RRB-Railway- Ministerial & Isolated Categories 2024 TGT-PGT Previous Year Question Paper and Answer Key Free PDF Download English-Shift 2
RAILWAY RECRUITMENT BOARD
CEN 07/2024 – Ministerial & Isolated Categories
ALL POST GRADUATE TEACHERS (PGTs) and TRAINED GRADUATE TEACHERS (TGTs)
Test Date: 10/09/2025 | Time: 12:45 PM – 2:15 PM | Shift-2
Note: Correct answers are shown in bold . Each question carries 1 mark. 1/3 negative marking for incorrect answers.
Section : Professional Ability
Q.1 Which of the following is NOT a feature of Evaluation?
Ans
A. More quantitative in approach
B. Less purposive and less aggregative
C. Always with reference to point of time
D. Always with reference to stated criteria
Q.2 Which role of the state in education helps promote equality among all social groups?
Ans
A. Providing free and compulsory education
B. Organising sports events
C. Conducting school inspections
D. Celebrating cultural festivals
Q.3 Which of the following can empower a generation by creating social consciousness that transcends differences of caste, creed, and religion?
Ans
A. Tradition
B. Modernity
C. Co-operation
D. Education
Q.4 Which type of evaluation is done during the learning process to provide feedback?
Ans
A. Diagnostic evaluation
B. Predictive evaluation
C. Formative evaluation
D. Summative evaluation
Q.5 In educational institutions, freedom is often seen as which of the following?
Ans
A. An antithesis of discipline
B. A type of punishment
C. The same as discipline
D. Irrelevant to student behaviour
Q.6 In sociology and psychology, ____________ reflects a person’s overall subjective emotional evaluation of his or her own worth.
Ans
A. self-sufficiency
B. self-support
C. self-reliance
D. self-esteem
Q.7 Which concept refers to education’s role in transmitting society’s culture and values to the next generation?
Ans
A. Social control
B. Social mobility
C. Social change
D. Socialisation
Q.8 Which of the following is NOT a group learning technique?
Ans
A. Lecture method
B. Seminar
C. Tutorial
D. Role play
Q.9 Which of the following is an advantage of Group-Controlled Instruction?
Ans
A. Encourages individual competition
B. Relies solely on teacher-led lectures
C. Promotes peer collaboration and shared responsibility
D. Limits student interaction
Q.10 Which evaluation method uses tests and exams to assess student learning at the end of a course?
Ans
A. Summative evaluation
B. Continuous evaluation
C. Formative evaluation
D. Diagnostic evaluation
Q.11 The relationship between community and education should be based on:
Ans
A. cooperation and mutual understanding
B. total independence from each other
C. subordination of teachers to the community
D. strict control of education by administrators only
Q.12 Motivation can be defined as:
Ans
A. The ability to quickly memorise and recall information
B. The environment and conditions in which learning takes place
C. A reward that is given after completing a certain task
D. A mental and physiological state that arouses action to meet a need
Q.13 Which of the following is a desirable behaviour in the skill of introducing?
Ans
A. Lacking continuity
B. Ignoring students’ prior understanding
C. Making irrelevant statements
D. Using previous knowledge
Q.14 Who defined education as “Education is the creation of a sound mind in a sound body. It develops man’s faculty, especially his mind so that he may be able to enjoy the contemplation of supreme truth, goodness and beauty of which perfect happiness essentially consists of.”?
Ans
A. Socrates
B. JS Mill
C. Plato
D. Aristotle
Q.15 The most important attribute of a teacher to be an effective _________ is his/her sensitivity in identifying students with problems.
Ans
A. dictator
B. instructor
C. counsellor
D. follower
Q.16 Which ethical theory emphasises that the morality of an action is determined solely by its adherence to duty, regardless of consequences?
