1. The focal length of a concave lens is 0.5 m. The power of the lens is
(a) +0.5 D
(b) −0.5 D
(c) +2.0 D
(d) −2.0 D

2. The rule to determine the direction of a force experienced by a straight current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field which is perpendicular to it is
(a) Right-hand thumb rule
(b) Fleming’s left-hand rule
(c) Fleming’s right-hand rule
(d) Hund’s rule

3. One parsec in astronomical units (A.U.) is about
(a) 2 × 10³ A.U.
(b) 2 × 10⁴ A.U.
(c) 2 × 10⁵ A.U.
(d) 2 × 10⁶ A.U.

4. Which one of the following statements for second law of motion is NOT correct?
(a) The net force on a body is proportional to that body’s acceleration
(b) The net force on a body is in the same direction as the acceleration
(c) The time rate of change of momentum is equal to force
(d) The net force on a body is proportional to that body’s momentum

5. The temperature of a body increases from 310 K to 340 K. The temperature increase in degree Celsius is
(a) 20°C
(b) 30°C
(c) 37°C
(d) 67°C

6. Which one of the following statements for the work done by gravity on a body is NOT correct?
(a) Work done is independent of the path followed by the body
(b) Work done depends only on the vertical distance separating the initial and the final position of the body
(c) Work done depends on the path followed by the body
(d) Work done is zero if the body is displaced horizontally to the force of gravity

7. Which one among the following statements is correct?
(a) Pressure has magnitude as well as direction
(b) As we go deeper in a liquid, the pressure decreases
(c) Action and reaction forces act on the same object
(d) Pascal and N/m² represent the same unit

8. Which one of the following wavelength radiations may correspond to an X-ray?
(a) 1 nm
(b) 10 nm
(c) 100 nm
(d) 300 nm

9. In a Telescope, compared to the eyepiece lens the objective lens has
(a) larger focal length and larger aperture
(b) larger focal length and smaller aperture
(c) smaller focal length and larger aperture
(d) smaller focal length and smaller aperture

10. The energy, E, of a photon can be expressed as E = hf, where f is the frequency and h is Planck’s constant. The dimensions of h are the same as that of
(a) linear momentum
(b) angular momentum
(c) displacement
(d) torque

11. The work done by the force acting on an object is zero if the displacement of the object
(a) is in the opposite direction of the direction of force
(b) is in the same direction of the direction of force
(c) is in perpendicular direction of the direction of force
(d) none of above

12. The magnetic field inside a current carrying very long solenoid is
(a) Uniform
(b) Non-uniform
(c) Zero
(d) Highest at mid-point

13. Which one of the following instruments can be used to measure −250°C temperature?
(a) By using a mercury based thermometer
(b) By using an alcohol based thermometer
(c) By using a clinical thermometer
(d) By using thermocouple based thermometer

14. The quantity of heat needed to change unit mass of a substance from liquid to vapour without changing the temperature, is called
(a) specific heat
(b) specific latent heat
(c) thermal capacity
(d) heat energy

15. The temperature at which “vapour pressure of the liquid in an open vessel becomes equal to the atmospheric pressure” is called
(a) Melting point
(b) Boiling point
(c) Liquid point
(d) None of the above

16. Which one of the following statements about surface tension is correct?
(a) It increases when temperature increases
(b) It decreases when temperature increases
(c) It will remain same with increase or decrease of temperature
(d) It will always decrease with increase or decrease of temperature

17. A body sinks in water when
(a) density of water is greater than density of body
(b) density of water is less than density of body
(c) density of water is equal to density of body
(d) the body is heavy

18. Why a fielder in the ground gradually pulls his hands backward while catching a fast moving cricket ball?
(a) To reduce the acceleration of the ball
(b) To increase the acceleration of the ball
(c) To increase the velocity of the ball
(d) None of above

19. Bottom of a tank containing water appears to be raised. It is due to
(a) Reflection of light
(b) Refraction of light
(c) Interference of light
(d) Diffraction of light

20. SONAR stands for
(a) Sonographic Natural Ranging
(b) Simple Operational Navigation Ranging
(c) Sound Navigation and Ranging
(d) Simple Operational Natural Ranging

21. Which one of the following radiations has longer wavelength?
(a) X-rays
(b) Ultraviolet
(c) Micro Wave
(d) Infra-red

22. For a material under static conditions, which one among the following statements is correct?
(a) An insulator can be charged
(b) A perfect conductor can be charged
(c) Both perfect conductor and insulator can be charged
(d) Both perfect conductor and insulator cannot be charged

