1. Let A and B be matrices of order 3×33×3. If ∣A∣=122∣A∣=22​1​ and ∣B∣=1729∣B∣=7291​ then what is the value of ∣2B(adj(3A))∣∣2B(adj(3A))∣ ?
(a) 27 (b) 272222​27​ (c) 272227​ (d) 1

2. If zz is any complex number and iz3+z2−z+i=0iz3+z2−z+i=0 where i=−1i=−1​, then what is the value of (∣z∣+1)2(∣z∣+1)2 ?
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 81 (d) 121

3. What is the sum of all four digit numbers formed by using all digits 0, 1, 4, 5 without repetition of digits?
(a) 44440 (b) 46460 (c) 46440 (d) 64440

4. If x,yx,y and zz are the cube roots of unity, then what is the value of xy+yz+zxxy+yz+zx ?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3

5. A man has 7 relatives (4 women and 3 men). His wife also has 7 relatives (3 women and 4 men). In how many ways can they invite 3 women and 3 men so that 3 of them are man's relatives and 3 of them are his wife's relatives?
(a) 340 (b) 484 (c) 485 (d) 469

6. A triangle PQRPQR is such that 3 points lie on the side PQ, 4 points on QR and 5 points on RP respectively. Triangles are constructed using these points as vertices. What is the number of triangles so formed?
(a) 205 (b) 206 (c) 215 (d) 220

7. If log⁡ba=p,log⁡dc=2plogb​a=p,logd​c=2p and log⁡fe=3plogf​e=3p, then what is (ace) equal to?
(a) bd2f3bd2f3 (b) bdfbdf (c) b3d2fb3d2f (d) b2d2f2b2d2f2

8. If 22​ and 33​ are roots of the equation a0+a1x+a2x2+a3x3+x4=0a0​+a1​x+a2​x2+a3​x3+x4=0 where a0,a1,a2,a3a0​,a1​,a2​,a3​ are integers, then which one of the following is correct?
(a) a2=a3=0a2​=a3​=0 (b) a2=0a2​=0 and a3=−5a3​=−5 (c) a0=6,a3=0a0​=6,a3​=0 (d) a1=0a1​=0 and a2=5a2​=5

9. Let z1z1​ and z2z2​ be two complex numbers such that

∣z1+z2z1−z2∣=1, then what is Re(z1z2)+1 equal to?​z1​−z2​z1​+z2​​​=1, then what is Re(z2​z1​​)+1 equal to?

(a) −1−1 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 5

10. If 26!=n8k26!=n8k, where kk and nn are positive integers, then what is the maximum value of kk?
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9

11. Consider the following statements in respect of two nonsingular matrices AA and BB of the same order nn:
A. adj(AB)=(adjA)(adjB)adj(AB)=(adjA)(adjB)
B. adj(AB)=adj(BA)adj(AB)=adj(BA)
C. (AB)adj(AB)−∣AB∣In(AB)adj(AB)−∣AB∣In​ is a null matrix of order nn
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) None (b) Only one statement (c) Only two statements (d) All three statements

12. Consider the following statements in respect of a nonsingular matrix AA of order nn:
A. A(adjAT)=A(adjA)TA(adjAT)=A(adjA)T
B. If A2=AA2=A, then AA is identity matrix of order nn
C. If A3=AA3=A, then AA is identity matrix of order nn
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) AA and BB only (b) BB and CC only (c) AA and CC only (d) AA, BB and CC

13. How many four-digit natural numbers are there such that all of the digits are even?
(a) 625 (b) 500 (c) 400 (d) 256

14. If ω≠1ω=1 is a cube root of unity, then what are the solutions of (z−100)3+1000=0(z−100)3+1000=0?
(a) 10(1−ω)10(1−ω), 10(10−ω2)10(10−ω2), 100
(b) 10(10−ω)10(10−ω), 10(10−ω2)10(10−ω2), 100
(c) 10(1−ω)10(1−ω), 10(10−ω2)10(10−ω2), 1000
(d) (1+ω)(1+ω), (10+ω2)(10+ω2), -1

15. What is (1+i)4+(1−i)4(1+i)4+(1−i)4 equal to, where i=−1i=−1​?
(a) 4 (b) 0 (c) -4 (d) -8

16. Consider the following statements in respect of a skew-symmetric matrix AA of order 3:
A. All diagonal elements are zero.
B. The sum of all the diagonal elements of the matrix is zero.
C. A is orthogonal matrix.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) A and B only (b) B and C only (c) A and C only (d) A, B and C

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17. Four digit numbers are formed by using the digits 1, 2, 3, 5 without repetition of digits. How many of them are divisible by 4?
(a) 120 (b) 24 (c) 12 (d) 6

18. What is the remainder when 21202120 is divided by 7?
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 6

19. For what value of nn is the determinant

∣C(9,4)C(9,3)C(10,n−2)C(11,6)C(11,5)C(12,n)C(m,7)C(m,6)C(m+1,n+1)∣=0​C(9,4)C(11,6)C(m,7)​C(9,3)C(11,5)C(m,6)​C(10,n−2)C(12,n)C(m+1,n+1)​​=0

for every m>nm>n?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7

20. If ABCABC is a triangle, then what is the value of the determinant

∣cos⁡Csin⁡B0tan⁡A0sin⁡B0tan⁡(B+C)cos⁡C∣​cosCtanA0​sinB0tan(B+C)​0sinBcosC​​

(a) -1 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 3

21. What is the number of different matrices, each having 4 entries that can be formed using 1, 2, 3, 4 (repetition is allowed)?
(a) 72 (b) 216 (c) 254 (d) 768

22. Let A={x∈R:−1 (A) f(x)=x∣x∣f(x)=x∣x∣ (B) g(x)=cos⁡(πx)g(x)=cos(πx)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) A only (b) B only (c) Both A and B (d) Neither A nor B

23. Let RR be a relation on the open interval (−1,1)(−1,1) and is given by R={(x,y):∣x+y∣<2}R={(x,y):∣x+y∣<2}. Then which of the following is correct?
(a) RR is reflexive but neither symmetric nor transitive
(b) RR is reflexive and symmetric but not transitive
(c) RR is reflexive and transitive but not symmetric
(d) RR is an equivalence relation

24. For any three non-empty sets A,B,CA,B,C, what is (A∪B)−{(A−B)∪(B−A)∪(A∩B)}(A∪B)−{(A−B)∪(B−A)∪(A∩B)} is equal to?
(a) Null set (b) A (c) B (d) (A∪B)−(A∩B)(A∪B)−(A∩B)

25. If a,b,ca,b,c are the sides of triangle ABCABC, then what is

∣a2bsin⁡Acsin⁡Absin⁡A1cos⁡Acsin⁡Acos⁡A1∣​a2bsinAcsinA​bsinA1cosA​csinAcosA1​​

equal to?
(a) Zero (b) Area of triangle (c) Perimeter of triangle (d) a2+b2+c2a2+b2+c2

26. If a,b,ca,b,c are in AP; b,c,db,c,d are in GP; c,d,ec,d,e are in HP, then which of the following is/are correct?
(A) a, c and e are in GP
(B) 1a,1c,1ea1​,c1​,e1​ are in GP
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) A only (b) B only (c) Both A and B (d) Neither A nor B

27. What is the number of solutions of log⁡4(x−1)=log⁡2(x−3)log4​(x−1)=log2​(x−3)?
(a) Zero (b) One (c) Two (d) Three

28. For x≥y>1x≥y>1, let log⁡x(xy)+log⁡y(yx)=klogx​(yx​)+logy​(xy​)=k, then the value of kk can never be equal to
(a) -1 (b) 1221​ (c) 0 (d) 1

29. If A=∣sin⁡2θ2sin⁡2θ−10cos⁡2θ2sin⁡θcos⁡θ0001∣A=​sin2θcos2θ0​2sin2θ−12sinθcosθ0​001​​, then which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) A−1=adjAA−1=adjA (B) AA is skew-symmetric matrix (C) A−1=ATA−1=AT
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) A only (b) A and B only (c) A and C (d) B and C

30. What is the coefficient of x10x10 in the expansion of (1−x2)20(2−x2−1x2)−5(1−x2)20(2−x2−x21​)−5?
(a) -1 (b) 1 (c) 10 (d) Coefficient of x10x10 does not exist

31. If the 4th term in the expansion of (mx+1x)n(mx+x1​)n is 5225​, then what is the value of mnmn?
(a) -3 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 12

32. If a,ba,b and c(a>0,c>0)c(a>0,c>0) are in GP, then consider the following in respect of the equation ax2+bx+c=0ax2+bx+c=0:
(A) The equation has imaginary roots.
(B) The ratio of the roots of the equation is 1:ω1:ω where ωω is a cube root of unity.
(C) The product of roots of the equation is (b2a2)(a2b2​).

