emergency financing instruments (Rapid Credit Facility-RCF/Rapid
Financing Instrument-RFI). A combination of climate shocks and the
pandemic has disrupted food production and distribution, driving (A) the
cost of feeding people and families. Russia’s invasion of Ukraine has
pushed the price of food and fertilizers even higher and exacerbated the
shortages in food supplies—hurting food importers and some exporters
alike. The Food Shock Window will provide, for a period of a year, a new
channel for emergency Fund financing to member countries that have
an urgent balance of payment needs due to acute food insecurity, a
sharp increase in their food import bill, or a shock to their cereal exports.
Access will be consistent with the actual balance of payments needs,
capped at 50 percent of the quota, and will be added to the current
annual access limits under the RCF/RFI. The cumulative access limits
under the RFI regular window and the RCF exogenous shock window,
currently at 150 percent of quota, will be increased to 175 percent of quota
for members that will borrow through the FSW. A review is planned for the
end of June 2023. The Executive Board also amended the policy for Staff-
Monitored Programs (SMPs), to allow for Program Monitoring with Board
involvement (PMB). The Executive Board’s role will be limited to assessing
the robustness of the member’s policies to meet the program’s
objectives and to monitoring program implementation, including policies
aiming to facilitate the transition to an upper credit tranche (UCT) quality
IMF-supported program. Countries considering an SMP would be
encouraged to request a PMB if they are the subject of an ongoing
concerted international effort by creditors or donors to provide
substantial new financing or debt relief, or have significant outstanding
Fund credit under emergency financing instruments. The PMB will be
reviewed before the end of September 2023.
Which of the following word can replace (A) given in the passage?
a. aside
b. ahead
c. up
d. beside
e. upon
24. Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the (+1, -0.25)
questions that follow.
The International Monetary Fund ( IMF) Executive Board approved on
September 30 a new, temporary Food Shock Window (FSW) under its
emergency financing instruments (Rapid Credit Facility-RCF/Rapid
Financing Instrument-RFI). A combination of climate shocks and the
pandemic has disrupted food production and distribution, driving (A) the
cost of feeding people and families. Russia’s invasion of Ukraine has
pushed the price of food and fertilizers even higher and exacerbated the
shortages in food supplies—hurting food importers and some exporters
alike. The Food Shock Window will provide, for a period of a year, a new
channel for emergency Fund financing to member countries that have
an urgent balance of payment needs due to acute food insecurity, a
sharp increase in their food import bill, or a shock to their cereal exports.
Access will be consistent with the actual balance of payments needs,
capped at 50 percent of the quota, and will be added to the current
annual access limits under the RCF/RFI. The cumulative access limits
under the RFI regular window and the RCF exogenous shock window,
currently at 150 percent of quota, will be increased to 175 percent of
quota for members that will borrow through the FSW. A review is planned
for the end of June 2023. The Executive Board also amended the policy
for Staff-Monitored Programs (SMPs), to allow for Program Monitoring
with Board involvement (PMB). The Executive Board’s role will be limited to
assessing the robustness of the member’s policies to meet the program’s
objectives and to monitoring program implementation, including policies
aiming to facilitate the transition to an upper credit tranche (UCT) quality
IMF-supported program. Countries considering an SMP would be
encouraged to request a PMB if they are the subject of an ongoing
concerted international effort by creditors or donors to provide
substantial new financing or debt relief, or have significant outstanding
Fund credit under emergency financing instruments. The PMB will be
reviewed before the end of September 2023.
In which of the following sentence the word " acute" is used correctly ?
I) She is doing this work since the last two years hence she can do it
acute.
II) His grand father is suffering from an acute disease.
III) There is an acute connection between political instability and civil
war.
a. only II and III
b. only I
c. all I, II and III
d. only I and III
e. only II
25. Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the (+1, -0.25)
questions that follow.
The International Monetary Fund ( IMF) Executive Board approved on
September 30 a new, temporary Food Shock Window (FSW) under its
emergency financing instruments (Rapid Credit Facility-RCF/Rapid
Financing Instrument-RFI). A combination of climate shocks and the
pandemic has disrupted food production and distribution, driving (A) the
cost of feeding people and families. Russia’s invasion of Ukraine has
pushed the price of food and fertilizers even higher and exacerbated the
shortages in food supplies—hurting food importers and some exporters
alike. The Food Shock Window will provide, for a period of a year, a new
channel for emergency Fund financing to member countries that have
an urgent balance of payment needs due to acute food insecurity, a
sharp increase in their food import bill, or a shock to their cereal exports.
Access will be consistent with the actual balance of payments needs,
capped at 50 percent of the quota, and will be added to the current
annual access limits under the RCF/RFI. The cumulative access limits
under the RFI regular window and the RCF exogenous shock window,
currently at 150 percent of quota, will be increased to 175 percent of
quota for members that will borrow through the FSW. A review is planned
for the end of June 2023. The Executive Board also amended the policy
for Staff-Monitored Programs (SMPs), to allow for Program Monitoring
with Board involvement (PMB). The Executive Board’s role will be limited to
assessing the robustness of the member’s policies to meet the program’s
objectives and to monitoring program implementation, including policies
aiming to facilitate the transition to an upper credit tranche (UCT) quality
IMF-supported program. Countries considering an SMP would be
encouraged to request a PMB if they are the subject of an ongoing
concerted international effort by creditors or donors to provide
substantial new financing or debt relief, or have significant outstanding
Fund credit under emergency financing instruments. The PMB will be
reviewed before the end of September 2023.
What is the full form of IMF?
a. Internation Monetary Force
b. International Monetary Fund
c. Indian Monetary force
d. Indian Military force
e. None of the Above
26. Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the (+1, -0.25)
questions that follow.
The International Monetary Fund ( IMF) Executive Board approved on
September 30 a new, temporary Food Shock Window (FSW) under its
emergency financing instruments (Rapid Credit Facility-RCF/Rapid
Financing Instrument-RFI). A combination of climate shocks and the
pandemic has disrupted food production and distribution, driving (A) the
cost of feeding people and families. Russia’s invasion of Ukraine has
pushed the price of food and fertilizers even higher and exacerbated the
shortages in food supplies—hurting food importers and some exporters
alike. The Food Shock Window will provide, for a period of a year, a new
channel for emergency Fund financing to member countries that have
an urgent balance of payment needs due to acute food insecurity, a
sharp increase in their food import bill, or a shock to their cereal exports.
