SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Paper - 2022 with Free PDF Download link

SBI Clerk Previous Year Paper - 2022

REASONING ABILITY

Direction (1-4): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
A certain number of persons sit in a linear row and all of them face towards north direction. Six persons sit between R and M. A sits third to the left of M. C sits three places away from R. One person sits between E and C. E sits to the left of R but not immediate left. The number of persons sit between E and R is same as the number of persons sit between B and E. B is the only neighbour of T. The number of persons sit to the left of T is two less than the number of persons sit to the right of M. K sits at the extreme end.

Q1. How many persons sit in the linear row?
(a) 22
(b) 21
(c) 20
(d) 23
(e) 19

Q2. Who among the following sits fifth to the left of K?
(a) E
(b) C
(c) R
(d) A
(e) None of these

Q3. What is the position of E with respect to T?
(a) Sixth to the left
(b) Fifth to the right
(c) Sixth to the right
(d) Fourth to the left
(e) Immediate left

Q4. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Who among the following does not belong to that group?
(a) B
(b) E
(c) C
(d) T
(e) R

Direction (5-8): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
7 9 8 X E & M S 4 6 R © 5 U # N Q 2 € H % 6 1 P K 3 A @

Q5. If all the symbols are dropped from the series, which element will be 10th from the right end of the new arrangement?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) N
(d) Z
(e) None of these

Q6. How many such symbols are there in the given series which are immediately preceded by a consonant and immediately followed by a number?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) Four

Q7. How many such numbers are there in the given series which are immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) Four

Q8. Which among the following letter will be 3rd to the left of 11th letter from the left end?
(a) K
(b) Q
(c) M
(d) A
(e) None of these

Direction (9-13): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
Ten persons sit in a parallel row such that five persons sit in each row. In row 1- P, Q, R, S and T sit and face south while in row 2- A, B, C, D and E sit and face north. The persons sit in row 1 face the persons sit in row 2 and vice versa.
A faces the one who sits third to the right of T. Two persons sit between A and B. The one who sits second to the left of B faces the one who sits immediate left of P. More than two persons sit between T and R. D sits second to the left of C who doesn't face Q.

Q9. Who among the following sits third to the right of Q?
(a) S
(b) P
(c) R
(d) Either R or S
(e) Either P or S

Q10. Which among the following statement(s) is/are true?
(a) More than one person sits to the right of B
(b) C sits exactly in the middle of A and B
(c) P sits adjacent to Q
(d) No one sits between B and E
(e) All are true

Q11. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Who among the following does not belong to that group?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) A
(d) E
(e) T

Q12. Who among the following faces R?
(a) D
(b) A
(c) C
(d) E
(e) None of these

Q13. How many persons sit between Q and the one who faces A?
(a) None
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) One
(e) None of these

Direction (14-15): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
A person starts walking from point X in east direction after walking 10m he stops at point T. From point T, he walks 8m in north and reaches at point M. Now, from point M he walks 5m in west direction and reaches at point U. From there he walks 12m in east direction and reaches at point K which is 13m in north of point R. From point R he walks 9m in east direction and reaches at point S.

Q14. In which direction is point K with respect to point S?
(a) North -east
(b) South
(c) North-west
(d) South -west
(e) West

Q15. What is the shortest distance between point U and point T?
(a) 13m
(b) 5√13m
(c) 89m
(d) √89m
(e) Can't be determined

Q16. If 1 is added to each even digit and 2 is subtracted from each odd digit in the number "32547685", then how many digits will appear more than once in the new number thus formed?
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Two
(d) None
(e) None of these

Direction (17-18): In this question, relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statement and select the appropriate answer.

Q17. Statements: M > B ≥ V; C ≤ B = Z; K ≥ J < Z
Conclusions: I: V ≤ Z II: J < C
(a) If only conclusion I is true
(b) If only conclusion II is true
(c) If either conclusion I or II is true
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) If both conclusions I and II are true

Q18. Statements: Q ≥ E ≤ T; Y = I < T; D > I ≥ F
Conclusions: I: I < Q II: D > Y
(a) If only conclusion I is true.
(b) If only conclusion II is true.
(c) If either conclusion I or II is true.
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true.
(e) If both conclusions I and II are true.

Directions (19-23): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V live on separate floors of 7-floor building but not necessarily in the same order such as ground floor is numbered as 1st floor, just above floor is numbered as 2nd floor and so on until the topmost floor is numbered as 7th floor.
P lives on an odd numbered floor but above the 4th floor. Three persons live between P and U. No one lives between R and U. T lives two floors above V who lives just above S's floor.