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33. If x2+mx+nx2+mx+n is an integer for all integral values of xx, then which of the following is/are correct?
(A) mm must be an integer (B) nn must be an integer
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) A only (b) B only (c) Both (A) and (B) (d) Neither (A) nor B

34. In a binomial expansion of (x+y)2n+1(x−y)2n+1(x+y)2n+1(x−y)2n+1, the sum of middle terms is zero. What is the value of (x2y2)(y2x2​)?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 8

35. Let A={1,2,3,4,5}A={1,2,3,4,5} and B={6,7}B={6,7}. What is the number of onto functions from AA to BB?
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) 32

36. What is 3cos⁡10∘−sin⁡10∘sin⁡25∘cos⁡25∘sin25∘cos25∘3​cos10∘−sin10∘​ equal to?
(a) 1 (b) 33​ (c) 2 (d) 4

37. What is (sin⁡9∘−cos⁡9∘)(sin9∘−cos9∘) equal to?
(a) 5−5225​−5​​ (b) 5−3225​−3​​ (c) 5−5225​−5​​ (d) 5−5445​−5​​

38. If in a triangle ABCABC, sin⁡3A+sin⁡3B+sin⁡3C=3sin⁡Asin⁡Bsin⁡Csin3A+sin3B+sin3C=3sinAsinBsinC, then what is the value of the determinant

∣abcbcacab∣​abc​bca​cab​​

where a,b,ca,b,c are sides of the triangle?
(a) a+b+ca+b+c (b) ab+bc+caab+bc+ca (c) (a+b)(b+c)(c+a)(a+b)(b+c)(c+a) (d) 0

39. If cos⁡−1x=sin⁡−1xcos−1x=sin−1x, then which one of the following is correct?
(a) x=1x=1 (b) x=12x=21​ (c) x=12x=2​1​ (d) x=13x=3​1​

40. What is the number of solutions of (sin⁡θ−cos⁡θ)2=2(sinθ−cosθ)2=2 where −π<θ<π−π<θ<π?
(a) Only one (b) Only two (c) Four (d) No solution

41. ABC is a triangle such that angle C=60∘C=60∘, then what is cos⁡A+cos⁡Bcos⁡(A−B2)cos(2A−B​)cosA+cosB​ equal to?
(a) 2 (b) 22​ (c) 1 (d) 122​1​

42. What is 15+cot⁡2(π4−2cot⁡−13)15+cot2(4π​−2cot−13)​ equal to?
(a) 1 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 16

43. What is the value of sin⁡10∘sin⁡50∘+sin⁡50∘sin⁡250∘+sin⁡250∘sin⁡10∘sin10∘sin50∘+sin50∘sin250∘+sin250∘sin10∘ equal to?
(a) −14−41​ (b) −34−43​ (c) 3sin⁡10∘443sin10∘​ (d) −3cos⁡10∘44−3cos10∘​

44. What is tan⁡−1(ab)−tan⁡−1(a−ba+b)tan−1(ba​)−tan−1(a+ba−b​) equal to
(a) −π4−4π​ (b) π44π​ (c) tan⁡−1(a2−b2a2+b2)tan−1(a2+b2a2−b2​) (d) tan⁡−1(2aba2+b2)tan−1(a2+b22ab​)

45. Under which one of the following conditions does the equation (cos⁡β−1)x2+(cos⁡β)x+sin⁡β=0(cosβ−1)x2+(cosβ)x+sinβ=0 in xx have a real root for β∈[0,π]β∈[0,π]?
(a) 1−cos⁡β<01−cosβ<0 (b) 1−cos⁡β≤01−cosβ≤0 (c) 1−cos⁡β>01−cosβ>0 (d) 1−cos⁡β≥01−cosβ≥0

46. In a triangle ABCABC, AB=16cmAB=16cm, BC=63cmBC=63cm and AC=65cmAC=65cm. What is the value of cos⁡2A+cos⁡2B+cos⁡2Ccos2A+cos2B+cos2C?
(a) −1−1 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) 76656576​

47. If f(θ)=11+tan⁡θf(θ)=1+tanθ1​ and α+β=5π4α+β=45π​, then what is the value of f(α)f(β)f(α)f(β)?
(a) −12−21​ (b) 1221​ (c) 1 (d) 2

48. If tan⁡αtanα and tan⁡βtanβ are the roots of the equation x2−6x+8=0x2−6x+8=0, then what is the value of cos⁡(2α+2β)cos(2α+2β)?
(a) 13757513​ (b) 13858513​ (c) 17858517​ (d) 19858519​

49. What is the value of tan⁡65∘+2tan⁡45∘−2tan⁡40∘−tan⁡25∘tan65∘+2tan45∘−2tan40∘−tan25∘?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 4

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50. Consider the following statements:
A. In a triangle ABC, if cot⁡Acot⁡Bcot⁡C>0cotAcotBcotC>0, then the triangle is an acute angled triangle.
B. In a triangle ABC, if tan⁡Atan⁡Btan⁡C>0tanAtanBtanC>0, then the triangle is an obtuse angled triangle.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A Only (b) B Only (c) Both A and B (d) Neither A nor B

51. If (a, b) is the centre and c is the radius of the circle x2+y2+2x+6y+1=0x2+y2+2x+6y+1=0, then what is the value of a2+b2+c2a2+b2+c2?
(a) 19 (b) 18 (c) 17 (d) 11

52. If (1,−1,2)(1,−1,2) and (2,1,−1)(2,1,−1) are the end points of a diameter of a sphere x2+y2+z2+2ux+2vy+2wz−1=0x2+y2+z2+2ux+2vy+2wz−1=0, then what is u+v+wu+v+w equal to?
(a) −2−2 (b) −1−1 (c) 1 (d) 2

53. The number of points represented by the equation x=5x=5 on the xy-plane is
(a) Zero (b) One (c) Two (d) Infinitely many

54. If l,m,n>l,m,n> are the directions cosines of a normal to the plane 2x−3y+6z+4=02x−3y+6z+4=0, then what is the value of 49(7l2+m2−n2)49(7l2+m2−n2)?
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 71

55. A line through (1,−1,2)(1,−1,2) with directions ratios <3,2,2><3,2,2> meets the plane x+2y+3z=18x+2y+3z=18. What is the point of intersection of line and plane?
(a) (4, 4, 1) (b) (2, 4, 1) (c) (4, 1, 4) (d) (3, 4, 7)

56. If pp is the perpendicular distance from origin to the plane passing through (1,0,0),(0,1,0)(1,0,0),(0,1,0) and (0,0,1)(0,0,1), then what is 3p23p2 equal to?
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1

57. If the directions cosines of a line are connected by relation l+2m+n=0,2l−2m+3n=0l+2m+n=0,2l−2m+3n=0, then what is the value of 1l2+m2−n2l2+m2−n21​?
(a) 2910110129​ (b) 1012929101​ (c) 4110110141​ (d) 9210110192​

58. If a variable line passes through the point of intersection of the lines x+2y−1=0x+2y−1=0 and 2x−y−1=02x−y−1=0 and meets the coordinate axes in A and B, then what is the locus of the mid-point of AB?
(a) 3x+y=10xy3x+y=10xy (b) x+3y=10xyx+3y=10xy (c) 3x+y=103x+y=10 (d) x+3y=10x+3y=10

59. What is the equation to the straight line passing through the point (−sin⁡θ,cos⁡θ)(−sinθ,cosθ) and perpendicular to the line xcos⁡θ+ysin⁡θ=9xcosθ+ysinθ=9?
(a) xsin⁡θ−ycos⁡θ−1=0xsinθ−ycosθ−1=0 (b) xsin⁡θ−ycos⁡θ+1=0xsinθ−ycosθ+1=0 (c) xsin⁡θ−ycos⁡θ=0xsinθ−ycosθ=0 (d) xcos⁡θ−ysin⁡θ+1=0xcosθ−ysinθ+1=0

60. Two points P and Q lie on line y=2x+3y=2x+3. These two points P and Q are at a distance 2 units from another point R(1,5)R(1,5). What are the coordinates of the points P and Q?
(a) (1+25,5+45),(1−25,5−45)(1+5​2​,5+5​4​),(1−5​2​,5−5​4​)
(b) (3+25,5+45),(−1−25,5−45)(3+5​2​,5+5​4​),(−1−5​2​,5−5​4​)
(c) (1−25,5+45),(1+25,5−45)(1−5​2​,5+5​4​),(1+5​2​,5−5​4​)
(d) (3−25,5+45),(−1+25,5−45)(3−5​2​,5+5​4​),(−1+5​2​,5−5​4​)