23. A person can see nearby objects clearly but cannot see distant object distinctly, the person is suffering with
(a) Hypermetropia
(b) Presbyopia
(c) Myopia
(d) None of above

24. The energy is always conserved for a system which is
(a) isolated only
(b) non-isolated only
(c) both isolated and non-isolated
(d) none of above

25. Suppose, a ball of mass M is thrown upwards from a point A and it reaches up to the highest point B and returns back to point A, which one among the following is correct?
(a) Kinetic Energy at A = Potential Energy at B
(b) Kinetic Energy at A = Potential Energy at A
(c) Kinetic Energy at B = Potential Energy at B
(d) Kinetic Energy at B = Kinetic Energy at A

26. Who among the following presided over the first session of All India Kisan Sabha in Lucknow in April 1936?
(a) Sahajananda Saraswati
(b) R. G. Ranga
(c) Ram Manohar Lohia
(d) Jayaprakash Narayan

27. Who among the following founded the ‘Self-Respect Movement’?
(a) Jyotiba Phule
(b) Swami Vivekananda
(c) E. V. Ramaswami Naicker
(d) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

28. Chola inscriptions mention several categories of lands. Which one of the following was meant for the maintenance of school?
(a) Tirunamattukkani
(b) Shalabhoga
(c) Vellanvagai
(d) Pallichchandam

29. Which of the following statements about the Home Rule League are correct?

1. Lokamanya Tilak set up the Home Rule League at the Bombay Provincial Conference held at Belgaum in April 1916
2. Annie Besant announced the formation of Home Rule League in September 1916
3. To avoid friction, Tilak’s League was to work in Maharashtra (excluding Bombay city), Karnataka, Central Provinces and Berar, and Besant’s League was given charge of the rest of India
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 1 and 3 only
   (c) 2 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

30. Which one of the following statements about Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar is NOT correct?
(a) He was the Principal of Sanskrit College, Calcutta
(b) He was a Government Inspector of Schools
(c) He was a Secretary to the Bethune School
(d) He was the founder of Widow Remarriage Association

31. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Reformer) List II (Social Work/Text)
A. Vishnu Shastri Pundit 1. Vedic Physics: Scientific Origin of Hinduism
B. Karsondas Mulji 2. Widow Remarriage Association
C. Debendranath Tagore 3. Satya Prakash
D. Raja Ram Mohan Roy 4. Tattvabodhini Sabha

Code:
(a) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
(b) A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2
(c) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(d) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

32. In the Harappan Civilisation, traces of canals have been found at
(a) Banawali
(b) Lothal
(c) Shortughai
(d) Dholavira

33. Arrange the following foreign travellers to India in chronological order, beginning with the earliest:

1. Peter Mundy
2. Antonio Monserrate
3. Afanasii Nikitich Nikitin
4. Ibn Battuta
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 2-1-4-3
   (b) 2-3-4-1
   (c) 4-3-2-1
   (d) 3-4-1-2

34. With which of the following was the Bretton Woods System NOT associated
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) Economic recovery after the Second World War
(c) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(d) Establishment of a monetary system based on floating exchange rate

35. Senguttuvan is the name of
(a) a Pandya ruler
(b) a Chera king
(c) a minister in Satavahana court
(d) the capital city of the Cheras

36. The Ramacharita, an example of dvyasrya-kavya, telling two stories simultaneously, was written by
(a) Subandhu
(b) Bhatti
(c) Sandhyakara
(d) Kamban

37. Which of the following Acts established the Board of Control to guide and control the work of the Court of Directors and the Government of India?
(a) Regulating Act of 1773
(b) Pitt’s India Act of 1784
(c) Charter Act of 1793
(d) Charter Act of 1813

38. Who among the following Sikh Gurus laid the foundation of the Khalsa Panth?
(a) Guru Nanak
(b) Guru Arjan
(c) Guru Hargobind
(d) Guru Gobind Singh

39. Which one among the following plans is also known as Mahalanobis Plan?
(a) First Five Year Plan
(b) Second Five Year Plan
(c) Third Five Year Plan
(d) Sixth Five Year Plan

40. Which of the following were the years of Annual Plans?
(a) 1956-1957
(b) 1966-1969
(c) 1975-1976
(d) 1992-1993

41. Consider the following statements about BRICS Summits:

1. The first BRICS Summit was held in Brazil
2. BRICS Summits were held in New Delhi on three occasions
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

42. Placing the earliest first, arrange the following international events in the chronological order:

1. Introduction of www (World Wide Web)
2. Advent of Inter-Continental Ballistic Missiles
3. Launch of first communication satellite
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 2-1-3
   (b) 1-2-3
   (c) 3-2-1
   (d) 2-3-1

