UPSC Previous Year Question Paper
1. कार्वाई करने की सहायक सामग्री, ज्ञान प्रबंधन के साधन हैं, जिनका उपयोग मंत्रालयों और विभागों में होता है। निम्नलिखित में से कार्वाई करने की कौन-सी सहायक सामग्री तीन भागों से बना एक संकलन है?
(a) स्थायी टिप्पणी
(b) संदर्भ फोल्डर
(c) स्थायी गाड़ फाइल
(d) नजीरों की पुस्तक
2. अनुशासनिक मामलों में, अंतिम आदेश सूचित करने के लिए निम्नलिखित में से संप्रेषण के किस प्रारूप का प्रयोग किया जाएगा?
(a) कायालय ज्ञापन
(b) आदेश
(c) कायालय आदेश
(d) पत्र
3. रिकॉर्ड प्रबंधन के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही नहीं है?
(a) फाइलों को ‘A’ से ‘D’ तक की चार श्रेणियों में से किसी एक के अंतर्गत अभिलेखबद्ध किया जा सकता है।
(b) ‘सुरक्षित रखें और माइक्रोफिल्म बनाएँ’ पद का आशय श्रेणी ‘A’ फाइलों से है।
(c) ई-फाइलों को श्रेणी ‘A’ और ‘C’ के अंतर्गत अभिलेखबद्ध किया जा सकेगा।
(d) कुछ फाइलों को, उनकी माइक्रोफिल्म बनाए बिना, सुरक्षित रखा जा सकता है।
4. ‘कटौती प्रस्ताव’ के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही है?
(a) ‘नीित अनुभोदन कटौती’ प्रस्ताव में, माँग की राशि घटाकर ₹ 10 करने की माँग होती है।
(b) ‘मितव्ययिता कटौती’ प्रस्ताव में, माँग की राशि घटाकर ₹ 100 करने की माँग होती है।
(c) ‘सांकेतिक कटौती’ प्रस्ताव में, किसी विशिष्ट शिकायत को प्रकट करने के लिए, माँग की राशि घटाकर ₹ 1,000 करने की माँग होती है।
(d) कटौती प्रस्ताव की सूचना की अवधि उस दिन से एक दिन पूर्व है, जिस दिन के लिए इससे संबंधित माँग विचाराधीन है, किन्तु लोक सभा अध्यक्ष इसे अधित्यक्त कर सकता है।
5. ई-आंकिस पद्धति के संदर्भ में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/कौन-से कथन सही नहीं है/हैं?
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मंत्रालय/विभाग का केंद्रीय रजिस्ट्री (CR) यूनिट भौतिक रूप में प्राप्त डाक को स्कैन करने और सिस्टम में डायरी करने के लिए केंद्रीय रूप से उत्तरदायी है।
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यदि भौतिक रूप में प्राप्त डाक का कोई संलग्नक उसमें लगा नहीं है, तो इनकी माँग टेलीफोन या इलेक्ट्रॉनिक रूप से की जा सकती है।
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जहाँ संलग्नक के रूप में विपुल आयतनी पुस्तकें प्राप्त होती हैं, वहाँ प्रेषक से सॉफ्ट प्रति भेजने या पब्लिक वेबसाइट के लिंक बताने के लिए अनुरोध किया जा सकेगा, जहाँ से इन्हें डाउनलोड किया जा सकता है।
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ई-डायरी करने के बाद, भौतिक डाक को रिकॉर्ड कक्ष में भेजा जाता है।
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
(a) केवल 1 और 2
(b) केवल 2
(c) 1, 2 और 3
(d) 4
upsc previous year question paper
6. ई-फाइल क्रमांकन पद्धति और रिकॉर्ड प्रबंधन के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/कौन-से कथन सही है/है?
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ई-फाइल को अभिलेखबद्ध करने से पहले, उस फाइल में अंतर्निहित महत्त्वपूर्ण निर्णयों के सार को उस विभाग की वेबसाइट पर अपलोड करना अपेक्षित है।
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ई-आँफस पद्धति पत्रादि पर उनका उत्तर दर्ज करने और उन्हें प्रेषक को वापस भेजने के माध्यम से कार्रवाई करने की अनुमति नहीं देती है।
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सभी विभागों द्वारा स्थापना, वित्त और बजट से संबंधित ई-फाइलों को खोलने के लिए राष्ट्रीय सूचना विज्ञान केंद्र द्वारा एक मानक ई-फाइल सूचक तैयार किया गया है।
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आकॉइड डिजिटल रिकॉर्ड की एक प्रति डिजास्टर रिकवरी साइट पर रखी जाएगी।
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
(a) केवल 1
(b) 1 और 2
(c) 1 और 4
(d) 2 और 3
7. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा, केंद्रीय प्रशासनिक अधिकरण (CAT) में फाइल किए जाने वाले आवेदनों का एक प्रकार नहीं है?
(a) उपांतरित आवेदन (मॉडिफाइड ऐल्लिकेशन)
(b) स्थानांतरण के लिए अजी (पिटीशन फॉर ट्रांसफर)
(c) सिविल अवमान याचिका (सिविल कंटेम्ट पिटीशन)
(d) पुनर्विलोकन आवेदन (रिव्यू ऐल्लिकेशन)
8. भारत सरकार में लोक शिकायत समाधान तंत्र के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/कौन-से कथन सही है/है?
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डाक द्वारा ऑफलाइन दर्ज की गई शिकायत को CPGRAMS पर अपलोड करना और संबंधित नागरिक को एक पावती पत्र डाक से भेजने के लिए इसे सूजित करना अपेक्षित है।
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ई-मेल से भेजी गई शिकायतों के समाधान के लिए कार्रवाई की जानी चाहिए।
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लोक शिकायत रिकॉर्डों को 5 वर्ष की अवधि के बाद आकॉइव किया जाता है।
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राष्ट्रपति सचिवालय को CPGRAMS के माध्यम से एकीकृत नहीं किया गया है।
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
(a) केवल 1
(b) 2, 3 और 4
(c) 1 और 4
(d) 1 और 3
upsc previous year question paper
9. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-से केंद्रीय सार्वजनिक क्षेत्रक उद्यम (CPSE) हैं?
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दिल्ली इंटरनेशनल एयरपोर्ट लिमिटेड (DIAL)
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तेल और प्राकृतिक गैस निगम (ONGC)
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हिंदुस्तान एरोनॉटिक्स लिमिटेड (HAL)
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भारतीय जीवन बीमा निगम (LICI)
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
(a) 2, 3 और 4
(b) 1, 3 और 4
(c) केवल 2 और 3
(d) केवल 2 और 4
10. टिप्पणी पर मार्गनिर्देश से संबंधित निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
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किसी मामले के निपटान को सुविधाजनक बनाने के लिए, उस पर अभिलेखबद्ध अभ्युक्ति ‘टिप्पणी’ है।
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‘टिप्पणी’ में विचाराधीन कागज के उद्धरण का ‘अक्षरशः पुनःप्रस्तुतीकरण’ होना चाहिए।
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सभी श्रेणियों के कर्मचारी और अधिकारी हरी स्याही से ‘टिप्पणी’ लिख सकते हैं।
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किसी फाइल पर पहले से लिपिबद्ध की गई टिप्पणियों को उस स्थिति में जबकि उस फाइल को अन्य अधिकारियों द्वारा देख लिया गया हो, बदलने या उसमें संशोधन करने की अनुमति नहीं है।
उपर्युक्त में से कौन-सा/कौन-से कथन सही है/हैं?
(a) केवल 1 और 4
(b) 1, 2 और 4
(c) 2 और 3
(d) केवल 1
11. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-से कथन सही हैं?
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‘अतारांकित प्रश्नों’ के उत्तर संबंधित मंत्री द्वारा सदन में मौखिक रूप से देना अपेक्षित है।
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कोई संसद सदस्य ऐसे विषय पर प्रश्न पूछ सकता है, जो मुख्यतः भारत सरकार से संबंधित नहीं है।
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एक ही सदस्य द्वारा किसी भी एक दिन में, मौखिक उत्तर के लिए प्रश्नों की सूची में एक तारांकित प्रश्न सहित, जिस पर तारा चिह्न अंकित हो, अनधिक पाँच प्रश्न प्रस्तुत किए जा सकते हैं।
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मूल रूप से हिन्दी में पछे गए प्रश्न की पहचान हैगर चिह्न (इ) से की जाएगी।
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
(a) 1 और 3
(b) 2 और 3
(c) 2 और 4
(d) 3 और 4
upsc previous year question paper
12. वित्तीय संस्थीकृति के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित कथनों पर विचार कीजिए :
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‘वित्तीय शक्तियों का प्रत्यायोजन नियमावली’ में अवशिष्ट वित्तीय शक्तियों को समाविष्ट किया गया है।
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लोक धन से किया जाने वाला व्यय, सामान्य वित्तीय नियमावली (GFR) के नियम 21 में निर्दिष्ट वित्तीय औचित्य के मानकों द्वारा मार्गदर्शित होता है।
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केंद्रीय सरकार के किसी विभाग द्वारा जारी की गई सभी वित्तीय संस्थीकृतियाँ, यदि ऐसी संस्थीकृतियों के प्राधिकार से कोई भुगतान किया जाना है, संबंधित लेखा अधिकारी को संबोधित की जानी चाहिए।
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पदों के सृजन से संबंधित संस्वीकृति की प्रतियाँ लेखापरीक्षा अधिकारी को पृष्ठांकित की जानी अपेक्षित हैं।
उपयुक्त में से कौन-से कथन सही हैं?