61. If two sides of a square lie on the lines 2x+y−3=02x+y−3=0 and 4x+2y+5=04x+2y+5=0, then what is the area of the square in square units?
(a) 6.05 (b) 6.15 (c) 6.25 (d) 6.35

62. ABC is a triangle with A(3, 5). The mid-points of sides AB, AC are at (−1,2),(6,4)(−1,2),(6,4) respectively. What are the coordinates of centroid of the triangle ABC?
(a) (83,113)(38​,311​) (b) (73,73)(37​,37​) (c) (83,2)(38​,2) (d) (2,73)(2,37​)

63. ABC is an acute angled isosceles triangle. Two equal sides AB and AC lie on the lines 7x−y−3=07x−y−3=0 and x+y−5=0x+y−5=0. If θθ is one of the equal angles, then what is cot⁡θcotθ equal to?
(a) 1331​ (b) 1221​ (c) 2332​ (d) 2

64. In the parabola y2=8xy2=8x, the focal distance of a point P lying on it is 8 units. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) The coordinates of P can be (6,43)(6,43​)
(B) The perpendicular distance of P from the directrix of parabola is 8 units.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) A only (b) B only (c) Both A and B (d) Neither A nor B

65. What is the eccentricity of the ellipse if the angle between the straight lines joining the foci to an extremity of the minor axis is 90∘90∘?
(a) 1331​ (b) 1221​ (c) 133​1​ (d) 122​1​

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66. Let a⃗=i^−j^+k^a=i^−j^​+k^ and b⃗=i^+2j^−k^b=i^+2j^​−k^. If a⃗×(b⃗×a⃗)=αi^−βj^+γk^a×(b×a)=αi^−βj^​+γk^, then what is the value of α+β+γα+β+γ?
(a) 8 (b) 7 (c) 6 (d) 1

67. If a vector of magnitude 2 units makes an angle π33π​ with 2i^,π42i^,4π​ with 3j^3j^​ and an acute angle θθ with 4k^4k^ then what are the components of the vector?
(a) (1,2,1)(1,2​,1) (b) (1,−2,1)(1,−2​,1) (c) (1,−2,−1)(1,−2​,−1) (d) (1,2,−1)(1,2​,−1)

68. Consider the following in respect of moment of a force:
(A) The moment of force about a point is independent of point of application of force.
(B) The moment of a force about a line is a vector quantity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only (b) B only (c) Both A and B (d) Neither A nor B

69. For any vector r⃗r, what is

(r⃗⋅i^)(r⃗×i^)+(r⃗⋅j^)(r⃗×j^)+(r⃗⋅k^)(r⃗×k^)(r⋅i^)(r×i^)+(r⋅j^​)(r×j^​)+(r⋅k^)(r×k^)

(a) 0⃗0 (b) r⃗r (c) 2r⃗2r (d) 3r⃗3r

70. Let a⃗a and b⃗b are two vectors of magnitude 4 inclined at an angle π33π​, then what is the angle between a⃗a and a⃗−b⃗a−b?
(a) π22π​ (b) π33π​ (c) π44π​ (d) π66π​

71. Let y1(x)y1​(x) and y2(x)y2​(x) be two solutions of the differential equation dydx=xdxdy​=x. If y1(0)=0y1​(0)=0 and y2(0)=4y2​(0)=4, then what is the number of points of intersection of the curves y1(x)y1​(x) and y2(x)y2​(x)?
(a) No point (b) One point (c) Two points (d) More than two points

72. The differential equation, representing the curve y=ex(acos⁡x+bsin⁡x)y=ex(acosx+bsinx) where aa and bb are arbitrary constants, is
(a) d2ydx2+2y=0dx2d2y​+2y=0 (b) d2ydx2+2dydx+2y=0dx2d2y​+2dxdy​+2y=0
(c) d2ydx2−2dydx+2y=0dx2d2y​−2dxdy​+2y=0 (d) d2ydx2+y=0dx2d2y​+y=0

73. If f(x)=ax−bf(x)=ax−b and g(x)=cx+dg(x)=cx+d are such that f(g(x))=g(f(x))f(g(x))=g(f(x)), then which one of the following holds?
(a) f(d)=g(b)f(d)=g(b) (b) f(b)+g(d)=0f(b)+g(d)=0 (c) f(a)+g(c)=2af(a)+g(c)=2a (d) f(d)+g(b)=2df(d)+g(b)=2d

74. What is ∫−11(3sin⁡x−sin⁡3x)cos⁡2xdx∫−11​(3sinx−sin3x)cos2xdx equal to?
(a) 1441​ (b) 0 (c) 1221​ (d) 1441​

75. What are the order and degree respectively of the differential equation

{2−(dydx)2}0.6=d2ydx2?{2−(dxdy​)2}0.6=dx2d2y​?

(a) 2,2 (b) 2,3 (c) 5,2 (d) 2,5

76. If dydx=2exy3dxdy​=2exy3, y(0)=12y(0)=21​ then what is 4y2(2−ex)4y2(2−ex) equal to?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

77. Let p=∫abf(x)dxp=∫ab​f(x)dx and q=∫ab∣f(x)∣dxq=∫ab​∣f(x)∣dx. If f(x)=e−xf(x)=e−x, then which one of the following is correct?
(a) p=2qp=2q (b) p=−qp=−q (c) 4p=q4p=q (d) p=qp=q

78. What is ∫0π2a+sin⁡x2a+sin⁡x+cos⁡xdx∫02π​​2a+sinx+cosxa+sinx​dx equal to?
(a) π44π​ (b) π22π​ (c) 1 (d) 0

79. The non-negative values of bb for which the function

16x33−4bx2+x has neither maximum nor minimum in316x3​−4bx2+x has neither maximum nor minimum in

the range x>0x>0 is
(a) 02b>2 (d) 0≤b<10≤b<1

80. Which one of the following is correct in respect of

f(x)=1∣x∣−x and g(x)=1x−∣x∣?f(x)=∣x∣−x​1​ and g(x)=x−∣x∣​1​?

(a) f(x)f(x) has some domain and g(x)g(x) has no domain
(b) f(x)f(x) has no domain and g(x)g(x) has some domain
(c) f(x)f(x) and g(x)g(x) have the same domain
(d) f(x)f(x) and g(x)g(x) do not have any domain

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81. What is the value of αα?
(a) 7 (b) 13 (c) 17 (d) 26

82. What is the value of ββ?
(a) 7 (b) 13 (c) 17 (d) 26

Consider the following for the next two (02) items that follow:

Let f(x)=xln⁡x;(x>1)Let f(x)=lnxx​;(x>1)

83. Consider the following statements:
(A) f(x)f(x) is increasing in the interval (e,∞)(e,∞)
(B) f(x)f(x) is decreasing in the interval (1,e)(1,e)
(C) 9ln⁡7>7ln⁡99ln7>7ln9
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) (A) and (B) only (b) (B) and (C) only (c) (A) and (C) only (d) (A), (B) and (C)

84. Consider the following statements:
(A) f′′(e)=1ef′′(e)=e1​
(B) f(x)f(x) attain local minimum value at x=ex=e
(C) A local minimum value of f(x)f(x) is ee
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) (A) and (B) only (b) (B) and (C) only (c) (A) and (C) only (d) (A), (B), and (C)

Consider the following for the next two (02) items that follow:
Let f(x)f(x) and g(x)g(x) be two functions such that

g(x)=x−1x and f∘g(x)=x3−1x3.g(x)=x−x1​ and f∘g(x)=x3−x31​.

85. What is g[f(x)−3x]g[f(x)−3x] equal to?
(a) x3−1x3x3−x31​ (b) x3+1x3x3+x31​ (c) x2−1x2x2−x21​ (d) x2+1x2x2+x21​

86. What is f′′(x)f′′(x) equal to?
(a) x3−1x3x3−x31​ (b) x3+1x3x3+x31​ (c) x2−1x2x2−x21​ (d) x2+1x2x2+x21​

Consider the following for the next two (02) items that follow:
Let f(x)=∣x∣+1f(x)=∣x∣+1 and g(x)=[x]−1g(x)=[x]−1, where [.][.] is the greatest integer function.