Access will be consistent with the actual balance of payments needs,
capped at 50 percent of the quota, and will be added to the current
annual access limits under the RCF/RFI. The cumulative access limits
under the RFI regular window and the RCF exogenous shock window,
currently at 150 percent of quota, will be increased to 175 percent of
quota for members that will borrow through the FSW. A review is planned
for the end of June 2023. The Executive Board also amended the policy
for Staff-Monitored Programs (SMPs), to allow for Program Monitoring
with Board involvement (PMB). The Executive Board’s role will be limited to
assessing the robustness of the member’s policies to meet the program’s
objectives and to monitoring program implementation, including policies
aiming to facilitate the transition to an upper credit tranche (UCT) quality
IMF-supported program. Countries considering an SMP would be
encouraged to request a PMB if they are the subject of an ongoing
concerted international effort by creditors or donors to provide
substantial new financing or debt relief, or have significant outstanding
Fund credit under emergency financing instruments. The PMB will be
reviewed before the end of September 2023.
Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
a. had Russia not invaded Ukraine the prices of commodities would
not have disturbed
b. the executive board has the power to decide the credit limit
c. countries are allowed to monitor the programe if they fulfil some
criteria
d. no access limit is finalized by the executive board
e. none of these
27. Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the (+1, -0.25)
questions that follow.
The International Monetary Fund ( IMF) Executive Board approved on
September 30 a new, temporary Food Shock Window (FSW) under its
emergency financing instruments (Rapid Credit Facility-RCF/Rapid
Financing Instrument-RFI). A combination of climate shocks and the
pandemic has disrupted food production and distribution, driving (A) the
cost of feeding people and families. Russia’s invasion of Ukraine has
pushed the price of food and fertilizers even higher and exacerbated the
shortages in food supplies—hurting food importers and some exporters
alike. The Food Shock Window will provide, for a period of a year, a new
channel for emergency Fund financing to member countries that have
an urgent balance of payment needs due to acute food insecurity, a
sharp increase in their food import bill, or a shock to their cereal exports.
Access will be consistent with the actual balance of payments needs,
capped at 50 percent of the quota, and will be added to the current
annual access limits under the RCF/RFI. The cumulative access limits
under the RFI regular window and the RCF exogenous shock window,
currently at 150 percent of quota, will be increased to 175 percent of quota
for members that will borrow through the FSW. A review is planned for the
end of June 2023. The Executive Board also amended the policy for Staff-
Monitored Programs (SMPs), to allow for Program Monitoring with Board
involvement (PMB). The Executive Board’s role will be limited to assessing
the robustness of the member’s policies to meet the program’s
objectives and to monitoring program implementation, including policies
aiming to facilitate the transition to an upper credit tranche (UCT) quality
IMF-supported program. Countries considering an SMP would be
encouraged to request a PMB if they are the subject of an ongoing
concerted international effort by creditors or donors to provide
substantial new financing or debt relief, or have significant outstanding
Fund credit under emergency financing instruments. The PMB will be
reviewed before the end of September 2023.
Which of the following is not a criteria to avail the financial assistance?
a. disturbance in current balance of payment due to food
insecurities
b. the country whose import bill saw a sharp rise
c. the country struggling to sell its cereals
d. any country in the world which is suffering from food shortage
can avail the assistance
e. none of these
28. Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the (+1, -0.25)
questions that follow.
The International Monetary Fund ( IMF) Executive Board approved on
September 30 a new, temporary Food Shock Window (FSW) under its
emergency financing instruments (Rapid Credit Facility-RCF/Rapid
Financing Instrument-RFI). A combination of climate shocks and the
pandemic has disrupted food production and distribution, driving (A) the
cost of feeding people and families. Russia’s invasion of Ukraine has
pushed the price of food and fertilizers even higher and exacerbated the
shortages in food supplies—hurting food importers and some exporters
alike. The Food Shock Window will provide, for a period of a year, a new
channel for emergency Fund financing to member countries that have
an urgent balance of payment needs due to acute food insecurity, a
sharp increase in their food import bill, or a shock to their cereal exports.
Access will be consistent with the actual balance of payments needs,
capped at 50 percent of the quota, and will be added to the current
annual access limits under the RCF/RFI. The cumulative access limits
under the RFI regular window and the RCF exogenous shock window,
currently at 150 percent of quota, will be increased to 175 percent of
quota for members that will borrow through the FSW. A review is planned
for the end of June 2023. The Executive Board also amended the policy
for Staff-Monitored Programs (SMPs), to allow for Program Monitoring
with Board involvement (PMB). The Executive Board’s role will be limited to
assessing the robustness of the member’s policies to meet the program’s
objectives and to monitoring program implementation, including policies
aiming to facilitate the transition to an upper credit tranche (UCT) quality
IMF-supported program. Countries considering an SMP would be
encouraged to request a PMB if they are the subject of an ongoing
concerted international effort by creditors or donors to provide
substantial new financing or debt relief, or have significant outstanding
Fund credit under emergency financing instruments. The PMB will be
reviewed before the end of September 2023.
Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?
a. the financial aid will be provided according to the demand of the
countries.
b. the IMF will consider the transactions between the country and
rest of the world before giving any financial assistance
c. the access to the financial assistance will be fix in value even for
future
d. the Financial assistance program will be a responsibility of the
executive board only
e. the food stock window will help the affected countries till the
supply chain get normalize.
29. Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the (+1, -0.25)
questions that follow.
The International Monetary Fund ( IMF) Executive Board approved on
September 30 a new, temporary Food Shock Window (FSW) under its
emergency financing instruments (Rapid Credit Facility-RCF/Rapid
Financing Instrument-RFI). A combination of climate shocks and the
pandemic has disrupted food production and distribution, driving (A) the
cost of feeding people and families. Russia’s invasion of Ukraine has
pushed the price of food and fertilizers even higher and exacerbated the
shortages in food supplies—hurting food importers and some exporters
alike. The Food Shock Window will provide, for a period of a year, a new
channel for emergency Fund financing to member countries that have
an urgent balance of payment needs due to acute food insecurity, a
sharp increase in their food import bill, or a shock to their cereal exports.