Q19. How many floors gap between P and Q?
(a) One
(b) None
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) More than three

Q20. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Who among the following does not belong to that group?
(a) Q
(b) U
(c) T
(d) P
(e) S

Q21. Which among the following statement is true?
I. V lives below U's floor
II. No one lives below Q
III. Two floors gap between U and V
(a) Only III
(b) Both II and III
(c) All I, II and III
(d) Only II
(e) None is true

Q22. How many persons live below V?
(a) Three
(b) Two
(c) Four
(d) Five
(e) None of these

Q23. Which among the following pair of persons live on an even numbered floor?
(a) Q, V
(b) R, Q
(c) T, V
(d) R, P
(e) None of these

Directions (24-26): In the question below some statements are given followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follow from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

Q24. Statements: Only a few book is copy. Some copy is pen. No ink is pen.
Conclusions: I. Some book is not ink. II. All copy can never be ink
(a) Either conclusion I or II follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Only conclusion I follows
(d) Both conclusions I and II follow
(e) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Q25. Statements: Some bank is not money. Only a few interest is money. Some loan is interest.
Conclusions: I. Some interest is not money. II. Some loan can be bank
(a) Either conclusion I or II Follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Only conclusion I follows
(d) Both conclusions I and II follow
(e) Neither conclusion I nor II Follows

Q26. Statements: Only a few black is blue. Only a few blue is yellow. No white is yellow.
Conclusions: I. No blue is white. II. All white is blue
(a) Either conclusion I or II Follows
(b) Only conclusion II Follows
(c) Only conclusion I Follows
(d) Both conclusions I and II Follows
(e) Neither conclusion I nor II Follows

Directions (27-31): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table and all are facing towards the centre but not necessarily in the same order.
F sits two places away from A. C sits 2nd to the left of B who does not sit near A and F. G sits 2nd to the right of D who does not sit near C. More than one person sits between A and E (From both sides).

Q27. Who among the following person is an immediate neighbour of B?
(a) G
(b) C
(c) E
(d) F
(e) A

Q28. How many persons sit between G and E, when counted from right of E?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) None
(d) Four
(e) Three

Q29. Who among the following person sits 4th to the right of G?
(a) E
(b) B
(c) A
(d) C
(e) None of these

Q30. What is the position of F with respect to D?
(a) 3rd to the left
(b) 2nd to the left
(c) 3rd to the right
(d) 2nd to the right
(e) Immediate left

Q31. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they form a group. Which one of the following does not belong to that group?
(a) D, F
(b) A, C
(c) G, B
(d) E, C
(e) F, B

Direction (32-33): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
A family has three generation. F is son in law of D who has only one sibling. H is brother-in-law of T and spouse of D. H has no siblings. S is niece of E who is brother of G. G is daughter of T's sibling.

Q32. How T is related to E?
(a) Sister
(b) Aunt
(c) Uncle
(d) Brother
(e) Can't be determined

Q33. Who among the following is daughter of F?
(a) D
(b) G
(c) S
(d) Either D or S
(e) Either G or S

Q34. In the word 'DRAWINGS', how many pairs of the letters have the same number of letters between them (both forward and backward direction) in the word as in the alphabetical series?
(a) Four
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) Three
(e) More than four

Q35. If we form a four-letter meaningful word by using the first, second, fifth and eighth letter from the left end of the word 'NECESSITY', then which of the following will be the fourth letter of the meaningful word thus formed. If more than one word is formed mark Z as your answer. If no meaningful word is formed, mark X as your answer?
(a) N
(b) E
(c) S
(d) X
(e) Z

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

Q36. A can do a work in 24 days and B can do the same work in 18 days. If A starts work alone and after four days B joined him, then find in how many days total work will be completed?
(a) 10 4/7 days
(b) 12 4/7 days
(c) 14 4/7 days
(d) 12 3/7 days
(e) 12 2/7 days

Q37. P invested Rs.21000 in a business and after few months Q joined him with Rs.28000. At the end of a year profit share of P and Q is equal. Find after how many months B joined the business.
(a) 4
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 5
(e) 6

Q38. Marked price of an article is Rs.800 and shopkeeper allow a discount of 10% on it. If shopkeeper made a profit of 20% on selling the article, then find the cost price of the article.
(a) 720 Rs.
(b) 640 Rs.
(c) 700 Rs.
(d) 600 Rs.
(e) 400 Rs.

Q39. In a school total 360 students passed the exam, while 60% of total boys passed the exam and 40% of total girls passed the exam. If 66 2/3% of total passed boys is 160, then find total students in the school.
(a) 960
(b) 720
(c) 800
(d) 600
(e) 700

Q40. Sum of squares of three consecutive numbers is 1085. Find the largest number.
(a) 19
(b) 20
(c) 18
(d) 21
(e) 22

Q41. Three students Ria, Ram and Pooja got total 74 marks in an exam. The ratio of marks obtained by Ria to Pooja is 4 : 5 and the ratio of marks obtained by Pooja to Ram is 3 : 2. Find the total marks score by Ram.
(a) 30
(b) 20
(c) 24
(d) 28
(e) 40

Q42. The speed of a boat in still water is 12 km/hr. If time taken by the boat to cover 20 km in downstream is equal to time taken by the boat to cover 10 km in upstream, then find speed (in km/hr.) of stream.
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 3
(e) 5

Q43. The present age of A is 14 years more than B. 12 years ago, the ratio of age of A to that of B was 2 : 1, then find the present age (in years) of A.
(a) 40
(b) 30
(c) 32
(d) 44
(e) 48