(a) 2, 3 और 4
(b) 1 और 4
(c) केवल 2 और 3
(d) केवल 2 और 4
13. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-से कथन सही हैं?
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मंत्रि-परिषद् सामूहिक रूप से भारत के राष्ट्रपति के प्रति उत्तरदायी होती है।
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ऐसे मामलों में जिनमें विषय-वस्तु का संबंध एक से अधिक विभागों से होता है, असहमति होने पर, इन्हें निर्णय के लिए मंत्रिमंडल या मंत्रिमंडल समिति के समक्ष प्रस्तुत किया जाएगा।
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किसी मंत्रालय/विभाग की स्थायी वित्त समिति की अध्यक्षता सचिव, व्यय द्वारा की जाती है।
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किसी मंत्रालय/विभाग के ऐसे विधायी प्रस्तावों को मंत्रिमंडल द्वारा अनुमोदित किया जाना है, जिनके लिए संसद के अनुमोदन की आवश्यकता होती है।
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
(a) केवल 1 और 4
(b) 2 और 3
(c) केवल 2 और 4
(d) 1, 2 और 4
14. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही है?
(a) राष्ट्रपति प्रत्येक सत्र के प्रारंभ होने पर संसद के दोनों सदनों को संबोधित करेगा।
(b) लोक सभा का अधिवेशन गठित करने के लिए गणपूर्ति, लोक सभा के सदस्यों की कुल संख्या का दसवाँ भाग होगी, इसमें तत्समय के लिए अध्यक्ष या पीठासीन अधिकारी शामिल नहीं हैं।
(c) लोक सभा में केवल किसी मंत्री द्वारा विधेयक पुरःस्थापित किए जा सकते हैं।
(d) विनियोग अधिनियम उस सेवा पर प्रत्येक अनुदान के व्यय को सुरक्षित करता है, जिसके लिए अनुदान दिया गया है।
15. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही है?
(a) अंतर्विभागीय टिप्पणी और UO टिप्पणी एक ही है।
(b) अनुभाग अधिकारी के हस्ताक्षर से अंतर्विभागीय संदर्भ दिए जा सकते हैं।
(c) पत्र-व्यवहार के एक रूप में पृष्ठांकन का प्रयोग, राज्य सरकारों को प्रतियाँ भेजने के लिए किया जा सकता है।
(d) कायाालय ज्ञापन में अभिवादन होना चाहिए।
upsc previous year question paper
16. भारत सरकार (कायकरण) नियम, 1961 के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा/कौन-से कथन सही नहीं है/है?
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ये नियम भारत सरकार और अन्य देशों के बीच राष्ट्रिक मौद्रिक लेनदेनों के लिए लागू होते हैं।
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ये नियम प्रत्येक विभाग को आबंटित कार्यों के निपटान के विषय में, उसके दायित्वों को परिभाषित करने का प्रयास करते हैं।
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ये नियम राष्ट्रपति, प्रधानमंत्री, मंत्रिमंडल या इसकी समितियों को पूर्व-अनुमोदन के लिए प्रस्तुत किए जाने वाले मामलों की श्रेणियों को विनिर्दिष्ट करते हैं।
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ये नियम उन परिस्थितियों को निर्दिष्ट करते हैं, जिनमें निपटान किए जाने वाले कार्यों से मुख्य रूप से संबंधित विभाग को अंतिम निर्णय लेने से पहले, अन्य संबंधित विभागों से परामर्श करना होगा और उनकी सहमति प्राप्त करनी होगी।
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
(a) केवल 1
(b) 1, 3 और 4
(c) 2 और 3
(d) केवल 4
17. केंद्रीय सरकार के विभागों में से किसी एक के द्वारा जारी वित्तीय संस्थीकृति में उस अवधि का उल्लेख नहीं किया गया था, जिसके लिए यह विधिमान्य है। इन परिस्थितियों में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन विधिमान्य होगा?
(a) यदि जारी किए जाने की तारीख से 12 महीने के दौरान पूर्ण या आंशिक भुगतान नहीं किया जाता है, तो यह व्यपगत हो जाएगी।
(b) यह संस्थीकृति त्रुटिपूर्ण है और इस पर कार्रवाई नहीं की जा सकती है।
(c) यह उस वित्त वर्ष की समाप्ति पर व्यपगत हो जाएगी, जिसमें इसे जारी किया गया था।
(d) यह विधिमान्य बनी रहेगी, जब तक कि इस पर कार्रवाई नहीं की जाती है या विशिष्ट रूप से रह नहीं की जाती है।
18. शून्यकाल के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही नहीं है?
(a) संसद के दोनों सदनों में शून्यकाल होता है।
(b) सदस्यों को शून्यकाल के दौरान अविलंबनीय लोक महत्त्व के मामलों को उठाने की अनुमति है।
(c) प्रश्नकाल के बाद शून्यकाल आता है।
(d) शून्यकाल से आशय उस अवधि से है जब सदन में कोई कार्य नहीं किया जाता है।
upsc previous year question paper
19. भारत संघ की कार्यपालिका शक्ति औपचारिक रूप से किसमें निहित है?
(a) संसद
(b) राष्ट्रपति
(c) प्रधानमंत्री
(d) मंत्रि-परिषद्
20. निम्नलिखित में से किस प्रयोजन/किन प्रयोजनों के लिए सरकारी सेवक को विशेष आकस्मिक छुट्टी स्वीकृत की जा सकती है?
-
राजकुमारी अमृत कौर कोचिंग स्कीम के अंतर्गत कोचिंग शिविरों में भाग लेना
-
प्रादेशिक सेना की पी० ऐंड टी० यूनिटों के साथ प्रशिक्षण
-
सेंट जॉन ऍबुलेंस ब्रिगेड के सदस्य के रूप में प्रशिक्षण
-
किसी कार्य दिवस में मान्यता-प्राप्त ब्लड बैंकों को रक्तदान करना
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
(a) केवल 1 और 3
(b) केवल 2
(c) केवल 2 और 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 और 4
21. दो आबंटिती श्री X और सुश्री Y, जिनके पास केंद्रीय सरकार साधारण पूल आवासिक वास नियम, 2017 के अधीन एक ही स्टेशन में आबंटित पृथक्-पृथक् वास हैं, आपस में विवाह कर लेते हैं। उन्हें अपने विवाह के कितने माह के भीतर, इनमें से एक वास को अभ्यर्थित करना (लीटाना) होगा?
(a) एक माह
(b) तीन माह
(c) छः माह
(d) नी माह
22. सूची-I को सूची-II के साथ सुमेलित कीजिए और नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए :
सूची-I (हिंदी शिक्षण योजना की परीक्षा का नाम)
A. प्रबोध 1. ₹ 3,000
B. प्रवीण 2. ₹ 1,500
C. प्राज 3. ₹ 1,600
D. हिंदी आशुलिपि 4. ₹ 2,400
-
₹ 1,000
-
₹ 2,000
कूट :
(a) A B C D 3 2 4 1
(b) A B C D 3 5 4 1
(c) A B C D 1 6 4 3
(d) A B C D 2 4 5 3
upsc previous year question paper
23. मूल नियम के संदर्भ में, प्रशिक्षण को ड्यूटी के रूप में मानने के लिए स्थितियाँ, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी हैं?
-
प्रशिक्षण भारत में लिया जाना चाहिए।
-
प्रशिक्षण की अवधि एक वर्ष से अधिक नहीं होनी चाहिए।
-
ऐसे प्रशिक्षण में व्यक्तियों को भेजना, सरकार के लिए अबाध्यकर होना चाहिए।
-
यह व्यावसायिक या तकनीकी विषयों में होना चाहिए, जिन्हें सामान्यतः ‘अध्ययन छुट्टी’ से संबंधित प्रावधानों के अंतर्गत रखा जाता है।
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
(a) 1, 3 और 4
(b) केवल 1 और 2
(c) केवल 3 और 4
(d) 1, 2 और 4
24. निम्नलिखित में से किन मामलों के संबंध में, प्रशासनिक मंत्रालयों द्वारा अधीनस्थ प्राधिकारियों को शक्तियाँ पुनःप्रत्यायोजित नहीं की जा सकती हैं?