Let h(x)=f(x)g(x)Let h(x)=g(x)f(x)​

87. Consider the following statements:
(A) f(x)f(x) is differentiable for all x<0x<0
(B) g(x)g(x) is continuous at x=0.0001x=0.0001
(C) The derivative of g(x)g(x) at x=2.5x=2.5 is 1
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) A and B only (b) B and C only (c) A and C only (d) A, B and C

88. What is lim⁡x→0−h(x)x+lim⁡x→0+h(x)xlimx→0−​xh(x)​+limx→0+​xh(x)​ equal to?
(a) −32−23​ (b) −12−21​ (c) −12−21​ (d) −32−23​

Consider the following for the next two (02) items that follow:

Let ϕ(a)=∫aa+100π∣sin⁡x∣dxLet ϕ(a)=∫aa+100π​∣sinx∣dx

89. What is ϕ(a)ϕ(a) equal to?
(a) 0 (b) a (c) 100 a (d) 200

90. What is ϕ′(a)ϕ′(a) equal to?
(a) 0 (b) ππ (c) 100 (d) 200

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 91–92): Consider the following for the next two (02) items that follow:
A differentiable function f(x)f(x) has a local maximum at x=0x=0. Let y=2f(x)+ax−by=2f(x)+ax−b

91. Which of the following is/are correct?
(A) f′(0)=0f′(0)=0
(B) f′′(0)<0f′′(0)<0
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) A only (b) B only (c) Both A and B (d) Neither A nor B

92. The function yy has a relative maxima at x=0x=0 for
(a) a>0,b=0a>0,b=0 (b) for all bb and a=0a=0
(c) for all b>0b>0 only (d) for all aa and b=0b=0

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 93–94): Consider the following for the next two (02) items that follow:
Let f(x)=∣x−1∣f(x)=∣x−1∣, g(x)=[x]g(x)=[x] and h(x)=f(x)g(x)h(x)=f(x)g(x) where [.][.] is greatest integer function.

93. What is ∫−10h(x)dx∫−10​h(x)dx equal to?
(a) −32−23​ (b) −1−1 (c) 00 (d) −12−21​

94. What is ∫02h(x)dx∫02​h(x)dx equal to?
(a) 3223​ (b) −1−1 (c) 00 (d) 1221​

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 95–96): Consider the following for the next two (02) items that follow:

Let ∫dxx+1−x−1=α(x+1)32+β(x−1)32+CLet ∫x+1​−x−1​dx​=α(x+1)23​+β(x−1)23​+C

95. What is the value of αα?
(a) 1331​ (b) 2332​ (c) 11 (d) 4334​

96. What is the value of ββ?
(a) 2332​ (b) 1331​ (c) 1331​ (d) 2332​

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 97–98): Consider the following for the next two (02) items that follow:
The circle x2+y2−2x=0x2+y2−2x=0 is partitioned by line y=xy=x in two segments. Let A1,A2A1​,A2​ be the areas of major and minor segments respectively.

97. What is the value of A1A1​?
(a) π−244π−2​ (b) π+244π+2​ (c) 3π−2443π−2​ (d) 3π+2443π+2​

98. What is the value of 2(A1+A2)A1−3A2A1​−3A2​2(A1​+A2​)​?
(a) ππ (b) 11 (c) −1−1 (d) −π−π

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 99–100): Consider the following for the next two (02) items that follow:

Let 3f(x)+f(1x)=1x+1Let 3f(x)+f(x1​)=x1​+1

99. What is f(x)f(x) equal to?
(a) 18x−x8+148x1​−8x​+41​ (b) 38x+x8+348x3​+8x​+43​ (c) 38x+x8+148x3​+8x​+41​

100. What is ∫12f(x)dx∫12​f(x)dx equal to?
(a) ln⁡(8e)ln(8e​) (b) ln⁡(4e)ln(4e​) (c) ln⁡2ln2 (d) ln⁡2−1ln2−1

101. A bag contains 5 black and 4 white balls. A man selects two balls at random. What is the probability that both of these are of the same colour?
(a) 1661​ (b) 51081085​ (c) 4994​ (d) 518185​

102. If a random variable (x)(x) follows binomial distribution with mean 5 and variance 4, 523P(X=3)=λ45523P(X=3)=λ45, then what is the value of λλ?
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 23 (d) 25

103. From data (−4,1),(−1,2),(2,7)(−4,1),(−1,2),(2,7) and (3,1)(3,1), the regression line of yy on xx is obtained as y=a+bxy=a+bx, then what is the value of 2a+15b2a+15b?
(a) 6 (b) 11 (c) 17 (d) 21

104. Let x+2y+1=0x+2y+1=0 and 2x+3y+4=02x+3y+4=0 are two lines of regression computed from some bivariate data. If θθ is the acute angle between them, then what is the value of 488tan⁡3θ488tan3θ?
(a) 191 (b) 161 (c) 131 (d) 121

105. If two random variables XX and YY are connected by relation

2X−3Y5X+4Y=4 and X follows Binomial distribution with5X+4Y2X−3Y​=4 and X follows Binomial distribution with

parameters n=10n=10 and p=12p=21​, then what is the variance of YY?
(a) 810361361810​ (b) 919199​ (c) 2136136121​ (d) 121361361121​

106. If a,b,ca,b,c are in HP, then what is 1b−a+1b−cb−a1​+b−c1​ equal to?
(A) 2bb2​ (B) 1a+1ca1​+c1​ (C) 12(1a+1b+1c)21​(a1​+b1​+c1​)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) A only (b) B only (c) C only (d) A, B and C

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107. An edible oil is sold at the rates 150, 200, 250, 300 rupees per litre in four consecutive years. Assuming that an equal amount of money is spent on oil by a family in every year during these years, what is the average price of oil in rupees (approximately) per litre?
(a) 210 (b) 220 (c) 230 (d) 240

108. If the letters of the word "TIRUPATI" are written down at random, then what is the probability that both Ts are always consecutive?
(a) 1221​ (b) 1441​ (c) 1771​ (d) 114141​

109. Let m=77nm=77n. The index nn is given a positive integral value at random. What is the probability that the value of mm will have 1 in the units place?
(a) 1221​ (b) 1331​ (c) 1441​ (d) 1nn1​

110. Three different numbers are selected at random from the first 15 natural numbers. What is the probability that the product of two of the numbers is equal to third number?
(a) 191911​ (b) 24554552​ (c) 165651​ (d) 64554556​

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 111–112): Consider the following for the next two (02) items that follow:
Let AA and BB be two events such that P(A∪B)≥0.75P(A∪B)≥0.75 and 0.125≤P(A∩B)≤0.3750.125≤P(A∩B)≤0.375.

111. What is the minimum value of P(A)+P(B)P(A)+P(B)?
(a) 0.625 (b) 0.750 (c) 0.825 (d) 0.875

112. What is the maximum value of P(A)+P(B)P(A)+P(B)?
(a) 0.75 (b) 1.125 (c) 1.375 (d) 1.625

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 113–114): Consider the following for the next two (02) items that follow:
A, B and C are three events such that P(A)=0.6P(A)=0.6, P(B)=0.4P(B)=0.4, P(C)=0.5P(C)=0.5, P(A∪B)=0.8P(A∪B)=0.8, P(A∩C)=0.3P(A∩C)=0.3 and P(A∩B∩C)=0.2P(A∩B∩C)=0.2 and P(A∪B∪C)≥0.85P(A∪B∪C)≥0.85.

113. What is the minimum value of P(B∩C)P(B∩C)?
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.35 (d) 0.45

114. What is the maximum value of P(B∩C)P(B∩C)?
(a) 0.1 (b) 0.2 (c) 0.35 (d) 0.45

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 115–116): Consider the following for the next two (02) items that follow:
An unbiased coin is tossed nn times. The probability of getting at least one tail is pp and the probability of at least two tails is qq and p−q=532p−q=325​.

115. What is the value of nn?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7

116. What is the value of p+qp+q?
(a) 57323257​ (b) 53323253​ (c) 51323251​ (d) 1

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 117–118): Consider the following for the next two (02) items that follow:

xixi​	1	2	3	...	nn
fifi​	1	1221​	122221​	...	12n−12n−11​

117. What is ∑inxifi∑in​xi​fi​ equal to?
(a) 2n+1−n+22n−12n−12n+1−n+2​ (b) 2n+1−n−22n−12n−12n+1−n−2​

118. What is the mean of the distribution?
(a) 2n+1−n+22n−12n−12n+1−n+2​ (b) 2n+1−n−22n−12n−12n+1−n−2​ (c) 2n+1−n−22n−12n−12n+1−n−2​

DIRECTIONS (Qs. 119–120): Consider the following for the next two (02) items that follow:
The marks obtained by 10 students in a Statistics test are 24, 47, 18, 32, 19, 15, 21, 35, 50 and 41.

