Railway-RRB NTPC 2025 CBT 2 Under Graduate Previous Year Question Paper and Answer Key Free PDF Download English-Sep 17, 2026-Shift 1
रेलवे भर्ती बोर्ड / RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARDS
सीईएन - 07/2025 - एनटीपीसी पूर्व-स्नातक स्तर - CEN - 07/2025 - NTPC UNDER GRADUATE LEVEL
RRB NTPC 2025 CBT-2 Under Graduate Level
Question Paper with Answer Key
Test Date: 17/09/2026 | Test Time: 9:30 AM - 11:00 AM
Note: Correct Answer carries 1 mark. Incorrect Answer carries 1/3 Negative mark. Options marked with ✓ (in green) are correct.
Section : General Awareness (Q.1 – Q.50)
Q.1 Which European trading company focused primarily on commercial dominance, particularly in the spice trade, and had its most significant presence in the Malabar region?
A. English East India Company
B. Danish East India Company
C. Dutch East India Company ✓
D. French East India Company
Correct Answer: C
Q.2 The Union Budget 2026–27 proposes the establishment of which new institution to strengthen mental healthcare in India?
A. AIIMS-2
B. National Trauma Institute
C. NITI Aayog Health Centre
D. NIMHANS-2 ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.3 After copying a spreadsheet cell with Ctrl + C and pasting it into multiple locations using Ctrl + V, which statement best describes the outcome?
A. The original cell is cleared after each successful paste operation
B. All destination cells remain dynamically linked to the original content
C. Each destination cell receives an identical copy of the original content ✓
D. Every pasted value is automatically converted into a formula reference
Correct Answer: C
Q.4 Which Constitutional Amendment Act conferred constitutional status on Municipalities In India?
A. 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1989
B. 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
C. 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002
D. 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.5 Which of the following commissions was appointed by the Central Government in 1983 to examine issues relating to Centre–State relations and recommended that the appointment of Governors should be strictly non-partisan?
A. Kothari Commission
B. Mandal Commission
C. Rajamannar Commission
D. Sarkaria Commission ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.6 What is the main focus of the Digital News Publishers Association (DNPA) Conclave 2026 being held in New Delhi?
A. Bringing together digital news organizations for discussion and collaboration ✓
B. Focusing on print book publishing industry updates
C. Announcing new state government media policy
D. Promoting sports broadcasting rights negotiations
Correct Answer: A
Q.7 In 2026, which international organisation began the process of selecting the 10th Secretary-General to succeed António Guterres?
A. World Economic Forum
B. United Nations ✓
C. International Court of Justice
D. Commonwealth Secretariat
Correct Answer: B
Q.8 Which tribal uprising was led by Sidhu and Kanhu in 1855–56?
A. Santhal Rebellion ✓
B. Kol Revolt
C. Ramosi Revolt
D. Bhil Revolt
Correct Answer: A
Q.9 In June 2026, DRDO carried out the maiden flight test of the NASM-MR. This missile is designed for which role?
A. Anti-tank guided strike
B. Anti-tank guided strike at medium range
C. Naval anti-ship strike at medium range ✓
D. Surface-to-air interception at short range
Correct Answer: C
Q.10 Which of the following best explains why the West Coastal Plains of India are characterised by numerous estuaries instead of extensive deltas?
A. Rivers are short, steep, and fast-flowing ✓
B. Rivers are long, slow, and meandering
C. Rivers flow across broad floodplains
D. Rivers carry abundant sediment deposits
Correct Answer: A
Q.11 Which of the following pairs of raw materials is most essential for the manufacture of iron and steel in India?
A. Bauxite and gypsum
B. Iron ore and coal ✓
C. Iron ore and manganese
D. Copper ore and gypsum
Correct Answer: B
Q.12 Which event provided the immediate impetus for the rise of Extremism in Indian politics?
A. First World War
B. Morley–Minto Reforms
C. Ilbert Bill Controversy
D. Partition of Bengal ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.13 Which statement best explains why household electrical appliances are connected in parallel rather than in series?
A. Each appliance receives the full supply voltage and operates independently. ✓
B. Parallel circuits reduce the supply voltage.
C. Current flows through only one appliance at a time.
D. Parallel circuits increase the resistance of every appliance.
Correct Answer: A
Q.14 In which landmark case did the Supreme Court propound the “Basic Structure Doctrine” regarding Constitutional amendments?
A. Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain
B. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
C. Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala ✓
D. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
Correct Answer: C
Q.15 Which gas is released when baking soda reacts with lemon juice or vinegar during cooking?
A. Carbon dioxide ✓
B. Hydrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen
Correct Answer: A
Q.16 The eight upright columns of squares on a chessboard are called ‘files’, so the eight lateral rows of squares are called:
A. Diagonals
B. Clocks
C. Ranks ✓
D. Castlings
Correct Answer: C
Q.17 In what way does the Chenab Bridge set a global benchmark in railway infrastructure?
A. By becoming the railway arch bridge with the longest steel span in the world
B. By becoming the longest railway arch bridge in Asia
C. By becoming the longest railway bridge built across a mountain valley
D. By becoming the highest railway arch bridge in the world ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.18 Which of the following best explains the administrative significance of the road network developed under Sher Shah Suri?
A. Kos minars housed couriers and functioned as revenue offices
B. Dak chowkis stored grain and functioned as market centres
C. Sarais provided lodging and functioned as dak chowkis ✓
D. Sarais collected taxes and functioned as military cantonments
Correct Answer: C
Q.19 Which feature best illustrates the planned urban layout of the Indus Valley Civilisation?
A. Buildings concentrated around large temple complexes
B. Settlements arranged around circular centres
C. Houses constructed along irregular winding pathways
D. Streets intersecting at right angles ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.20 Which organisation published the World Happiness Report 2026 in partnership with Gallup and the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network (UN SDSN)?
A. World Bank
B. Wellbeing Research Centre, University of Oxford ✓
C. World Economic Forum
D. Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development
Correct Answer: B
Q.21 Which mineral is primarily mined in Gua and Noamundi of the Singhbhum district of Jharkhand?
A. Bauxite ore
B. Manganese ore
C. Mica ore
D. Haematite iron ore ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.22 A patient shows impaired function of the kidney's filtering units. Which physiological process will be most directly affected?
A. Removal of nitrogenous wastes from blood ✓
B. Maintenance of body temperature through sweat production
C. Regulation of breathing rate during exercise
D. Transport of oxygen by red blood cells
Correct Answer: A
Q.23 Which Vedic assembly consisted mainly of elders and nobles?
A. Sabha ✓
B. Gana
C. Samiti
D. Vidatha
Correct Answer: A
Q.24 Which of the following correctly identifies a characteristic of intensive subsistence agriculture practiced in the monsoon regions of South, Southeast, and East Asia?
A. Large farms with extensive grazing and mechanisation
B. Vast plantations with export crops and hired labour
C. Small farms with intensive labour and multiple cropping ✓
D. Sparse farms with shifting cultivation and long fallows
Correct Answer: C
Q.25 What is the primary focus of the Samagra Shishu Bal Swasthya Karyakram (SSBSK) launched by the Government in 2026?
A. Providing free education for children
B. Delivering adolescent nutrition
C. Providing unified child healthcare from birth to 36 months ✓
D. Offering maternal health subsidies
Correct Answer: C
Q.26 Which feature best characterizes the planning of Harappan cities in ancient Indian architecture?
A. Monumental rock-cut caves for worship
B. Grid-like street layout with well-organized drainage ✓
C. Large temple complexes with elaborate carvings
D. Domed stupas for religious gatherings
Correct Answer: B
Q.27 The 224th Session of the UNESCO Executive Board, held during 8–23 April 2026, took place in:
A. Rome, Italy
B. Paris, France ✓
C. Brussels, Belgium
D. Madrid, Spain
Correct Answer: B
Q.28 Subjects such as Defence, Railways and Income Tax are placed under which List of the Constitution of India?
A. Residuary List
B. State List
C. Union List ✓
D. Concurrent List
Correct Answer: C
Q.29 Which of the following wildlife conservation initiatives was launched in 1973 to protect an apex predator in India?
A. Project Snow Leopard
B. Project Elephant
C. Project Tiger ✓
D. Project Crocodile
Correct Answer: C
Q.30 On 27 February 2026, the National Statistical Office (NSO) released a new series of GDP estimates, shifting the base year from 2011-12 to which new base year?