-
पदों का सृजन
-
हानियों को बढ़े खाते में डालना
-
मूल बजट प्रावधान के 5% का पुनर्विनियोजन
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
(a) केवल 1 और 3
(b) केवल 2 और 3
(c) केवल 1 और 2
(d) 1, 2 और 3
25. किसी सरकारी सेवक के लिखित अनुरोध पर उसे उच्चतर पद से निम्नतर पद पर स्थानांतरित किए जाने के मामले में, निम्नलिखित में से किसके अधीन उसके वेतन का नियतन किया जाएगा?
(a) FR 22
(b) FR 15
(c) FR 35
(d) FR 27
26. प्रतिकर भत्ते के संबंध में, निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा कथन सही नहीं है?
(a) यह उन विशेष परिस्थितियों के कारण होने वाले अतिवार्य व्यक्तिगत व्यय की पूर्ति के लिए प्रदान किया जाने वाला भत्ता है, जिनमें कर्तव्य का निष्पादन किया जाता है।
(b) इसमें यात्रा भत्ता शामिल है।
(c) इसमें सत्कार भत्ता शामिल है।
(d) इसमें भारत से बाहर किसी स्थान में जाने या वहाँ से वापसी के लिए समुद्री मार्ग द्वारा व्यय-मुक्त यात्रा प्रदान करना शामिल नहीं है।
27. किसी सरकारी सेवक का अन्यत्र सेवा में स्थानांतरण होने पर यात्रा और वहाँ से सरकारी सेवा में प्रत्यावर्तन होने पर यात्रा, दोनों के संबंध में यात्रा भत्ता निम्नलिखित में से किसके द्वारा वहन किया जाएगा?
(a) कमचारी द्वारा
(b) प्रदाता नियोजक द्वारा
(c) अन्यत्र सेवा नियोजक द्वारा
(d) अन्यत्र सेवा में स्थानांतरण पर प्रदाता नियोजक द्वारा और वहाँ से सहकारी सेवा में प्रत्यावर्तन होने पर अन्यत्र सेवा नियोजक द्वारा
upsc previous year question paper
28. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी मानदेय की एक विशेषता नहीं है?
(a) यह किसी सरकारी सेवक को यदा-कदा या आंतरायिक स्वरूप के विशेष कार्य के लिए पारिश्रमिक के रूप में प्रदान किया जाता है।
(b) इसका संदाय पुराने रिकॉर्डों की समीक्षा, छैटाई और स्थानांतरण से संबंधित कार्य के लिए नहीं किया जाना चाहिए।
(c) इसका संदाय भारत की संिचत िनिध या राज्य की संिचत िनिध या संघ राज्यक्षेत्र की संिचत िनिध से िभन्न िकसी स्रोत से िकया जाता है।
(d) इसका संदाय भंडार खाली करने और पृथक्रण की व्यवस्था करने के कार्य का पर्यवेक्षण करने के लिए नहीं किया जाना चाहिए।
29. िनम्निलिखत मᱶ से कौन-से, िकसी वᳯर᳧ सरकारी सेवक के वेतन को बढाकर उसके किन᳧ के वेतन के ᭭तर पर लाने को उिचत ठहराएँगे?
-
वरिष्ठ और कनिष्ठ दोनों सरकारी सेवक एक ही संवर्ग के हैं और जिन पदों पर उन्हें पदोन्नत किया गया है, वे उसी संवर्ग के समरूप पद हैं।
-
यदि वरिष्ठ, कुछ भी कारण से, उच्चतर पद पर, कनिष्ठ के बाद कार्यभार ग्रहण करता है, जिससे वह कनिष्ठ से कम वेतन आहारित करने लगता है।
-
निम्नतर और उच्चतर पदों के वेतन मैट्रिक्स में लेवल, जिसमें वरिष्ठ और कनिष्ठ सरकारी सेवक वेतन आहरित करने के हकदार हैं, समरूप हैं।
-
वरिष्ठ और कनिष्ठ सरकारी सेवकों के वेतन में विसंगति, प्रत्यक्ष रूप से, केंद्रीय सिविल सेवा (संशोधित वेतन) नियम, 2016 के नियम 13 के साथ पठित मूल नियम 22 (I) (a) (1) के उपबंधों को लागू करने का परिणाम है।
नीचे दिए गए कूट का प्रयोग कर सही उत्तर चुनिए।
(a) 8 दिन
(a) 1, 2, 3 और 4
(b) 10 दिन
(b) केवल 1, 2 और 3
(c) 12 दिन
(c) केवल 2, 3 और 4
(d) 15 दिन
(d) केवल 1, 3 और 4
upsc previous year question paper
30. Which of the following would justify stepping up of pay of a senior Government servant with that of his junior?
-
Both the senior and junior Government servants belong to the same cadre and the posts in which they have been promoted are identical in the same cadre.
-
The senior joins the higher post later than the junior, for whatsoever reasons, whereby he starts drawing less pay than the junior.
-
The levels in the Pay Matrix of the lower and higher posts in which the senior and junior Government servants are entitled to draw pay are identical.
-
The anomaly in pay of the senior and junior Government servants is directly as a result of the application of the provisions of the Fundamental Rule 22 (1) (a) (1) read with Rule 13 of the CCS (RP) Rules, 2016.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
31. Officers of which of the following pay levels are entitled to transportation of personal effects up to 6000 kg by goods train/4- wheeler wagon/1 single container under the Travelling Allowance Rules?
(a) Level 12 and above
(b) Level 6 to 11
(c) Level 5
(d) Level 4 and below
32. In cases where both husband and wife are Central Government employees and their transfer takes place within six months, but after 60 days of the transfer of the spouse, what percentage of the Composite Transfer and Packing Grant (CTG) shall be allowed to the spouse transferred later?
(a) No CTG is admissible
(b) 50%50% of CTG
(c) 80%80% of CTG
(d) 100%100% of CTG
33. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched regarding Daily Allowance on tour w.e.f. 1st July, 2017?
(Pay Level in Pay (Maximum Amount Matrix) Reimbursable for Hotel Accommodation)
-
Level 14 and above : 10,000 per day
-
Level 13 : 7,500 per day
-
Level 12 : 4,500 per day
-
Level 11 : 2,250 per day
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 3 and 4
34. Consider the following pay details of three Central Government officers in PB-4 (37,400-67,000) with Grade Pay of 10,000 as on 31-12-2015 : (7th CPC Pay Matrix of Pay Level 14 is provided at the end of the Booklet)
(7th CPC Pay Matrix of Pay Level 14 is provided at the end of the Booklet)
(Name) (Pay in Pay Band- 4)
Mr. X 43,000
Mr. Y 44,590
Mr. Z 46,230
What will be their revised pay as on 01- 01- 2016 in 7th CPC corresponding Pay Matrix?
(a) Mr. X : 1,44,200
Mr. Y : 1,44,200
Mr. Z : 1,48,500
(b) Mr. X : 1,44,200
Mr. Y : 1,48,500
Mr. Z : 1,53,000
(c) Mr. X : 1,44,200
Mr. Y : 1,48,500
Mr. Z : 1,48,500
(d) Mr. X : 1,44,200
Mr. Y : 1,44,200
Mr. Z : 1,44,200
upsc previous year question paper
35. An officer drawing pay of 68,000 in Cell 13 of Level 8 (with DNI 01-07-2017) is appointed to a post in Level 11 on 01-03-2017 carrying higher duties and responsibilities. There is a provision of 2 years' probation period in the new post. What will be his pay after successful completion of probation on 01-03-2019?
(7th CPC Pay Matrices of Pay Levels 8 and 11 are provided at the end of the Booklet)
(a) 67,700
(b) 69,700
(c) 72,100
(d) 76,200
36. Which of the following classes of Government servants is/are eligible for Dearness Allowance if their pay does not include an element of compensation for the increased cost of living?
-
Persons employed on contract
-
Persons appointed on ad hoc rates of pay
-
Persons working in work-charged establishment
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
37. Consider the following statements regarding admissibility of Dearness Relief (DR) on pension:
-
DR on pension is admissible when a pensioner is appointed as the Governor of a State.
-
DR on pension is admissible to a pensioner elected as a Member of the Parliament and appointed as a Union Minister.
-
DR on pension is admissible to a pensioner elected as a Member of the Parliament and appointed as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
38. Which one of the following statements regarding House Rent Allowance (HRA) is not correct?
(a) For the purpose of admissibility of HRA, the cities/towns have been classified into three categories.
