SBI PO Mains 2020 Previous Year Question Paper with Free PDF Download Memory Based Paper-Jan 02, 2020

SBI PO Mains 2020 Previous Year Question Paper with Free PDF Download Memory Based Paper-Jan 02, 2020

SBI PO
Mains Paper (English)
155 Questions
Que. 1 Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below.
There are 6 persons A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting around a circular table, but not necessarily in the
same order and all are facing towards the center. All the persons are married and there is an equal number of
husbands and wives in the group. They are of different ages viz. 36, 51, 48, 33, 41, and 28 but not necessarily
in the same order. The age of the husband is greater than the age of the wife. No couple sits together and no
two even/odd aged persons are sitting together.
B, an even-aged person is sitting second to the left of a person whose age is 48. Only two persons sit between
A, the female person and the person whose age is 41. D is married to F, who is the oldest person. C, whose
age lies between 30 and 40 is sitting second to the right of A’s husband. The youngest person sits to the
immediate right of the oldest person. A is not the youngest person.
What is the sum of the ages of A’s husband and F’s wife?
1. 77
2. 80
3. 91
4. 89
5. 84
Que. 2 Who among the following is the wife of C?
1. E
2. B
3. A
4. D
5. None of these
Que. 3 What is the position C with respect to his/her spouse?
1. Second to the left
2. Exactly opposite
3. Immediate right
4. Second to the right
5. Fourth to left
Que. 4 How many persons are sitting between F and the person aged 28, if we start counting from F in
clockwise direction?
1. Four
2. Three
3. Two
4. One
5. None
Que. 5 Direction: Read the following information carefully and answer the question that follow:
The coding language used to indicate the positions of points is as follows:
P 17@ Q means P is 14 m north to the point Q
P 15$ Q means P is 20 m east to the point Q
P 13% Q means P is 10 m south to the point Q
P 12& Q means P is 17 m west to the point Q
The positions of some points are:
A 15& B, B 27% C, C 17& D, L 18% A, M 33$ L, N 28@ M, O 15$ N, K 17@ O.
If Y is to the south of D and west of O then which of the following is nearest to Y?
1. M
2. N
3. B
4. O
5. K
Que. 6 Which of the following is true?
1. C 24@ B
2. B 10 & A
3. M 28$ N
4. D 11& K
5. None of these
Que. 7 Which of the following expression is false?
1. C 33& K
2. N 15& O
3. O 17% K
4. A 18@ L
5. None of these
Que. 8 If a point Z such that Z 15& C is situated, what will be the relationship between Z and A?
1. A 21% Z
2. Z 21@ A
3. Z 27@ A
4. A 27% Z
5. Both 3) and 4)
Que. 9 What is the relationship between C and K?
1. C 41& K
2. C 33$ K
3. K 33$ C
4. C 38$ K
5. None of the above
Que. 10 Directions: Study the information given below carefully and answer the questions given below.
Ten people sitting in two parallel rows. Row 1 consist of A, B, C, D, E, all the person sitting in row 1 are
facing south. Row 2 consist of F, G, H, I, J, all of them are facing north.
All ten people have a different number of chocolates with them. The number of chocolates they have are 6, 1,
11, 12, 9, 10, 8, 4, 2 and 7.
Neither D nor C is sitting at the extreme ends. F has an odd number of chocolates. E is sitting opposite to J
who is sitting second to one of the extreme ends. J has the highest number of chocolates. H is sitting second
to the left of J and is facing the one who has 6 chocolates. The one who is sitting third to the left end of the
first row has a prime number of chocolates. E has more number of chocolates than I. B who is sitting at the
left end has 11 number of chocolates, 9 more than the one who is sitting at the right end of the same row. A is
sitting diagonally opposite to I who has even number of chocolates. D is sitting at the right side of C. The
number of people sitting to the right side of G is equal to the number of people sitting at the left side of G.
Addition of the number of chocolates owned by F and H makes a perfect square and that addition is less than
the number of chocolates owned by G.
Four of the following five persons are somehow similar and thus form a group. Which of the following
person does not belong to that group?
1. J
2. F
3. A
4. B
5. I
Que. 11 How many chocolates are owned by the person who is sitting second to the left of the person who
is sitting opposite of G?
1. 12
2. 6
3. 7
4. 9
5. 11
Que. 12 Who is sitting second to the right of H?
1. F
2. I
3. G
4. J
5. None of the above
Que. 13 How many chocolates does G have?
1. 12
2. 1
3. 8
4. 10
5. 9
Que. 14 What is the position of F with respect to J?
1. Third to the left
2. Third to the right
3. second to the left
4. Second to the right
5. None of these
Que. 15 Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
Input: Sums 98 76 Own Act 118 Mode 88 Card 112
Step I: 76 Act 88 Card 98 Mode 112 Own 118 Sums
Step II: 38 Bct 44 Dard 49 Node 56 Pwn 59 Tums
Step III: 24 Bdt 16 Dbrd 36 Npde 30 Pxn 45 Tvms
Step IV: 6 Bdu 7 Dbsd 9 Npee 3 Pxo 9 Tvns
Step V: 36 Bdu 49 Dbse 81 Npef 9 Pxo 81 Tvnt
Step V is the last step.
As per rules followed in the given steps, find an appropriate step for given Input.
Input: Maps 114 Code 92 126 Yawn Ice 78 Sip 106
Which is the Penultimate step?
1. 27 Dpde 24 Jde 15 Nbps 35 Tjp 18 Zbwn
2. 78 Code 92 Ice 106 Maps 114 Sip 126 Yawn
3. 9 Dpee 6 Jdf 6 Nbqs 8 Tjq 9 Zbxn
4. 81 Dpef 36 Jdf 36 Nbqt 64 Tjq 81 Zbxo
5. 39 Dode 46 Jce 53 Naps 57 Tip 63 Zawn
Que. 16 Which of the following elements lies exactly between 92 and 126 in Step I?
1. Maps
2. Ice
3. 106
4. 114
5. Sip
Que. 17 Which is the following step?
Step: 39 Dode 46 Jce 53 Naps 57 Tip 63 Zawn
1. Step I
2. Step III
3. Step IV
4. Step V
5. Step II
Que. 18 What is the 4th element from right end in Step III?
1. 8
2. 35
3. Nbps
4. 57
5. Jde
Que. 19 Which of the following is the fifth step for input?
1. 9 Dpee 6 Jdf 6 Nbqs 8 Tjq 9 Zbxn
2. 9 Dpef 6 Jdf 6 Nbqt 8 Tjq 9 Zbxo
3. 39 Dode 46 Jce 53 Naps 57 Tip 63 Zawn
4. 81 Dpef 36 Jdf 36 Nbqt 64 Tjq 81 Zbxo
5. 27 Dpde 24 Jde 15 Nbps 35 Tjp 18 Zbwn
Que. 20 Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:
There is a matrix of 4*4. The rows are represented as %, $, # and @ from the first to the fourth in
the same order and the columns are represented as 1 to 4 from the first to the fourth in the same order.
Following operations are to be performed in the given order to obtain the whole matrix.
1. One diagonal of matrix is IBPS and the other diagonal is 2019 in the same order. Both have their first
element in the first Column and 4th column respectively.
2. The immediate neighbor of any alphabet in the same row is the alphabetical position of that number.
3. The remaining places are to be filled by taking the difference between the two numbers surrounding that
place in the same row.
In the obtained matrix, the value of the sum of all digits in the second column would be less than that of the
third column.
The compiler of a PC will respond to the input by calculating the value of the string as per the following
conditions.