A. 2018-19
B. 2015-16
C. 2022-23 ✓
D. 2020-21
Correct Answer: C
Q.31 Which two countries participated in the 7th edition of Exercise Dharma Guardian held in 2026?
A. India and Australia
B. India and Japan ✓
C. Japan and Australia
D. India and France
Correct Answer: B
Q.32 Which trophy is awarded to the winner of the Women's Singles event at the Wimbledon tennis tournament?
A. Ryder Cup
B. Ashes Trophy
C. Venus Rosewater Dish ✓
D. Davis Cup
Correct Answer: C
Q.33 Which of the following is the primary objective of the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana – Urban (PMAY-U), launched in 2015?
A. To provide serviced residential plots to eligible urban households
B. To provide affordable rental houses to eligible urban households
C. To provide temporary shelters to eligible urban households
D. To provide pucca houses to eligible urban households ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.34 In 2024-25, the Ministry of Education reaffirmed the integration of cyber safety and digital well-being into school education through an existing national programme. Under which programme are two teachers per school trained as Health and Wellness Ambassadors to conduct structured weekly sessions on issues including cyber safety?
A. School Health & Wellness Programme (SHWP) ✓
B. PRAGYATA Guidelines for Digital Education
C. CBSE Cyber Safety Handbook
D. NCERT Handbook on Safe Online Learning
Correct Answer: A
Q.35 Which authority has the power to terminate or deprive a person of Indian citizenship under the Citizenship Act 1955?
A. Ministry of Home Affairs (Central Government) ✓
B. The President of India and the Council of Ministers
C. Parliament
D. Supreme Court of India
Correct Answer: A
Q.36 Delhi (Right of Citizen to Time-Bound and Ease of Delivery of Services) Bill, 2026 replaces which earlier legislation?
A. Delhi Right of Citizen to Time Bound Delivery of Services Act, 2006
B. Delhi Right of Citizen to Time Bound Delivery of Services Act, 2011 ✓
C. Delhi Right of Citizen to Time Bound Delivery of Services Act, 2001
D. Delhi Right of Citizen to Time Bound Delivery of Services Act, 2019
Correct Answer: B
Q.37 Hydrogen and oxygen combine to form water. Which law states that water always contains hydrogen and oxygen in a fixed ratio by mass?
A. Law of Constant Proportions ✓
B. Boyle's Law
C. Law of Multiple Proportions
D. Avogadro's Law
Correct Answer: A
Q.38 Why was the dual-cutoff approach of the Alkire-Foster methodology selected for India's national Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI)?
A. It uses one common deprivation threshold for all indicators
B. It emphasizes only rural dimensions of multidimensional poverty
C. It combines global comparability with India's development priorities ✓
D. It measures only income-based forms of household deprivation
Correct Answer: C
Q.39 The ICC Champions Trophy is organized in what cyclical format?
A. Every 6 years
B. Every 2 years
C. Every 5 years
D. Every 4 years ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.40 Which law has often been discussed in relation to exemptions under the Right to Information Act, 2005?
A. Competition Act, 2002
B. Indian Evidence Act, 1872
C. Representation of the People Act, 1951
D. Official Secrets Act, 1923 ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.41 An organization connects computers within a single office building to share files, printers, and other resources through a privately managed network. Which type of network is most appropriate for this setup?
A. Personal Area Network (PAN)
B. Wide Area Network (WAN)
C. Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)
D. Local Area Network (LAN) ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.42 What was India's global rank in Renewable Energy Installed Capacity, according to the Renewable Energy Statistics 2026?
A. Fifth
B. Second
C. Third ✓
D. Fourth
Correct Answer: C
Q.43 Which Article of the Indian Constitution protects a person from being punished more than once for the same offence?
A. Article 20 ✓
B. Article 18
C. Article 19
D. Article 21
Correct Answer: A
Q.44 Which of the following is NOT a ground for removal of the UPSC Chairman or member?
A. Insolvency
B. Acceptance of foreign award ✓
C. Paid employment outside official duties
D. Infirmity of mind or body
Correct Answer: B
Q.45 Which abbreviation stands for a character encoding standard used in computers?
A. LAN
B. ASCII ✓
C. RAM
D. CD
Correct Answer: B
Q.46 Which of the following best explains why the Kosi River frequently changes its course across the plains of Bihar despite being a perennial Himalayan river?