(b) For the grant of HRA, S.A.S. Nagar, Mohali has been treated at par with Chandigarh.
(c) For the purpose of admissibility of HRA, Mathura-Vrindavan and Saharanpur are included in Y Category.
(d) A Government servant on temporary transfer shall be entitled to draw HRA at the same rate for a period up to 180 days.
upsc previous year question paper
39. Which of the following conditions are required to be fulfilled while formulating proposals for training of Government servants under the financially aided schemes, e.g., Colombo Plan, etc.?
-
The Government servant should have at least four years to serve after conclusion of the training.
-
He should possess adequate background of the subject in which he would be receiving training.
-
He should be in permanent employ of the Government of India.
-
He should have completed ten years of service.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
40. In a Central Government Department, the method followed for promotion in Group 'A' posts is 'Selection'. A DPC proposal has been initiated for eight (8) vacancies that are likely to be available in the Junior Administrative Grade during 2023. The normal zone of consideration of eligible candidates for the purpose shall be
(a) 8
(b) 16
(c) 20
(d) 40
41. Scientists in DRDO are covered under the Flexible Complementing Scheme (FCS). A Scientist 'B' appointed on 01-06-2008 has been upgraded to Scientist 'C' after 4 years in second chance (minimum residency period for upgrade from Scientist 'B' to Scientist 'C' is 3 years) under FCS. He has not been upgraded to Scientist 'D' under FCS for three successive years (minimum residency period for upgrade from Scientist 'C' to Scientist 'D' is 4 years). In this context, which one of the following represents the correct course of action regarding upgradation of the Scientist under MACP Scheme?
(a) MACP Scheme is not applicable for the posts where FCS is operative.
(b) He can be considered for Scientist 'D' under MACP Scheme after completion of 20 years from the date of appointment as Scientist 'B'.
(c) He can be considered for Scientist 'D' under MACP Scheme after completion of 10 years of service in the grade of Scientist 'C'.
(d) He can be considered for Scientist 'D' after completion of 14 years of service in the grade of Scientist 'B'.
upsc previous year question paper
42. Consider the following statements regarding completion of Annual Performance Assessment Report (APAR):
-
Wherever an authority has upgraded/downgraded the overall grading in APAR without giving sufficient reasons, the Departmental Promotion Committee shall treat such an exercise as non est/invalid.
-
A Reporting Officer can write APAR of his subordinates within one month of his (Reporting Officer) retirement.
-
Earned Leave for a period of more than 15 days can be deducted from the total period spent on any post, for the purposes of computing the period of three months which is mandatory for writing APAR.
-
Confidential reports relating to a deceased officer may be destroyed after a period of five years from the date of his death.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1,3 and 4
(c) 4 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
43. A Central Government officer serving at Delhi in Level 14, drawing a Basic Pay of 2,18,200, proceeds on deputation to another Central Government Department at Mumbai. How much Deputation (Duty) Allowance will be payable to him?
(a) 21,820
(b) 9,000
(c) 10,910
(d) 6,800
44. The licence fee for Type VIA General Pool Residential Accommodation has been fixed as 1,840 p.m. An officer occupying said accommodation in Mumbai is declared as an unauthorized occupant. However, he retains the accommodation for two months after being declared an unauthorized occupant. How much amount in damages is recoverable from him?
(a) 4,63,680
(b) 4,41,600
(c) 4,85,760
(d) 2,42,880
45. A Group 'C' employee gets promoted to Group 'B' w.e.f. 15-02-2022, while the rate of monthly subscription under the Central Government Employees Group Insurance Scheme, 1980 for a Group 'C' employee is 30 and the monthly subscription rate for a Group 'B' employee is 60. From which one of the following dates, monthly subscription at the rate of 60 will be deducted in this case?
(a) 01-02-2022
(b) 01-01-2023
(c) 01-03-2022
(d) 15-02-2022
upsc previous year question paper
46. Consider the following statements regarding the application of the CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021:
-
Confirmation will be made once in the service of an official which will be in the entry grade.
-
Confirmation is linked to the availability of permanent vacancy in the grade.
-
An officer who has successfully completed the probation may be considered for confirmation.
-
The distinction between permanent and temporary employees for grant of pension and other pensionary benefits shall be maintained.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
47. A family pensioner drawing pension of 30,000 per month turns 85 years old in August 2022. What is the amount of pension payable to her w.e.f. 1st August, 2022?
(a) 32,500
(b) 39,000
(c) 36,000
(d) 33,000
48. Consider the following statements regarding the provisions for premature retirement from Government service:
-
No employee should ordinarily be retired on the ground of ineffectiveness, if he would be retiring on superannuation within a period of one year from the date of consideration of his case.
-
No show cause notice is necessary before a notice of premature retirement is issued.
-
No representation can be made by a Government servant against issue of the orders of premature retirement.
-
Pension is admissible in addition to pay and allowances (including HRA and CCA) to the Government servant for the entire period in lieu of notice.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 3 only
upsc previous year question paper
49. Mr. X joined in the office of the Principal AG, UP at Prayagraj on 15-04-2004 on the basis of results declared on 30-11-2003. The vacancies against which he was appointed occurred before 01-01-2004. Due to some unfortunate event, he died on 03-10-2019 after putting in 15121521 years of service. The corpus accumulated in his NPS account was transferred to the Government. An eligible family member of the deceased Government servant exercised option for coverage under the CCS (Pension) Rules in terms of GOI, DOPPW OM dated 17-02-2020, which was allowed by the competent authority. Under the circumstances, what will be the amount accumulated in the NPS account of the deceased employee that will be payable to his nominee?
(a) Total amount accumulated in Mr. X's NPS account till the time of his death
(b) Mr. X's contribution along with up-to-date interest calculated at the rates applicable to General Provident Fund from time to time
(c) Mr. X's contribution plus increased value of subscription on account of appreciation of investments
(d) Total contribution made by Mr. X till the time of his death
50. A Government servant superannuates on 31-07-2022 with a qualifying service of 30 years 11 months. His pay details are as under :
Basic Pay as on 31- 07- 2022 : 1,80,000 Personal Pay drawn : 4,000 Average Emoluments during last 10 months of his service : 1,75,320 Commutation applied : Nil
What will be his basic pension?
(a) 87,230 per month
(b) 90,000 per month
(c) 87,660 per month
(d) 92,000 per month
51. Who among the following shall be the competent authority for final decision on the question of withholding/withdrawal of pension/gratuity in cases where the departmental proceedings were instituted under Rule 8 of the CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021 [or Rule 9 of the CCS (Pension) Rules, 1972] and where the report in which its findings are recorded has not been submitted by the subordinate authority to the President so far?
(a) The President of India in consultation with UPSC
(b) The President of India without consulting UPSC
(c) The Secretary of the Administrative Ministry/Department concerned or CAG, as the case may be, in consultation with UPSC
(d) The Secretary of the Administrative Ministry/Department concerned or CAG, as the case may be, without consulting UPSC
upsc previous year question paper
52. As per the CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021, which of the following statements is/are not correct regarding the payment of family pension and death gratuity when a Government servant dies or goes missing while on deputation?
-
While on deputation to another Central Government Department, action to authorize family pension and gratuity in accordance with the Pension Rules ibid shall be taken by the Head of Office of the borrowing Department.
-
While on deputation to a State Government, action to authorize family pension and gratuity in accordance with the Rules shall be taken by the Head of Office of the borrowing Department.
-
While on deputation to a foreign service, action to authorize family pension and gratuity in accordance with the Rules shall be taken by the Cadre Authority which sanctioned the deputation.
-
While on deputation to a foreign service, action to authorize family pension and gratuity in accordance with the Rules shall be taken by the Head of Office of the borrowing Department.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
53. The maximum amount of family pension per month that can be granted under the Central Civil Services (Pension) Rules, 2021 in the case of a Central Government servant is
(a) 1,25,000
(b) 85,000
(c) 75,000
(d) 70,000
54. A Government servant on completion of twenty years' qualifying service plans to take voluntary retirement. As per the rules, he has requested the appropriate administrative authority to issue a certificate regarding completion of qualifying service of twenty years on the intended date of retirement. In how many days, the administrative authority has to issue the certificate, beyond which the Government servant can give the notice of voluntary retirement without the said certificate?
(a) 7 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 60 days
upsc previous year question paper
55. In the context of the Central Civil Services (Pension) Rules, 2021, which one of the following statements regarding emoluments is not correct?
(a) Stagnation increment shall be treated as emoluments for calculation of retirement benefits.
(b) Non-Practicing Allowance granted to a Medical Officer in lieu of private practice is included in emoluments.