Ans
A. Virtue ethics
B. Pragmatism
C. Utilitarianism
D. Deontology
Q.17 The word 'democracy' comes from the Greek word ‘Demokratia’, where:
Ans
A. ‘demos’ means government and ‘kratia’ means freedom
B. ‘demos’ means equality and ‘kratia’ means justice
C. ‘demos’ means rule and ‘kratia’ means people
D. ‘demos’ means people and ‘kratia’ means rule
Q.18 How many cells are there in Guilford’s full Structure of Intellect model?
Ans
A. 180, because it has 6 operations × 5 contents × 6 products
B. 120, because it has 5 operations × 4 contents × 6 products
C. 200, because it has 10 operations × 5 contents × 4 products
D. 36, because it has 6 operations × 6 contents
Q.19 The system approach in education primarily focuses on:
Ans
A. teaching students without planning
B. coordinating all aspects of a problem towards specific objectives
C. reducing education to only curriculum and evaluation
D. using one specific teaching method for all objectives
Q.20 Social adjustment primarily involves:
Ans
A. reacting to demands and pressures of the social environment
B. following government rules blindly
C. ignoring societal norms
D. focusing only on personal interests
Q.21 The input-process-output model in curriculum transaction primarily serves to:
Ans
A. focus solely on extracurricular activities
B. evaluate student behaviour only
C. replace the teacher in instruction
D. guide the overall teaching-learning process
Q.22 In what way is Educational Psychology a natural science?
Ans
A. It conducts investigations, gathers data and reaches conclusions like physicists or biologists.
B. It studies human behaviour without observation.
C. It only studies social norms and ethics.
D. It deals exclusively with theoretical concepts.
Q.23 Which philosophical school of thought in education emphasises learning through real- life experiences and problem-solving?
Ans
A. Idealism
B. Pragmatism
C. Perennialism
D. Realism
Q.24 Which of the following is a measure of consistency, indicating that an examination produces the same results under similar conditions?
Ans
A. Practicability
B. Reliability
C. Fairness
D. Validity
Q.25 Which of the following best explains intrinsic motivation in the context of educational psychology?
Ans
A. Motivation based on fear of punishment or failure
B. Motivation arising from internal satisfaction and interest in the task
C. Motivation resulting from peer pressure and competition
D. Motivation driven by external rewards like grades and praise
Q.26 Tolerance is primarily about:
Ans
A. avoiding conflict at any cost
B. relating to different groups respectfully and understandingly
C. following only one group’s beliefs
D. ignoring other groups completely
Q.27 When many cultures co-exist in a given geographical area, without one dominating the other, it is called:
Ans
A. Cultural Exclusion
B. Cultural Conflict
C. Cultural Inclusion
D. Cultural Pluralism
Q.28 In _________, the knowledge of the Self is considered the ultimate aim of life.
Ans
A. British Philosophy
B. Buddhist Philosophy
C. Islamic Traditions
D. the Upanishads
Q.29 Who believed that education should be aimed not merely at developing the intellect but the complete personality of the child?
Ans
A. Aurobindo
B. Rabindranath Tagore
C. Mahatma Gandhi
D. Krishnamurtthi
Q.30 The Asian Institute for Teacher Educators has defined _______ as 'specifically those activities of teaching that are especially effective in bringing about desired changes in students'.
Ans
A. teaching attitude
B. teacher character
C. teaching skills
D. teacher behaviour
Q.31 The primary focus of educational psychology is:
Ans
A. teaching methods only
B. human behaviour in all contexts
C. human behaviour specifically in the educational context
D. philosophical theories of education
Q.32 Which type of planning involves organising and sequencing all the units or chapters in a course?
Ans
A. Unit Planning
B. Microteaching
C. Course Planning
D. Lesson Planning
Q.33 Who is known for the theory of multiple intelligences?
Ans
A. BF Skinner
B. Howard Gardner
C. Jean Piaget
D. Sigmund Freud
Q.34 Who is considered a fundamental and national human resource essential for the development of society and nation?