A. It originates from the Western Ghats region
B. It deposits heavy sediments, blocking its channel ✓
C. It receives limited rainfall in its basin
D. It flows through hard rocks, reducing erosion
Correct Answer: B
Q.47 Which Constitutional Amendment reduced the voting age for elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies?
A. 44th Constitutional Amendment Act
B. 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act
C. 61st Constitutional Amendment Act ✓
D. 74th Constitutional Amendment Act
Correct Answer: C
Q.48 Which significant change related to women's safety did the new Labour Codes bring when implemented in November 2025?
A. Women prohibited from industrial employment
B. Night-shift permission with safeguards ✓
C. Women exempted from maternity benefits
D. Women required to retire earlier
Correct Answer: B
Q.49 The Tribal Sub-Plan (TSP), formulated as a strategy for the socio-economic development of Scheduled Tribes, primarily seeks to achieve which of the following objectives?
A. Promote private investment and increase commercial activities in tribal-dominated regions
B. Strengthen urban infrastructure and expand municipal services in identified tribal settlements and increase commercial activities in tribal regions
C. Improve industrial growth and expand transport infrastructure across notified tribal areas
D. Bridge the developmental gap between Scheduled Tribes and the rest of the population through inclusive development ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.50 In Sangam literature, which of the following themes is primarily associated with the concept of 'Puram'?
A. War, valor, and public life ✓
B. Love and personal emotions
C. Trade and commerce
D. Religious rituals and sacrifices
Correct Answer: A
Section : Mathematics (Q.51 – Q.85)
Q.51 A shopkeeper purchases 20 identical items for ₹400. To make a profit of 25%, how many items should he sell for ₹400, if the selling price is uniform for all items?
A. 20
B. 16 ✓
C. 15
D. 18
Correct Answer: B
Q.52 Lines AB and CD are parallel, with A and C to the left of the transversal XY, and B and D to the right. The transversal intersects AB at M and CD at N, where X, M, N, and Y are collinear in that order. If measure of ∠XMA=125°, then the measure of ∠CNY is:
A. 52°
B. 58°
C. 55° ✓
D. 50°
Correct Answer: C
Q.53 The LCM of the numbers 3, 77 and 33 is:
A. 242
B. 231 ✓
C. 77
D. 462
Correct Answer: B
Q.54 ₹620 amounts to ₹910 at a certain rate of simple interest in 2 years. Find the interest (in ₹) for the given 2 years.
A. 290 ✓
B. 300
C. 285
D. 305
Correct Answer: A
Q.55 A sum of money is divided among A, B, and C so that A gets twice as much as B and B gets three times as much as C. If the total sum is ₹720, how much does C get?
A. ₹60
B. ₹96
C. ₹72 ✓
D. ₹84
Correct Answer: C
Q.56 In a division sum, the divisor is 3 times the quotient and 8 times the remainder. If the remainder is 12, what is the dividend?
A. 3048
B. 3084 ✓
C. 3072
D. 3066
Correct Answer: B
Q.57 Consider the data set: 4, 8, 6, 5, 3, 9. Find the variance.
A. 151/36
B. 161/35
C. 161/36 ✓
D. 151/35
Correct Answer: C
Q.58 A shopkeeper expects a gain of 40% on his cost price. If in a week, his sale proceeds were ₹3,955, what was his profit (in ₹)?
A. 1,130 ✓
B. 1,133
C. 1,129
D. 1,132
Correct Answer: A
Q.59 Find the area of a square, which has twice the area of a triangle whose base length is 23 cm and corresponding height is 12 cm.
A. 256 cm²
B. 204 cm²
C. 218 cm²
D. 276 cm² ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.60 If 5 sin y + cos y = √13 sin y, find the value of tan y.
A. (-6 - √13)/12
B. (-5 - √13)/17
C. (-5 - √13)/12 ✓
D. (-5 - √13)/22
Correct Answer: C
Q.61 Find fourth proportional to 20.5, 21.5 and 22.5
A. 20.5
B. 22
C. 24
D. 23.5 ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.62 Evaluate: (-37) + (-56) + (-3) × 3
A. 21
B. 15
C. 19 ✓
D. 17
Correct Answer: C
Q.63 7% of a number is what percentage of the 9% of the same number? (Rounded off to two decimal places.)