119. What is the mean deviation of the largest five observations?
(a) 4.8 (b) 5.5 (c) 6 (d) 7.5

120. What is the variance of the largest five observations?
(a) 14.6 (b) 21.8 (c) 25.2 (d) 46.8

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11. as greenhouse gases because they trap heat and air temperatures
(a) raise (b) hike (c) rise (d) balance

12. near the ground, acting like a greenhouse on the surface of the
(a) crust (b) core (c) mantle (d) planet

13. In order to create and strengthen the scientific and analytical capacity assessment
(a) for (b) of (c) in (d) to

14. of climate change in the country, different studies under Climate Change Action Programme Many important bilateral and multilateral
(a) are developed (b) are initiated (c) have developed (d) have initiated

15. meetings and negotiations are held regular intervals
(a) with (b) at (c) in (d) on

SENTENCE COMPLETION
DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items features one part of a sentence, followed by four alternatives. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct alternative and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

16. He paused
(a) with a few moments. (b) for a few moments. (c) by a few moments. (d) into a few moments.

17. Late at night, our car
(a) broke down on the highway. (b) broke up on the highway. (c) broke into the highway. (d) broke out on the highway.

18. All the countries signed the treaty
(a) beneath Germany and France. (b) except Germany and France. (c) among Germany and France. (d) during Germany and France.

19. I reminded her
(a) to turn off the lights at night. (b) to call off the lights at night. (c) to drop off the lights at night. (d) to break off the lights at night.

20. They told us about the woman
(a) whom lived next door. (b) which lived next door. (c) who lived next door. (d) whose lived next door.

DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words or groups of words. Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

1. Mohan was living in a deplorable condition.
(a) reprehensible (b) opprobrious (c) despicable (d) commendable

2. These exercises will counteract the effects of stress and tension.
(a) exacerbate (b) foil (c) thwart (d) contravene

3. You have to persevere with difficult students.
(a) give up (b) persist (c) carry on (d) stand firm

4. Their new colour scheme is hideous.
(a) appalling (b) beautiful (c) grotesque (d) macabre

5. Everywhere they go, they squander their earnings.
(a) fritter away (b) splurge (c) squabble (d) manage

CLOZE TEST
DIRECTIONS: In this section, there is a passage having some blank spaces, each blank space is followed by four individual words or group of words. Select a word or group of words you consider the most appropriate for filling the blank space, and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

6. The Earth's climate is changing and evolving. Some of
(a) passionately (b) continually (c) deadly (d) thoughtfully

7. changes have been due to natural causes but others can be
(a) these (b) those (c) this (d) that

8. attributed to activities such as deforestation,
(a) practical (b) geological (c) human (d) animal

9. emissions from industry and transport, etc., which have led to the
(a) assimilation (b) absolution (c) collection (d) accumulation

10. of gases and aerosols in atmosphere. These gases are known
(a) an (b) a (c) the (d) no article

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21. I'll see you
(a) at the end of February. (b) on the end of February. (c) along the end of February. (d) for the end of February.

22. I dislike films
(a) who have sad endings. (b) that have sad endings. (c) whose have sad endings. (d) whom have sad endings.

23. The thieves denied
(a) having stealing the money. (b) stealing the money. (c) had stolen the money. (d) having to steal the money.

24. Did you
(a) drop out to see Sunita on your way home? (b) drop in to see Sunita on your way home? (c) drop behind to see Sunita on your way home? (d) drop away to see Sunita on your way home?

25. Would you like to
(a) meeting her? (b) meet her? (c) met her? (d) meet with her?

IDIOMS AND PHRASES
DIRECTIONS: Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings to each. Select the most appropriate response from the options (a), (b), (c) or (d), and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

26. Be bad news
(a) feelings of hate (b) someone who behaves in a dishonest way (c) someone who is considered undesirable (d) to be ill

27. Back to the drawing board
(a) to draw comparisons (b) to be a member of planning group (c) to start planning again because the previous plan has failed (d) to be fast at understanding a situation

28. Be in the eye of the storm
(a) to look at something quickly (b) to fail miserably at a sport (c) to see something that you do not want to see (d) to be in the midst of a controversy

29. Life in the fast lane
(a) to lead a selfless life (b) to have a happy life without complaints (c) life without money or comforts (d) an exciting and eventful lifestyle

30. To pass the buck
(a) to collect money from a group of people (b) to shift the responsibility of something to someone (c) to have a short conversation with someone (d) to have the credentials for a particular job

ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE
DIRECTIONS: Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled as P, Q, R and S. Rearrange the jumbled parts of the sentences into sequence and select the correct sequence as (a), (b), (c), and (d) given below and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

31. include basic freedoms the fundamental rights are P Q guaranteed to the individual basic rights and R S
(a) QSPR (b) QRSP (c) SQRP (d) RQSP

32. for many millennia been in the making P Q of a historical process that has R the Indian nation is the product S
(a) SRQP (b) SQPR (c) PRSQ (d) RSQP

33. an epoch that was imbued for its people the start of P Q with a new vision R India's Independence represented S
(a) SQPR (b) QRPS (c) SQPR (d) RQSP

34. science and mathematics exhibition P for a discussion on the forthcoming Q to be present before the Principal R all students have been instructed S
(a) SQPR (b) RPQS (c) SRQP (d) QPRS

35. two bowlers and two batsmen respectively P to the new team with the selection of another player Q the team now has S
(a) QPRS (b) SQPR (c) RQSP (d) RPSQ

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36. You are most welcome to visit my humble abode.
(a) Noun (b) Adjective (c) Adverb (d) Participle

37. The situation is beyond our control.
(a) Adjective (b) Adverb (c) Conjunction (d) Preposition

38. I didn't tell him anything except that I needed the money.
(a) Adjective (b) Adverb (c) Preposition (d) Conjunction

39. He dry-cleaned my coat nicely.
(a) Adjective (b) Adverb (c) Relative pronoun (d) Conjunction

40. Would you like to buy this new item?
(a) Determiner (b) Conjunction (c) Interjection (d) Adjective

Passage
DIRECTIONS: Read the following passage carefully and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based solely on the contents of the passage and the opinion of the author.

The grouping or assemblage of plants, animals and microbes we observe when we study a natural forest, a grassland, a pond, a coral reef or some other undisturbed area, is referred to as the area's biota or biotic community. The plant portion of the biotic community includes all vegetation, from large trees down through to microscopic algae. Likewise, the animal portion includes everything from large mammals, birds, reptiles and amphibians through to earthworms, tiny insects and mites. Microbes encompass a large array of microscopic bacteria, fungi and protozoans. Thus, the biotic community comprises a plant community, an animal community and a microbial community. The particular kind of biotic community found in a given area is, in large part, determined by abiotic factors such as the amount of water or moisture present, the temperature, the salinity, or the type of soil in the area. These abiotic factors both support and limit the particular community. For example, a relative lack of available moisture prevents the growth of most species of plants, but supports certain species, such as cacti; these kinds of areas are deserts. Land with plenty of available moisture and a suitable temperature supports forests. The presence of water is the major factor that sustains aquatic communities.

The first step in investigating a biotic community may be simply to catalogue all the species present. Species are the different kinds of plants, animals and microbes in the community. A given species includes all those individuals which have a strong similarity in appearance to one another and which are distinct in appearance from other such groups. Each species in a biotic community is represented by a certain population - that is, by a certain number of individuals that make up the interbreeding, reproducing group.

41. Which one of the following does not belong to the biotic community?
(a) Water (b) Human (c) Protozoa (d) Bush

42. The nature of the biotic community largely depends on:

1. Biotic components

2. Abiotic components
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

43. Which of the following is not an abiotic factor?
(a) Temperature (b) Humidity (c) Algae (d) Moisture

44. In the passage, the word 'aquatic community' refers to:
(a) Biotic community found in water (b) Biotic community found in the air (d) Assemblage of rain and moisture

45. Species are defined on the basis of:
(a) Similarities only (b) Differences only (c) Both similarities and differences (d) None of the above

SYNONYMS
DIRECTIONS: Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words/group of words. Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

46. The king's son was banished due to the political rivalry.
(a) deported (b) called back (c) accepted (d) notified

47. He gave a dazzling performance at the opera.
(a) brilliant (b) dismal (c) pathetic (d) puerile

48. She rebuffed all suggestions from her friends.
(a) took (b) rejected (c) criticized (d) granted

49. He disowned his royal legacy and became a commoner.
(a) accepted (b) abandoned (c) allowed (d) questioned

50. The public was sceptical about the new government policy.
(a) hopeful (b) anxious (c) doubtful (d) expectant

PART-B: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

51. An infinite combination of resistors, each having resistance R=4ΩR=4Ω is given below. What is the net resistance between the points A and B? (Each resistance is of equal value, R=4R=4)

(a) 0Ω0Ω (b) 2+25Ω2+25​Ω (c) 2+5Ω2+5​Ω (d) ∞Ω∞Ω

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52. An electric circuit is given below. V1=1 VV1​=1 V and Resistance R=1000ΩR=1000Ω.