Q44. A shopkeeper marked price of an article at Rs. 2450 and he allows two successive discounts of 20% & x% on it. If selling price of the article is Rs. 1470, then find the value of x?
(a) 12.5
(b) 25
(c) 15
(d) 10
(e) 24

Q45. A and B invested same amount in two different schemes on simple interest for five years. A invested at the rate of 12% p.a. and B invested at the rate of 18% p.a. If difference between interest received by A and B is Rs. 1440, then find the total amount invested by A and B together.
(a) Rs. 5400
(b) Rs. 9000
(c) Rs. 4800
(d) Rs. 9600
(e) Rs. 4500

Q46. The average of 25 number is 90 and when one new number added in these 25 numbers, then average increased by 5. Find the new number.
(a) 220
(b) 240
(c) 280
(d) 300
(e) 320

Direction (47–51): The table given below shows total number of patients admitted in three (A, B and C) different hospitals in three different months. Read the data carefully and answer the questions.

Hospitals | March | April | May
A | 1505 | 2800 | 2864
B | 3676 | 1976 | 2228
C | 2456 | 2804 | 2408

Q47. Total patients admitted in A in March is what percent (approximate) of total patients admitted in all three hospitals in May.
(a) 25%
(b) 20%
(c) 15%
(d) 30%
(e) 5%

Q48. If 1/4th of total patients admitted in B in March are female and 60% of total patients admitted in A in April are female, then find the difference between total male patients admitted in A in April and in B in March together and total patients admitted in C in May.
(a) 1369
(b) 1459
(c) 1469
(d) 1419
(e) 1449

Q49. Out of total patients admitted in C in March, 956 are female. If total male patients admitted in C in June are 20% more than total male patients admitted in C in March and total patients admitted in June in C are 872 more than total patients admitted in B in May, then find total female patients admitted in C in June.
(a) 1700
(b) 900
(c) 1300
(d) 1100
(e) 1500

Q50. Find ratio of total patients admitted in A in April to total number of patients admitted in all three hospitals in May?
(a) 14 : 37
(b) 28 : 73
(c) 28 : 75
(d) 28 : 77
(e) 75 : 28

Q51. Total patients admitted in A in May is what percent (Approximate) of total patients admitted in B & C in April?
(a) 55%
(b) 65%
(c) 70%
(d) 50%
(e) 60%

Direction (52–56): Find the wrong number in the following number series:

Q52. 27, 48, 80, 134, 221, 355, 538
(a) 27
(b) 355
(c) 80
(d) 134
(e) 538

Q53. 215, 200, 250, 175, 275, 150, 300
(a) 150
(b) 300
(c) 250
(d) 200
(e) 215

Q54. 550, 4400, 110, 440, 24, 44, 4.4
(a) 24
(b) 550
(c) 4400
(d) 4.4
(e) 44

Q55. 146, 145, 149, 122, 138, 15, 49
(a) 138
(b) 122
(c) 15
(d) 146
(e) 149

Q56. 1.7, 3.0, 5.6, 9.5, 14.7, 21.8, 29
(a) 3.0
(b) 9.5
(c) 21.8
(d) 14.7
(e) 29

Direction (57-70): What will come in the place of question (?) mark in following questions.

Q57. 25% of 256 + (∜256 / 4) × 8 = ? + 10
(a) 64
(b) 62
(c) 60
(d) 56
(e) 82

Q58. 274 - 141 = ? + 98
(a) 39
(b) 31
(c) 37
(d) 33
(e) 35

Q59. 36% of 250 + 26 ÷ 2 × ? = 207
(a) 8
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 9
(e) 7

Q60. 240 × 2.5 + 65 × 2/13 = ?² - √225
(a) 22
(b) 24
(c) 23
(d) 27
(e) 25

Q61. 4080 ÷ (? + 17) = 10² + 2
(a) 23
(b) 42
(c) 51
(d) 15
(e) 16

Q62. 31.5 ÷ 3.5 × 12 - 8 = ?²
(a) 10
(b) 25
(c) 75
(d) 100
(e) 50

Q63. 945 ÷ 35 × 20 = ?
(a) 540
(b) 550
(c) 560
(d) 570
(e) 580

Q64. 60% of 700 - 450 = ? - 85% of 120
(a) 84
(b) 48
(c) 64
(d) 36
(e) 72

Q65. 30 ÷ 5/12 + √144 × 20 = ?
(a) 118
(b) 156
(c) 208
(d) 256
(e) 312

Q66. 2 4/7 + 4 1/3 - 3 2/3 + 16/21 = ?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 3
(d) 7
(e) 6

Q67. (0.9)² × 10 + 2.9 = ? + 132 ÷ 12
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
(e) 0