43. Which of the following rights under the Constitution of India is/are Fundamental Right(s)?

1. Right to work
2. Right to privacy
3. Right to free and compulsory education in the age bracket of six to eighteen years
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 and 2
   (b) 2 and 3
   (c) 2 only
   (d) 3 only

44. Consider the following statements with regard to flags of International Organisations:

1. The flag of EU has a circle of gold stars on a white background
2. The Flag of the UN carries two pairs of olive tree branches
3. The ASEAN flag carries blue, red, white and yellow colours
   How many of the above statements is/are correct?
   (a) Nil
   (b) 1
   (c) 2
   (d) 3

45. Which one of the following committees is NOT associated with decentralisation of Panchayati Raj institutions in India?
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(b) Ashok Mehta Committee
(c) L. M. Singhvi Committee
(d) Abhijit Sen Committee

46. The reaction that occurs on passing carbon dioxide gas through lime water is
(a) CaCO₃ + H₂O + CO₂ → Ca(HCO₃)₂
(b) Ca(OH)₂ + CO₂ → CaCO₃ + H₂O
(c) CaO + CO₂ → CaCO₃
(d) CaCl₂ + H₂O + CO₂ → CaCO₃ + 2HCl

47. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) Water of crystallisation is the fixed number of water molecules present in one formula unit of a salt
(b) The molecular formula of Plaster of Paris is CaSO₄·2H₂O
(c) Washing soda is used for removing the permanent hardness of water
(d) The atmosphere of Venus is made up of thick white and yellow clouds of sulphuric acid

48. Which one of the following type of medicines is used for treating indigestion?
(a) Analgesic
(b) Antiseptic
(c) Antibiotic
(d) Antacid

49. Which one of the following is NOT present in cement?
(a) 2CaO·SiO₂
(b) 3CaO·SiO₂
(c) 4CaO·SiO₂
(d) 3CaO·Al₂O₃

50. Which one of the following is NOT a chemical change?
(a) Burning of coal
(b) Rusting of metal
(c) Melting of ice
(d) Reaction of acid with base

51. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) The interconversion of states of matter is a physical change
(b) During burning of a candle, both chemical and physical changes take place
(c) During a physical change, the chemical composition of molecules changes
(d) Rusting of iron is a chemical change

52. Which one of the following is NOT a heterogeneous mixture?
(a) Sulphur in carbon disulphide
(b) Mixture of sugar and salt crystals
(c) Sandy water
(d) Sulphur in water

53. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Element) List II (Atomicity)
A. Phosphorus 1. 2
B. Nitrogen 2. 1
C. Neon 3. 8
D. Sulphur 4. 4

Code:
(a) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
(b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(c) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(d) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

54. In the following redox reaction, which compound is acting as a reducing agent?
N₂H₄ + 2H₂O₂ → N₂ + 4H₂O
(a) H₂O₂
(b) N₂H₄
(c) N₂
(d) H₂O

55. Which one of the following is considered to be the purest source of water?
(a) River water
(b) Sea water
(c) Well water
(d) Rain water

56. Which one of the following salts is responsible for temporary hardness of water?
(a) Sulphates of calcium
(b) Chlorides of magnesium
(c) Bicarbonates of magnesium
(d) Sulphates of magnesium

57. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Reaction) List II (Type)
A. CaO (s) + H₂O (l) → Ca(OH)₂ (aq) 1. Single displacement
B. CaCO₃ (s) → CaO (s) + CO₂ (g) 2. Double displacement
C. Pb (s) + CuCl₂ (aq) → PbCl₂ (aq) + Cu (s) 3. Combination
D. Na₂SO₄ (aq) + BaCl₂ (aq) → BaSO₄ (s) + 2NaCl (aq) 4. Decomposition

Code:
(a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(b) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(c) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(d) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

58. Which one of the following is an endothermic reaction?
(a) CH₄ (g) + 2O₂ (g) → CO₂ (g) + 2H₂O (g)
(b) C₆H₁₂O₆ (aq) + 6O₂ (g) → 6CO₂ (g) + 6H₂O (l)
(c) N₂ (g) + 3H₂ (g) → 2NH₃ (g)
(d) 2Pb(NO₃)₂ (s) → 2PbO (s) + 4NO₂ (g) + O₂ (g)

59. Which one of the following is known as ‘water gas’?
(a) H₂O + CO₂
(b) NH₃
(c) H₂ + N₂
(d) CO + H₂

60. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
(a) Diamond is hard due to extended covalent bonding in it
(b) Fullerene is composed of five and six-membered rings
(c) Diamond is a good conductor of electricity
(d) Graphite is used as a lubricant