A. 43.75%
B. 21.87%
C. 78.57%
D. 77.78% ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.64 Find the total number of prime factors of the number 5⁸ × 6⁷ × 11⁴
A. 26 ✓
B. 22
C. 28
D. 30
Correct Answer: A
Q.65 If 25% of A is equal to 40% of B, and 30% of B is equal to 45% of C, then A:B:C is:
A. 8:5:3
B. 12:9:7
C. 24:14:9
D. 24:15:10 ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.66 If the average of three numbers is 15 and two of the numbers are 10 and 20, what is the third number?
A. 10
B. 15 ✓
C. 20
D. 25
Correct Answer: B
Q.67 A water tank is of cuboidal shape having length 15 m and breadth 12 m. The sum of the area of the floor and ceiling of the tank is same as the area of four walls of the tank. How many liters of rainwater can be collected in this tank?
A. 1000 × 10² liters
B. 1200 × 10² liters
C. 1200 litres
D. 1200 × 10³ liters ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.68 A, B and C together can complete a certain work in 37 days. B and C together can complete the same work in 74 days. B is 50% more efficient than A. A, B and C work together for 28 days. B alone will complete the remaining work in:
A. 9 days
B. 13 days
C. 12 days ✓
D. 14 days
Correct Answer: C
Q.69 Evaluate: 11 – 12 ÷ 12 × 8
A. 3 ✓
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Correct Answer: A
Q.70 A cyclist travels the first 30 km at 20 km/h, the next 50 km at 25 km/h, and the final 20 km at 10 km/h. What is the cyclist's average speed for the entire 100 km trip (round off to the nearest integer)?
A. 18 km/h ✓
B. 20 km/h
C. 19 km/h
D. 21 km/h
Correct Answer: A
Q.71 If 5 workers, working 8 hours a day for 12 days, produce 2400 units, then how many units will 10 workers, working 8 hours a day for 12 days, produce, assuming the productivity of each worker remains constant?
A. 3600 units
B. 4800 units ✓
C. 6000 units
D. 2400 units
Correct Answer: B
Q.72 Krish has ₹1,352, which he divides between his two sons, Veer and Nitin. Both invest their respective amounts at an annual compound interest rate of 8%. If the amounts accumulated by Veer after 18 years and by Nitin after 19 years are equal, how much money (in ₹) did Krish give to Nitin?
A. 702
B. 802
C. 500
D. 650 ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.73 The monthly incomes of two friends Mohan and David are in the ratio 6 : 8, respectively and each of them saves ₹51,000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly expenditure is 2 : 4, find the monthly income of Mohan (in ₹).
A. 76,500 ✓
B. 77,500
C. 1,07,100
D. 75,500
Correct Answer: A
Q.74 A gun is fired at a distance of 1.45 km from a place. The sound was heard after 5 seconds. The speed (m/s) at which sound travels is?
A. 290 m/s ✓
B. 145 m/s
C. 240 m/s
D. 300 m/s
Correct Answer: A
Q.75 A laptop is marked at ₹45,000. A shopkeeper offers a discount of 25% on the marked price. After the discount, the laptop is sold with an additional 10% tax on the selling price. What is the final price of the laptop after the discount and tax?
A. ₹33,750
B. ₹37,125 ✓
C. ₹37,500
D. ₹34,650
Correct Answer: B
Q.76 A shopkeeper professes to sell his goods at a 5% loss but uses a false balance and gains 40%. The actual weight (rounded off to one decimal place) he uses for 1 kg is:
A. 675.3 gm
B. 680.9 gm
C. 678.6 gm ✓
D. 682.8 gm
Correct Answer: C
Q.77 How many spherical lead shots of radius 3 cm can be made out of a solid cuboid of lead having dimensions 54 cm × 44 cm × 30 cm? (Take π = 22/7)
A. 620
B. 640
C. 630 ✓
D. 600
Correct Answer: C
Q.78 Arrange the ratios in the ascending order: 6:7, 11:12, 21:23, 31:35, 43:45.