Ans
A. Teacher
B. Politician
C. Student
D. Parent
Q.35 Which form of equality ensures that every child has access to schooling without discrimination?
Ans
A. Economic equality
B. Political equality
C. Social equality
D. Educational equality
Q.36 According to the National Policy on Education (1986, modified 1992), which approach should teachers adopt to promote integration in a pluralistic society?
Ans
A. Encourage critical appreciation of India’s composite culture
B. Prioritise regional identity over national identity
C. Limit discussions on cultural diversity to history classes
D. Focus on uniformity in cultural expression
Q.37 In Spearman’s two-factor theory, the s-factor refers to:
Ans
A. social skills required for group performance
B. the general intelligence shared by all individuals
C. skills related to sensory perception only
D. the specific abilities that allow a person to excel in particular domains
Q.38 According to Platonic idealism, what is our material world considered to be?
Ans
A. A temporary shadow of a perfect realm of forms and ideas
B. Identical to the spiritual world
C. A realm more important than the spiritual world
D. The ultimate and unchanging truth
Q.39 __________ psychology is a branch in which the findings of psychology are applied in the field of education.
Ans
A. Educational
B. Clinical
C. Human
D. Applied
Q.40 The process in which a group of students selects problems/questions and tries to find out their solutions collectively in a scientific manner is called ________.
Ans
A. cooperative learning
B. group investigation
C. interactive session
D. group projects
Q.41 Which among the following is defined as the legitimate power of office holders in administrative organisations?
Ans
A. Culture
B. Freedom
C. Authority
D. Discipline
Q.42 In curriculum transaction, facts linked with direct observation lead to the formation of:
Ans
A. Generalisations
B. Skills
C. Values
D. Concepts
Q.43 __________ encompasses activities ranging from classroom discussions to problem- solving in groups to working in teams.
Ans
A. Online learning
B. Distance learning
C. Blended learning
D. Collaborative learning
Q.44 Which of the following statements best explains how education contributes to the social structure?
Ans
A. Without education, individuals are unlikely to achieve social mobility, though education does not ensure it.
B. Education primarily serves to maintain existing social hierarchies.
C. Education alone cannot change social structures.
D. Education guarantees high status and higher positions for all individuals.
Q.45 Which philosophy sees education as cultivating the intellect through timeless ideas?
Ans
A. Existentialism
B. Progressivism
C. Perennialism
D. Essentialism
Q.46 In a democratic education system, decisions about school activities should be made through:
Ans
A. Parental instructions alone
B. Student voting and discussion
C. Government orders only
D. Teacher’s personal preference
Q.47 Which Constitutional value ensures that education in India treats all religions equally?
Ans
A. Equality
B. Secularism
C. Liberty
D. Justice
Q.48 Which theory explains intelligence as the ability to adapt to one’s environment?
Ans
A. Sternberg’s Triarchic Theory of Intelligence
B. Piaget’s Cognitive Development Theory
C. Gardner’s Multiple Intelligences Theory
D. Spearman’s Two-Factor Theory
Q.49 The principle that suggests the curriculum should cover all classroom and co-curricular activities including arts, music, yoga, and field trips is called:
Ans
A. Level-appropriate
B. Comprehensive
C. Age-appropriate
D. Up-to-date
Q.50 The ability to visualise and manipulate different geometric patterns, forms and imaginary objects in space is called:
Ans
A. Word Fluency
B. Perceptual Speed
C. Memory
D. Spatial relations
Section : General Ability / Other
Q.51 Eight years ago, the age of the mother was four times the age of her son. Eight years hence, the mother's age will be two times the age of her son. Find the ratio of the present age of the mother to the age of the son.
Ans
A. 2 : 1
B. 5 : 2
C. 5 : 3
D. 3 : 2
Q.52 How can the deficiency of nutrients in soil be corrected?
Ans
A. By adding manure and fertilisers
B. By reducing water supply
C. By cutting parts of the plant
D. By exposing the soil to sunlight
Q.53 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the given series to make it logically complete? RTY17 ACH32 JLQ47 SUZ62 ?