Access will be consistent with the actual balance of payments needs,
capped at 50 percent of the quota, and will be added to the current
annual access limits under the RCF/RFI. The cumulative access limits
under the RFI regular window and the RCF exogenous shock window,
currently at 150 percent of quota, will be increased to 175 percent of
quota for members that will borrow through the FSW. A review is planned
for the end of June 2023. The Executive Board also amended the policy
for Staff-Monitored Programs (SMPs), to allow for Program Monitoring
with Board involvement (PMB). The Executive Board’s role will be limited to
assessing the robustness of the member’s policies to meet the program’s
objectives and to monitoring program implementation, including policies
aiming to facilitate the transition to an upper credit tranche (UCT) quality
IMF-supported program. Countries considering an SMP would be
encouraged to request a PMB if they are the subject of an ongoing
concerted international effort by creditors or donors to provide
substantial new financing or debt relief, or have significant outstanding
Fund credit under emergency financing instruments. The PMB will be
reviewed before the end of September 2023.
Choose the word which is most nearly the opposite in meaning of the
word ' Exacerbated'
a. intensify
b. amplify
c. reduce
d. augment
e. none of these
30. Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the (+1, -0.25)
questions that follow.
The International Monetary Fund ( IMF) Executive Board approved on
September 30 a new, temporary Food Shock Window (FSW) under its
emergency financing instruments (Rapid Credit Facility-RCF/Rapid
Financing Instrument-RFI). A combination of climate shocks and the
pandemic has disrupted food production and distribution, driving (A) the
cost of feeding people and families. Russia’s invasion of Ukraine has
pushed the price of food and fertilizers even higher and exacerbated the
shortages in food supplies—hurting food importers and some exporters
alike. The Food Shock Window will provide, for a period of a year, a new
channel for emergency Fund financing to member countries that have
an urgent balance of payment needs due to acute food insecurity, a
sharp increase in their food import bill, or a shock to their cereal exports.
Access will be consistent with the actual balance of payments needs,
capped at 50 percent of the quota, and will be added to the current
annual access limits under the RCF/RFI. The cumulative access limits
under the RFI regular window and the RCF exogenous shock window,
currently at 150 percent of quota, will be increased to 175 percent of
quota for members that will borrow through the FSW. A review is planned
for the end of June 2023. The Executive Board also amended the policy
for Staff-Monitored Programs (SMPs), to allow for Program Monitoring
with Board involvement (PMB). The Executive Board’s role will be limited to
assessing the robustness of the member’s policies to meet the program’s
objectives and to monitoring program implementation, including policies
aiming to facilitate the transition to an upper credit tranche (UCT) quality
IMF-supported program. Countries considering an SMP would be
encouraged to request a PMB if they are the subject of an ongoing
concerted international effort by creditors or donors to provide
substantial new financing or debt relief, or have significant outstanding
Fund credit under emergency financing instruments. The PMB will be
reviewed before the end of September 2023.
Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning of the
word ' pushed '.
a. increase
b. drive
c. insolent
d. throes
e. sobriquet
Quantitative Aptitude
31. The table given below shows the distribution of male adults out of total (+1, -0.25)
adults (male and female) and the percentage distribution of children out
of total adult in four cities. The total number of male adults in four cities is
2700.
Male Adults Percentage of children out of total adult
A 40p 15%
B 30p 10%
C 20p 12%
D 18p 18%
Note: The ratio of male to female adults in city B, C and D is 5:3, 5:6 and 9:11
respectively.
If the number of female adults in city A is 250 more than the number of
male adults in city D, then find the total number of female adults in city
A, B and D together.
a. 1100
b. 1600
c. 1500
d. 2000
e. 1700
32. The table given below shows the distribution of male adults out of total (+1, -0.25)
adults (male and female) and the percentage distribution of children out
of total adult in four cities. The total number of male adults in four cities is
2700.
Male Adults Percentage of children out of total adult
A 40p 15%
B 30p 10%
C 20p 12%
D 18p 18%
Note: The ratio of male to female adults in city B, C and D is 5:3, 5:6 and
9:11 respectively.
The total number of children in city B is what percentage of the total
number of children in city D?
a. 35%
b. 40%
c. 55%
d. 50%
e. 66.66%
33. The table given below shows the distribution of male adults out of total (+1, -0.25)
adults (male and female) and the percentage distribution of children out
of total adult in four cities. The total number of male adults in four cities is
2700.
Male Adults Percentage of children out of total adult
A 40p 15%
B 30p 10%
C 20p 12%
D 18p 18%
Note: The ratio of male to female adults in city B, C and D is 5:3, 5:6 and
9:11 respectively.
The total number of children in city B and C together is what
percentage of the number of male adults in city C?
a. 25.5%
b. 22.6%
c. 54.5%
d. 50.4%
e. None of these
34. The table given below shows the distribution of male adults out of total (+1, -0.25)
adults (male and female) and the percentage distribution of children out
of total adult in four cities. The total number of male adults in four cities is
2700.
Male Adults Percentage of children out of total adult
A 40p 15%
B 30p 10%
C 20p 12%
D 18p 18%
Note: The ratio of male to female adults in city B, C and D is 5:3, 5:6 and
9:11 respectively.
If the ratio of male adults to female adults in city A is 10:7, then find the
ratio of the total female adults in all four cities and the male adults of
cities A and B together.
a. 51:37
b. 47:36
c. 40:31
d. 46:35
e. 35:46
35. The table given below shows the distribution of male adults out of total (+1, -0.25)
adults (male and female) and the percentage distribution of children out
of total adult in four cities. The total number of male adults in four cities is
2700.
Male Adults Percentage of children out of total adult
A 40p 15%
B 30p 10%
C 20p 12%
D 18p 18%
Note: The ratio of male to female adults in city B, C and D is 5:3, 5:6 and
9:11 respectively.
The number of female adults in city B is what percentage of the total
number of adults in city D?
a. 60%
b. 25%
c. 45%
d. 35%
e. 55%
36. What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) (+1, -0.25)
in the following question?
19.99% of 119.99 + ∛216.06 – √624.99 = ?
a. 3
b. 15
c. 12
d. 5
e. 10
37. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) (+1, -0.25)
in the following question?
(√63.99) × 149.99% – 175.99 ÷ 22.22 = ?
a. 4
b. 2
c. 6
d. 12
e. 8
38. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) (+1, -0.25)
in the following question?
(76.87 × 10.99 ÷ 6.97 + 1.99) ÷ ∛26.99 = ?
a. 49
b. 39
c. 41
d. 35
e. 53
39. What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) (+1, -0.25)
in the following question?