Q68. 26% of 50 of 5 ÷ 26 = ?
(a) 2.5
(b) 2.25
(c) 3.5
(d) 1.5
(e) 2

Q69. (132 + 72) ÷ 12 × 17 = ? + 9²
(a) 208
(b) 287
(c) 370
(d) 179
(e) 168

Q70. 0.26 × 50 + 13² = ?
(a) 182
(b) 181
(c) 180
(d) 189
(e) 188

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

Directions (71-79): Read the passage given below and answer the following questions.
The onset of Covid-19 has brought to a halt an astonishing expansion of restaurants observed in the past decade. But being deprived of restaurants has made people realise how much they value them. Eating out fulfils needs which seem fundamental to human nature. People need to socialise, to seal deals and to peer at their fellow humans.
People have long feasted outside the home. Before the use of coal became widespread in England in the 17th century, preparing food at home involved spending a lot on wood or peat. Today dining out is seen as an indulgence, but it was the cheapest way to eat for most of human history. But by the 18th century, capitalism took off, public spaces became sites of rational dialogue which were open to all. Eating out became less of a communal activity focused on calorie intake and more of a cultural experience—and a place where people could show off their wealth.
By the 20th century, however, cooking at home was becoming ever easier. Average house sizes grew and appliances such as the food processor and the dishwasher reduced preparation and clean-up times. Dining out became relatively more expensive. And yet, a few economic changes ensured that demand for restaurants grew despite rising prices.
One of them is immigration. Over the last century the net flow of migrants into rich countries, relative to population, more than quadrupled. Starting a restaurant is a good career move for new arrivals. Migrants also tend to improve the quality of an area's restaurants. Another factor was changing working patterns. Historically poor people have tended to work longer hours than rich ones. But in the latter half of the 20th century the opposite became true. The upshot was that the people with the most money to spend on dining out increasingly needed it most, since they had the least free time.
The pandemic has led to many people buying more takeout than before, while others have a newfound love of cooking. That means ____ still further from the utilitarian model of the 18th century and before, and instead doubling down on what they do best: offering those who need to eat a taste of romance, glamour, and love.

Q71. What effect of the pandemic on restaurants has been mentioned by the author in the passage?
(a) A severe lack of essential items has hindered the supply chain of restaurants.
(b) The period during the pandemic led to a stop in the growth of restaurants.
(c) The pandemic has made people realise the allure of eating out at restaurants.
(d) Restaurants observe less customers due to a fear of lack of social distancing measures.
(e) Due to the continuous waves of the pandemic, restaurants struggle to remain open.

Q72. What compelled rich people to start eating out?
(a) Public spaces becoming safer for citizens
(b) The rise of capitalism in the market
(c) Being able to show off wealth to society
(d) Both (b) and (c)
(e) All of the above

Q73. According to the passage, why did people prefer eating out before the 17th century?
(a) Eating at restaurants was cheaper for people than cooking food.
(b) Restaurants provided a convenient way for people to have food.
(c) Restaurants catered to all classes of society while avoiding conflict
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(e) All of the above

Q74. What conundrum does the author present against the growth of restaurants the past century?
(a) Despite the economic instability during the period, restaurants continued to grow.
(b) Restaurants were popular despite industrialisation leading to many people becoming poor.
(c) The interest in restaurants piqued in the period despite many nations being war-ridden.
(d) The growth of restaurants despite cooking becoming cheaper and more convenient.
(e) The deadly plagues during the period did not dissuade people from going out to eat.

Q75. How did migrants contribute to a rise in the growth of restaurants?
(a) Migrants added to the population of a country and thus contributed to increased consumption.
(b) A significant portion of the migrant population started restaurants in the countries they came to.
(c) Countries with a high rate of immigration gave relaxations on items of necessity for the public.
(d) An immigrant population brought with it a different culture, thus reviving interest in cuisine.
(e) Restaurants cashed up on the opportunity to serve food to an immigrant population for revenues.

Q76. According to the passage, which of the following is true regarding the influence of changing work patterns in the past century?
(a) Poor people stopped eating out as much as they would in the past.
(b) Restaurants improved their services to cater to more people for a longer time.
(c) Rich people having more money would want to spend more on their indulgences.
(d) People earning more often had less tome to cook food at home.
(e) Eating out for luxury became difficult for people due to lack of time.

Q77. Which of the following words can most appropriately fill the blank given in the passage?
(a) coping
(b) closing
(c) making
(d) moving
(e) living

Q78. Which of the following words is most similar in meaning to the word "flow" as is highlighted in the passage?
(a) movement
(b) implication
(c) obstruction
(d) deduction
(e) increase

Q79. Choose the word that can most appropriately replace the highlighted word "upshot" in the passage?
(a) reminder
(b) history
(c) requirement
(d) consequence
(e) condition

Directions (80-81): In the given question a part of the sentence is given in bold, which may or may not be grammatically correct. Choose the correct alternative for the highlighted phrase to make the sentence grammatically and logically correct.

Q80. Because the man **is angry on the teacher**, he wrote a complaining letter to the principal.
(a) is angry at the teacher
(b) was angry with the teacher
(c) were angry to the teacher
(d) is angry with the teacher
(e) No replacement needed

Q81. A fall in demand is enough to demonstrate that consumers **have forget about the product** and moved on to other products.
(a) has forgot about the product
(b) had forgotten of the product
(c) have forgotten about the product
(d) has forgotten for the product
(e) No replacement needed

Directions (82-85): In each sentence, a word is omitted. Choose the word from the given options that can fit into the blank without changing the intended meaning.