Ans
A. BCI77
B. VDI77
C. BDI77
D. BDJ77
Q.54 If ‘P’ stands for ‘×’, ‘Q’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘R’ stands for ‘−’ and ‘S’ stands for ‘+’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 8 P 2 S 9 Q 3 P 2 R 1 = ?
Ans
A. 13
B. 21
C. 25
D. 17
Q.55
Ans
A. 61
B. 66
C. 76
D. 67
Q.56 In a certain code language, ‘LAST’ is coded as ‘3947’ and ‘LIST’ is coded as ‘8973’. What is the code for ‘I’ in the given code language?
Ans
A. 9
B. 4
C. 7
D. 8
Q.57 The Maratha Military Landscapes of India, inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2025, comprise forts mostly in Maharashtra. One of these forts is located in which other state?
Ans
A. Tamil Nadu
B. Karnataka
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Gujarat
Q.58 Non-homogeneous systems, in which ______ are dispersed in _______, are called suspensions.
Ans
A. liquids, liquids
B. gas, solids
C. solids, liquids
D. liquids, gas
Q.59 Refer to the following letter and symbol series and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (Left) € & * X N © % * $ E A $ D Y % H £ V © £ J £ (Right) How many such letters are there each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 3
Q.60 The area of a square is 324 cm2. Its perimeter is equal to the perimeter of a regular hexagon. What is the area (in cm2) of the hexagon?
Ans
A. B.
C. D.
Q.61 In which of the following ways does the globalisation influence employment trends in a country?
Ans
A. Globalisation creates jobs exclusively in the manufacturing sector.
B. Globalisation has no impact on employment.
C. Globalisation always lead to increased unemployment rates.
D. Globalisation can both create and displace jobs across various industries.
Q.62 Given below are the two statements. Select the correct answer for these statements. Statement I: Saturated hydrocarbons are highly reactive with most reagents. Statement II: Substitution reactions in alkanes occur in the presence of sunlight or UV light.
Ans
A. Both the statements are false.
B. Both the statements are true.
C. Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false.
D. Statement-I is False but Statement-II is true.
Q.63 Rahul borrowed some money for simple interest at the rate of 5% per annum for the first 2 years, at the rate of 10% for the next 2 years and at the rate of 15% for the period beyond 4 years. If he pays a total interest of ₹18,000 at the end of 8 years, find how much money he borrowed.
Ans
A. ₹30,000
B. ₹25,000
C. ₹22,000
D. ₹20,000
Q.64 WQSD is related to MGIT in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, ICEP is related to YSUF. To which of the given options is EYAL related, following the same logic?
Ans
A. UOQB
B. BQWE
C. BTYU
D. BOQU
Q.65 The population of a town increased by 10% in the first year and then decreased by 20% in the second year. If the original population was 5,000, what is the population after two years?
Ans
A. 4,200
B. 4,400
C. 4,600
D. 4,800
Q.66 Who was the first Indian to win an individual Olympic gold medal?
Ans
A. Abhinav Bindra
B. Neeraj Chopra
C. Milkha Singh
D. Rajyavardhan Singh Rathore
Q.67 What do we call the distance between the pole and the principal focus of a spherical mirror?
Ans
A. Focal length
B. Principal axis
C. Optical length
D. Radius of curvature
Q.68 Which of the following ecological concepts describes the role and position a species occupies in its environment, encompassing its interactions with both living (biotic) and non-living (abiotic) factors?
Ans
A. Habitat
B. Ecological Niche
C. Edge Effect
D. Trophic Level
Q.69 Which of the following categories of Fundamental rights are correctly matched with their respective Articles as per the Constitution of India?
Ans
A. Cultural and educational rights - Articles 29 to 30
B. Right against exploitation - Articles 25 to 28
C. Right to freedom of religion - Articles 23 to 24
D. Right to freedom - Articles 14 to 18
Q.70 Which of the following Indian states have two Houses (Bicameral legislature) as of July 2025?