1. If there are equal number of even and odd numbers in the string, then value of the string will be the
absolute difference between all the even numbers and all the odd numbers.
2. If there are equal number of alphabets and numbers in the string, then the value of string will be the
absolute difference between the alphabetical position of all the alphabets and all the numbers.
3. If there is only one even number in the string, then the value of string will be the addition of all the
numbers in that string.
4. If there is a vowel in the string, then value of the string will be the alphabetical position of that vowel.
5. If none of the above mentioned conditions follow, then the value of the string will be obtained by
subtracting the lowest number from the highest number in that string.
Note:
1. The value of an input is obtained by adding the values of all the strings and then the digits in that value is
added up to the point where it becomes a single digit number and then it is taken as an input.
2. If only a single string is given, then the digits in that value is added upto the point where it becomes a
single digit number and then it is taken as input.
3. If the value of an input is a prime number, then the program will be executed.
If the value of an input is an even number, then program will not be executed.
If the value of an input is both even and prime number, then program will be executed but it will show an
error.
If the value of an input is other than the above mentioned values, then PC will hang.
Let us assume a matrix:
1 2 3 4
% 1 2 C 4
$ J 6 7 8
# 9 10 T 12
@ O 14 15 16
AA = $3 @2 %1 #2, BB = @1 $3 %2
$3 denotes value in second row and column 3 which will be equal to 7.
Therefore AA = 7 14 1 10
So, this is satisfying condition 1. Hence the sum = (14 + 10) – (7 + 1) = 16
BB = O 7 2
So, this is satisfying condition 4. Thus, frequency = alphabetical position of O = 15
The values of AA and BB are added, and the final frequency is 16 + 15 = 31 which is a two digit number, So
again adding them 3 + 1 = 4, which is a non-prime even number so the program will not be executed.
Consider the following four strings for all questions:
AA = $2 #1 @3 #3
BB = @1 %4 @3 %3
CC = $4 @2 #4 %1
DD = %4 @2 @4 #2
What is the value of input if only signal AA and BB is taken into account?
1. 2
2. 8
3. 7
4. 1
5. 9
Que. 21 What is the correct option if only signal CC is taken into account?
1. The program will be executed.
2. The program will not be executed.
3. The program will be executed but it will show an error.
4. The PC will hang..
5. Cannot be determined
Que. 22 What is the correct option if both signals AA and DD is taken as input?
1. The program will be executed.
2. The program will not be executed.
3. The program will be executed but it will show an error.
4. The PC will hang.
5. Cannot be determined
Que. 23 It is given that signal BB is incorrect and the program was executed but showed an error, then what
could be the correct string for it?
1. @1 %4 @3 %3
2. #3 @4 @2 %3
3. @1 %4 @3 $4
4. #4 $3 $2 #4
5. None of the above
Que. 24 What will be the value of string if all four signals given is taken as input?
1. 2
2. 5
3. 7
4. 1
5. 8
Que. 25 Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
There are 8 persons - P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W live on eight floor building numbered from floor 1
to 8. The lowermost floor is numbered as 1, floor above it as 2 and so on. Each of them likes different colors
- Red, Violet, Pink, Yellow, Black, Purple, Blue and White not necessarily in the same order. Each of them
also has different birth year - 1954, 1969, 1983, 1989, 1995, 1997, 1999 and 2001 again not necessarily in the
same order. Ages are calculated on the base year of 2019.
There is one floor between the floor on which U, who likes Red color and Q lives. T, who likes Yellow color
lives immediately above the who likes White color. Q lives on the even numbered floor but not on the
topmost floor. The age of S, who likes Violet color is multiple of 11. There are at least five floor between S
and U. U lives somewhere above S but not immediately above S. Birth year of Q is even number. W lives
immediately above S. The difference between the age of W and R is 20 years. Person likes Black color lives
immediately above the person who likes Purple color and and immediately below the person who likes White
color. V lives on floor numbered four. There are two floor between V and R. R neither lives on floor
numbered one and nor likes Pink color. Person whose birth year is 1997 is lives on bottom most floor and
likes Violet color. The age of P is two times the age of V. The age difference of R and Q is 35 years. U is not
20 years old.W is older than R.
Which of the following combination of Year, Color and Person is correct?
1. U - Red - 1989
2. S - Violet - 1969
3. P - Black - 1983
4. Q - Blue - 2001
5. None of these
Que. 26 Who lives on 5th floor?
1. One who likes Pink color.
2. One whose birth year is 1995
3. One whose age is 20 years
4. One who likes Red color
5. V
Que. 27 What is the sum of ages of R and Q?
1. 100
2. 105
3. 95
4. 89
5. 72
Que. 28 Whose birth year is 1983?
1. One who likes Red color.
2. One who likes Black color.
3. One who lives on 7th floor
4. One who lives on top most floor
5. One who likes Purple color.
Que. 29 Four of the following five are alike in certain way hence form a group. Find the one which does not
belongs to the group?
1. U
2. One who likes Blue color.
3. Whose birth year 1954.
4. V
5. W
Que. 30 If it is possible to make only one seven letter meaningful English word with the 1st, 4th, 5th, and 7th
letter of the word PRIORITY and 3rd, 5th, and 6th letter of the word SECTOR, which of the
following will be the first letter from left of that word? If no such word can be made give ‘X’ as the answer
and if more than one such word can be made give ‘Y’ as the answer.
1. P
2. R
3. Y
4. O
5. X
Que. 31 Direction: In the question below are given a statement followed by two courses of action
numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for
improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the
information given in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically
follow(s) for pursuing.
Statement: The management of XYZ Ltd has been at the receiving end of constant complaints from its
employees about the HR department. The management is concerned that poor HR management will likely
spread to impact all levels of the company causing issues such as employee conflict, poor team building,
personality conflicts among many others.
Which of the following statements is/are a viable course of action to tackle the problem?
I. Replacing the HR personnel with an HR management software.
II. Develop an effective training program for HR which includes guidance on the company's
interdepartmental communications improvement.
1. Only I follows
2. Only II follows
3. Both I and II follow
4. Neither I nor II follows
5. Either I or II follows
Que. 32 Directions: In the question below is a passage followed by three courses of action numbered I, II
and III. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, followup or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. Considering the information given in the passage to
be true, decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Passage: Reports suggest that the majority of the destitute widows, deserted women, and physically
challenged men and women in the villages of Gujarat and Rajasthan are facing unemployment issues. It has
been observed that they have good handicraft and sewing skills.
Courses of Action:
I: The Government should make all the people rich and stable.
II: The Government should provide free housing to all.
III: The Government should introduce such schemes which will provide a free supply of sewing machines to
the needy with a view to increase the self-employment potential.
1. Only II follows.
2. Only III follows.
3. Both I and III follow.
4. All of them follow.
5. None of them follow.
Que. 33 Directions: The critical reasoning question is based on a short passage, an argument, a set of
statements, or a plan of action. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given and
explain why the chosen answer is the right fit.
Passage: A diversified brick and mortar company recently hired a web designer and created an interesting
online clothing catalogue to take its Clothing business online. As a result, the company had a huge uptick in
the volume of sales in the Clothing segment. The spurt was caused due to increased orders from digitally
literate clients. Now, the company is planning to take another of its business segment, namely Electronic
goods, online.
Which of the following assumptions hold?
1. Other Electronic Goods companies doesn't have online presence.
2. Digitally literate clients will be interested in Electronic Goods.
3. The same web designer can be used for designing Electronic goods catalogue too.
4. Other companies do not have quality web designers.
5. The company can wind up its brick and mortar business.
Que. 34 Direction: Read the following passage and find out the inferences stated through the passage.