The current through the resistance R is very close to 1 mA and the voltage across point A and B, VAB=1 VVAB​=1 V. Now the circuit is changed to:

where value of V2=5 VV2​=5 V. The internal resistances of both the batteries are 0.1 ΩΩ. The current through the resistance R is about:
(a) 1.0 mA1.0 mA (b) 1.2 mA1.2 mA (c) 3.0 mA3.0 mA (d) 5.0 mA5.0 mA

53. If the current through an electrical machine running on direct current is 15 A15 A and the machine runs for 10 minutes, the charge that passes through the machine during this time is:
(a) 1.50 C1.50 C (b) 150 C150 C (c) 900 C900 C (d) 9000 C9000 C

54. Which one of the following is the best shape of a solid metal rod to form the top end of a lightning conductor?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

55. Which of the following forces is/are fundamental in nature?

1. Gravitational force

2. Electromagnetic forces

3. Strong and weak nuclear forces
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

56. A spherical shell of outer radius R and inner radius R/2 contains a solid sphere of radius R/2 (see figure). The density of the material of the solid sphere is ρρ and that of the shell is ρ/2ρ/2. What is the average mass density of the larger sphere thus formed?

(a) 3ρ/43ρ/4 (b) 9ρ/169ρ/16 (c) 7ρ/87ρ/8 (d) 5ρ/85ρ/8

57. The human eye is like a camera that has a lens with:
(a) fixed focal length and fixed aperture size.
(b) variable focal length and fixed aperture size.
(c) fixed focal length and variable aperture size.
(d) variable focal length and variable aperture size.

58. Under Article 371A of the Constitution of India, with respect to which of the following item(s) the Acts of the Parliament of India shall not apply to the State of Nagaland, unless the Legislative Assembly of the State of Nagaland by a resolution so decides?

1. Religious or social practices of Nagas

2. Naga customary law and procedure

3. Ownership and transfer of land and its resources

4. Boundaries of Nagaland with other states
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

59. Under Article 191 of the Constitution of India, a person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of the Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council of a state if the person holds any office of profit under:

1. the Government of India.

2. any State Government.
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

60. Consider the following UN Declarations/Covenants:

1. Universal Declaration of Human Rights

2. Convention on the Elimination of All Forms of Discrimination Against Women

3. International Covenant of Economic, Social and Cultural Rights

4. Convention on Refugees
   Which one of the following is the correct chronological order (starting with the earliest) of the above?
   (a) 1, 4, 3, 2 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4 (c) 1, 3, 2, 4 (d) 4, 1, 2, 3

61. Which one of the following statements regarding the objectives of the Second Five-Year Plan is not correct?
(a) Development of the basic and heavy industry sector
(b) Increase in national income to raise living standards
(c) Expansion of the consumer goods sector
(d) Expansion of employment opportunities

62. Consider the following statements about the emergence of urban centres in India from circa 6th Century BCE:

1. All of them developed away from the capitals of mahajanpadas.

2. Major towns were located along routes of communication.

3. Many were bustling centres of commercial, cultural and political activity.
   How many of the above statements is/are correct?
   (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) None

63. Consider the following statements about ancient Indian inscriptions:

1. The earliest inscriptions are in Sanskrit.

2. Kharosthi script, used in inscriptions in the north-west, was deciphered with the help of coins of Indo-Greek kings who ruled over the area.

3. Most of the inscriptions mention grand, unique events, and routine agricultural practices do not find mention.
   How many of the above statements is/are correct?
   (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) None

64. The relative atomic mass of boron (which exists in two isotopic forms 10B10B and 11B11B) is 10.81. What will be the abundance of 10B10B and 11B11B, respectively (consider a sample of 100 atoms)?
(a) 19%19% and 81%81% (b) 81%81% and 19%19% (c) 38%38% and 62%62% (d) 62%62% and 38%38%

65. Which among the following are essential constituents of Portland cement?
(a) Sand, lime, clay
(b) Silica, alumina, lime
(c) Silica, lime, graphite powder
(d) Sand, graphene, clay

66. Litmus, a well-known acid-base indicator, is derived from:
(a) Fungi (b) Lichens (c) Bacteria (d) Termite

67. What is the oxidation state of Vanadium in V2O5V2​O5​?
(a) +2+2 (b) +4+4 (c) +3+3 (d) +5+5

68. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Allotrope of Carbon) | List-II (Property)
A. Graphite | 1. Thinnest and strongest material
B. Diamond | 2. Hardest natural material
C. Fullerene | 3. Very light and strong
D. Graphene | 4. Soft and slippery
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 1 2 3 4

69. Consider the following statements regarding the International Date Line:

1. It is roughly 180∘180∘ meridian, which deviates slightly East and West to avoid land areas surrounded by the Atlantic Ocean.

2. The date to the East of this line is (24 hours) earlier than to the West.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

70. Which of the following statements regarding 'aurora' is/are correct?

1. The solar wind upon reaching the Earth's atmosphere is directed towards two magnetic poles and a colourful display of lights is seen in the night sky.

2. The particles interact with the different gases of the atmosphere and each gas glows with a particular colour.

3. In April 2023, aurora was captured in the night sky in India by the Indian Astronomical Observatory at Hanle, Ladakh.
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

71. Which of the following statements regarding Barchan is/are correct?

1. It is a crescent shaped mound of sand, which is deposited by the wind blowing constantly from one direction in a desert.

2. The windward side has a convex steep slope with maximum height at the centre.

3. Two ends of Barchan are called horns and point opposite to the direction the wind blows.
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

72. Which of the following statements regarding Regur soil is/are correct?

1. It is a light coloured, clayey and fertile soil.

2. It is developed on Deccan basaltic lava under hot and humid conditions.

3. Cotton is extensively cultivated in this soil.
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 2 only (d) 3 only

73. Which of the following statements regarding clouds is/are correct?

1. Clouds are classified on the basis of altitude and their form.

2. According to altitude they are classified as High, Middle and Low clouds.

3. Stratus, Nimbostratus and Stratocumulus are high clouds.
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

74. Consider the following statements regarding 'fronts':

1. The movement of a front causes a slow change in weather in the area over which it moves.

2. Cold fronts are associated with thunderstorms.

3. Warm front is the boundary between an advancing mass of warm air where it is overriding and rising above a mass of colder air.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

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75. Consider the following statements regarding soils:

1. Soils having a very high content of sodium and calcium and pH of more than 7−07−0 are alkaline soils.

2. Black cotton soil had developed on the Deccan basaltic lava under hot and humid conditions.

3. Laterite soils are characterised by a deep weathered layer from which silica has been leached.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

76. Consider the following characteristics of a grassland:

1. An extensive area of mid latitude grasslands are devoid of trees and shrubs.

2. The climate is characterised by hot summers, cold winters and relatively low rainfall occurring mainly in spring and summer.

3. In humid parts, grasses grow to a meter or more in height.
   On the basis of the above characteristics, select the correct grassland from the options given below:
   (a) Steppes (b) Prairies (c) Savanna (d) Pampas

77. Which of the following statements regarding animal cell membrane is correct?
(a) They are composed of phospholipids only.
(b) They are composed of proteins only.
(c) They are composed of phospholipids and proteins only.
(d) They are composed of phospholipids, proteins and cholesterol (lipid).

78. Which of the following is not a part of compound microscope?
(a) Mirror (b) Stage (c) Clip (d) Retina

79. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in increasing complexity?
(a) Protein-Organism-Tissue-Organ
(b) Protein-Organ-Tissue-Organism
(c) Protein-Organism-Organ-Tissue
(d) Protein-Tissue-Organ-Organism

80. Consider the following cell types:

1. Monocyte

2. Chondrocyte

3. Basophil

4. Lymphocyte
   How many of the above belong to animal cell types?
   (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

81. In the human digestive system, which one among the following is the role of the pancreas?
(a) Secretion of surfactants to break up lipid droplets
(b) Storage and regulated release of bile
(c) Secretion of lipase, amylase and protease
(d) Neutralizing stomach acids

82. Consider the following statements:

1. DNA replication takes place when chromatin is opened up.

2. Chromatin organises itself into rod-shaped chromosomes before cell division.

3. Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes have the same process for cell division.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

83. A uniform meter scale of mass 0.24kg0.24kg is made of steel. It is kept on two wedges, W1W1​ and W2W2​, in a horizontal position. W1W1​ is at a distance of 0.2m0.2m from one of its ends, while W2W2​ is at distance of 0.4m0.4m from the other end. If the force on the scale is N1N1​ due to W1W1​ and N2N2​ due to W2W2​, then : (take g = 10.0ms−210.0ms−2)
(a) N1=1.6NN1​=1.6N and N2=0.8NN2​=0.8N
(b) N1=0.8NN1​=0.8N and N2=1.6NN2​=1.6N
(c) N1=0.6NN1​=0.6N and N2=1.8NN2​=1.8N
(d) N1=1.8NN1​=1.8N and N2=0.6NN2​=0.6N

84. Escape speed from the Earth is close to 11.2kms−111.2kms−1. On another planet whose radius is half of the Earth's radius and whose mass density is four times that of the Earth, the escape speed in kms−1kms−1 will be close to :
(a) 11.2 (b) 15.8 (c) 5.6 (d) 7.9

85. Which one of the following does not apply to sound waves in fluids?
(a) They transport energy
(b) They need a medium to travel
(c) They are transverse
(d) They travel faster in liquids than in gases

86. A ball of 0.1kg0.1kg mass is dropped on a hard floor from a height of 0.45m0.45m and rises to a height of 0.20m0.20m. If it was in touch with the floor for 0.1s0.1s, the net force it applied on the floor while bouncing is : (take the gravitational acceleration g=10ms−2g=10ms−2)
(a) 1.0N1.0N (b) 6.0N6.0N (c) 3.0N3.0N (d) 5.0N5.0N

87. Which one of the following statements regarding simple pendulum is correct?
Simple pendulum has a time period independent of amplitude:
(a) only for small amplitudes because then the net force on its bob is independent of its displacement.
(b) for any amplitude because the net force on the bob is always proportional to its displacement.
(c) for any amplitude because the net force on the bob is independent of its displacement.
(d) only for small amplitudes because then the net force on its bob is proportional to its displacement.