Ans
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Himachal Pradesh
C. Kerala
D. Haryana
Q.71 In a certain code language, ‘CODE’ is coded as ‘1267’ and ‘COLD’ is coded as ‘6371’. What is the code for ‘L’ in the given code language?
Ans
A. 1
B. 3
C. 2
D. 6
Q.72 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the statements. Statements: All ketchups are pizzas. No pizza is a sauce. Conclusions: (I) No ketchup is a sauce. (II) Some sauces are pizzas.
Ans
A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
B. Only conclusion (I) follows.
C. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
D. Only conclusion (II) follows.
Q.73 In January 2025, the Genome India Data Conclave was held in which city?
Ans
A. Lucknow
B. New Delhi
C. Mumbai
D. Gandhinagar
Q.74 Seven boxes E, F, G, H, S, T and U are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the same order. H is kept immediately above E. T is kept immediately above U. Only F is kept above S. Only two boxes are kept above H. T is not kept at third position from the bottom. How many boxes are kept between G and F?
Ans
A. Three
B. One
C. Four
D. Two
Q.75 In August 2025, the IndiaAI Independent Business Division (IBD), in collaboration with which organisation, announced the launch of the Cancer AI & Technology Challenge (CATCH) Grant Program?
Ans
A. National Cancer Grid (NCG)
B. National Cancer Institute (NCI), Delhi
C. National Institute of Cancer Prevention and Research (NICPR)
D. Cancer Awareness, Prevention and Early Detection (CAPED), India
Q.76 In animal husbandry, female animals specifically raised and managed for producing milk are commonly referred to as:
Ans
A. Farm animals
B. Milch animals
C. Reared animals
D. Draught animals
Q.77 What is the difference between the National Multidimensional Poverty Index used by NITI Aayog in India (MPI) and the global MPI?
Ans
A. The National MPI is based on the World Bank methodology, while the global MPI is based on the Alkire-Foster methodology.
B. The National MPI covers only monetary poverty, while the global MPI includes all dimensions of poverty.
C. The National MPI uses 12 indicators, while the global MPI uses 10 indicators.
D. The National MPI uses 10 indicators, while the global MPI uses 12 indicators.
Q.78 Find the fourth proportional to 3, 7, and 9.
Ans
A. 30
B. 24
C. 27
D. 21
Q.79
Ans
A. 36.7
B. 49.8
C. 78.5
D. 57.6
Q.80 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of the following sets. (NOTE : Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting /multiplying to 13 can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.) (82, 86.3, 88.4) (56, 60.3, 62.4)
Ans
A. (59, 62.3, 65.4)
B. (64, 68.3, 70.4)
C. (31, 35.3, 36.4)
D. (79, 83.3, 87.4)
Q.81 Refer to the number series given below and answer the question that follows. Counting to be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.) (Left) 3 4 5 2 4 8 4 3 5 2 1 5 7 9 1 6 9 7 4 6 2 1 5 7 3 7 8 (Right) How many such odd digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by an odd digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
Ans
A. 5
B. 6
C. 3
D. 4
Q.82 Which birth anniversary of Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose was celebrated on 23 January 2025, which is also known as Parakram Diwas?
Ans
A. 128th
B. 118th
C. 122nd
D. 125th
Q.83 Which of the following is the most effective method to reduce household waste?
Ans
A. Burning all waste materials
B. Segregating waste into biodegradable and non-biodegradable
C. Using plastic bags for carrying items
D. Dumping all garbage in one bin
Q.84 Which social reform was supported by the British through the Regulation Act of 1829 at the initiative of Raja Ram Mohan Roy?
Ans
A. Abolition of Child Marriage
B. Abolition of Sati
C. Abolition of Untouchability
D. Widow Remarriage
Q.85 Which of the following Indian states is NOT traversed by the Tropic of Cancer?