Statement: Until the 19th century, loneliness referred to action like journeying to a place outside a
city and had less to do with feeling. Descriptions of loneliness and abandonment were used to generate fear
of nonexistence within men, to be cut off from the world, and to God’s love.
Which of the following can be logically inferred from the statement above?
1. God loves all equally.
2. People felt scared to be lonely and devoid of God's love.
3. Perception of people about loneliness changed in the 20th century.
4. Feeling should be associated with the idea of loneliness.
5. None of these.
Que. 35 Directions: In the question below, are given a statement followed by three courses of actions
numbered I, II, and III. On the basis of the information given, you have to assume everything in the
statement to be true, and then decide which of the following suggested courses of action logically follow(s)
for pursuing.
Statement: The people who share the border of X and Y are generally involved in fights regarding the
distribution of water, usage of national highways, and many more. The problem occurs when these fights
hamper the other citizens as well. Due to this conflict, many a time they block the highways or destroy the
national properties.
Courses of Action:
I: The local police station should immediately deploy policemen round the clock in the borders of X and Y.
II: The police need to identify the people involved in such fighting activities and put them behind bars.
III: All the transport facilities should be stopped between the two states.
1. Only II follows
2. Neither II nor III follows
3. None follows
4. All except III
5. All I, II and III follow
Que. 36 Directions: Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II
and III. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. Read all three statements and give answers accordingly.
Six students viz. M, N, O, P, Q, and R were given the seminar in the same week starting from Monday to
Saturday, one on each day. How many of them are given seminars before O?
Statement I: P has given the seminar before than at least three students. M gave the seminar on Tuesday.
Statement II: Q has given the seminar before than at least one of them. O gave immediately after P.
Statement III: O has not given the seminar on Monday.
1. If the data in statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question
2. If the data in statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question
3. If the data in statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question
4. If the data in all the statement I, II and III together are not sufficient to answer the question
5. If all the statements I, II and III are necessary to answer the question
Que. 37 Directions: Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II
and III. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. Read all the three statements and give answer accordingly.
Six members of the family X, Y, Z, A, B and C are standing in a row and all are facing the north direction.
Who is standing between Z and B?
Statement I : X is standing second from the left end. Z is standing third to the left of Y who is near to B.
Statement II : Y is not the immediate neighbour of C who does not sits any extreme end of the row.
Statement III : B is not the neighbour of X.
If the data in statement I alone or in statement II alone or in statement III alone is sufficient to
answer the question.
1.
If the data in statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement III
are not sufficient to answer the question.
2.
If the data in statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II is
not sufficient to answer the question.
3.
If the data in statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I is
not sufficient to answer the question.
4.
5. If the data in all the statement I, II, and III are necessary to answer the question.
Que. 38 Directions: Each of the questions below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II
and III. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. Read all the three statements and give answer accordingly.
Five buildings I, J, K, L and M are standing in the straight line facing north. Which building is standing at the
extreme left?
Statement I : J is standing exactly between M and K.
Statement II : J is standing to the right of M.
Statement III : L is standing between I and M.
1. Statement I and II together required.
2. Statement II and III together required.
3. Statement I and III together required.
4. All statements together required to answer the question
5. The question cannot be answered with all the statements together.
Que. 39 Directions: Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I, and
II. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the
question. Read all the three statements and give answer accordingly.
In a certain code language How the word “Love” is coded?
Statement I : “money love fun common” is coded as “sd fr gr da” and “ransom jump love fun” is coded as
“cg nb fr gr”
Statement II : “must ransom burden common” is coded as “tj pl da cg” and “wan fun house” is coded as “qs
sw gr”
If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
1.
If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I
alone are not sufficient to answer the question.
2.
3. If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.
4. If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
5. If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
Que. 40 In the following question, some conclusions are given and some statements are given you have to
take the given conclusions to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts and then decide from which of the statements given in options which make the conclusions given in the
statement definitely true.
Conclusions :
I.All Trees being Forest is a possibility.
II.All City being Forest is a possibility.
1. Statement - I: All City are Trees . No Trees is Forest . All Branch are Forest
2. Statement - II : All City are Trees . No Trees is Branch . All Branch are Forest
3. Statement - III: Some City are Trees . No Trees is Forest . All Branch are Forest
4. Statements – IV : No City is Forest . No Trees is Branch . All Branch are Forest
5. Statements – V: Some City are Trees . No Trees is Branch . No City is Forest
Que. 41 In the following question, some conclusions are given and some statements are given you have to
take the given conclusions to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts and then decide from which of the statements given in options which make the conclusions given in the
statement definitely true.
Conclusions :
I.some pillows are mats.
II.All wells can never be pillows.
1. Statement – I: Only a few wells are mats. All pillows are mats.
2. Statements II : Only a few mats are wells. All mats are pillows.
3. Statement – III : Some Pillows are wells. some mats are wells.
4. Statement – IV : No pillow is mats. No well is pillow.
5. Statement – V : All pillows are mats. All wells are pillows.
Que. 42 In the following question, some conclusions are given and some statements are given you have to
take the given conclusions to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts and then decide from which of the statements given in options which make the conclusions given in the
statement definitely true.
Conclusions :
I.No Rose is a flower.
II.Some plants are flowers.
1. Statements I: No Rose is root. No root is a flower. Some flowers are plants.
2. Statements II:All Rose are roots. All roots are flower. No flower is plant.
3. Statements III : All Rose are roots. No root is a flower. Some flowers are plants.
4. Statement IV : All Rose are roots. No root is a flower. No flower is plant.
5. Statement V : All Rose are roots. All roots are flower. Some flowers are plants.
Que. 43 Directions: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
If 'L + M' means 'L is the brother of M'
If 'L × M' means 'L is the mother of M'
If 'L % M' means 'L is the husband of M'
If 'L ÷ M' means 'L is the father of M'
If 'L $ M' means 'L is the daughter of M'
How is G related to Y according to the following statement?
G + I % T × K + Y
1. Mother
2. Grandfather
3. Paternal Uncle
4. Maternal Uncle
5. Father
Que. 44 How is F related to H according to the given statement?
F ÷ U $ J $ V % H
1. Father
2. Son
3. Nephew
4. Son-in-law
5. Mother-in-law
Que. 45 In which of the following options, N is the granddaughter of R?
1. C + L ÷ N % Q $ R
2. R % Q + L ÷ C % N
3. Q × N $ C + L $ R
4. C × N + R $ L ÷ Q
5. R + L $ N ÷ C × Q
Que. 46 Directions: The following question is accompanied by three statements (I), (II), and (III). You
have to determine which statements(s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the questions.
A shopkeeper sold two articles P and Q to a customer. In this transaction, the shopkeeper made neither profit
nor loss. Find the cost price of article Q.
I. The profit percentage on article P is . The loss percent on article Q is
II. The selling price of the article P and Q are equal.
III. The total selling price of two articles P and Q is ₹ 5000
66 %2
3
28 %4
7
1. Both I and III
2. Both I and II
3. III and either I or II only
4. All the three statements
5. Any of the three statements
Que. 47 Directions: The following question is accompanied by three statements (I), (II), and (III). You
have to determine which statements(s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the questions.
Find the length of Train B.
I. The difference between the speeds of trains A and B is 22 km/h.
II. Two trains A and B running in opposite directions and cross each other in 32 seconds.
III. The length of train A is 192 m and the ratio of the speed of the trains is 20 : 31.
The data in statements I and statements II are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
1.
The data in statements II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I and
III is not sufficient to answer the question.