88. Which one of the following about different frictional forces is correct?
(a) Kinetic friction >> Static friction >> Rolling friction
(b) Static friction >> Rolling friction >> Kinetic friction
(c) Static friction >> Kinetic friction >> Rolling friction
(d) Static friction >> Kinetic friction == Rolling friction

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89. A metallic bob X of mass m is released from position A. It collides elastically with another identical bob Y placed at rest at position B on a horizontal frictionless table. The angle AOB is 30∘30∘.

How high does the bob X rise immediately after the collision?
(a) To the same height as that of position A on the other side in the same trajectory
(b) To half the height as that of position A on the other side along the same trajectory
(c) The same height at position A
(d) It stops at position B

90. Consider the two statements given below:
Statement-1 : Infrared waves are also called heat waves.
Statement-2 : Water molecules readily absorb infrared waves.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement-2 is the correct explanation of Statement-1.
(b) Both the statements are individually true, but Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of Statement-1.
(c) Statement-1 is true, but Statement-2 is false.
(d) Statement-2 is true, but Statement-1 is false.

91. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. British 'trade surplus' with India in the nineteenth century meant that the value of British exports to India was much higher than the value of British imports from India.

2. India played a crucial role in the late-nineteenth-century world economy by helping Britain balance its deficits.

3. Britain grew opium in India and exported it to China and, therefore, for a while after the 1820s, opium became India's single largest export.

4. The nineteenth century saw export of Indian raw materials decline, and that of manufactured goods increase.
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

92. Match List-1 with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-1 (Unit in use in early India) | List-11 (Content)
A. Muhurta | 1. Measure of weight
B. Raktika | 2. Measure of time
C. Angula | 3. Metre of poetry
D. Pada | 4. Measure of length
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 3 1 4 2

93. First coins in Indian history bearing the names and images of rulers were issued by the:
(a) Mauryas (b) Pushyabhutis (c) Guptas (d) Indo-Greeks

94. Social theorists in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries emphasised the emergence of industrialisation, urbanisation, secularisation and bureaucratisation as hallmarks of:
(a) Modernity (b) Feudalism (c) Kingship (d) Medievalism

95. Consider the following events:

1. Launch of Non-Cooperation Movement

2. All-India Khilafat Conference in Delhi

3. Passing of the Rowlatt Act

4. Jallianwala Bagh incident
   Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the given events (earliest to latest)?
   (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 3, 4, 2, 1 (c) 3, 2, 4, 1 (d) 2, 3, 4, 1

96. Match List-1 with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-1 (System/Category) | List-11 (Description)
A. Upari
B. Pattadar
C. Mirasidar
D. Inam lands
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 3 1 4 2

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97. Which of the following statements about Vijayanagara king Krishnadevaraya's expeditions are correct?

1. In the early years of his reign he marched against the ruler of Orissa.

2. In 1520 CE, he captured the fort of Raichur from Ismail Adil Khan.

3. Krishnadevaraya restored Sultan Mahmud Shah to power and assumed the title of Yavana-rajya-sthapanacharya.
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 only

98. Water gas is a mixture of:
(a) CO2CO2​ and H2H2​ (b) COCO and H2H2​ (c) CO2CO2​ and H2OH2​O (d) COCO and H2OH2​O

99. Human body works in the pH range of:
(a) 6.8−7.26.8−7.2 (b) 7.0−7.87.0−7.8 (c) 6.5−7.56.5−7.5 (d) 7.5−8.07.5−8.0

100. Which one among the following statements with reference to the properties of water is not correct?
(a) The specific heat of water is abnormally high.
(b) Latent heat of fusion of water is very low.
(c) Density of water is higher than ice.
(d) Pure water is a non-conductor of electricity.

101. Which one among the following compounds has a sweet and fruity smell?
(a) Ethyl alcohol (b) Acetic acid (c) Ethyl acetate (d) Acetophenone

102. What is the coordination number of Na+Na+ and Cl−Cl− ions in NaCl lattice?
(a) 6, 1 (b) 1, 6 (c) 6, 6 (d) 5, 5

103. Which one among the following is present in the nettle leaf hairs that causes burning pain?
(a) Methanoic acid (b) Ethanoic acid (c) Benzoic acid (d) Acetic acid

104. Which one among the following is known as Milk of Magnesia?
(a) Magnesium bicarbonate (b) Magnesium carbonate (c) Magnesium sulphate (d) Magnesium hydroxide

105. Soap with water forms:
(a) Metallotropic liquid crystal (b) Thermotropic liquid crystal (c) Homogeneous solution (d) Lyotropic liquid crystal

106. Which among the following is the correct composition of Borax?
(a) Sodium, Boron, Magnesium and Hydrogen
(b) Sodium, Boron, Oxygen and Hydrogen
(c) Potassium, Boron, Oxygen and Hydrogen
(d) Sodium, Boron, Nitrogen and Hydrogen

107. Which one among the following oxides has the highest melting point?
(a) Na2ONa2​O (b) MgOMgO (c) Fe2O3Fe2​O3​ (d) CuOCuO

108. Which of the following statements regarding neap tides is/are correct?

1. It occurs every 14-15 days, which coincides with the first and third quarter of the Moon.

2. This tide has a small tidal range because the gravitational forces of the Moon and the Sun are in quadrature.
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

109. Which of the following statements regarding earthquakes is/are correct?

1. The point on the Earth's surface directly above the focus is called the epicentre of the earthquake.

2. Earthquakes generate Primary and Secondary waves that radiate outward from the earthquake focus.

3. Deep-focus earthquakes are likely to cause more damage than shallow-focus earthquakes.
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

110. Which of the following statements regarding air temperature is/are correct?

1. Air temperature is measured at a standard height of 1.2m(4.0feet)1.2m(4.0feet) above the ground surface.

2. The average rate of temperature decrease with height is termed as the environmental temperature lapse rate.
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

111. Which of the following statements regarding humidity is/are correct?

1. It is a ratio between the actual amount of water vapour present in the atmosphere and the maximum amount it can hold at a given temperature.

2. When the relative humidity is high, more water evaporates from the skin.

3. Higher the air temperature lower the relative humidity of the air.
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

112. Which of the following statements regarding cyclones and anti-cyclones is/are correct?

1. In the Northern Hemisphere, cyclones rotate counter clockwise and anticyclones rotate clockwise.

2. Cyclones are often associated with cloudy or rainy weather, whereas anticyclones are often associated with fair weather.

3. In the Southern Hemisphere, the cyclonic spiral will be clockwise because the Coriolis force acts to the left.
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

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113. Identify the sea-port in India on the basis of the given characteristics:

1. It is more than a century old port on the west coast of India.

2. It is a natural harbour protected by a breakwater and also by a mole.

3. A deep draft channel of about 14 metres depth permits large vessels to enter the harbour.
   Select the correct sea-port from the options given below:
   (a) Mormugao Port (b) Deendayal Port (c) Cochin Port (d) Jawaharlal Nehru Port

114. Identify the Iron and Steel Plant on the basis of the given characteristics:

1. It receives coal from Jharia and iron-ore from Sundargarh and Kendujhar.

2. Power for the electric furnaces is procured from Hirakund.

3. Water is obtained from Koel and Sankh rivers.
   Select the correct Iron and Steel Plant from the options given below:
   (a) Bhilai Steel Plant (b) Durgapur Steel Plant (c) Rourkela Steel Plant (d) Bokaro Steel Plant

115. Which of the following statements regarding Earth's internal structure is/are correct?

1. The oceanic crust is heavier than the continental crust.

2. Most of the Earth's internal heat is contained within the mantle.

3. Large convective cells in the crust circulate heat and drive plate-tectonic processes.
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

116. Which of the following statements regarding the given rivers is/are correct?

1. Tsangpo crosses over into India under the name of Dihang.

2. Godavari has the second largest river basin covering about 10 percent of the area of India.

3. Rivers Chambal and Betwa are the important tributaries of river Ganga which join river Ganga directly in Uttar Pradesh.
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

117. Which of the following statements regarding the World Climate Types and their relation with Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) is/are correct?