Ans
A. Tripura
B. Rajasthan
C. Manipur
D. Gujarat
Q.86 Animal cells are more vulnerable to bursting in hypotonic solutions than plant cells as they _____.
Ans
A. have smaller vacuoles
B. lack a rigid cell wall to resist internal pressure
C. absorb less water
D. lack a plasma membrane
Q.87 Which of the following states/UTs DOES NOT have an international boundary?
Ans
A. Jharkhand
B. Bihar
C. Jammu & Kashmir
D. Ladakh
Q.88 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-cluster pairs are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster pair DOES NOT belong to that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans
A. WV−ZY
B. HG−KJ
C. PO−RT
D. LK−ON
Q.89 If ‘I’ stands for ‘+’, ‘J’ stands for ‘×’, ‘K’ stands for ‘÷’, and ‘L’ stands for ‘−’, then what will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following equation? 12 J 2 L 1 I 6 J 4 L 3 = ?
Ans
A. 48
B. 41
C. 44
D. 46
Q.90 Two statements are given below. One is Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R). Choose the correct answer from the options given for these statements. Assertion (A): Properties of a compound are different from those of its constituent elements. Reason (R): Compounds are formed by chemical combination of elements in a fixed ratio.
Ans
A. A is false, but R is true.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
Q.91 Each vowel in the word GOURMANDIZE is changed to the letter immediately preceding it in the English alphabetical order and each consonant is changed to the letter immediately following it in the English alphabetical order. Which of the following letters will appear exactly twice in the group of letters thus formed?
Ans
A. Z
B. O
C. S
D. N
Q.92 Find the possible value of the median of a distribution if the values of mean and mode are 65 and 56, respectively.
Ans
A. 59
B. 58
C. 60
D. 62
Q.93 What does the law of conservation of energy state?
Ans
A. Energy can be created but not destroyed.
B. Total energy remains the same before and after the transformation.
C. Energy can never be converted from one form to another.
D. Energy can disappear during a transformation.
Q.94 A, B, C, D, P, Q and R are sitting around a circular table facing the centre of the table. Only three people sit between C and A when counted from the left of C. Only three people sit between R and B when counted from the right of B. Q sits to the immediate right of R. P is an immediate neighbour of B as well as A. Who sits third to the right of D?
Ans
A. P
B. B
C. Q
D. C
Q.95 A 120 m long train completely crosses a stationary train of length 80 m in 8 seconds. What is the speed of the moving train?
Ans
A. 108 km/hr
B. 96 km/hr
C. 84 km/hr
D. 90 km/hr
Q.96 Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution is available to both citizens and foreigners (except enemy aliens)?
Ans
A. Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions (Article 30)
B. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16)
C. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15)
D. Equality before law and equal protection of laws (Article 14)
Q.97 NOSE is related to RTOZ in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the same way, VYKU is related to ZDGP. To which of the given options is DICK related to, following the same logic?
Ans
A. HNYF
B. FNZD
C. GOXE
D. IMXG
Q.98 Under the British policy of 'Dual Government' in Bengal (1765), who controlled revenue and civil administration, respectively?
Ans
A. Company – Revenue, Company – Civil administration
B. Nawab – Revenue, Company – Civil administration
C. Nawab – Revenue, Nawab – Civil administration
D. Company – Revenue, Nawab – Civil administration
Q.99 Four pipes A, B, C, and D can fill a tank in 12, 15, 20, and 30 hours, respectively. The tank starts empty. A alone is opened for 3 hours, then B is opened with A for 2 hours, then C is opened with both for 1 hour, and finally all four pipes are opened together. Find the total time when tank becomes full.
Ans
A. B.
C. D.
Q.100 What do we call sounds that have frequencies below 20 Hz?
Ans
A. Infrasonic sounds
B. Ultrasonic sounds
C. Audible sounds
D. Noise
— End of Question Paper —
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