A. 6:7, 31:35, 21:23, 11:12, 43:45 ✓
B. 6:7, 31:35, 11:12, 21:23, 43:45
C. 6:7, 31:35, 11:12, 43:45, 21:23
D. 6:7, 11:12, 21:23, 31:35, 43:45
Correct Answer: A
Q.79 Find the total surface area of a hemispherical bowl whose volume is 7π/3 m³. (Take π=22/7 if needed, but match options)
A. 21.195 m² ✓
B. 18.125 m²
C. 28.365 m²
D. 35.125 m²
Correct Answer: A
Q.80 A student's marks were incorrectly entered as 68 instead of 59. Due to this, the average marks of the class got increase by 1.8. What is the number of students in the class?
A. 7
B. 4
C. 6
D. 5 ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.81 A stationery shop sells notebooks and pens. Suppose 5 notebooks and 3 pens cost ₹146, whereas 7 notebooks and 2 pens cost ₹178. If a student buys 4 notebooks and 6 pens, how much will the student pay?
A. ₹176
B. ₹160 ✓
C. ₹168
D. ₹154
Correct Answer: B
Q.82 In a circular race of 2025 m, Kushal and Yamini start from the same point and at the same time with speeds of 33 km/h and 36 km/h, respectively. After how long will they meet again for the first time on the track when they are running in the same direction?
A. 2426 seconds
B. 2430 seconds ✓
C. 2438 seconds
D. 2434 seconds
Correct Answer: B
Q.83 A team of 24 workers is assigned to finish a task in 15 days. After working for 1 day, 8 workers quit. Assuming all workers are equally efficient, how many additional days will the remaining workers need to complete the rest of the task?
A. 25 days
B. 21 days ✓
C. 18 days
D. 28 days
Correct Answer: B
Q.84 The mean of a data is 41 and its median is 50. The mode (using empirical relation) of the data is:
A. 91
B. 68 ✓
C. 150
D. 156
Correct Answer: B
Q.85 A and B complete a piece of work in 24 days. If A alone can complete it in 60 days, then in how many days can B alone complete one-fourth of the same work?
A. 12
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10 ✓
Correct Answer: D
Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning (Q.86 – Q.120)
Q.86 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 74 75 67 94 30 ?
A. 155 ✓
B. 264
C. 246
D. 165
Correct Answer: A
Q.87 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (Note: The odd man out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A. SX - UA
B. JP - LS
C. MI - OL
D. TC - VE ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.88 Sumit starts from Point A and drives 28 km towards East. He then takes a left turn, drives 25 km, turns left and drives 29 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 27 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 1 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
A. 1 km to the West
B. 4 km to the South
C. 3 km to the East
D. 2 km to the North ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.89 If 'P' stands for '×', 'Q' stands for '÷', 'R' stands for '–' and 'S' stands for '+', what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 12 P 9 S (98 Q 7) P 3 R 25 = ?
A. 133
B. 142
C. 198
D. 125 ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.90 Refer to the following letter and symbol series and answer the question that follows. (Left) M K * J & H ^ G % F $ D # $ @ S ! Z + ? N (Right) If all the letters are dropped from the series, which of the following will be ninth from the right?
A. & ✓
B. %
C. @
D. #
Correct Answer: A
Q.91 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a straight line, facing north. Only two people are sitting to the left of C. Only four people are sitting between F and E. B is sitting second to the right of C. B is not an immediate neighbour of A. D is sitting to the immediate right of C. F is sitting to the immediate right of A. How many people are sitting between A and D?
A. Two ✓
B. None
C. One
D. Three
Correct Answer: A
Q.92 If 'A' stands for '÷', 'B' stands for '×', 'C' stands for '+' and 'D' stands for '–', what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 67 C 3 B 19 C (84 A 2) D 6 = ?
A. 172
B. 154
C. 160 ✓
D. 173
Correct Answer: C
Q.93 Below are given two sets of numbers. In each set of numbers, a certain mathematical operation on first number results in the second number. Similarly, certain mathematical operation on second number results in the third number and so on. Which of the given options follows the same set of operations as in question? (NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits.) 3 – 9 – 27 – 32 ; 4 – 16 – 48 – 53
A. 7 – 49 – 98 – 145
B. 5 – 25 – 75 – 80 ✓
C. 8 – 64 – 128 – 150
D. 6 – 36 – 72 – 80
Correct Answer: B
Q.94 Select the pair which follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given below. Both pairs follow the same pattern. LIF : HEB WUH : SQD
A. HRP : DOL
B. JLG : EGC
C. KOT : GKQ
D. TQV : PMR ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.95 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? WOG 147, BKB 163, GGW 179, LCR 195, QYM 211, ?