2.
The data in statements I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement III alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
3.
4. The data in all the statements I, II and III is not sufficient to answer the question.
5. The data in all the statements I, II and III together is necessary to answer the question.
Que. 48 Directions: The following question is accompanied by three statements (I), (II), and (III). You
have to determine which statements(s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the questions.
Find the number of days for which the first man was absent more than the third man.
I) Three men worked together for 30 days to do work and all of them remained absent for few days.
II) First man was absent for 10 days more than the second man.
III) The third man completed 1/3rd of the total work.
The data in statements I and statements II are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in
statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
1.
The data in statements II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I and
III is not sufficient to answer the question.
2.
3. The data in all the statements I, II and III are not sufficient to answer the question.
4. The data in all the statements I, II and III together is necessary to answer the question.
The data in statements I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
5.
Que. 49
Directions: In the following question, two statements are numbered as I and II. On solving these statements,
we get quantities A and B respectively. Solve both quantities and choose the correct option.
Quantity I: When 5 is subtracted from one-third of one-fifth of a number, the result is 1/30 of the same
number. Find the number.
Quantity II: A bag contains an equal number of ₹ 50, ₹ 100, and ₹ 200 notes. If total amount in the bag is ₹
10500. Find the number of notes of each kind.
1. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
2. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
3. Quantity I > Quantity II
4. Quantity I < Quantity II
5. Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
Que. 50 A box contains 50 balls, in which 5 are red balls, 6 are green balls, 9 are blue balls, and the
remaining are yellow balls.
Quantity I: Probability of picking 2 balls such that one is green and the other one is blue
Quantity II: Probability of picking 3 balls such that at least one of them is red
Quantity III: Probability of picking 3 balls such that at least one of them is blue
1. Quantity III > Quantity I > Quantity II
2. Quantity II > Quantity III > Quantity I
3. Quantity III > Quantity II > Quantity I
4. Quantity I = Quantity II > Quantity III
5. Quantity I > Quantity III < Quantity II
Que. 51 Directions: In the following question, two statements are numbered as I and II. On solving these
statements, we get quantities I and II respectively. Solve both quantities and choose the correct
option.
Quantity I: P and Q started a business. After eight months from the start of the business, P left and R joined.
The amount invested by Q was twice that invested by P. The amount invested by R was thrice of that invested
by P. Q got ₹ 252 as the share from the total annual profit earned. Find the profit share of R.
Quantity II: ₹ 280
1. Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
2. Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
3. Quantity I > Quantity II
4. Quantity I < Quantity II
5. Cannot be determined or Quantity I = Quantity II
Que. 52 Directions: Read the given Pie chart and table carefully and answer the following questions.
There are three types of classes Basic, Regular and Advance are of duration 1 hour, 2 hours and 3
hours respectively.
In the given pie chart the percentage of classes (in hours) taken by four Yoga teachers Sachin, Vishnu,
Vaibhav and Aditya are given.
Total time for classes (in a month) = 450 hours
In the following table, the ratio of time spent on the different type of classes taken by a different teacher is
given.
Teacher
Name
1 Hour
Class
2 Hour
Class
3 Hour
Class
Aditya 5 4 2
Vaibhav 2 7 5
Vishnu 1 2 6
Sachin 6 8 3
What is the percentage of number of basic classes taken by Vaibhav sir to the number of regular classes taken
by Sachin sir?
1. 200%
2. 75%
3. 100%
4. 150%
5. 50%
Que. 53 How many more regular classes taken by Aditya sir than the advance classes taken by Vaibhav sir?
1. 5
2. 3
3. 9
4. 6
5. 8
Que. 54 What is the ratio of time spend by Sachin sir and Vishnu sir together in basic level classes to that of
the regular level class through the month?
1. 13 : 19
2. 23 : 33
3. 31 : 36
4. 31 : 44
5. 39 : 44
Que. 55
Find the ratio of the number of basic class of Vaibhav sir to the number of advance classes taken by Vishnu
sir in the given period of time.
1. 8 : 9
2. 3 : 4
3. 9 : 8
4. 5 : 6
5. 9 : 2
Que. 56 Direction: Go through the passage and line graph given below and answer the question based on it.
The line graph given below shows the number of orders placed (in thousands) and orders delivered
(in thousands) during the week i.e from Monday to Saturday. The number of orders delivered was returned
by some of the customers due to various reasons on the next day of the order delivered. The percentage of
orders returned is mentioned in the table below. The returned ordered percentage represents the percentage of
orders returned from the order delivered on the previous day. i.e the number of orders returned on Tuesday
were returned from the order delivered on Monday and so on. Assuming that no orders were delivered and
returned on Sunday.
Days Returned
Monday 15%
Tuesday 20%
Wednesday 27%
Thursday 13%
Friday 21%
Saturday 16%
The order placed and delivered on Wednesday is what approximate percentage of the order placed and
returned on Friday.
1. 230%
2. 209%
3. 190%
4. 309%
5. 150%
Que. 57 In how many days orders delivered during the week is less than the average of orders delivered
during the week.
1. 5
2. 2
3. 4
4. 6
5. 3
Que. 58 What is the ratio of orders that were delivered but not returned on Monday to the ratio of orders
that were delivered but not returned on Thursday.
1. 23455 ∶ 18000
2. 22357 ∶ 11920
3. 11920 : 22357
4. 22357 ∶ 18000
5. 18000 ∶ 23455
Que. 59 What is the ratio of difference of order placed and order returned on Tuesday to the difference of
order placed and order returned on Friday.
1. 45123 ∶ 32145
2. 32045 ∶ 26073
3. 25148 ∶ 31425
4. 31425 ∶ 25148
5. 26073 ∶ 32045
Que. 60 Find the average number of items returned on Tuesday and Wednesday.
1. 42860
2. 44870
3. 55670
4. 52300
5. 48360
Que. 61 From the following options which day has the highest number of returned items.
1. Monday
2. Tuesday
3. Wednesday
4. Thursday
5. Friday
Que. 62 Read the following lines and answer the questions that follow: -
There are a total of 5 different writers – A, B, C, D and E. They write their books and distribute
them among their friends. It is also known that none of these friends are mutual with respect to each other.
Also the following information is available:
(i) A has a total of 7 friends. Each of his friends has 4 friends.
(ii) B has a total of 5 friends. Each of his friends has 3 friends.
(iii) C has total of 4 friends. Each of his friends has 5 friends.
(iv) D has total of 6 friends. Each of his friends has 2 friends.
(v) E has total of 3 friends. Each of his friends has 5 friends.
If E has written 300 books. These books are distributed equally among his respective friends by him. Each of
his friend further distributes equal amount of books to his/her friend. Also it is known that among his friends,
1 is male and the remaining are females. Now, if the male friend of E can distribute a maximum of 60 books
to his female friends, find the maximum possible number of female friends of the male friend of E.
1. 1
2. 3
3. 2
4. 5
5. None of these
Que. 63 If E has written 300 books. These books are distributed equally among his respective friends by
him. Each of his friend further distributes equal amount of books to his/her friend. Also it is known
that among his friends, 1 is male and the remaining are females. In how many ways female friends of E can
distribute 1 book to their friends more than that by the male friends?
1. 100
2. 120
3. 130
4. 115
5. None of these
Que. 64 If C has written 400 books, and D has written 600 books. These books are distributed equally
among their respective friends by both of them. The friends of C do not distribute these books to
their respective friends but the friends of D distributed the books they received among their respective
friends. What will be the average of the number of books received by each of the friends of C and those
received by each of the friend of the friends of D?