1. Tropical Wet Climate is one of the world's rainiest due to the dominance of the ITCZ over it.

2. Tropical Savanna Climate experiences a distinctive alternation of wet and dry seasons, caused chiefly by the seasonal shift in latitude of the subtropical highs and ITCZ.

3. The Tropical Monsoonal Climate experiences heavy rainfall as a consequence of the nearness of the ITCZ for much of the year.
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

118. Which of the following statements regarding tropical cyclones is/are correct?

1. These storms develop during the summer and autumn in every tropical ocean except the South Atlantic and eastern South Pacific Oceans.

2. Tropical cyclones that occur in the North Atlantic and eastern North Pacific Oceans are known as typhoons.

3. Tropical cyclones that occur in the Indian and South Pacific Oceans are called cyclones.
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

119. Identify the land biome on the basis of the given characteristics:

1. Their climates are characterised by high rainfall and temperatures that vary from cold to mild.

2. These forests contain primarily deciduous trees - including maple, oak, hickory and beechwood.

3. Raccoons, opossums, bats and squirrels are found in the trees.
   Select the correct land biome from the options given below:
   (a) Tropical forest (b) Temperate forest (c) Boreal forest (d) Mediterranean forest

120. Leaves of most plants appear green because the chlorophyll present in it:
(a) absorbs red and blue light while reflecting green light.
(b) absorbs green light only.
(c) absorbs green light while reflecting red and blue light.
(d) reflects red light and absorbs blue and green light.

121. In most prokaryotes, the chromosome number is:
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1

122. Bacterial DNA is referred to as naked because it is not associated with:
(a) any scaffold (b) proteins (c) ribozymes (d) plasmid

123. Which one among the following cells produces antibodies against a foreign antigen?
(a) Lymphocytes (b) Erythrocytes (c) Eosinophils (d) Platelets

124. If the block P as shown in the figure below were to be at rest, what should the magnitude of force F be?

(a) 5N (b) 6N (c) 8N (d) 10N

125. Of the following, which does not belong to a nuclear reactor?
(a) A turbine
(b) A heat exchanger
(c) A mechanism to reduce CO2CO2​ emission
(d) A reaction chamber

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126. Consider the following electric circuit:

The current in the above electric circuit is
(a) 1A (b) (10/15)A (c) 2A (d) 1.5A

127. A microscope may be a combination of:
(a) two convex lenses.
(b) a convex and a concave lens.
(c) two concave lenses.
(d) a convex lens and a convex mirror.

128. For a human eye, where u is the distance of an object from the eye, f is the focal length of the lens and v is the distance of image from the eye, which is the correct schematic graph?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

129. Which of the following statements with regard to the phenomenon of the primary rainbow formation by water droplets is/are correct?

1. It involves refraction and one internal reflection of sunlight.

2. It involves refraction of sunlight only.

3. It is formed as the inner bow.

4. It may involve more than one internal reflection as well as refraction of sunlight.
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3

130. Which one of the following scientists mentioned that an electron in an atom could revolve in certain stable orbits without the emission of radiant energy?
(a) Ernest Rutherford (b) J.J. Thomson (c) Niels Bohr (d) Albert Einstein

131. LIGO experiment confirmed one of the predictions of:
(a) String theory (b) Special theory of relativity (c) Quantum mechanics (d) General theory of relativity

132. A block of mass 2kg2kg moving with the initial speed of 3m/s3m/s comes to rest on a rough horizontal surface after travelling a distance of 3m3m. The magnitude of the frictional force is:
(a) 9N (b) 3N (c) 18N (d) 1N

133. Which one of the following is primarily responsible for conduction of current in a metal?
(a) Bound electrons (b) Free electrons (c) Both bound and free electrons (d) Ions

134. Which of the following were features of the postal system of India as described by Ibn Battuta?

1. The foot post carries a ringing bell in one hand.

2. The horse post is called uluq, stationed at a distance of every four miles.

3. The foot post or dawa has one station at every four kos of distance.

4. The foot post is quicker than horse post.
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4

135. Which one of the following texts is a commentary written by Chakrapanidatta (11 Century CE from Bengal) on the Sushrut Samhita?
(a) Sabdachandrika (b) Bhanumati (c) Nitiratnakara (d) Lohasarvasava

136. Consider the following statements about the arrival of tobacco in India:

1. Tobacco plant arrived first in the Deccan.

2. Tobacco spread to northern India in the early years of the seventeenth century.
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

137. Consider the following Women's Associations and their important associates in early twentieth century India:

1. Women's Indian Association of 1917 : Margaret Cousins

2. National Council of Women in India of 1925 : Sarala Devi Chaudhuri

3. Bharat Stree Mahamandal of 1910 : Lady Meherbai Tata
   Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
   (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 only

138. Consider the following statements about the issue of separate electorate during the early decades of the twentieth century in India as a means to secure adequate representation for the deprived social categories in the absence of universal adult franchise:

1. The All India Depressed Classes Association of M.C. Rajah was staunchly in favour of joint electorate.

2. The All India Depressed Classes Leaders' Conference demanded separate electorate.

3. The Communal Award in September 1932 recognised the right to separate electorate for the 'untouchables'.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

139. Which of the following statements with regard to the famous 'silk routes' are correct?

1. Silk routes refer to East-bound European silk cargoes along these routes.

2. There were several silk routes, over land and by sea, joining together vast regions of Asia with Europe and northern Africa.

3. They are known to have existed since before the Christian Era and thrived almost till the fifteenth century.

4. Besides silk, Chinese pottery, textiles and spices from India and South-east Asia travelled the same route.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4

140. Consider the following statements about Ajanta paintings:

1. The surface of the rock was coated with clay mixed with rice husk and gum and a coat of lime was applied over this.

2. The outline drawing was done first on the lime coating and colours were added subsequently.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

141. Which of the following statements with regard to the Square Kilometer Array (SKA) project is/are correct?

1. SKA is a state of the art, mega science international facility to build the world's biggest and most sensitive radio telescope for addressing a wide variety of cutting-edge science goals.

2. The Government of India has accorded its approval for India's participation in the international mega science project.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

142. Exercise Desert Cyclone is a joint military exercise between India and:

(a) Kuwait
(b) Saudi Arabia
(c) United Arab Emirates
(d) Oman

143. Which of the following statements with regard to the constitution of Finance Commission is/are correct?

1. The Government of India has recently constituted the Sixteenth Finance Commission under the Chairmanship of Dr. Arvind Panagariya.

2. Finance Commission is constituted in pursuance to Article 263 of the Constitution of India.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

144. Recently the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has submitted three nominations from India for Wetland City Accreditation (WCA) under the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands. Which one among the following cities is not one among them?

(a) Indore
(b) Bhopal
(c) Udaipur
(d) Jodhpur

145. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. In India, 12th March is celebrated as the National Youth Day.

2. National Youth Day is celebrated to commemorate the birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

146. Consider the following statements about INS Sagardhwani:

1. It is an oceanographic research vessel of Naval Physical and Oceanographic Laboratory (NPOL) of DRDO.

2. Recently it embarked on the Sagar Maitri Mission-4 to establish long-term scientific partnerships with Indian Ocean Rim countries in Ocean Research and Development.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

147. Who among the following is the Chairman of the Committee constituted by the Government of India to examine the issue of holding simultaneous elections in the country and to make recommendations thereon?

(a) Union Home Minister Shri Amit Shah
(b) Chief Justice of India Shri Dhananjaya Yeshwant Chandrachud
(c) Former President of India Shri Ram Nath Kovind
(d) Chief Election Commissioner of India Shri Rajiv Kumar

148. In January 2024, India's first all-girls' Sainik School was inaugurated at:

(a) Bhopal
(b) Kohima
(c) Vrindavan
(d) Namsai

149. In February 2024, Government of India has decided to scrap the Free Movement Regime (FMR) between India and:

(a) Myanmar
(b) Bhutan
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Nepal

150. Who among the following is the author of the book Why Bharat Matters?

(a) L.K. Advani
(b) S. Jaishankar
(c) Mohan Bhagwat
(d) Pranab Mukherjee

 

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