A. WWG 225
B. VWG 225
C. UTF 227
D. VUH 227 ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.96 In a certain code language, 'A + B' means 'A is the mother of B', 'A – B' means 'A is the brother of B', 'A × B' means 'A is the wife of B' and 'A ÷ B' means 'A is the father of B'. How is A related to D if 'A + B – C × D'?
A. Brother
B. Wife's father ✓
C. Mother's brother
D. Wife's mother
Correct Answer: B
Q.97 Lalit starts from Point A and drives 75 km towards north. He then takes a left turn, drives 80 km, turns left and drives 85 km. He then takes a left turn and drives 89 km. He takes a final left turn, drives 10 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90-degree turns only unless specified.)
A. 11 km to the east
B. 10 km to the west
C. 9 km to the west ✓
D. 8 km to the west
Correct Answer: C
Q.98 In a certain code language, 'CROW' is coded as '9863' and 'WORK' is coded as '3289'. What is the code for 'K' in the given code language?
A. 2 ✓
B. 3
C. 9
D. 8
Correct Answer: A
Q.99 Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question. Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single-digit numbers. (Left) * £ 8 € @ 1 8 8 @ & 1 1 1 7 * 4 7 2 8 $ 8 & (Right) How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a number?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 1
D. 2 ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.100 What should come in place of ? in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? XGO FOW NWE VEM ?
A. DMY
B. DMU ✓
C. DUM
D. DNI
Correct Answer: B
Q.101 What should come in place of ? in the given series based on the English alphabetical order? EKP GMR IOT KQV ?
A. MSX ✓
B. MRX
C. MRY
D. MSY
Correct Answer: A
Q.102 In this question, a question is followed by two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Question: Among 5 poles, F, I, S, C and L each having a different height, which pole is the shortest? Statements: (I) S is taller than only two poles. F is shorter than S and I is shorter than F. (II) C is taller than L.
A. Data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I is not
B. Data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II is not ✓
C. Both statements I and II together (and not statement I alone or statement II alone) are sufficient to answer the question.
D. Both statements I and II together are NOT sufficient to answer the question
Correct Answer: B
Q.103 Each vowel in the word IGNITION is changed to the letter immediately preceding it in the English alphabetical order AND each consonant is changed to the letter immediately following it in the English alphabetical order. Which of the following letters will appear more than twice in the group of letters thus formed?
A. Z
B. H ✓
C. U
D. O
Correct Answer: B
Q.104 Each vowel in the word FANTAIL is changed to the letter immediately following it in the English alphabetical order and each consonant is changed to the letter immediately preceding it in the English alphabetical order. How many letters will appear exactly twice in the group of letters thus formed?
A. Three
B. One ✓
C. Zero
D. Two
Correct Answer: B
Q.105 A × Y means "A is the Mother of Y". A – Y means "A is the Daughter of Y". A $ Y means "A is the Father of Y". A @ Y means "A is the Husband of Y". If 'B @ Z – E $ Q', how is B related to Q?
A. Brother's wife
B. Son's wife
C. Sister's husband ✓
D. Father's sister
Correct Answer: C
Q.106 In a certain code language, 'AIDS' is coded as '7192' and 'DASH' is coded as '9215'. What is the code for 'H' in the given code language?
A. 9
B. 1
C. 2
D. 5 ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.107 Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other, but not necessarily in the same order. G is kept third from the bottom. Only two boxes are kept between G and C. Only F is kept below B. E is kept immediately below A. Which box is fourth from the top?
A. B
B. E ✓
C. A
D. F
Correct Answer: B
Q.108 VZNT is related to UYMS in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, RJKS is related to QJIR. To which of the given options is AFLM related, following the same logic?
A. BGMN
B. ZGML
C. ZEKL ✓
D. YDJK
Correct Answer: C
Q.109 In a certain code language, 'CADS' is coded as '4689' and 'DASH' is coded as '6985'. What is the code for 'H' in the given code language?
A. 9
B. 8
C. 5 ✓
D. 6
Correct Answer: C
Q.110 Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question. (Counting to be done from left to right only. All numbers are single digit number only.). (Left) ? / & @ 9 # @ % * ^ $ % * < & 5 5 2 > 3 (Right) How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by a symbol?