(c) Pay drawn by a Government servant while on deputation to a State Government or while on foreign service shall be treated as emoluments.
(d) Where a Government servant immediately before his retirement or death while in service, was on leave and earned an increment which was not withheld, such increment, though not actually drawn, shall form part of his emoluments.
56. In which of the following circumstances, a person, who has a claim to receive his share of gratuity after the death of a Government servant, is debarred from receiving his share of gratuity?
-
The person is charged with the offence of murdering the Government servant.
-
The person is charged with the offence of abetting in the murder of the Government servant.
-
The person is convicted for the murder or abetting in the murder of the Government servant.
-
The person is charged with the offence of abetting in the death of the Government servant by suicide.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 3 and 4
57. What is the rate of death gratuity payable to the family of a Government servant who dies while in service with length of qualifying service of 11 years?
(a) 6 times of emoluments
(b) 12 times of emoluments
(c) 20 times of emoluments
(d) Half of emoluments for every completed six-monthly period of qualifying service subject to a maximum of 33 times of emoluments
upsc previous year question paper
58. Mr. X was initially appointed on 15th December, 2001 in an autonomous body under the Central Government having a non- contributory pension scheme similar to the CCS (Pension) Rules. After acceptance of his resignation from the said autonomous body, he was subsequently appointed with proper permission to a service/post in the Central Government to which the CCS (Pension) Rules apply. Under which one of the following conditions, the service rendered by Mr. X in the autonomous body will not count as qualifying service for pension?
(a) His appointment in the Central Government is followed without interruption by substantive appointment.
(b) He was drawing a separate pension from the said autonomous body for the service rendered in that body before acceptance of resignation.
(c) The pension liability is discharged by the said autonomous body by paying in lump sum the amount of pension or service gratuity and retirement gratuity for the service rendered in the autonomous body.
(d) It is mentioned in the order of the autonomous body that Mr. X is resigning to join the post in the Government with its proper permission.
59. When is a Head of Office required to determine the qualifying service in consultation with the Account Officer and communicate the same to the Government servant in Format 4 in terms of the CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021?
(a) On each occasion after a Government servant has completed 18 years of service and on his being left with 5 years before the date of superannuation
(b) On each occasion after a Government servant has completed 20 years of service and on his being left with 5 years before the date of superannuation
(c) On each occasion after a Government servant has completed 15 years of service and on his being left with 10 years before the date of superannuation
(d) On each occasion after a Government servant has completed 25 years of service and on his being left with 5 years before the date of superannuation
60. As per the CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021, the additional family pension payable to a family pensioner, whose age is 92 years, is
(a) 20%20% of basic family pension
(b) 30%30% of basic family pension
(c) 40%40% of basic family pension
(d) 50%50% of basic family pension
upsc previous year question paper
61. Which of the following types of leave shall be counted as qualifying service, subject to the approval of the appointing authority, as per the CCS (Pension) Rules, 2021?
-
All leaves during service for which leave salary is payable
-
Extraordinary Leave (EOL) on medical certificate
-
EOL due to inability to join or rejoin duty on account of civil commotion
-
EOL for prosecuting higher scientific and technical studies
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
62. Under the National Pension System (NPS), the monthly contribution by the Government servant appointed on or after 01-01-2004 would be
(a) 14% of the Basic Pay
(b) 14% of the Basic Pay + DA
(c) 10% of the Basic Pay
(d) 10% of the Basic Pay + DA
63. The Government employees who prefer a fixed return with minimum amount of risk have an option to invest funds in Government securities (Scheme G) to the extent of
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 100%
64. The exit regulations provide that in the event of premature exit before 60 years/ superannuation by the National Pension System (NPS) Subscriber, the accumulated corpus can be withdrawn in lump sum if the corpus is equal to or below
(a) 1-5 lakhs
(b) 2 lakhs
(c) 2-5 lakhs
(d) 5 lakhs
65. In which of the following cases, subscription to the National Pension System (NPS) would not be payable by the NPS Subscriber?
-
While under Suspension
-
Period of Half Pay Leave (HPL)
-
Period covered under Foreign Service
-
Period under Extraordinary Leave (EOL)
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
upsc previous year question paper
66. In which of the following circumstances, sanction of the Government is not required for a Government servant to give evidence in connection with an inquiry?
-
Evidence to be given before the Public Accounts Committee (PAC) of the Parliament
-
Submission of Memoranda to the Pay Commission in his/her individual capacity
-
Submission of Memoranda to the Administrative Reforms Commission
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
67. Which one of the following statements regarding the composition of the Complaints Committee for dealing with complaints of sexual harassment is not correct?
(a) It should be headed by a woman.
(b) Not less than half of its members should be women.
(c) It should include a third party familiar with the issue of sexual harassment.
(d) At least one of the members should be a male.
68. Consider the following statements in the context of the CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964:
-
Frequent purchase and sale of shares in the National Stock Exchange through an authorized stock broker is not in contravention of Rule 16 of the CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964.
-
Prior sanction of the prescribed authority shall be required for a District Collector to lend money to his/her friend possessing land within the local limits of his/her authority.
-
A Government servant can enter into an occasional transaction relating to purchase of shares in the name of his wife from the stock exchange through authorized stock broker without prior sanction of the Government.
-
There is no requirement for the Government servant to report the purchase of the Life Insurance Policy irrespective of the annual premia amount.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
upsc previous year question paper
69. In the context of the CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964, which of the following statements is/are correct?
-
Members of Central Para-Military Forces (CPMFs) are covered by the CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964.
-
Personal staff of a Union Minister, other than regular Government employees, appointed on coterminous basis, are not under the ambit of the CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964.
-
In cases involving failure on the part of a Government servant to maintain his family, action can be taken against him without invoking any of the Conduct Rules.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
70. Consider the following statements in the context of the CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964:
-
'No Objection Certificate' can be granted to a Central Government employee for seeking emigration to Canada.
-
Arrangements by District Officers for affording normal courtesies to Ministers on their visits connected with election campaign are not in contravention of the CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964.
-
Prior permission is not necessary for a Government servant to join French language classes conducted by Alliance Francaise de Delhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
71. Consider the following statements in the context of the CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964:
-
The provisions of the CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964 are violative of Article 19 of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed under the Constitution of India.
-
Staff car provided to a female Government official for journey from home to office and back qualifies as 'workplace' under Rule 3-C of the CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964.
-
A Central Government servant approaching the Central Administrative Tribunal to challenge his/her transfer order without obtaining Government permission is not violative of the CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964.
-
A Government servant holding supervisory post can be proceeded against for his/her failure to take all reasonable and necessary steps to ensure the integrity and devotion to duty of the subordinate staff under his/her control and authority.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
upsc previous year question paper
72. Consider the following statements in the context of the CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964:
-
Cash prize won by a Government servant which exceeds his two months' Basic Pay needs to be reported to the Government.
-
Government servants should not bid in the auctions arranged by their own offices.
-
Transactions of movable property entered into by a Government servant's spouse out of her own funds such as Stridhan, etc., also need to be reported to the Government.
-
Fixed deposits in the bank made by a Government servant out of his accumulated savings are mandatorily to be reported to the Government in case their value exceeds his two months' Basic Pay.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) 1,3 and 4
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4
73. Consider the following actions in the context of the CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964:
-
A Government servant in his representation for transfer to another station cites a Secret Circular.
-
A Government servant acts as an election or polling agent of a candidate at an election.
-
The members of a Service Association collect funds from the public for staff welfare without seeking any permission from the appropriate authority.
-
A Group 'A' Government servant accepts a gift of 5,000 in value from a friend with whom he has no official dealings without prior sanction of the Government.
Which of the actions mentioned above amount to violation of the CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1,2 and 3 only
(c) 1,2,3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4 only
74. 'To maintain absolute integrity' is relevant to which one of the following Rules of the CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964?
(a) Rule 3-A (a)
(b) Rule 3 (1) (i)
(c) Rule 3 (1) (iii)
(d) Rule 3-B (i)
75. In accordance with the provisions of the CCS (Conduct) Rules, 1964, which one of the following is not treated as a part of the family of a Government servant?
(a) Spouse of the Government servant living separately as per mutual understanding
(b) An employed stepdaughter living with the Government servant
(c) Children of the Government servant studying abroad
(d) Parents of the spouse residing with, and wholly dependent on, the Government servant
upsc previous year question paper
76. A Government servant drawing pay of 50,500 in Level 7 of the Pay Matrix (with DNI 01-01-2018) has been imposed a penalty of reduction to a lower stage in the timescale of pay by one stage for a period of two years without cumulative effect and not adversely affecting his pension, w.e.f. 13-08-2017. What would be his pay drawn on 01-01-2019? (7th CPC Pay Matrix of Pay Level 7 is provided at the end of the Booklet) (a) 49,000 (b) 50,500 (c) 52,000 (d) 53,600
(a) 49,000 (b) 50,500 (c) 52,000 (d) 53,600
77. Consider the following statements regarding suspension in the context of the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965 :
-
A Government servant is deemed to have been placed under suspension with effect from the date of his detention, if he is detained in custody on a criminal charge only, for a period exceeding forty-eight hours.