Q82. Jeff faced many hardships in life, but he always found a way to be __________.
(a) lethargy
(b) gloomy
(c) desperate
(d) resilient
(e) pervasive

Q83. With this __________ rainfall, we might get flooded out.
(a) incessant
(b) irreversible
(c) indecisive
(d) amiable
(e) dormant

Q84. The plant has a pungent smell which makes it very __________ to bees.
(a) valiant
(b) vigorous
(c) appealing
(d) robust
(e) diffusing

Q85. If the thermostat does not __________ the temperature properly, it may not trigger the heating unit.
(a) ramble
(b) gauge
(c) transit
(d) flush
(e) rejig

Directions (86-90): In each of the following questions, a sentence has been divided into four parts in which one part has an error. Identify the part that has an error and mark that part as your answer. If all parts are error-free then choose 'No Error' as your correct choice.

Q86. The hospital has receive (A)/ funding for medical (B)/ devices and (B)/ clinical studies (D)/ No Error (E).
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No Error

Q87. Aryabhata noted that (A)/ the luminosity of the (B)/ Moon and other planets are (C)/ due to reflected sunlight (D)/ No Error (E)
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No Error

Q88. Rainbows can been (A)/ observed whenever there (B)/ are water drops in the (C)/ air and sunlight shining (D)/ No Error (E).
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No Error

Q89. Indraprastha was one (A)/ of the five place demanded (B)/ for the sake of peace and (C)/ to avert a disastrous war (D)/ No Error (E).
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No Error

Q90. Due to climate change, (A)/ deserts are expanding, (B)/ while heat waves (C)/ are becoming more commons (D)/ No Error.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No Error

Directions (91-95): In the following questions, five sentences are given. Rearrange these sentences to make a contextually meaningful paragraph then, answer the following questions.
(A) An insufficient amount of sleep can lead to serious repercussions.
(B) Also, it loses the abilities to concentrate, think clearly, and process memories.
(C) Sleep is an essential function that allows your body and mind to recharge and leaves you refreshed.
(D) For instance, without enough sleep, the brain cannot function properly
(E) Healthy sleep also helps the body to remain healthy and stave off diseases.

Q91. Which is the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Q92. Which is the LAST sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Q93. Which is the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Q94. Which is the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Q95. Which is the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Directions (96-100): In each question, three words are given in bold, which may or may not be in their correct positions. Choose the correct sequence of words from the given options to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningful.

Q96. A **wildlife** (A) of an eagle was **carved** (B) out of wood for the **sculpture** (C) event.
(a) BCA
(b) CBA
(c) ACB
(d) BAC
(e) No rearrangement needed

Q97. Blood was **analyzed** (A) through a/an **diagnostic** (B) machine to figure out whether the patient was **suffering** (C) from cancer or the flu.
(a) BCA
(b) CBA
(c) ACB
(d) BAC
(e) No rearrangement needed

Q98. Without any **solitude** (A) a/an **crazy** (B) is bound to go a bit **introvert** (C)
(a) BCA
(b) CBA
(c) ACB
(d) BAC
(e) No rearrangement needed

Q99. The **allowed(A)** material **permeable** (B) a large amount of water to **seep** (C) through.
(a) BCA
(b) CBA
(c) ACB
(d) BAC
(e) No rearrangement needed

Q100. The astronomer **observation** (A) a new star during a/an **discover(B)** recent(C)
(a) BCA
(b) CBA
(c) ACB
(d) BAC
(e) No rearrangement needed