1. 75
2. 80
3. 65
4. 100
5. None of these
Que. 65 If A has written 700 books, and B has written 450 books. These books are distributed equally
among their respective friends by both of them. Then their friends also distributed the books they
received among their respective friends. By how much percentage the number of books received by the
friends of the friends of B more than those received by the friends of the friends of A?
1. 10%
2. 15%
3. 20%
4. 25%
5. None of these
Que. 66 In how many ways the friends of A exchange their 1 book with each other?
1. 20
2. 32
3. 30
4. 28
5. None of these
Que. 67 Directions: Read the given table carefully and answer the following questions.
Given table shows the Quantity of milk distributed by milkman and the quantity of milk and water
added and the quantity left after adding water and milk. Some values are missing here.
A milkman have 'X' litre of milk and water mixture in the ratio 5 ∶ 1. He gives milk to three persons Amit,
Gareema and Madhu.
Persons Quantity given
to Client (in L)
Quantity of milk
added (in L)
Quantity of water
added (in L)
Quantity left
after adding
water and
milk (in L)
Amit 120 80 0 560
Gareema y 60 10 M
Madhu 200 3r r z
Data calculated from solving one part can be used in the calculation of the other part.
If the cost of 1 litre mixture is Rs.45, a discount of 6.66% is given to Amit and a discount of 11.11% is given
to Madhu, then money given by Amit is what percentage less then the money given by Madhu
1. 35%
2. 37%
3. 63%
4. 25%
5. 45%
Que. 68 If milkman after giving milk to another person Mahesh left with 180 liters of mixture after adding
milk and water in the ratio 7 ∶ 6, the quantity of milk added is 10 litres more than the water. What
quantity of mixture did he give to Mahesh?
1. 50 litre
2. 100 litre
3. 30 litre
4. 45 litre
5. 110 litre
Que. 69 If value of r is equal to 50, then the quantity of water added is what percentage of quantity of milk
added?
1. 34.67%
2. 5.89%
3. 20.69%
4. 58.75%
5. 12%
Que. 70 If value of z is 60% value of X, then find value of r.
1. 50
2. 30
3. 120
4. 45
5. 20
Que. 71 If y is equal to 75% of mixture of milk and water left with milkman and ratio of milk and water in
M is 9 ∶ 1. What is the quantity of Milk in the mixture M?
1. 450 litre
2. 441 litre
3. 360 litre
4. 720 litre
5. 423 litre
Que. 72 Find the value of 'X'.
1. 1200
2. 720
3. 600
4. 360
5. 300
Que. 73 Directions: In a football tournament. There are four football teams Chennai, Mumbai, Delhi, and
Kolkata each will play against each other Two times.
1. One match will be in-home and another match will be away.
2. Each team will get 2 game points when they hit a goal and they will lose 1 game point when they concede
a goal.
3. A team will get 5 points in winning a game. To qualify for finals a team should get above 10 points.
Note:
(i) Team Chennai won 3 matches Mumbai won 5 matches and Delhi and Kolkata have won the remaining
matches equally.
(ii) Two match between Kolkata and Delhi is drawn due to the equal number of goals.
The average of Table points of Mumbai and Chennai is how much percentage of Chennai table points?
1. 100/3%
2. 200/3%
3. 50/3%
4. 400/3%
Que. 74 Find the ratio of the winning percentage of Mumbai and Delhi to the losing percentage of Chennai
and Kolkata.
1. 7 : 6
2. 1 : 1
3. 3 : 4
4. 4 : 5
Que. 75 What is the sum of table points of Kolkata and Delhi and sum of the matches were won by them
both?
1. 10 points, 2 matches
2. 15 points , 3 matches
3. 20 points, 4 matches
4. 25 points ,5 matches
Que. 76 In a match, Chennai has scored 2 goals more than Delhi. The game point of Chennai is 7 and Delhi
is 1. What is the average of the two team goals?
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
Que. 77 In a match, Mumbai won Delhi by the difference of 6 points and Delhi got 2 points to find the ratio
of goals scored by Mumbai and Delhi.
1. 3 : 2
2. 9 : 4
3. 8: 3
4. 4 : 5
Que. 78 What is the total number of matches played in the tournament? and how many matches were
played by each team?
1. 14 & 7
2. 18 & 9
3. 8 & 4
4. 12 & 6
Que. 79 Directions: In the given series A, B, C, D are positive integers that are given in terms of x, y, and
z which are also positive integers
Number series:
?, A, B, C, D
Set - 1 :
x – 10x + 21 = 0(smaller root)
y – 33y + 266 = 0(greater root)
z = 9x – 1
Set - 2 :
A = (x + 1) + y
B = (x + 2) + z
C = (x + 6)2 + 2
D = (x + 9)2 + 3
What will come in place of '?' in the given number series:-
2
2
2
2
1. 19
2. 27
3. 29
4. 35
5. 17
Que. 80 Directions: In the given series a, b, c, d are positive integers that are given in terms of x, y, and any
one of them.
20, a, b, c, d, 65
Set - 1.
x = HCF (2, 7)
y = z
z
2 – 8z + 12 = 0 (smaller root)
Set - 2.
(a – 20) = x + y
b = (x + 1) + y + a + 1
c = (x + 2) + y + b – 2
d = (x + 1) + y + c + 2
Find the value of "c" in given number series.
2 2
2
2
2
1. 41
2. 36
3. 25
4. 51
5. 38
Que. 81 In QIP, I stands for?
1. Investment
2. Integrated
3. Introduction
4. Institutional
5. None of the above
Que. 82 Who among the following became the first women match official, in men's Test, taking up the role
of fourth umpire in SCG test?
1. Claire Polosak
2. Kathy Cross
3. Sue Redfern
4. Jacqueline Williams
5. None of the above.
Que. 83 Who among the following was the 3rd man to walk in the moon?
1. Charles P. (Pete) Conrad
2. Edwin Aldrin
3. Michael Collins
4. Neil Armstrong
5. None of the above
Que. 84 Who is the author of the book ‘Dreams From My Father’?
1. Olivia Laing
2. Navin Chawla
3. Charles Darwin
4. Barack Obama
5. Donald Trump
Que. 85 In Aug 2020, who among the following has been selected as the next chairman of public sector
steel major Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL)?
1. Anil Kumar Chaudhary
2. Soma Mondal
3. Vijoy Kumar Singh
4. Narendra Kumar Taneja
5. Anirban Dasgupta
Que. 86 Which of the following is not a Kharif crop?
1. Mustard
2. Jowar
3. Paddy
4. Soyabean
5. All of the above
Que. 87 The Reserve Bank of India has revised the limit for Ways and Means Advances (WMA) from 1.20
lakh crore to ________ lakh crore.
1. 1.50
2. 1.75
3. 2.00
4. 2.50
5. 1.95
Que. 88 The government is set to hire which of the following as advisers to help Life Insurance Corporation
of India (LIC) prepare for an initial public offering (IPO)?
1. Deloitte Touche Tohmatsu India Ltd.
2. Goldman Sachs.
3. Spark Capital Ltd.
4. Morgan Stanley
5. None of the above
Que. 89 PM Modi laid the foundation stone of Light House projects (LHPs). It is related to ___
1. Shipping
2. Defence
3. Housing
4. IT
5. None of the above
Que. 90 Satpura National Park is situated in
1. Himachal Pradesh
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Kerala
5. None of these
Que. 91 In Dec 2020, The Reserve Bank had has launched a new edition of the Regulatory Sandbox which
of the following is the theme of the program?