A. Three
B. One ✓
C. None
D. Two
Correct Answer: B
Q.111 If 'I' stands for '÷', 'J' stands for '×', 'K' stands for '+', and 'L' stands for '–', what will come in place of the question mark '?' in the following equation? 198 L 89 I (72 K 2) L 3 J 4 = ?
A. 133 ✓
B. 130
C. 142
D. 129
Correct Answer: A
Q.112 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 12 13 15 19 27 ?
A. 44
B. 45
C. 43 ✓
D. 42
Correct Answer: C
Q.113 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series? 25 44 39 58 53 ?
A. 72 ✓
B. 58
C. 82
D. 77
Correct Answer: A
Q.114 In a certain code language, 'CROW' is coded as '7513' and 'WORM' is coded as '7613'. What is the code for 'M' in the given code language?
A. 6 ✓
B. 1
C. 3
D. 7
Correct Answer: A
Q.115 In this question, a question is followed by two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Q. Among 5 sticks, E, J, N, C and K, each having a different height, which stick is the shortest? Statement: (I) K is taller than C. Statement: (II) Only one stick is shorter than E. E is shorter than C but taller than J.
A. Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I is not ✓
B. Both statements I and II together are NOT sufficient to answer the question
C. Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II is not
D. Both statements I and II together (and not statement I alone or statement II alone) are sufficient to answer the question
Correct Answer: A
Q.116 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (Note: The odd man out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
A. GJ – FI
B. JK – IJ
C. KD – HB ✓
D. CA – BZ
Correct Answer: C
Q.117 Seven boxes, L, M, N, D, E, F and G, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. Only two boxes are kept below F. M is kept third from the top. D is kept immediately above L. E is kept at some place below N but at some place above G. L is kept immediately above M. Which box is kept second from the bottom?
A. G
B. D
C. N
D. E ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.118 6 is related to 32 following a certain logic. Following the same logic, 2 is related to 12. To which of the following is 9 related, following the same logic? (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into its constituent digits.)
A. 49
B. 52
C. 45
D. 47 ✓
Correct Answer: D
Q.119 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table facing the Center. G is sitting second to the left of A. A is sitting third to the left of F. G is sitting to the immediate right of E. B is sitting to the immediate left of D. What is the position of F with respect to E?
A. Second to the right
B. Immediate right
C. Immediate left ✓
D. Second to the left
Correct Answer: C
Q.120 In a certain code language, 'PACE' is coded as '8471' and 'CAMP' is coded as '7412'. What is the code for 'M' in the given code language?
A. 1
B. 2 ✓
C. 7
D. 4
Correct Answer: B
Quick Answer Key Summary
Q1:C Q2:D Q3:C Q4:D Q5:D Q6:A Q7:B Q8:A Q9:C Q10:A Q11:B Q12:D Q13:A Q14:C Q15:A Q16:C Q17:D Q18:C Q19:D Q20:B Q21:D Q22:A Q23:A Q24:C Q25:C Q26:B Q27:B Q28:C Q29:C Q30:C Q31:B Q32:C Q33:D Q34:A Q35:A Q36:B Q37:A Q38:C Q39:D Q40:D Q41:D Q42:C Q43:A Q44:B Q45:B Q46:B Q47:C Q48:B Q49:D Q50:A Q51:B Q52:C Q53:B Q54:A Q55:C Q56:B Q57:C Q58:A Q59:D Q60:C Q61:D Q62:C Q63:D Q64:A Q65:D Q66:B Q67:D Q68:C Q69:A Q70:A Q71:B Q72:D Q73:A Q74:A Q75:B Q76:C Q77:C Q78:A Q79:A Q80:D Q81:B Q82:B Q83:B Q84:B Q85:D Q86:A Q87:D Q88:D Q89:D Q90:A Q91:A Q92:C Q93:B Q94:D Q95:D Q96:B Q97:C Q98:A Q99:D Q100:B Q101:A Q102:B Q103:B Q104:B Q105:C Q106:D Q107:B Q108:C Q109:C Q110:B Q111:A Q112:C Q113:A Q114:A Q115:A Q116:C Q117:D Q118:D Q119:C Q120:B
— End of Question Paper with Answer Key —
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