49.827% of 1119.61 - ?% of 1600.092 = 79.762
a. 24
b. 25
c. 20
d. 30
e. 32
40. What approximate value should come in the place of question mark (?) (+1, -0.25)
in the following question
(34.85) 2 - (18.99) 2 - (5.01) 3 = ?
a. 739
b. 673
c. 807
d. 591
e. 617
41. A can complete a work in 60 days. B is 25% more efficient than A. They (+1, -0.25)
work together for 15 days. C alone completes the remaining work in 14
days. B and C together will complete 58 th part of the original work in:
a. 12 days
b. 10 days
c. 15 days
d. 18 days
e. 21 days
42. The ratio of speed of boat in still water and the current speed is 4:3, (+1, -0.25)
distance covered by boat in downstream speed and upstream speed is
126km each. find the speed of boat in still water if total time taken by boat
in both downstream and upstream speed is 48 hours ?
a. 9 km/hr
b. 3 km/hr
c. 10.5 km/hr
d. 16 km/hr
e. 12 km/hr
43. Rs. 16500 is split into two fixed deposits for 2 years at 10% and 12% Simple (+1, -0.25)
Interest. If the total interest received from the deposits is Rs. 3620, how
much was invested in the 12% scheme?
a. Rs. 9500
b. Rs.10500
c. Rs.10000
d. Rs.8000
e. Rs.8500
44. If the height of the triangle is 24 cm, and the area of the triangle is 168 sq. (+1, -0.25)
cm. The perimeter of the rectangle is 84 cm. If it were given that the base
of a triangle is equal to the breadth of a rectangle. Find length of
rectangle.
a. 32 cm
b. 28 cm
c. 40 cm
d. 25 cm
e. 30 cm
45. The ratio of water to milk in 250 liters of mixture A is 4:1. Mixture B has 25 (+1, -0.25)
liters of water and the ratio of water to milk in mixture B is 5:7. If 40% of
mixture A and 80% of mixture B is Mixed and new mixture C is made then
find the ratio of milk to water in Mixture C.
a. 15:17
b. 25:12
c. 23:16
d. 12:25
e. None of the above
46. In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve (+1, -0.25)
both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
I. x2 + 18x + 77 = 0
II. 4y 2+ 31y + 21 = 0
a. x > y
b. x < y
c. x ≥ y
d. x ≤ y
e. x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.
47. In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve (+1, -0.25)
both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
I. 2x 2– 33x + 136 = 0
II. 2y 2– 37y + 171 = 0
a. x > y
b. x < y
c. x ≥ y
d. x ≤ y
e. x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.
48. In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve (+1, -0.25)
both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
I. 5x 2– 38x + 65 = 0
II. 5y 2– 19y - 30 = 0
a. x > y
b. x < y
c. x ≥ y
d. x ≤ y
e. x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.
49. In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve (+1, -0.25)
both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
I. 12x 2+ 11x + 2 = 0
II. y2 + 20y + 99 = 0
a. x > y
b. x < y
c. x ≥ y
d. x ≤ y
e. x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.
50. In the given question, two equations numbered l and II are given. Solve (+1, -0.25)
both the equations and mark the appropriate answer.
I. 2x 2– 19x + 24 = 0
II. y2 – 25y + 144 = 0
a. x > y
b. x < y
c. x ≥ y
d. x ≤ y
e. x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.
51. Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below. (+1, -0.25)
Four different warehouses displaced two different types of 'quantities' (P
and Q) in the month of March. The line graph below shows the total
number of 'quantities' displaced by each warehouse and the number of 'P'
type of 'quantities' displaced by the same warehouse.
What is the average number of 'Q' type of 'quantities' displaced by
warehouses 'B', 'C', and 'D'?
a. 360
b. 380
c. 350
d. 370
e. 340
52. Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below. (+1, -0.25)
Four different warehouses displaced two different types of 'quantities' (P
and Q) in the month of March. The line graph below shows the total
number of 'quantities' displaced by each warehouse and the number of
'P' type of 'quantities' displaced by the same warehouse.
If each 'P' type of displaced 'quantity' costs Rs. 275 to a warehouse then
find the total cost beared by all four warehouses from selling all 'P' type
of quantities?
a. Rs. 372250
b. Rs. 374250
c. Rs. 371250
d. Rs. 373250
e. Rs. 375250
53. Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below. (+1, -0.25)
Four different warehouses displaced two different types of 'quantities' (P
and Q) in the month of March. The line graph below shows the total
number of 'quantities' displaced by each warehouse and the number of
'P' type of 'quantities' displaced by the same warehouse.
If the number of 'Q' type of displaced 'quantities' for warehouse 'E' is
62.5% more than the number of 'Q' type of quantities displaced by
warehouse 'A' and the number of 'P' type of displaced 'quantities' for
warehouse 'E' is 250 more than the number of 'Q' type of quantities
displaced by the same warehouse then find the total number of
quantities displaced by warehouse 'E'?
a. 1350
b. 1250
c. 1550
d. 1450
e. 1150
54. Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below. (+1, -0.25)
Four different warehouses displaced two different types of 'quantities' (P
and Q) in the month of March. The line graph below shows the total
number of 'quantities' displaced by each warehouse and the number of
'P' type of 'quantities' displaced by the same warehouse.
The total number of 'P' type of quantities displaced by warehouses 'A',
'C', and 'D' are approximately what percentage of the total number of
quantities displaced by all four warehouses?
a. 39%
b. 38%
c. 37%
d. 40%
e. 36%
55. Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below. (+1, -0.25)
Four different warehouses displaced two different types of 'quantities' (P
and Q) in the month of March. The line graph below shows the total
number of 'quantities' displaced by each warehouse and the number of
'P' type of 'quantities' displaced by the same warehouse.
Out of the total number of quantities displaced by all four warehouses
42.85% are returned back due to some defects then find the total
number of quantities that are accepted and not returned back to all
four warehouses?
a. 2000
b. 1600
c. 1800
d. 1400
e. 1200
56. The ratio of present ages of A and B is 7 : 8. After 6 years from now, the (+1, -0.25)
ratio of their ages will be 8 : 9. If C's present age is 10 years more than the
present age of A, then the present age (in years) of C is:
a. 56
b. 59
c. 52
d. 45
e. 55
57. Arvind gives 50% of his money to his son, 30% to his wife, and 62.5% of the (+1, -0.25)
remaining money is donated to a trust. He is left with 15,000 Rs. now. How
much money did he have in the beginning?
a. 2,25,000 Rs.
b. 2,00,000 Rs.
c. 2,10,000 Rs.
d. 1,90,000 Rs.
e. 2,05,000 Rs.
58. Akshay invested Rs. 24,000 in a business. After few months Bikash joined (+1, -0.25)
with a capital of Rs. 18,000. After a year, profit is divided into ratio 16 : 7.