Solutions

Solution (1-4):
T B E C R A M K
S1. Ans.(b)
S2. Ans.(d)
S3. Ans.(c)
S4. Ans.(d)
Solution (5-8):
S5. Ans.(c)
S6. Ans.(c)
Sol. Two - R © 5, H % 6
S7. Ans.(d)
Sol. 98X, 46R, 61P
S8. Ans.(b)
Solution (9-13):
row 1: R P S Q T
row 2: D A C E B
S9. Ans.(c)
S10. Ans.(d)
S11. Ans.(e)
S12. Ans.(a)
S13. Ans.(d)
Directions (14-15):
[Diagram]
S14. Ans.(c)
S15. Ans.(d)
S16. Ans.(c)
Sol. 32547685
13355793
Solution (17-18):
S17. Ans.(a)
Sol. I: V ≤ Z (True) II: J < C (False)
S18. Ans.(b)
Sol. I: I < Q (False) II: D > Y (True)
Solution (19-23):
Floors | Persons
7 | Q
6 | T
5 | P
4 | V
3 | S
2 | R
1 | U
S19. Ans.(a)
S20. Ans.(c)
S21. Ans.(a)
S22. Ans.(a)
S23. Ans.(c)
Solution (24-26):
S24. Ans.(b)
Sol. [Venn Diagram]
S25. Ans.(d)
Sol. [Venn Diagram]
S26. Ans.(e)
Sol. [Venn Diagram]
Solution (27-31):
[Circular Diagram]
S27. Ans.(c)
S28. Ans.(e)
S29. Ans.(b)
S30. Ans.(c)
S31. Ans.(d)
Solution (32-33):
H(+) = D(-) - T
E(+) = G(-) = F(+)
|
S(-)
S32. Ans.(e)
S33. Ans.(c)
S34. Ans.(d)
Sol. [Diagram]
S35. Ans.(e)
S36. Ans.(b)
Sol. Total work = 72 unit (LCM of 24 & 18)
Efficiency of A = 72/24 = 3 unit/day
Efficiency of B = 72/18 = 4 unit/day
Total work done by A in four days = 3 × 4 = 12 units
Remaining work = 72 - 12 = 60 units
Required days = 60/(4+3) + 4 = 12 4/7 days
S37. Ans.(c)
Sol. Let Q joined business after 't' months
ATQ -
(21000 × 12) / (28000 × (12-t)) = 1/1
9 = 12 - t
t = 3
t = 3 months
S38. Ans.(d)
Sol. Selling price of the article
= 800 × 90/100 = 720 Rs.
Cost price of the article = 720 × 100/120 = 600 Rs.
S39. Ans.(e)
Sol. Let total boys in school be X
So, total passed boys in school = X × 60/100 = 3X/5
ATQ -
(3X/5) × 2/3 = 160
2X/5 = 160
X = 400
Total girls passed in school
= (360 - 160 × 3/2) = 120
Total girls in school = 120 × 100/40 = 300
So, total students in school = (400 + 300) = 700
S40. Ans.(b)
Sol. Let three consecutive numbers be (n - 1), n and (n+1) respectively
ATQ -
(n-1)² + n² + (n+1)² = 1085
3n² + 2 = 1085
3n² = 1083
n² = 361
so, n = 19
largest number = (19+1) = 20
S41. Ans.(b)
Sol. The ratio of marks obtained by Ria, Pooja and Ram respectively
Ria : Pooja = 4 : 5
Pooja : Ram = 3 : 2
Ria : PooJA : Ram = 12 : 15 : 10
So, marks score by Ram = 74 × 10/(12+15+10) = 20
S42. Ans.(b)
Sol. Let speed of stream be 'y' km/hr.
ATQ - 20/(12+y) = 10/(12-y)
24 - 2y = 12 + y
3y = 12
y = 4
S43. Ans.(a)
Sol. Let present age of A and B be 'a' & 'b' respectively
Given, a - b = 14
a = 14 + b - (i)
ATQ -
(a-12)/(b-12) = 2/1
14+b-12 = 2b-24
b = 26
So, a = 14+26 = 40
S44. Ans.(b)
Sol. ATQ -
2450 × (100-20)/100 × (100-x)/100 = 1470
1960 × (100-x)/100 = 1470
(100-x)/100 = 3/4
x = 25
S45. Ans.(d)
Sol. Let each A and B invested Rs. X
ATQ -
X × (18 × 5)/100 - X × (12 × 5)/100 = 1440
X × 30/100 = 1440
X = 4800 Rs.
So, total amount invested by A and B = 4800 + 4800 = 9600 Rs.
S46. Ans.(a)
Sol. Sum of the 25 numbers = 25 × 90 = 2250
When a new number added then total = (90 +5) × 26 = 2470
So, new number = 2470 - 2250 = 220
S47. Ans.(b)
Sol. Required percentage = 1505/(2864+2228+2408) × 100
= 1505/7500 × 100 = 20.06 ≈ 20%
S48. Ans.(c)
Sol. Total male patients admitted in A in April
= 2800 × 40/100 = 1120
Total male patients admitted in B in March
= 3676 × 3/4 = 2757
Required difference
= (1120 + 2757) - 2408 = 1469
S49. Ans.(c)
Sol. Total male patients admitted in C in March = 2456 - 956 = 1500
So, total male patients admitted in C in June = 1500 × 120/100 = 1800
Total female patients admitted in C in June = (2228 + 872) - 1800 = 1300
S50. Ans.(c)
Sol. Required ratio = 2800 : (2864 + 2228 + 2408) = 2800 : 7500 = 28 : 75
S51. Ans.(e)
Sol. Total patients admitted in B & C in April
= (1976 + 2804) = 4780
Required percentage = 2864/4780 × 100 = 59.91 ≈ 60%
S52. Ans.(b)
Sol. Wrong number = 355
Pattern of series -
27, 48, 80, 134, 221, 352, 538
+21 +32 +54 +87 +131 +186
+11 +22 +33 +44 +55
S53. Ans.(e)
Sol. Wrong number = 215
Pattern of series -
There are two alternate series
One is - 225 + 25 = 250
250 + 25 = 275
275 + 25 = 300
Second is - 200 - 25 = 175
175 - 25 = 150
S54. Ans.(a)
Sol. Wrong number = 24
Pattern of series -
There are two alternate series
One is - 550 ÷ 5 = 110
110 ÷ 5 = 22
22 ÷ 5 = 4.4
Second is - 4400 ÷ 10 = 440
440 ÷ 10 = 44
S55. Ans.(c)
Sol. Wrong number = 15
Pattern of series –
146 - 1³ = 145
145 + 2² = 149
149 - 3³ = 122
122 + 4² = 138
138 - 5³ = 13
13 + 6² = 49
S56. Ans.(c)
Sol. Wrong number = 21.8
Pattern of series –
1.7 + 1.3 = 3.0
3.0 + 2.6 = 5.6
5.6 + 3.9 = 9.5
9.5 + 5.2 = 14.7
14.7 + 6.5 = 21.2
21.2+7.8 = 29
S57. Ans.(b)
Sol. 256/4 + 4/4 × 8 = ? + 10
64 + 8 = ? + 10
? = 62
S58. Ans.(e)
Sol. ? = 274 - 141 - 98
? = 35
S59. Ans.(d)
Sol. 36/100 × 250 + 26/2 × ? = 207
13 × ? = 207 - 90
? = 9
S60. Ans.(e)
Sol. 600 + 10 + 15 = ?²
? = 25
S61. Ans.(a)
Sol. 4080 ÷ (? + 17) = 10² + 2
4080/(100 + 2) = (? + 17)
? = 23
S62. Ans.(a)
Sol. 31.5 ÷ 3.5 × 12 - 8 = ?²
(31.5 × 12)/3.5 - 8 = ?²
100 = ?²
? = 10
S63. Ans.(a)
Sol. 945/35 × 20 = ?
? = 540
S64. Ans.(e)
Sol. 60/100 × 700 - 450 + 85/100 × 120 = ?
420 - 450 + 102 = ?
? = 72
S65. Ans.(e)
Sol. 30 × 12/5 + 12 × 20 = ?
? = 312
S66. Ans.(a)
Sol. ? = (2 + 4 - 3) + (4/7 + 1/3 - 2/3 + 16/21)
? = 3 + 1
? = 4
S67. Ans.(e)
Sol. 8.1 + 2.9 = ? + 11
? = 0
S68. Ans.(a)