1. Retention of costumer
2. EMI payment
3. Car Payment
4. Digital Payment
5. Retail Payments
Que. 92 India and ADB sign USD 231 million loan to augment electricity generation capacity in which of
the following state?
1. Assam
2. Arunachal Pradesh
3. Mizoram
4. West Bengal
5. None of the above.
Que. 93 Which bank has announced the launch of ‘Home Utsav’?
1. Yes Bank
2. PNB
3. ICICI Bank
4. Axis Bank
5. SBI
Que. 94 The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) board has finalised a Three Year Roadmap Project 'UTKARSH'.
It is meant for what purpose?
1. Coordination and supervision
2. Supervision and regulation
3. Coordination and regulation
4. Monitoring and coordination
5. Monitoring and supervision
Que. 95 In Dec 2020, which of the following banks has launched a 3-in-1 account for saving, trading &
demat?
1. Ujjivan Small Finance Bank
2. Janalakshmi Small Finance Bank
3. Equitas Small Finance Bank
4. A U Small Finance Bank
5. Suryoday Small Finance Bank
Que. 96 In July 2020, how much amount (in crore) was approved by the Union Cabinet for Agriculture
Infrastructure Fund?
1. 25,000 Cr.
2. 50,000 Cr.
3. 75,000 Cr.
4. 1,00,000 Cr.
5. 2,00,000 Cr.
Que. 97 Who has been appointed the PM of Ivory Coast In July 2020?
1. Guillaume Soro
2. Alain Lobognon
3. Daniel Kablan Duncan
4. Hamed Bakayoko
5. Patrick Achi
Que. 98 Who was honoured with a Lifetime Achievement Award at the third edition of the India
International Film Festival of Boston (IIFFB 2020)?
1. Naseeruddin Shah
2. Om Puri
3. Anupam Kher
4. Amrish Puri
5. Paresh Rawal
Que. 99 Palle Pragathi yojana is launched by which state?
1. Kerala
2. Telangana
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. Tamil Nadu
5. Karnataka
Que. 100 In which country did PM Narendra Modi inaugurated Mangdechhu hydroelectric power plant in
August 2019?
1. Nepal
2. Bangladesh
3. Sri Lanka
4. Bhutan
5. Japan
Que. 101 Who was appointed as the Prime Minister (PM) of Lebanon? (Jan 2020)
1. Gebran Bassil
2. Hassan Diab
3. Michel Aoun
4. Saad Hariri
5. Nawaf Salam
Que. 102 Which country ranks lower than India in Global Hunger Index 2020?
1. Bangladesh
2. Myanmar
3. Pakistan
4. Nigeria
5. Nepal
Que. 103 In GRIHA, H stands for?
1. Human
2. Healthy
3. Habitat
4. Harmony
5. None of the above
Que. 104 Which one of the following is the largest producer of crude oil?
1. U.S.A
2. Russia
3. Saudi Arabia
4. Canada
5. China
Que. 105 The Indian Parliament House was designed by?
1. Alvar Aalto
2. Michael Graves
3. Edwin Lutyens
4. Renzo Piano
5. None of the above
Que. 106 Which company relaunched Java and Yezdi bikes in India ?
1. Hero
2. Eicher
3. Mahindra & Mahindra (M&M)
4. Bajaj
5. None of the above
Que. 107 Ethanol blending subsidy is ___ per annum or 50% of the rate of interest charged by banks
whichever is lower
1. 6%
2. 10%
3. 5%
4. 2%
5. 1%
Que. 108 Choose the incorrect answer regarding Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana (PMVVY)?
1. Last fiscal year to apply is 2023-24
2. The scheme provides for an assured return of 8% percent per annum payable monthly
3. Minimum Age: 60 years Maximum Age:
4. It is operated and managed by LIC
5. The period for this scheme is 12 year
Que. 109 The Living Root Bridges are a rare ecological phenomenon seen in which state of India?
1. West Bengal
2. Meghalaya
3. Sikkim
4. Mizoram.
5. None of the above
Que. 110 According to BASEL-II guidelines the minimum %CRAR is 9%, RBI released the 22nd issue of
the Financial Stability Report (FSR). The capital to risk-weighted assets ratio (CRAR) of
Scheduled Commercial Banks improved to how much per cent in September 2020 from 14.7 per cent in
March 2020?
1. 14.9
2. 15.1
3. 15.4
4. 15.8
5. 16.3
Que. 111 Choose the incorrect option regarding the Payment Infrastructure Development Fund( PIDF)
which was launched by RBI 2021?
To benefit the acquiring banks/non-banks and merchants by lowering overall acceptance
infrastructure costs.
1.
To increase payments acceptance infrastructure by adding 30 lakh touch points every year – 10 lakh
physical and 20 lakh digital payment acceptance devices.
2.
3. RBI has invested 250 crore in this fund.
4. To increase the number of acceptance devices multi-fold in the country.
5. POS will be established in tier 1 and tier 2 cities
Que. 112 National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has launched recurring payments for UPI. What
is its name?
1. UPI Repay
2. UPI Prepay
3. AutoPay
4. UPI recurring
5. UPI pay
Que. 113 In December 2020, SBI Cards and Payment Services Ltd (SBI Card) has raised how many rupees
(in crores) by issuing bonds on a private placement basis?
1. 250
2. 350
3. 450
4. 550
5. 650
Que. 114 According to RBI’s National Strategy for Financial Inclusion, minimum radius in which banking
facilities should be available to a person is ______.
1. 5 km
2. 50 km
3. 20 km
4. 6 km
5. None of the above
Que. 115 Indian Traditional mathematics "Kotipakoti" has how many zeros?
1. 21
2. 15
3. 36
4. 42
5. 2
Que. 116 In which of the following banks in India, LIC has completed the acquisition of 51 percent in
stake?
1. Dena Bank
2. IDBI Bank
3. Punjab National Bank
4. IDFC Bank
5. Bandhan Bank
Que. 117 Where is Keetham lake situated?
1. Agra
2. Jaipur
3. Kanpur
4. Bhopal
5. None of the above
Que. 118 Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Missile Complex is situated in ________.
1. Hyderabad
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Kerala
4. Karnataka
5. None of the above
Que. 119 Defence Minister inaugurated the advanced Hypersonic Wind Tunnel (HWT) test facility at
Hyderabad, making India the third country. Which are the other two countries?
1. US and Russia
2. China and South Korea
3. Japan and China
4. Australia and Japan
5. None of the above
Que. 120 Which of the following governs Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFC)?
1. Central government
2. Reserve Bank of India
3. Small Industries Development Bank of India
4. Industrial Finance Corporation of India
5. Securities and Exchange Board of India
Que. 121 Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below.
Corruption in every stage of the tropical timber trade fuels deforestation, which adversely affects
forest communities, leads to biodiversity loss and jeopardises the environment. A new report by international
watchdog Global Witness says that developing countries supplying timber to the European Union (EU)
witness high levels of corruption. In Cambodia for instance, corruption is deep-rooted due to the existing
nexus between logging companies, politicians and government officials.
According to the United Nations Environmental Programme and INTERPOL, illegal logging tops the ranking
of environmental crimes with an estimated value of US $ 50-152 billion annually. In terms of economic
value, “governments lose US $ 10 to 15 billion annually in lost revenue” due to illegal logging, Robert
Simpson, a Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) expert, says. He blames illegal logging for
undermining sustainable forest management and reducing forests’ capacity to provide environmental
services.