After how many months, did Bikash join the business?
a. 3 months
b. 5 months
c. 6 months
d. 4 months
e. 7 months
59. Two pipes can fill a tank in 12 hours and 15 hours respectively, while the (+1, -0.25)
third pipes can empty it in 18 hours. If first two pipes fill the tank for 5
hours then, time taken to empty the tank by third pipe ?
a. 12.5 hours
b. 11.5 hours
c. 15.5 hours
d. 13.5 hours
e. 14.5 hours
60. A train covers 400 km at a uniform speed. If the speed had been 10 km/h (+1, -0.25)
more, it would have taken 2 hours less for the same journey. What is the
usual time taken (in hours) by it to complete the journey?
a. 10
b. 8
c. 12
d. 14
e. 15
61. Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below. (+1, -0.25)
A survey is conducted among people about the type of 'music' genres
(Folk, Rock, and Jazz) they prefer to listen. Each of the person prefer to
listen at least one or more genres.The number of people who prefer to
listen only 'Folk', only 'Rock and only 'Jazz' are in the ratio of 56 : 79 : 41. The
number of people who prefer to listen both 'Folk' and 'Jazz' but not 'Rock' is
25% less the number of people who prefer to listen all three 'music' genres.
The number of people who prefer to listen both 'Rock' and 'Jazz' but not
'Folk' and both 'Folk' and 'Rock' but not 'Jazz' are 50 and 35 respectively.
The number of people who prefer to listen only 'Jazz' are five less than six
times of the people who prefer to listen both 'Folk' and 'Rock' but not 'Jazz'.
The total number of people who prefer to listen exactly two type of 'music'
genres is equal to 130.
What is the number of people who prefer to listen all three types of
'music' genres?
a. 60
b. 48
c. 40
d. 44
e. 52
62. Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below. (+1, -0.25)
A survey is conducted among people about the type of 'music' genres
(Folk, Rock, and Jazz) they prefer to listen. Each of the person prefer to
listen at least one or more genres.The number of people who prefer to
listen only 'Folk', only 'Rock and only 'Jazz' are in the ratio of 56 : 79 : 41. The
number of people who prefer to listen both 'Folk' and 'Jazz' but not 'Rock' is
25% less the number of people who prefer to listen all three 'music'
genres. The number of people who prefer to listen both 'Rock' and 'Jazz'
but not 'Folk' and both 'Folk' and 'Rock' but not 'Jazz' are 50 and 35
respectively. The number of people who prefer to listen only 'Jazz' are five
less than six times of the people who prefer to listen both 'Folk' and 'Rock'
but not 'Jazz'. The total number of people who prefer to listen exactly two
type of 'music' genres is equal to 130.
Find the total number of people who prefer to listen to only 'Folk' and to
only 'Rock'?
a. 600
b. 625
c. 700
d. 675
e. 725
63. Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below. (+1, -0.25)
A survey is conducted among people about the type of 'music' genres
(Folk, Rock, and Jazz) they prefer to listen. Each of the person prefer to
listen at least one or more genres.The number of people who prefer to
listen only 'Folk', only 'Rock and only 'Jazz' are in the ratio of 56 : 79 : 41. The
number of people who prefer to listen both 'Folk' and 'Jazz' but not 'Rock' is
25% less the number of people who prefer to listen all three 'music'
genres. The number of people who prefer to listen both 'Rock' and 'Jazz'
but not 'Folk' and both 'Folk' and 'Rock' but not 'Jazz' are 50 and 35
respectively. The number of people who prefer to listen only 'Jazz' are five
less than six times of the people who prefer to listen both 'Folk' and 'Rock'
but not 'Jazz'. The total number of people who prefer to listen exactly two
type of 'music' genres is equal to 130.
The number of people who prefer to listen exactly one type of 'music'
genre is how much more than the number of people who prefer to
listen exactly two types of 'music' genres?
a. 740
b. 750
c. 720
d. 730
e. 760
64. Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below. (+1, -0.25)
A survey is conducted among people about the type of 'music' genres
(Folk, Rock, and Jazz) they prefer to listen. Each of the person prefer to
listen at least one or more genres.The number of people who prefer to
listen only 'Folk', only 'Rock and only 'Jazz' are in the ratio of 56 : 79 : 41. The
number of people who prefer to listen both 'Folk' and 'Jazz' but not 'Rock' is
25% less the number of people who prefer to listen all three 'music'
genres. The number of people who prefer to listen both 'Rock' and 'Jazz'
but not 'Folk' and both 'Folk' and 'Rock' but not 'Jazz' are 50 and 35
respectively. The number of people who prefer to listen only 'Jazz' are five
less than six times of the people who prefer to listen both 'Folk' and 'Rock'
but not 'Jazz'. The total number of people who prefer to listen exactly two
type of 'music' genres is equal to 130.
Find the total number of people who prefer to listen 'Rock'?
a. 550
b. 520
c. 530
d. 560
e. 540
65. Directions: Answer the questions based on the information given below. (+1, -0.25)
A survey is conducted among people about the type of 'music' genres
(Folk, Rock, and Jazz) they prefer to listen. Each of the person prefer to
listen at least one or more genres.The number of people who prefer to
listen only 'Folk', only 'Rock and only 'Jazz' are in the ratio of 56 : 79 : 41. The
number of people who prefer to listen both 'Folk' and 'Jazz' but not 'Rock' is
25% less the number of people who prefer to listen all three 'music'
genres. The number of people who prefer to listen both 'Rock' and 'Jazz'
but not 'Folk' and both 'Folk' and 'Rock' but not 'Jazz' are 50 and 35
respectively. The number of people who prefer to listen only 'Jazz' are five
less than six times of the people who prefer to listen both 'Folk' and 'Rock'
but not 'Jazz'. The total number of people who prefer to listen exactly two
type of 'music' genres is equal to 130.
What is the ratio between the number of people who prefer to listen
'Folk' and to 'Jazz'?
a. 5 : 4
b. 3 : 2
c. 9 : 8
d. 7 : 6
e. 11 : 10
Reasoning Ability
66. Directions: Read the following instructions carefully to answer the given (+1, -0.25)
questions that follow:
There are seven persons (A - G), who were born in different years - 1961,
1968, 1972, 1988, 1993, 1999, and 2013. All the age calculations are done
taking the base year as 2020.
D was born in a leap year but not in the year 1988. Only three persons
were born between D and F. C is the eldest person among them all. The
sum of the ages of A and F is a multiple of 13. B was born in an odd-
numbered year but not in 1993 nor he was the last one to be born. The
difference between the ages of G and D is 4 years.