-
An order of suspension shall not be valid after a period of ninety days unless it is extended after review, for a further period before the expiry of ninety days.
-
A Government servant should be placed under suspension if he continues to remain absent from duty or overstays leave without permission.
-
A Government servant placed under suspension while officiating in a higher post can be reverted to the lower post otherwise than as punishment even during his suspension.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
(a) 2,3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
78. Consider the following statements in the context of the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965 :
-
If a pensioner is found guilty of grave misconduct during the period of re-employment, no departmental proceedings can be initiated against him/her.
-
The departmental proceedings cannot be initiated against a pensioner for any event which took place more than four years before such initiation.
-
Provisional pension amounting to two-thirds of the entitled pension will be payable to a Government servant against whom major penalty charge sheet is pending on the date of his/her retirement.
-
Where the President orders recovery of pecuniary loss from pension as a result of departmental proceedings, the recovery shall not ordinarily be made at a rate exceeding one-third of the pension admissible on the date of retirement of the Government servant.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1,2 and 4 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 2 and 4 only
upsc previous year question paper
79. Consider the following statements in the context of the Recruitment Rules (RRs) of Central Civil Services Group 'B' posts:
-
RRs of Central Civil Services posts being statutory in nature have the force of law.
-
RRs can be modified through executive orders.
-
Modifications/Amendments to RRs are to be compulsorily notified in the same manner as the original Rules concerned.
-
Formal amendment is not required if the intention of the alteration in the RRs is to liberalize the Rules in favour of the Government servant.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
80. Consider the following statements regarding a Government servant who has been placed under 'suspension' by the competent authority:
-
Suspension is not a form of penalty.
-
The competent authority while reviewing an order of suspension has extended the period of suspension for a further period of 240 days based on the recommendations of the Suspension Review Committee.
-
Suspension is not required to be reviewed before expiry of 90 days from the effective date of suspension.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
81. Consider the following statements in the context of a leave sanctioning authority in a Central Government Department marking an employee 'dies non':
-
An official can be marked 'dies non' even if he/she performs duty for a part of the day but leaves office before closing hours without proper permission.
-
When the official remains absent from duty without prior information, he/she can be marked 'dies non'.
-
An official who has come late but has worked throughout the day during office hours can be marked 'dies non'.
-
Marking of a day as 'dies non' will be construed as break in service.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
upsc previous year question paper
82. Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for imposing minor penalty on a delinquent Government servant in terms of Rule 16 of the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965 :
-
'Censure' can be imposed by a competent disciplinary authority on a delinquent Government servant for a minor misbehaviour without recording a finding on the misbehaviour stated to be done by the said Government official.
-
Holding of an inquiry in all cases where a minor penalty is to be imposed is mandatory.
-
The competent disciplinary authority, after having regard to findings in respect of an inquiry held under Rule 14 of the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965, can make an order imposing the minor penalty of 'Censure' without following the procedure laid down for imposition of minor penalty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
83. Consider the following statements regarding the disciplinary proceedings under the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965 :
-
A competent disciplinary authority can close disciplinary proceedings initiated under Rule 14 of the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965 by imposing a penalty of 'Censure' after due consideration of the defence submitted by the accused official.
-
An Inquiry Officer has allowed a suspended Government official to function as 'Defence Assistant' of the accused official against whom disciplinary proceedings under Rule 14 have been initiated.
-
A competent disciplinary authority has decided to drop proceedings initiated under Rule 14 of the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965 and issue a fresh charge sheet without mentioning the reasons for such an action.
-
A legal practitioner can be allowed to function as 'Defence Assistant' for a charged official in the proceedings initiated under Rule 14, if the Presenting Officer is a legal practitioner.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
upsc previous year question paper
84. Consider the following statements regarding the disciplinary proceedings under the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965:
-
A Head of Department as a disciplinary authority can vary his/her decision recorded at the conclusion of the departmental proceedings before it is communicated formally to the Government servant concerned.
-
A Government servant who holds a lien on a permanent civil appointment and is dismissed from Army service will stand automatically dismissed from his/her permanent civilian appointment.
-
A disciplinary authority can make such orders as deemed fit under Rule 19 of the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965 in cases where Government servant is convicted by Court of Law on criminal charges, without consulting the Central Vigilance Commission.
-
A disciplinary authority can impose penalty against an absconding official involved in a case of fraud without holding inquiry contemplated under Rule 14 of the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
85. Consider the following statements in the context of disciplinary proceedings:
-
Punishing authorities are required to forward the appeals to the appellate authorities within a period of 45 days from the date of receipt of the appeal.
-
An appeal against suspension in the matter of promotion can be made under Rule 23 (iv) of the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965.
-
An appellate authority under the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965 can enhance penalty imposed by the disciplinary authority without giving reasonable opportunity to the accused official concerned.
-
A disciplinary authority has cancelled its own order imposing penalty under the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only
upsc previous year question paper
86. Which one of the following statements regarding Half Pay Leave (HPL) is not correct?
(a) Production of medical certificate is mandatory for availing HPL.
(b) While affording credit of Half Pay Leave, fraction of a day shall be rounded off to the nearest day.
(c) It can be granted on private affairs.
(d) The credit for the half year in which a Government servant is due to retire or resign from the service shall be allowed at the rate of 5/3 days per completed calendar month up to the date of retirement or resignation.
87. What is the maximum period of Earned Leave that can be granted at a time to a Government servant who is employed in India?
(a) 90 days
(b) 180 days
(c) 270 days
(d) 300 days
88. What is the maximum period of Leave Not Due that can be granted on medical certificate to a Government servant in permanent employment during his/her entire service?
(a) 90 days
(b) 180 days
(c) 360 days
(d) 120 days
89. Consider the following statements regarding Child Care Leave (CCL):
-
It can be combined with leave of any other kind.
-
It may not be granted for a period less than 15 days at a time.
-
It shall not be granted to a single female Government servant for more than 3 spells in a calendar year.
-
It shall not be debited against the leave account.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1,2,3 and 4
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
90. Mr. X is appointed in a Central Government Department on contract basis for a period of 5 years, after his retirement from that Department. At the time of his superannuation, he had availed leave encashment of 260 days. On termination of his contractual employment of 5 years, he shall be entitled to encash Earned Leave up to a maximum period of
(a) 40 days
(b) 50 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 150 days
upsc previous year question paper
91. Which of the following States/Union Territories of India are included in Region 'A' for the use of Hindi for official purposes of the Union?
-
Punjab
-
Andaman and Nicobar Islands
-
Haryana
-
Himachal Pradesh
-
Union Territory of Chandigarh
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,3,4 and 5
(b) 2,3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 5
92. For implementation of the Official Language Policy, the States and Union Territories have been grouped under Regions 'A', 'B' and 'C' under
(a) the Official Languages Act, 1963
(b) the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961
(c) the Official Language Resolution, 1968
(d) the Official Languages (Use for Official Purposes of the Union) Rules, 1976 (as amended, 1987)
93. To ensure compliance of the constitutional and legal provisions pertaining to the Language of Republic of India and to promote the use of our Official Language—Hindi for the purposes of the Union, the Department of Official Language was set up under the Ministry of Home Affairs in the year
(a) 1949
(b) 1963
(c) 1975
(d) 1976
94. Which one of the following is the correct order for use of languages for non-Hindi speaking States for signboards, nameplates and direction signs?
(a) Hindi, Regional Language, English
(b) English, Hindi, Regional Language
(c) Regional Language, Hindi, English
(d) Regional Language, English, Hindi
95. Consider the following statements regarding the Official Language Policy of the Union of India:
-
14th September is celebrated each year as 'Hindi Day' as Hindi was accepted as Official Language of the Union by the Constituent Assembly on that day.
-
The provisions regarding the languages, which may be used for the official purposes of the Union, were introduced under the Official Languages Act, 1963.
-
The directions that communications received in Hindi are to be replied in Hindi only by the Central Government offices are contained in the Official Languages Act, 1963.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
upsc previous year question paper
96. Which of the following statements in the context of the Financial Regulations (Defence Services Regulations) Part- I is/are not correct?
-
The powers authorized by the Financial Regulations are personal and cannot be delegated to any subordinate officer under any circumstances.
-
The monetary limit on financial powers delegated to lower authorities normally extends to each separate sanction/ transaction.