61. Arrange the following zones in ascending order in terms of their latitudinal extent on the Earth’s surface:

1. Equatorial zone
2. Mid latitude zone
3. Subarctic zone
4. Tropical zone
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1-3-2-4
   (b) 1-3-4-2
   (c) 1-4-2-3
   (d) 3-1-2-4

62. Consider the following statements with reference to Feldspar mineral:

1. Half of the earth’s crust is composed of feldspar
2. It has light cream to salmon pink colour
3. Magnesium is a common element in all types of feldspar
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 2 only
   (c) 2 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

63. Consider the following pairs with reference to sedimentary rocks and the process of their formation:

Sedimentary Rock Process of Formation

1. Chert Chemically formed
2. Geyserite Organically formed
3. Shale Mechanically formed

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

64. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Oceanic trenches are very significant in the study of plate movements
2. Oceanic trenches are associated with active volcanoes and strong earthquakes
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

65. Which of the following statements with reference to shadow zones in an event of an earthquake is/are correct?

1. Zone between 105° and 145° from epicentre was identified as the shadow zone for both P-waves and S-waves
2. The shadow zone of P-waves is much larger than that of the S-waves
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

66. Which one among the following volcanic island chains is NOT associated with mid-oceanic ridge?
(a) Azores Islands
(b) Ascension Islands
(c) Hawaiian Islands
(d) Tristan da Cunha

67. Consider the following statements with reference to sea waves:

1. The height of waves is determined by wind speed, wind duration and fetch
2. The energy of a wave is proportional to the square of its height
3. Waves retain most of their energy as they travel across the deep ocean
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 2 only
   (c) 2 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

68. Which of the following statements with reference to soil forming processes is/are correct?

1. Translocation, enrichment, removal and transformation are different classes of soil forming processes
2. In translocation, fine particles are transported downward by eluviation and accumulate in lower horizons by illuviation
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

69. Consider the following statements with reference to structure of the Earth’s atmosphere:

1. Thickness of the troposphere is greatest at the equator
2. The air temperature of the tropopause is highest above the poles
3. The temperature in troposphere decreases at the rate of 1°F for every 165 m of height
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 2 only
   (c) 2 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

70. Which of the following are the factors that cause variation in the amount of insolation on the Earth?

1. Rotation of the earth on its axis
2. Length of the day
3. Distribution of land and water on the earth
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 2 only
   (c) 2 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

71. Consider the following conditions favourable for the formation and intensification of Tropical Storms:

1. Presence of the Coriolis force
2. Upper divergence above the sea level system
3. High variations in the vertical wind speed
   Which of the conditions given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) 1 and 2
   (d) 2 and 3

72. Which of the following factors influence the ocean currents?

1. Coriolis force
2. Gravity
3. Heating by solar energy
4. Wind
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 and 4 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
   (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

73. Which of the following is/are warm ocean current(s)?

1. Alaska Current
2. Agulhas Current
3. Falkland Current
4. West Australian Current
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 2
   (c) 3 and 4
   (d) 4 only

74. State of Assam shares borders with how many other countries and Indian states respectively?
(a) 2 countries and 6 Indian states respectively
(b) 2 countries and 7 Indian states respectively
(c) 3 countries and 7 Indian states respectively
(d) 3 countries and 6 Indian states respectively

75. Which one of the following is the northernmost river basin of the Deccan Plateau?
(a) Chambal
(b) Mahi
(c) Narmada
(d) Tapti

76. Laterite soil in India is rich in which of the following?

1. Calcium
2. Nitrogen
3. Phosphate
4. Potash
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 1 and 2
   (c) 3 and 4
   (d) 4 only

77. Which of the following statements with reference to crops cultivated in India is/are correct?

1. Bajra grows well in sandy and shallow black soils, whereas red and shallow black soil is suited for Ragi
2. Bajra is predominantly grown in states like Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra, while Ragi is mainly cultivated in Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Himachal Pradesh
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

78. Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (City) List II (Mineral)
A. Bewar 1. Manganese
B. Balaghat 2. Mica
C. Bilaspur 3. Iron-ore
D. Ballary 4. Bauxite

Code:
(a) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(b) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(d) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

79. Which one among the following is NOT a beneficiary state from the Vindhyachal Power Plant of the NTPC?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Goa
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Uttar Pradesh

80. Consider the following pairs with reference to Thermal Power Plants and their location in respective states in India:

	Thermal Power Plant	Located in State
I.	Panki	Uttar Pradesh
II.	Parli	Karnataka
III.	Vijayawada	Telangana
IV.	Vanakbari	Gujarat