Who was born in the year 1993?
a. A
b. E
c. B
d. D
e. None of these
67. Directions: Read the following instructions carefully to answer the given (+1, -0.25)
questions that follow:
There are seven persons (A - G), who were born in different years - 1961,
1968, 1972, 1988, 1993, 1999, and 2013. All the age calculations are done
taking the base year as 2020.
D was born in a leap year but not in the year 1988. Only three persons
were born between D and F. C is the eldest person among them all. The
sum of the ages of A and F is a multiple of 13. B was born in an odd-
numbered year but not in 1993 nor he was the last one to be born. The
difference between the ages of G and D is 4 years.
What is the sum of the ages of C and B?
a. 79
b. 77
c. 80
d. 81
e. 83
68. Directions: Read the following instructions carefully to answer the given (+1, -0.25)
questions that follow:
There are seven persons (A - G), who were born in different years - 1961,
1968, 1972, 1988, 1993, 1999, and 2013. All the age calculations are done
taking the base year as 2020.
D was born in a leap year but not in the year 1988. Only three persons
were born between D and F. C is the eldest person among them all. The
sum of the ages of A and F is a multiple of 13. B was born in an odd-
numbered year but not in 1993 nor he was the last one to be born. The
difference between the ages of G and D is 4 years.
How many persons are born between G and D?
a. None
b. One
c. Three
d. Two
e. Four
69. Directions: Read the following instructions carefully to answer the given (+1, -0.25)
questions that follow:
There are seven persons (A - G), who were born in different years - 1961,
1968, 1972, 1988, 1993, 1999, and 2013. All the age calculations are done
taking the base year as 2020.
D was born in a leap year but not in the year 1988. Only three persons
were born between D and F. C is the eldest person among them all. The
sum of the ages of A and F is a multiple of 13. B was born in an odd-
numbered year but not in 1993 nor he was the last one to be born. The
difference between the ages of G and D is 4 years.
Four of the five are alike in a certain way thus form a group. Which one
does not belong to that group?
a. E
b. G
c. F
d. B
e. C
70. Directions: Read the following instructions carefully to answer the given (+1, -0.25)
questions that follow:
There are seven persons (A - G), who were born in different years - 1961,
1968, 1972, 1988, 1993, 1999, and 2013. All the age calculations are done
taking the base year as 2020.
D was born in a leap year but not in the year 1988. Only three persons
were born between D and F. C is the eldest person among them all. The
sum of the ages of A and F is a multiple of 13. B was born in an odd-
numbered year but not in 1993 nor he was the last one to be born. The
difference between the ages of G and D is 4 years.
B was born in which year?
a. 1968
b. 1988
c. 1999
d. 2013
e. 1993
71. DIRECTIONS : In the following question assuming the given statements to (+1, -0.25)
be true, find which of the conclusion among the given conclusions is/are
definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
Statements : F = S > G < V, Q > P > X, F ≥ X, V < M
Conclusions:
I. M > G
II. S < Q
a. Only conclusion I follows
b. Only conclusion Ii follows
c. Either conclusion I or II follows
d. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
e. Both conclusion I and II follows
72. DIRECTIONS : In the following question assuming the given statements to (+1, -0.25)
be true, find which of the conclusion among the given conclusions is/are
definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
Statements : P > Q < R, R = S > T, T < U > V
Conclusions :
I. S > P
II. U > R
a. Only conclusion I follows
b. Only conclusion II follows
c. Both Conclusion I and II follow
d. Neither I nor II follow
e. Either I or II follow
73. DIRECTIONS : In the following question assuming the given statements to (+1, -0.25)
be true, find which of the conclusion among the given conclusions is/are
definitely true and then give your answers accordingly.
Statements : T > N < V = L ≤ W < K, V = H > I > F
Conclusions :
I. V > F
II. T > H
a. Only conclusion I follows
b. Only conclusion II follows
c. Either conclusion I or II follow
d. Neither conclusion I nor II follow
e. Both Conclusion I and II follow
74. Direction: Study the given information and answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions:
Nine persons namely A, B, C, E, F, G, H, K and M are buying books but
necessarily in the same order. At least six persons buy books after H. Two
persons buy books between H and C. M buys book immediately after F
and immediately before E. Not more than two persons buy books
between C and E. A buys book before G and after H. G is not the last one
to buy book. Less than three persons buy books between G and B. B buy
book before G but not at the first.
Who is the second last person to buy a book?
a. A
b. M
c. G
d. F
e. E
75. Direction: Study the given information and answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions:
Nine persons namely A, B, C, E, F, G, H, K and M are buying books but
necessarily in the same order. At least six persons buy books after H. Two
persons buy books between H and C. M buys book immediately after F
and immediately before E. Not more than two persons buy books
between C and E. A buys book before G and after H. G is not the last one
to buy book. Less than three persons buy books between G and B. B buy
book before G but not at the first.
How many persons buys book between B and E?
a. Three
b. Seven
c. Five
d. Four
e. Six
76. Direction: Study the given information and answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions:
Nine persons namely A, B, C, E, F, G, H, K and M are buying books but
necessarily in the same order. At least six persons buy books after H. Two
persons buy books between H and C. M buys book immediately after F
and immediately before E. Not more than two persons buy books
between C and E. A buys book before G and after H. G is not the last one
to buy book. Less than three persons buy books between G and B. B buy
book before G but not at the first.
Who is the first person to buy the book?
a. A
b. E
c. F
d. M
e. K
77. Direction: Study the given information and answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions:
Nine persons namely A, B, C, E, F, G, H, K and M are buying books but
necessarily in the same order. At least six persons buy books after H. Two
persons buy books between H and C. M buys book immediately after F
and immediately before E. Not more than two persons buy books
between C and E. A buys book before G and after H. G is not the last one
to buy book. Less than three persons buy books between G and B. B buy
book before G but not at the first.
If F and K interchange their position, then how many persons buy books
between F and E?
a. Seven
b. Three
c. Five
d. Six
e. Four
78. Direction: Study the given information and answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions:
Nine persons namely A, B, C, E, F, G, H, K and M are buying books but
necessarily in the same order. At least six persons buy books after H. Two
persons buy books between H and C. M buys book immediately after F
and immediately before E. Not more than two persons buy books
between C and E. A buys book before G and after H. G is not the last one
to buy book. Less than three persons buy books between G and B. B buy
book before G but not at the first.