Sol. 26/100 × 50 × 5 × 1/26 = ?
? = 2.5
S69. Ans.(a)
Sol. 204/12 × 17 = ? + 81
289 = ? + 81
? = 208
S70. Ans.(a)
Sol. 26/100 × 50 + 169 = ?
13 + 169 = ?
? = 182
S71. Ans.(b)
Sol. Refer to the first line of the first paragraph in the passage for justification. "The onset of Covid-19 has brought to a halt an astonishing expansion of restaurants observed in the past decade." Although the statement given by option (c) is a correct statement according to the passage, it does not answer the question, which only asks about the effect of the pandemic on restaurants. The other statements are simply not mentioned as an issue faced by restaurants in the passage.
S72. Ans.(d)
Sol. Refer to the following lines in the second passage for justification of the answer. "But by the 18th century, capitalism took off... people could show off their wealth."
The statements given by option (b) and (c) can be corroborated from these lines, but the statement given by option (a) cannot find a reference in the passage. Thus, option (d) is the correct answer.
S73. Ans.(a)
Sol. Refer to the following lines in the second paragraph for justification of option (a) as answer. "People have long feasted outside the home... to eat for most of human history." Options (b) and (c) find no mention in the passage as reasons for choosing restaurants over cooking during the time, and thus, are eliminated.
S74. Ans.(d)
Sol. Refer to the entirety of the third paragraph for justification of option (d) as the answer. None of the other options give a suitable answer to the question.
S75. Ans.(b)
Sol. Refer to the following lines in the fourth paragraph for justification of option (b).
"One of them is immigration. Over the last century the net flow of migrants... the quality of an area's restaurants."
S76. Ans.(d)
Sol. Refer to the following lines in the fourth paragraph for justification of option (d). "Another factor was changing working patterns. Historically poor people... since they had the least free time"
S77. Ans.(d)
Sol. cope – to deal with and attempt to overcome problems and difficulties
close – to move so as to bar passage through something
make – to bring into being by forming, shaping, or altering material
move – to proceed toward a certain state or condition
live – to maintain oneself
S78. Ans.(a)
Sol. flow – a smooth uninterrupted movement or progress
movement – the act or process of moving implication – something implied: such as obstruction – the state of being obstructed deduction – the state or fact of being destroyed increase – made or become greater
S79. Ans.(d)
Sol. upshot – the final result reminder – something that calls a memory or thought to the mind history – an established record requirement – something wanted or needed consequence – a result or effect condition – a premise upon which the fulfilment of an agreement depends
S80. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct replacement for the highlighted phrase is (b)
The given sentence is in past tense, thus 'was' should be the correct helping verb. "Angry with" is the correct phrasal verb as when directed at a person "angry with" should always be used. If directed at a situation or thing, "angry at" would also be acceptable.
S81. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct replacement for the given phrase is option (c)
Here, 'consumers' is plural thus plural verb 'have' should be used. Also, the structure for present perfect tense is 'has/have+ V3'.
S82. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct word that can fit into the given blank is 'resilient'.
Lethargy: a lack of energy and enthusiasm.
Gloomy: causing or feeling depression or despondency.
Desperate: feeling or showing a hopeless sense that a situation is so bad as to be impossible to deal with.
Resilient: able to withstand or recover quickly from difficult conditions.
Pervasive: spreading widely throughout an area or a group of people.
S83. Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct word that can fit into the given blank is 'incessant'
Incessant: continuing without pause or interruption
Irreversible: not able to be undone or altered.
Indecisive: not providing a clear and definite result.
Amiable: having or displaying a friendly and pleasant manner.
Dormant: having normal physical functions suspended or slowed down for a period of time
S84. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct word for the blank is 'appealing'
Valiant: possessing or showing courage or determination.
Vigorous: strong, healthy, and full of energy.
Appealing: attractive or interesting
Robust: strong and healthy; vigorous.
Diffusing: spread over a wide area or between a large number of people.
S85. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct word for the given blank is 'gauge' Ramble: walk for pleasure in the countryside.
Gauge: an instrument that measures and gives a visual display of the amount, level, or contents of something.
Transit: an act, process, or example of passing through or over
Flush: become red and hot, typically as the result of illness or strong emotion.
Rejig: organize (something) differently; rearrange.
S86. Ans.(a)