Illegal timber trade also gives rise to conflicts between local communities and logging companies, a
campaigner at Global Witness told Down To Earth earlier. A June 2015 Global Witness report blamed illegal
and uncontrolled logging for alleged human rights violations. Simpson adds that indigenous communities
lose access rights to forests. Besides conflicts, illegal timber trade leads to biodiversity loss. Citing the
example of the Democratic Republic of Congo (DRC), the 2015 report points out that logging is responsible
for degrading the country’s rainforests. The report adds, “…it is illegal industrial logging that is acting as a
major driver of forest degradation and deforestation”.
In many timber-producing countries, the government is the largest landowner and awards logging
concessions and licences through public tendering processes. Such contracts concentrate power in the hands
of those who award them and are highly lucrative to the companies that win
them.____________________________________________. To tackle corruption, the EU should raise the
issue of corruption with producer countries, re-shape policies and strengthen the enforcement of EU timber
regulation. This is imperative for conserving forests, biodiversity and climate. Last year, the Food and
Agriculture Organization welcomed an agreement by Indonesia and the EU to issue the world’s first Forest
Law Enforcement, Governance and Trade (FLEGT) timber licence as a major achievement in the fight
against illegal logging. The FLEGT license can accompany shipments of timber exported from Indonesia to
EU countries to certify that the timber has been harvested, transported, processed and traded according to the
Indonesian law. The is part of the EU’s FLEGT Action Plan adopted in 2003 to promote measures to tackle
illegal timber trade and contribute to sustainable forest management, which features in the 2030 Sustainable
Development Goals.
The FLEGT license is part of the EU’s FLEGT Action Plan to promote
1. peace between local communities and logging companies
2. in assisting the United Nations Environmental Programme and INTERPOL
3. to achieve Sustainable Development Goals
4. to stop illegal timber trade from Indonesia
5. measures to tackle illegal timber trade and contribute to sustainable forest management
Que. 122 Which of the following statements is not true according to the passage?
1. Illegal logging is responsible for soil degradation in rain forest
2. Illegal timber trade gives rise to conflicts between local communities and logging companies
3. Illegal timber trade leads to biodiversity loss.
4. In many timber-producing countries, the government is the largest landowner
5. To tackle corruption, the EU should raise the issue of corruption with producer countries
Que. 123 What is the logical inference that can be drawn from the passage?
1. Illegal timber trade is responsible for Human Rights violations
2. The FLEGT license is effective against illegal timber trade
3. Effective law enforcement is the need of the hour to stop Illegal tropical timber trade
Effective measures are needed to minimize the conflicts between local communities and logging
companies
4.
5. Sustainable Development Goals can only be achieved by effective Law enforcement.
Que. 124 In the following sentence, correct the emboldened phrase if it is incorrect. If the phrase is correct,
select ‘no improvement needed’ as your answer
In Cambodia for instance, corruption is deep-rooted due to the existing nexus among logging companies,
politicians and government officials.
1. Within
2. Between
3. No improvement
4. From
5. Inside
Que. 125 Fill the blank in the following sentence with the most meaningful sentence as per the context of
the passage.
Such contracts concentrate power in the hands of those who award them and are highly lucrative to the
companies that win them. _________________
This leads to the prosperity, particularly in those countries that is economically well-versed, Global
Witness says.
1.
This leads to the division of the society, particularly in those countries that suffer from
unemployment challenges, Global Witness says.
2.
This leads to corruption, particularly in those countries that suffer from deep-rooted governance and
accountability challenges, Global Witness says.
3.
4. This leads to economic crisis, small scale industries in particular, Global Witness says.
This leads to the exploitation of poor, particularly in those countries that have diversity in culture and
tradition, Global Witness says.
5.
Que. 126 Robert Simpson is a/an,
1. Expert of EU regulations
2. Global Witness report author
3. Environmentalist
4. INTERPOL expert
5. Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) expert
Que. 127 A June 2015 Global Witness report blamed illegal and uncontrolled logging for
1. alleged human rights violations
2. nexus between logging companies, politicians
3. indigenous communities losing access rights to forests
4. conflicts between local communities and logging companies
5. biodiversity loss
Que. 128 According to the United Nations Environmental Programme and INTERPOL, illegal logging tops
the ranking of environmental crimes with an estimated value of ________annually.
1. US $ 10-50 billion
2. US $ 50-152 billion
3. US $ 50-150 billion
4. US $ 10-15 billion
5. US $ 10-150 billion
Que. 129 Find out which part has an error and mark it as your answer. If there is no error, mark ‘No
error’ as your answer.
We should differentiate among people who come to India seeking refuge and people driven by economic
reasons such as employments, education etc. The people of India should not be used as “bargaining tools” for
the petty benefits of political leaders.
1. We should differentiate among people who come to India
2. economic reasons such as employments, education
3. The people of India should not be used
4. “bargaining tools” for the petty benefits of political leaders
5. No Error
Que. 130 Find out whether there is any error in the highlighted parts. The error, if any, will be in one
part. If there is no error, the answer is (5). Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.
As a playwright, William Shakespeare is superior than any other sixteenth-century playwright. He wrote
comedies, tragedies, and historical plays in England. He is famous all around the world for his
significant contribution to literature.
1. William Shakespeare is superior than
2. He wrote comedies, tragedies, and historical plays
3. He is famous all around the world
4. significant contribution to literature
5. No error
Que. 131 Direction: The following question consists of a sentence which is divided into three parts,
with grammatical error in one or more than one part of the sentence. If there is an error in
any part of the sentence, find the correct alternatives to replace those parts from the three options
given below, to make the sentence grammatically correct. If there is an error in any part of the
sentence and none of the alternatives is correct to replace that part, then choose 'None of the A, B, and
C' as your answer. If the given sentence is grammatically correct or does not require any correction,
choose 'No correction required' as your answer.
This was a cataclysmic trauma for the Mundarath Tharavad, (A) which overnight lost vast wealth and riches,
(B) all that remained was 11th-century copper-plate inscriptions giving them title before their lands. (C)
(A) This has been a cataclysmic trauma for the Mundarath Tharavad,
(B) which lost vast wealth and riches overnight,
(C) all that remained was 11th-century copper-plate inscriptions giving them title to their lands.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. None of the A, B, and C
5. No correction required
Que. 132 Direction: The following question consists of a sentence which is divided into three parts,
with grammatical error in one or more than one part of the sentence. If there is an error in
any part of the sentence, find the correct alternatives to replace those parts from the three options
given below, to make the sentence grammatically correct. If there is an error in any part of the
sentence and none of the alternatives is correct to replace that part, then choose 'None of the A, B, and
C' as your answer. If the given sentence is grammatically correct or does not require any correction,
choose 'No correction required' as your answer.
In Palakkad, where the ruins of one of his forts still stand, (A) the memory of Tipu’s depredations against the
Nairs is still as sore (B) as an old wound those never healed. (C)
(A) In Palakkad, where the ruins of one of his forts still stand,
(B) the memory of Tipu’s depredations against the Nairs is still as sore
(C) as an old wound that never healed.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. None of the A, B, and C
5. No correction required
Que. 133 Direction: The following question consists of a sentence which is divided into three parts,
with grammatical error in one or more than one part of the sentence. If there is an error in
any part of the sentence, find the correct alternatives to replace those parts from the three options
given below, to make the sentence grammatically correct. If there is an error in any part of the
sentence and none of the alternatives is correct to replace that part, then choose 'None of the A, B, and
C' as your answer. If the given sentence is grammatically correct or does not require any correction,
choose 'No correction required' as your answer.