Find the odd one out.
a. BG
b. FA
c. AE
d. GM
e. AK
79. If 1 is added to each even digit and 1 is subtracted from each odd digit in (+1, -0.25)
the number 6953265 , then what will be the sum of numbers not repeated
in the new number formed?
a. 14
b. 8
c. 9
d. 17
e. 13
80. Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given (+1, -0.25)
questions.
In a certain code language,
'for the victory sign' is coded as 'si vi th fo',
‘empty the apartment now’ is coded as ‘no ap th em’
‘now for the finale’ is coded as ‘fi th fo no’
‘for empty sign victory’ is coded as ‘vi si em fo’
What is the code for 'now'?
a. vi
b. si
c. no
d. th
e. fo
81. Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given (+1, -0.25)
questions.
In a certain code language,
'for the victory sign' is coded as 'si vi th fo',
‘empty the apartment now’ is coded as ‘no ap th em’
‘now for the finale’ is coded as ‘fi th fo no’
‘for empty sign victory’ is coded as ‘vi si em fo’
What is the code for 'victory'?
a. vi
b. th
c. fo
d. si
e. Either vi or si
82. Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given (+1, -0.25)
questions.
In a certain code language,
'for the victory sign' is coded as 'si vi th fo',
‘empty the apartment now’ is coded as ‘no ap th em’
‘now for the finale’ is coded as ‘fi th fo no’
‘for empty sign victory’ is coded as ‘vi si em fo’
What is the code for 'finale'?
a. th
b. fo
c. ap
d. fi
e. no
83. Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given (+1, -0.25)
questions.
In a certain code language,
'for the victory sign' is coded as 'si vi th fo',
‘empty the apartment now’ is coded as ‘no ap th em’
‘now for the finale’ is coded as ‘fi th fo no’
‘for empty sign victory’ is coded as ‘vi si em fo’
If the code for 'all good for victory' is coded as 'vi fo go al', how will 'the
empty sign' be coded as?
a. th em vi
b. si em fo
c. si em th
d. fi th fo
e. None of the above
84. Direction: Study the following information carefully to answer the given (+1, -0.25)
questions.
In a certain code language,
'for the victory sign' is coded as 'si vi th fo',
‘empty the apartment now’ is coded as ‘no ap th em’
‘now for the finale’ is coded as ‘fi th fo no’
‘for empty sign victory’ is coded as ‘vi si em fo’
What is the code for 'apartment'?
a. th
b. ap
c. em
d. no
e. fo
85. If it is possible to make only one meaningful 4 letter English word with the (+1, -0.25)
1 st , 3 rd , 6 th , and 8th letter of the word PROPELLER, which of the following
will be the third letter from the left of that word? If no such word can be
made give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be
made give ‘Y’ as the answer.
a. E
b. X
c. Y
d. O
e. L
86. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. (+1, -0.25)
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a. KIG
b. GIK
c. ZXV
d. DBZ
e. FDB
87. Direction: Study the following information and answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions.
Five persons are working in a bank. Their designations are CEO,
CFO, Manager, Clerk, and Peon. The sequence of the posts is as above i.e.
CEO is the senior most and Peon is the junior most person. They have a
different number of pens. No two persons have the same number of pens.
Two persons are junior to Z. The difference in the number of pens
between R and Z is 14 and Z has the least number of pens. The one who is
just senior to the one who is Manager has 33 pens. A is just senior to the
one who has 45 pens. There is one designation between the Manager
and R. A has 11 pens more and 9 pen more than W and Q respectively.
One designation lies between the one who has 33 pens and A.
How many total number of pens have by the persons who are on the
post of CEO and CFO?
a. 66
b. 64
c. 72
d. 68
e. 70
88. Direction: Study the following information and answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions.
Five persons are working in a bank. Their designations are CEO,
CFO, Manager, Clerk, and Peon. The sequence of the posts is as above i.e.
CEO is the senior most and Peon is the junior most person. They have a
different number of pens. No two persons have the same number of
pens.
Two persons are junior to Z. The difference in the number of pens
between R and Z is 14 and Z has the least number of pens. The one who is
just senior to the one who is Manager has 33 pens. A is just senior to the
one who has 45 pens. There is one designation between the Manager
and R. A has 11 pens more and 9 pen more than W and Q respectively.
One designation lies between the one who has 33 pens and A.
Find the correct Sequence from the following?
a. Manager-A-44
b. CEO-Q-35
c. Clerk-Z-49
d. Peon-W-38
e. CFO-R-45
89. Direction: Study the following information and answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions.
Five persons are working in a bank. Their designations are CEO,
CFO, Manager, Clerk, and Peon. The sequence of the posts is as above i.e.
CEO is the senior most and Peon is the junior most person. They have a
different number of pens. No two persons have the same number of
pens.
Two persons are junior to Z. The difference in the number of pens
between R and Z is 14 and Z has the least number of pens. The one who is
just senior to the one who is Manager has 33 pens. A is just senior to the
one who has 45 pens. There is one designation between the Manager
and R. A has 11 pens more and 9 pen more than W and Q respectively.
One designation lies between the one who has 33 pens and A.
How many post are between the person R and Q?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
e. None
90. Direction: Study the following information and answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions.
Five persons are working in a bank. Their designations are CEO,
CFO, Manager, Clerk, and Peon. The sequence of the posts is as above i.e.
CEO is the senior most and Peon is the junior most person. They have a
different number of pens. No two persons have the same number of
pens.
Two persons are junior to Z. The difference in the number of pens
between R and Z is 14 and Z has the least number of pens. The one who is
just senior to the one who is Manager has 33 pens. A is just senior to the
one who has 45 pens. There is one designation between the Manager
and R. A has 11 pens more and 9 pen more than W and Q respectively.
One designation lies between the one who has 33 pens and A.
Who is on the post of CFO?
a. R
b. Q
c. Z
d. A
e. W
91. Direction: Study the following information and answer the following (+1, -0.25)
questions.
Five persons are working in a bank. Their designations are CEO,
CFO, Manager, Clerk, and Peon. The sequence of the posts is as above i.e.
CEO is the senior most and Peon is the junior most person. They have a
different number of pens. No two persons have the same number of pens.
Two persons are junior to Z. The difference in the number of pens between
R and Z is 14 and Z has the least number of pens. The one who is just
senior to the one who is Manager has 33 pens. A is just senior to the one
who has 45 pens. There is one designation between the Manager and R. A
has 11 pens more and 9 pen more than W and Q respectively. One
designation lies between the one who has 33 pens and A.