Sol. In part (A), 'receive' should be replaced with 'received' as we use third form of the verb after 'has/have/had'.
S87. Ans.(c)
Sol. In part (C), helping verbs 'are' should be replaced with 'is' for noun 'luminosity'.
S88. Ans.(a)
Sol. In part (A), 'been' should be replaced with 'be' because 'can' is a model verb which is always followed by infinitive.
S89. Ans.(b)
Sol. In part (B), 'place' should be in plural form because phrase 'one of' is always followed by plural noun.
S90. Ans.(d)
Sol. In part (D), 'commons' should be replaced with 'common' because we need an adjective here which is always used in a singular form.
Commons: the cultural and natural resources accessible to all members of a society
S91. Ans.(e)
Sol. The passage is mentioning the importance of sleep. Therefore, statement (C) will be the first statement of the paragraph as it introduces the theme and is an independent statement. Next will be statement (E), which mentions the benefits of proper sleep. Statement (E) then will be followed by statement (A), which mentions that insufficient sleep has serious repercussions. The fourth sentence of the paragraph will be statement (D), which mentions the consequences of improper sleep. In statement (B), the word 'also', states that it will follow statement (D) and mentions further side-effects of improper sleep. Hence the correct sequence of the statement will be 'CEADB'.
S92. Ans.(b)
Sol. The passage is mentioning the importance of sleep. Therefore, statement (C) will be the first statement of the paragraph as it introduces the theme and is an independent statement. Next will be statement (E), which mentions the benefits of proper sleep. Statement (E) then will be followed by statement (A), which mentions that insufficient sleep has serious repercussions. The fourth sentence of the paragraph will be statement (D), which mentions the consequences of improper sleep. In statement (B), the word 'also', states that it will follow statement (D) and mentions further side-effects of improper sleep. Hence the correct sequence of the statement will be 'CEADB'.
S93. Ans.(a)
Sol. The passage is mentioning the importance of sleep. Therefore, statement (C) will be the first statement of the paragraph as it introduces the theme and is an independent statement. Next will be statement (E), which mentions the benefits of proper sleep. Statement (E) then will be followed by statement (A), which mentions that insufficient sleep has serious repercussions. The fourth sentence of the paragraph will be statement (D), which mentions the consequences of improper sleep. In statement (B), the word 'also', states that it will follow statement (D) and mentions further side-effects of improper sleep. Hence the correct sequence of the statement will be 'CEADB'.
S94. Ans.(c)
Sol. The passage is mentioning the importance of sleep. Therefore, statement (C) will be the first statement of the paragraph as it introduces the theme and is an independent statement. Next will be statement (E), which mentions the benefits of proper sleep. Statement (E) then will be followed by statement (A), which mentions that insufficient sleep has serious repercussions. The fourth sentence of the paragraph will be statement (D), which mentions the consequences of improper sleep. In statement (B), the word 'also', states that it will follow statement (D) and mentions further side-effects of improper sleep. Hence the correct sequence of the statement will be 'CEADB'.
S95. Ans.(d)
Sol. The passage is mentioning the importance of sleep. Therefore, statement (C) will be the first statement of the paragraph as it introduces the theme and is an independent statement. Next will be statement (E), which mentions the benefits of proper sleep. Statement (E) then will be followed by statement (A), which mentions that insufficient sleep has serious repercussions. The fourth sentence of the paragraph will be statement (D), which mentions the consequences of improper sleep. In statement (B), the word 'also', states that it will follow statement (D) and mentions further side-effects of improper sleep. Hence the correct sequence of the statement will be 'CEADB'.
S96. Ans.(b)
Sol. The correct rearrangement of the highlighted words is CBA.
Thus, the correct sentence will be, "A sculpture of an eagle was carved out of wood for the wildlife event."
S97. Ans.(e)
Sol. All the highlighted words in the given sentence are correctly placed. Hence, no rearrangement needed.
S98. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct rearrangement of the highlighted words is ACB
Thus, the correct sentence will be, "Without any solitude, an introvert is bound to go a bit crazy."
S99. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct rearrangement of the highlighted words is BAC
Thus, the correct sentence will be, 'The permeable material allowed a large amount of water to seep through.'
S100. Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct rearrangement of the highlighted words is BCA
Thus, the correct sentence will be, "The astronomer discovered a new star during a recent observation"

SBI Clerk Previous Year Question Paper - 2022 with Free PDF Download link

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