How many of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

81. The book ‘The Origin of Species by Means of Natural Selection’ was authored by
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) Carolus Linnaeus
(c) Barbara McClintock
(d) Copernicus

82. The headquarters of World Meteorological Organisation (WMO) is located at
(a) Switzerland
(b) Scotland
(c) South Africa
(d) Italy

83. The optimum pH at which the enzymes pepsin and trypsin of the human alimentary canal works are
(a) pH 2.0 and 7.9, respectively
(b) pH 4.5 and 3.5, respectively
(c) pH 9.5 and 4.5, respectively
(d) pH 7.0 and 8.0, respectively

84. The amount of air breathed in and out during a normal respiration by human lungs is referred to as
(a) Vital capacity
(b) Tidal volume
(c) Inspiratory volume
(d) Total lung capacity

85. Which one among the following statements about arteries and veins in humans is NOT correct?
(a) Arteries carry blood away from heart while veins bring blood towards the heart
(b) Pulmonary arteries always carry oxygenated blood while Pulmonary veins always carry deoxygenated blood
(c) Arteries have thicker and more elastic walls compared to veins in general
(d) Arteries do not have valves but veins do have valves

86. Identify the functions that are controlled by the hind brain of human being
(a) Involuntary actions such as blood pressure, salivation vomiting, etc.
(b) Controlling the regions receiving sensory impulses from receptors
(c) Controlling the movement of voluntary muscles
(d) Sensation of hunger or being full

87. Iodised salt is a vital part of our diet as it is essential for the synthesis of
(a) Estrogen
(b) Thyroxine
(c) Insulin
(d) Adrenalin

88. The menstrual cycle in females is controlled by hormones that are secreted by
(a) Ovary and lacrimal gland
(b) Ovary and sebaceous gland
(c) Ovary and pituitary gland
(d) Prostate and pituitary gland

89. Which one of the following blood cells type secrete large number of antibodies during an immune response of the body?
(a) Neutrophils
(b) Eosinophils
(c) Lymphocytes
(d) Monocytes

90. Which of the following organelles have their own DNA and ribosomes?
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi bodies
(b) Mitochondria and Chloroplast
(c) Endoplasmic reticulum and cytoskeleton
(d) Cell wall and nucleolus

91. What is the nickname of the National Men’s Hockey Team of Australia?
(a) The Kangaroos
(b) The Boomers
(c) The Dolphins
(d) The Kookaburras

92. Which one of the following organisations has completed 150 years of service to the nation in the year 2025?
(a) Botanical Survey of India
(b) Survey of India
(c) India Meteorological Department
(d) Press Trust of India

93. Which of the following statements about ‘Jalvahak’ is/are correct?

1. It is a newly commissioned naval ship inducted into Indian Navy
2. It is a major policy for cargo promotion unveiled by the Government of India
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

94. How many rural districts does Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act cover as on 2024-25?
(a) 600
(b) 740
(c) 700
(d) 680

95. Under which one of the following initiatives does the NITI Aayog support interested States to establish a State Institution for Transformation (SIT)?
(a) NITI for States Platform
(b) Bharat Ke Badhte Kadam
(c) State Support Mission
(d) Aspirational Block Programme

96. Which one of the following Indian States account for the maximum deposits of Bauxite and Chromite?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Jharkhand
(d) Odisha

97. Consider the following statements with regard to the National Technology Day:

1. It commemorates the momentous events of 11th May 1998, when India conducted successful nuclear tests under Operation Shakti
2. The official theme for the National Technology Day 2025 is ‘School to Startups – Igniting Young Minds to Innovate’
   Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
   (a) 1 only
   (b) 2 only
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2

98. Which of the following were added in India as Ramsar Site in the year 2025?

1. Sakkarakottai Bird Sanctuary
2. Udhwa Lake
3. Rudrasagar Lake
4. Bakhira Wildlife Sanctuary
   Select the answer using the code given below:
   (a) 1 and 4
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 1 and 2 only
   (d) 1, 2 and 3

99. Consider the following statements about Cricket player Virat Kohli:

1. He is the only captain to have scored seven double centuries in Test Cricket
2. He is the only Indian cricketer with most centuries as a captain
3. He is the first Indian captain to achieve twin centuries on captaincy debut
4. He holds the record for the most double centuries by an Indian in Test Cricket
   Which of the statements given above are correct?
   (a) 1 and 2 only
   (b) 2 and 3 only
   (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
   (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

100. Ethereum, Tether, Solana and Cardano are all forms of
(a) Crypto currency
(b) Artificial Intelligence (AI) Startups
(c) Humanoid Robots
(d) Medical apps

 

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