-
An allowance sanctioned for an appointment, not drawn by a particular incumbent, lapses if not drawn for 24 months.
-
All expenditures, including transportation charges, incurred with ceremonial parades are debatable to the grant of Unit Allowances and other Miscellaneous Expenses'.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4
97. Which one of the following statements in the context of the Financial Regulations (Defence Services Regulations) Part-I is correct?
(a) It is necessary to prepare loss statements for losses to civil buildings and roads outside the area of active operations, even if these are caused by the enemy action.
(b) Pricing of loss statements is to be done by the executive authorities in all cases and checked by the Defence Accounts Department.
(c) In the case of Indian Navy, all loss statements are priced by the Indian Navy Ships and Establishments concerned.
(d) In the case of the Indian Air Force, all loss statements are priced at the Air Headquarters.
98. Which one of the following statements relating to the term 'Public Money' is not correct?
(a) It includes, in addition to cash proper, irrecoverable debts of units disbanded on demobilization.
(b) It includes demurrage charges incurred due to negligence on the part of the consignor.
(c) It is treated as 'non-recurring' expenditure.
(d) It includes overpayments of allowances made to individuals no longer in Government service.
upsc previous year question paper
99. Which one of the following authorities carries the primary responsibility for controlling the expenditure against allotment in terms of Rule 114 of the Financial Regulations (Defence Services Regulations) Part- I, Volume I?
(a) The Officer-in-Charge, EDP Centre, Office of the Controller General of Defence Accounts
(b) The Principal Controller of Defence Accounts, New Delhi
(c) The Administrative Authority controlling the allotment
(d) The Financial Advisor, Defence Services
100. Which one of the following statements in the context of the Financial Regulations (Defence Services Regulations) Part-I, Volume I is not correct?
(a) In selecting the tender to be accepted, the financial status of the individuals and tendering firms must be taken into consideration, in addition to all other relevant factors.
(b) A special form of contract deed is not required, except in the case of special important contracts.
(c) No modification in the terms and conditions of an existing contract is permissible after three months of its being awarded.
(d) When a contractor desires to transfer a contract, the party who is willing to take up the supply should be called upon to execute a fresh contract.
101. Which of the following statements in terms of the Financial Regulations (Defence Services Regulations) Part-I, Volume I is/are not correct?
-
It is not permissible for an Imprest Holder to delegate the responsibility for operation of funds to another person except in the case of Indian Navy.
-
No officer of the Defence Accounts Department can carry out physical verification of stock held by a unit.
-
The Consolidated Fund of India excludes loans raised by the Government of India.
-
Regimental Fund is a non-public fund.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 4 only
upsc previous year question paper
102. Which one of the following statements in the context of the Financial Regulations (Defence Services Regulations) Part- I, Volume I is correct?
(a) The Controller General of Defence Accounts cannot be overruled by the Ministry of Defence on a question of procedure in relation to the Defence Services expenditure without the concurrence of the Comptroller and Auditor General and the Ministry of Finance.
(b) No appeal lies against the final disallowance of an Audit Officer of the rank of Principal Controller of Defence Accounts.
(c) An Additional Controller of Defence Accounts may waive all types of procedural objections without reference to the local administrative authorities.
(d) No deduction can be made from the non-effective pay of Armed Forces personnel on account of any regimental claim or debt.
103. Which one of the following statements in relation to the demand for Supplementary Grant is correct?
(a) It is to be raised when the expenditure on any service reaches 90 percent of the budget sanctioned for that service in a financial year.
(b) It can be raised only for a 'new service' which was not contemplated in the original budget for the relevant year.
(c) It is raised only to regularize excess expenditure under a Minor Head during the previous financial year.
(d) It has to be presented to the Parliament for specific sanction.
104. Any tender which does not fulfill the conditions stated in the tender form is liable to be rejected, but trivial errors can be allowed to be corrected. Which one of the following omissions is not a trivial error in terms of Rule 241 of the Financial Regulations (Defence Services Regulations) Part-I, Volume I?
(a) Omission to enter the rates in words
(b) Omission to initial any alteration in rates
(c) Omission to sign both tender and schedule(s)
(d) Omission to enter the rates in figures
105. Which one of the following statements in relation to Budget Estimates is not correct?
(a) Budget Estimates are estimates of revenue and capital expenditure by the Defence Services during a financial year, excluding the 'charged expenditure'.
(b) Budget Estimates are submitted along with the Main Budget of the Central Government to the Parliament each year.
(c) Provision for gross expenditure is made in the Demands for Grants of the Ministry of Defence for obtaining the vote of the Parliament.
(d) Within the sums voted by the Parliament, it is the responsibility of the Ministry of Defence to arrange for financing of services for which it is responsible.
upsc previous year question paper
106. Which of the following statements regarding the term 'fee' is/are not correct?
-
It is a recurring or non-recurring payment to a Government servant from a source other than the Consolidated Fund of India.
-
It includes income from literary, cultural or artistic efforts if such efforts are not aided by the knowledge acquired by the Government servant in the course of his service.
-
It includes payments made by one Government to the employees of another Government in India for services rendered to that Government.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
107. If a contractor dies, his legal representative would be bound by the terms of the contract
(a) provided he is not a minor
(b) even if he is a minor
(c) provided he attains the age of 18 years
(d) provided he attains the age of 21 years
108. Reappropriation of funds by direct controlling officers of Headquarters such as Central Controlling Authorities, Command Headquarters, etc., is applicable only between Central Heads falling under the same
(a) Major Head
(b) Minor Head
(c) Sub-Head
(d) Sub-Major Head
109. The period of validity of Military Receivable Order from the date of issue at places, where the cash business of treasury is conducted by the bank, will be
(a) 15 days
(b) 21 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 60 days
110. Military Receivable Orders for paying money into a Government Treasury or Bank by an officer of Defence Services are required to be prepared in
(a) 2 copies
(b) 3 copies
(c) 5 copies
(d) 6 copies
upsc previous year question paper
111. What are the powers of PCDA/CDA to write off an amount which has become irrecoverable due to any reason including amounts outstanding under a debt head if the ultimate incidence of the expenditure is against Defence Services Estimates?
(a) 5,000
(b) 3,000
(c) 15,000
(d) 10,000
112. As per the Financial Regulations (Defence Services Regulations) Part-I, Volume I, the estimates of receipts and charges in respect of centrally controlled heads are required to be prepared by
(a) the Controller General of Defence Accounts
(b) the Controller General of Accounts
(c) the Ministry of Defence (Finance Division)
(d) the Directorates concerned at the Armed Forces Headquarters
113. Store accounts of units, formations, ships, establishments including units of Territorial Army and MES are required to be locally audited on monthly, quarterly or half-yearly basis (according to the programmes) by the
(a) Director General of Audit Defence Services (DGADS)
(b) Local Audit Officers of Defence Accounts Department
(c) Chartered Accountants
(d) Administrative Officer concerned
114. Parliamentary sanction for additional funds to supplement the original sanctioned budget when reappropriation of funds within a demand is not adequate to finance the additional amount required under certain heads of expenditure is called
(a) Demands for Grants
(b) Appropriation
(c) Supplementary Grant
(d) Budget Estimates
115. Which of the following categories of expenditure is/are centrally controlled by the Armed Forces Headquarters?
-
Pay and Allowances of the Personnel of the Armed Forces
-
Transportation and Miscellaneous Expenditure
-
Works Expenditure
-
Stores Purchases
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1,2 and 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1,2,3 and 4
upsc previous year question paper
116. When Leave Travel Concession (LTC) advance has been drawn by a Government servant, the claim for reimbursement of expenditure incurred on the journey is required to be submitted within which period of completion of the return journey?
(a) One month
(b) Forty-five days
(c) Sixty days
(d) Three months
117. Leave Travel Concession (LTC) is admissible during which of the following periods?
-
Earned Leave
-
Special Casual Leave
-
Child Care Leave
-
Weekend Holidays
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
118. Consider the following statements regarding submission of fraudulent claims of Leave Travel Concession (LTC):
-
If a decision is taken by the disciplinary authority to initiate disciplinary proceedings against a Government servant on the charge of preferring a fraudulent LTC claim, such Government servant shall not be allowed the LTC till the finalization of such disciplinary proceedings.
-
If the disciplinary proceedings result in imposition of any of the penalties specified in Rule 11 of the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965, he shall be permanently debarred from availing LTC in future.
-
If the Government servant is fully exonerated of the charge of fraudulent claim of LTC, he shall be allowed to avail the concession withheld earlier as additional set(s) in future block years but before the normal date of his superannuation.