How many pens does Clerk have?
a. 46
b. 44
c. 42
d. 48
e. 40
92. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word "REVOLUTION" which (+1, -0.25)
has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and
backward directions) as they have between them in the English
alphabetical series?
a. Five
b. Three
c. None
d. Four
e. More than five
93. Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given (+1, -0.25)
questions.
There are nine members F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M and N in a family having three
generations and two married couples. There is no single parent in the
family.
N is the daughter of F who has only two children. F is the sister-in-law of I.
N has an only son. J is the son of K and J doesn’t have a sister. M is the
only brother-in-law of J’s grandfather. G belongs to the first generation of
the family. H is the only brother-in-law of N. L is G’s child.
How is L related to the maternal uncle of N?
a. Son
b. Daughter
c. Nephew
d. Niece
e. Cannot be determined
94. Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given (+1, -0.25)
questions.
There are nine members F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M and N in a family having three
generations and two married couples. There is no single parent in the
family.
N is the daughter of F who has only two children. F is the sister-in-law of I.
N has an only son. J is the son of K and J doesn’t have a sister. M is the
only brother-in-law of J’s grandfather. G belongs to the first generation of
the family. H is the only brother-in-law of N. L is G’s child.
If G does not have a brother, how is I related to the sister-in-law of H?
a. Maternal aunt
b. Paternal uncle
c. Maternal uncle
d. Paternal aunt
e. Cannot be determined
95. Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given (+1, -0.25)
questions.
There are nine members F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M and N in a family having three
generations and two married couples. There is no single parent in the
family.
N is the daughter of F who has only two children. F is the sister-in-law of I.
N has an only son. J is the son of K and J doesn’t have a sister. M is the
only brother-in-law of J’s grandfather. G belongs to the first generation of
the family. H is the only brother-in-law of N. L is G’s child.
If L is the daughter of G, how many male members are there in the
family?
a. Six
b. Five
c. Seven
d. Cannot be determined
e. None of these
96. Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the (+1, -0.25)
questions given below.
Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each
such that they are equidistant from each other. In row 1, A, B, C, and D are
sitting facing North. In row 2, P, Q, R and S are sitting facing south. All the
members are from different countries viz. Delhi, Damascus, Tokyo, New
York, London, Beijing, Dhaka, and Madrid, but not necessarily in the same
order.
D sits second to the left of B and faces the person who is from New York. P
sits at one of the extreme ends of the row but does not face the person
who is from Madrid. S is sitting second to the right of Q and faces D who is
from Damascus. Persons coming from London and Beijing sit adjacent to
each other. The person who is from Dhaka sits adjacent to the person
who is from Madrid but not at the end of the row. The person who is from
London sits second to the left of the person who is from Delhi. More than
one person sits between B and A.
Who among the following faces the person who is from Tokyo?
a. Q
b. P
c. R
d. A
e. B
97. Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the (+1, -0.25)
questions given below.
Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each
such that they are equidistant from each other. In row 1, A, B, C, and D are
sitting facing North. In row 2, P, Q, R and S are sitting facing south. All the
members are from different countries viz. Delhi, Damascus, Tokyo, New
York, London, Beijing, Dhaka, and Madrid, but not necessarily in the same
order.
D sits second to the left of B and faces the person who is from New York. P
sits at one of the extreme ends of the row but does not face the person
who is from Madrid. S is sitting second to the right of Q and faces D who is
from Damascus. Persons coming from London and Beijing sit adjacent to
each other. The person who is from Dhaka sits adjacent to the person
who is from Madrid but not at the end of the row. The person who is from
London sits second to the left of the person who is from Delhi. More than
one person sits between B and A.
Find the odd man out:
a. RB
b. QC
c. PD
d. SB
e. RD
98. Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the (+1, -0.25)
questions given below.
Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each
such that they are equidistant from each other. In row 1, A, B, C, and D are
sitting facing North. In row 2, P, Q, R and S are sitting facing south. All the
members are from different countries viz. Delhi, Damascus, Tokyo, New
York, London, Beijing, Dhaka, and Madrid, but not necessarily in the same
order.
D sits second to the left of B and faces the person who is from New York. P
sits at one of the extreme ends of the row but does not face the person
who is from Madrid. S is sitting second to the right of Q and faces D who is
from Damascus. Persons coming from London and Beijing sit adjacent to
each other. The person who is from Dhaka sits adjacent to the person
who is from Madrid but not at the end of the row. The person who is from
London sits second to the left of the person who is from Delhi. More than
one person sits between B and A.
How many persons sit between the person from Damascus and
Madrid?
a. 3
b. 2
c. 1
d. None
e. Cannot be determined
99. Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the (+1, -0.25)
questions given below.
Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each
such that they are equidistant from each other. In row 1, A, B, C, and D are
sitting facing North. In row 2, P, Q, R and S are sitting facing south. All the
members are from different countries viz. Delhi, Damascus, Tokyo, New
York, London, Beijing, Dhaka, and Madrid, but not necessarily in the same
order.
D sits second to the left of B and faces the person who is from New York. P
sits at one of the extreme ends of the row but does not face the person
who is from Madrid. S is sitting second to the right of Q and faces D who is
from Damascus. Persons coming from London and Beijing sit adjacent to
each other. The person who is from Dhaka sits adjacent to the person
who is from Madrid but not at the end of the row. The person who is from
London sits second to the left of the person who is from Delhi. More than
one person sits between B and A.
Who is sitting opposite to the person from New York?
a. C
b. A
c. B
d. D
e. S
100. Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the (+1, -0.25)
questions given below.
Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each
such that they are equidistant from each other. In row 1, A, B, C, and D are
sitting facing North. In row 2, P, Q, R and S are sitting facing south. All the
members are from different countries viz. Delhi, Damascus, Tokyo, New
York, London, Beijing, Dhaka, and Madrid, but not necessarily in the same
order.
D sits second to the left of B and faces the person who is from New York.
P sits at one of the extreme ends of the row but does not face the person
who is from Madrid. S is sitting second to the right of Q and faces D who
is from Damascus. Persons coming from London and Beijing sit adjacent
to each other. The person who is from Dhaka sits adjacent to the person
who is from Madrid but not at the end of the row. The person who is from
London sits second to the left of the person who is from Delhi. More than
one person sits between B and A.
Which of the following is false?
a. D is from Dhaka
b. P is from delhi
c. A is from Tokyo.
d. Q is from Beijing
e. B is from Madrid
SBI PO Prelims 2022 Previous Year Question Paper with Free PDF Download Memory Based Paper-DEC 17, 2022
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