-
In case the Government servant so exonerated of the charge of preferring fraudulent claim of LTC is nearing retirement, he shall be allowed to avail the concession withheld earlier even beyond the date of his superannuation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
upsc previous year question paper
119. Consider the following statements regarding Leave Travel Concession (LTC) entitlements of fresh recruits :
-
They are allowed to travel to their hometown along with their families on three occasions in a block of four years and to any place in India on the fourth occasion.
-
This facility of travel to hometown thrice and to any place in India once in a block of four years is available only for the first two blocks of four years applicable after joining the Government for the first time.
-
The existing blocks and entitlements are the same for the fresh recruits and other Government employees.
-
The blocks of four years shall apply with reference to the initial date of joining the Government even though the employee changes the job within Government subsequently.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2 and 3 only
120. Consider the following statements regarding admissibility of Leave Travel Concession (LTC) facility to an escort accompanying single handicapped Government servant :
-
Prior approval of the Head of Department concerned is obtained on each occasion.
-
The nature of physical disability of the Government servant is such as to necessitate an escort for the journey. In case of doubt, the decision of the Chief Medical Officer will be final.
-
The physically handicapped Government servant does not have an adult family member.
-
Any other person who is entitled to LTC does not accompany the handicapped Government servant on the journey.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
upsc previous year question paper
सातवें केंद्रीय वेतन आयोग वेतन मैट्रिक्स के अनुसार संशोधित वेतन—वेतन लेवल 7
छठे केंद्रीय वेतन आयोग के अनुसार संशोधन-पूर्व वेतन
PB-2 ₹ 9,300-34,800 + 4,600
| संशोधन-पूर्व आहरित वेतन ₹ तक |
वेतन मैट्रिक्स में वेतन ₹ |
संशोधन-पूर्व आहरित वेतन ₹ तक |
वेतन मैट्रिक्स में वेतन ₹ |
| 1 |
2 |
1 |
2 |
| 17,470 |
44,900 |
31,590 |
81,200 |
| 17,970 |
46,200 |
32,520 |
83,600 |
| 18,520 |
47,600 |
33,500 |
86,100 |
| 19,060 |
49,000 |
34,510 |
88,700 |
| 19,640 |
50,500 |
35,560 |
91,400 |
| 20,230 |
52,000 |
36,610 |
94,100 |
| 20,850 |
53,600 |
37,700 |
96,900 |
| 21,470 |
55,200 |
38,830 |
99,800 |
| 22,140 |
56,900 |
40,000 |
1,02,800 |
| 22,800 |
58,600 |
41,200 |
1,05,900 |
| 23,500 |
60,400 |
42,450 |
1,09,100 |
| 24,200 |
62,200 |
43,730 |
1,12,400 |
| 24,940 |
64,100 |
45,050 |
1,15,800 |
| 25,680 |
66,000 |
46,420 |
1,19,300 |
| 26,450 |
68,000 |
47,820 |
1,22,900 |
| 27,230 |
70,000 |
49,260 |
1,26,600 |
| 28,050 |
72,100 |
50,730 |
1,30,400 |
| 28,910 |
74,300 |
52,250 |
1,34,300 |
| 29,760 |
76,500 |
53,810 |
1,38,300 |
| 30,660 |
78,800 |
55,400 |
1,42,400 |
upsc previous year question paper
सातवें केंद्रीय वेतन आयोग वेतन मैट्रिक्स के अनुसार संशोधित वेतन—वेतन लेवल 8
छठे केंद्रीय वेतन आयोग के अनुसार संशोधन-पूर्व वेतन
PB-2 ₹ 9,300-34,800 + 4,800
| संशोधन-पूर्व आहरित वेतन ₹ तक |
वेतन मैट्रिक्स में वेतन ₹ |
संशोधन-पूर्व आहरित वेतन ₹ तक |
वेतन मैट्रिक्स में वेतन ₹ |
| 1 |
2 |
1 |
2 |
| 18,520 |
47,600 |
33,500 |
86,100 |
| 19,060 |
49,000 |
34,510 |
88,700 |
| 19,640 |
50,500 |
35,560 |
91,400 |
| 20,230 |
52,000 |
36,610 |
94,100 |
| 20,850 |
53,600 |
37,700 |
96,900 |
| 21,470 |
55,200 |
38,830 |
99,800 |
| 22,140 |
56,900 |
40,000 |
1,02,800 |
| 22,800 |
58,600 |
41,200 |
1,05,900 |
| 23,500 |
60,400 |
42,450 |
1,09,100 |
| 24,200 |
62,200 |
43,730 |
1,12,400 |
| 24,940 |
64,100 |
45,050 |
1,15,800 |
| 25,680 |
66,000 |
46,420 |
1,19,300 |
| 26,450 |
68,000 |
47,820 |
1,22,900 |
| 27,230 |
70,000 |
49,260 |
1,26,600 |
| 28,050 |
72,100 |
50,730 |
1,30,400 |
| 28,910 |
74,300 |
52,250 |
1,34,300 |
| 29,760 |
76,500 |
53,810 |
1,38,300 |
| 30,660 |
78,800 |
55,400 |
1,42,400 |
| 31,590 |
81,200 |
57,080 |
1,46,700 |
| 32,520 |
83,600 |
58,790 |
1,51,100 |
upsc previous year question paper
सातवें केंद्रीय वेतन आयोग वेतन मैट्रिक्स के अनुसार संशोधित वेतन—वेतन लेवल 11
छंदे केंद्रीय वेतन आयोग के अनुसार संशोधन-पूर्व वेतन
PB-3 ₹ 15,600-39,100 + 6,600
| संशोधन-पूर्व आहारित वेतन ₹ तक |
वेतन मैट्रिक्स में वेतन ₹ |
संशोधन-पूर्व आहारित वेतन ₹ तक |
वेतन मैट्रिक्स में वेतन ₹ |
| 1 |
2 |
1 |
2 |
| 26,340 |
67,700 |
47,700 |
1,22,600 |
| 27,120 |
69,700 |
49,140 |
1,26,300 |
| 27,930 |
71,800 |
50,620 |
1,30,100 |
| 28,790 |
74,000 |
52,140 |
1,34,000 |
| 29,640 |
76,200 |
53,690 |
1,38,000 |
| 30,540 |
78,500 |
55,290 |
1,42,100 |
| 31,470 |
80,900 |
56,960 |
1,46,400 |
| 32,410 |
83,300 |
58,670 |
1,50,800 |
| 33,380 |
85,800 |
60,420 |
1,55,300 |
| 34,390 |
88,400 |
62,250 |
1,60,000 |
| 35,440 |
91,100 |
64,120 |
1,64,800 |
| 36,490 |
93,800 |
66,030 |
1,69,700 |
| 37,580 |
96,600 |
68,010 |
1,74,800 |
| 38,710 |
99,500 |
70,030 |
1,80,000 |
| 39,880 |
1,02,500 |
72,140 |
1,85,400 |
| 41,080 |
1,05,600 |
74,310 |
1,91,000 |
| 42,330 |
1,08,800 |
76,530 |
1,96,700 |
| 43,610 |
1,12,100 |
78,830 |
2,02,600 |
| 44,940 |
1,15,500 |
81,200 |
2,08,700 |
| 46,300 |
1,19,000 |
- |
- |
upsc previous year question paper
सातवें केंद्रीय वेतन आयोग वेतन मैट्रिक्स के अनुसार संशोधित वेतन—वेतन लेवल 14
छठे केंद्रीय वेतन आयोग के अनुसार संशोधन-पूर्व वेतन
PB-4 ₹ 37,400-67,000 + 10,000
| संशोधन-पूर्व आहरित वेतन ₹ तक |
वेतन मैट्रिक्स में वेतन ₹ |
संशोधन-पूर्व आहरित वेतन ₹ तक |
वेतन मैट्रिक्स में वेतन ₹ |
| 1 |
2 |
1 |
2 |
| 56,100 |
1,44,200 |
71,080 |
1,82,700 |
| 57,780 |
1,48,500 |
73,220 |
1,88,200 |
| 59,530 |
1,53,000 |
75,400 |
1,93,800 |
| 61,320 |
1,57,600 |
77,660 |
1,99,600 |
| 63,150 |
1,62,300 |
80,000 |
2,05,600 |
| 65,050 |
1,67,200 |
82,410 |
2,11,800 |
| 67,000 |
1,72,200 |
84,900 |
2,18,200 |
| 69,020 |
1,77,400 |
- |
- |
upsc previous year question paper
UPSC Previous Year Question paper 2021-22 PAPER-II-PROCEDURE-PRACTICE-CATEGORY-X
UPSC Previous Year Question paper 2021-22 ..
UPSC Previous Year Question paper 2021-22
UPSC Previous Year Question paper 2020-21
UPSC Previous Year Question paper 2019-20