Except for the fact that by the time Tipu withdrew from Malabar (A) (and then was defeated by the British),
the Karanavar himself had breathed his last, (B) having failed to confide the secret of the location of his
treasure trove to any survivor. (C)
(A) Except for the fact that by the time Tipu withdrew from Malabar
(B) (and then was defeated by the British), the Karanavar himself had breathed his last
(C) having failed to confide the secret of the location of his treasure trove to any survivor.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. None of the A, B, and C
5. No correction required
Que. 134 Direction: The following question consists of a sentence which is divided into three parts,
with grammatical error in one or more than one part of the sentence. If there is an error in
any part of the sentence, find the correct alternatives to replace those parts from the three options
given below, to make the sentence grammatically correct. If there is an error in any part of the
sentence and none of the alternatives is correct to replace that part, then choose 'None of the A, B, and
C' as your answer. If the given sentence is grammatically correct or does not require any correction,
choose 'No correction required' as your answer.
The responsibility of making a living, (A) educating our children, and taking care of our parents is a timeconsuming one (B) that inevitably distracts us a single-minded focus on professional accomplishment. (C)
(A) The responsible of making a living,
(B) of education our children, and of taking care of our parents is a time-consuming one
(C) that inevitably distracts us from a single-minded focus on professional accomplishment.
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. None of the A, B, and C
5. Non correction required
Que. 135 Fill in the blanks with appropriate words.
The (A)________ and infectious disease Corona Virus also known as Covid-19 has deeply
affected the global economy. This tragedy has also (B)______ up the education sector, and this fear is likely
to resonate across the education sector globally. The Covid-19 pandemic (C)_______ forced many schools
and colleges to remain closed temporarily. Several areas are affected worldwide and there is a fear of losing
this whole ongoing semester or even more in the coming future. Various schools, colleges, and universities
have discontinued in-person teaching. As per the assessment of the researchers, it is uncertain to get back to
normal teaching anytime soon. As social distancing is (D)________ at this stage, this will have negative
effects on learning opportunities. Educational units are (E)________ to find options to deal with this
challenging situation. These circumstances make us realize that scenario planning is an urgent need for
academic institutions. This is a situation that demands humanity and unity. There is an urgent need to protect
and save our students, faculty, academic staff, communities, societies, and the nation as a whole.
Several arguments are associated with e-learning. Accessibility, affordability, flexibility, learning pedagogy,
life-long learning, and policy are some of the arguments related to online (F)_______. It is said that the
online mode of learning is easily (G)______ and can even reach rural and remote areas. It is considered to be
a relatively cheaper mode of education in terms of the lower cost of transportation, accommodation, and the
overall cost of institution-based learning. Flexibility is another interesting aspect of online learning; a learner
can schedule or plan their time for completion of courses available online. Combining face-to-face lectures
with technology gives rise to (H)_______ learning and flipped classrooms; this type of learning environment
can increase the learning potential of the students. Students can learn anytime and anywhere, thereby
developing new skills in the process leading to life-long learning. The government also recognizes the
increasing importance of online learning in this dynamic world.
Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank A
1. effective, ghastly
2. deadly, pernicious
3. hefty, impregnable
4. submissive, pliable
5. frail, wimpy
Que. 136 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank B.
1. embraced, courted
2. shaken, swayed
3. incurred, contracted
4. perturb, tranquilize
5. repress, subjugate
Que. 137 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank C.
1. undertake, initiate
2. Dribble, proceed
3. Quelling, subsidence
4. Outbreak, onset
5. cessation, termination
Que. 138 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank D.
1. Squandered, dissipated
2. nominal, slightest
3. preeminent, predominant
4. terminant, cessed
5. recoiling, rebounding
Que. 139 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank E.
1. struggling, grappling
2. fighting, combating
3. slackening, breaking
4. Blooming, rising
5. deteriorating, declining
Que. 140 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank F.
1. studies, data
2. pedagogy, education
3. gaming, entertainment
4. scam, swindle
5. transaction, negotiation
Que. 141 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank G.
1. unapprochable, unattainable
2. acquirable, impeachable
3. curbed, leashed
4. navigable, traversable
5. accessible, obtainable
Que. 142 Select the most appropriate option to fill in blank H.
1. blended, integrated
2. grooved, harmonized
3. contradicted, diverged
4. coalesced, cohered
5. flamboyant, ostentatious
Que. 143 Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below.
The COVID-19 crisis has hit the tourism economy hard, with unprecedented effects on jobs and
businesses. Tourism was one of the first sectors to be deeply impacted by the pandemic, as measures
introduced to contain the virus led to a near-complete cessation of tourism activities around the world. The
sector also risks being among one of the last to recover, with the ongoing travel restrictions and the global
recession. This has consequences beyond the tourism economy, with the many other sectors that support, and
are supported by, tourism also significantly impacted.
The unprecedented shock to the tourism economy is being compounded by the evolving sanitary
situation. While positive news on vaccines has boosted the hopes of tourism businesses and travellers alike,
challenges remain. ___________________________________________________________________. This
will further damage business and traveller confidence, and business survival prospects. Despite the proven
resilience of the tourism economy to previous shocks, the sheer scale and combined economic and health
nature of this crisis means that the road to recovery is highly uncertain. While there has been some
resumption of international tourism activity, this remains very limited. Domestic tourism has restarted in
many countries, but can only partially compensate for the loss of inbound tourism.
OECD now estimates international tourism will fall by around 80% in 2021. No meaningful recovery in
international tourism flows is foreseen until well into 2021, and is likely to take some years. This is in line
with recent projections by other organisations. Latest UN World Tourism Organization (UNWTO) estimates
point to a 70% decline year-on-year in international tourist arrivals in the first eight months of the year, with
the loss in export revenues from international tourism eight times that recorded in 2009 amid the global
financial crisis. UNWTO now foresees a decline in international arrivals close to 70%, with recovery to precrisis levels not expected before 2023.
Domestic tourism is providing a much-needed boost to help sustain many tourism destinations and
businesses and will continue to be a key driver of recovery in the short to medium term. There has been some
pick up in domestic tourism activities since the middle of the year, due in part to displacement effects of
international travel restrictions. However, this has been hindered as many countries face further waves of the
virus, and domestic tourism is expected to end the year significantly down on pre-COVID levels. Spain and
the United Kingdom, for example, are forecasting a decrease in domestic tourism by 45-50% in 2020. Also,
not all destinations or businesses have benefited, due to ongoing restrictions on movement within countries
and altered demand patterns and behaviours.
This is having very tangible economic and social consequences for many people, places and businesses, and
the wider economy. Tourism generates foreign exchange, supports jobs and businesses, drives regional
development and underpins local communities. Before the pandemic, the sector directly contributed 4.4% of
GDP, 6.9% of employment, and 21.5% of service exports in OECD countries, on average (and 6.5% of global
exports according to the World Trade Organisation3). However, these shares are much higher for several
OECD countries, where tourism is a major driver of economic activities, such as France (7.4% of GDP),
Greece (6.8%), Iceland (8.6%), Mexico (8.7%), Portugal (8.0%) and Spain (11.8%). The indirect impacts of
tourism are also significant, exacerbating the size of the shock on national and local economies.
According to the passage, which was the first sector to be deeply impacted?
1. Tourism
2. Education
3. Medical
4. Agriculture
5. Robotics
Que. 144 Fill the blank in the following sentence with the most meaningful sentence as per the context of
the passage.
While positive news on vaccines has boosted the hopes of tourism businesses and travellers alike, challenges
remain. ______________________________
1. Vaccine roll out will be done in full throttle.
2. It will be independent of vaccine roll out and tourism is completely isolated.
Vaccine roll out will take some time, and the sector is potentially facing stop/start cycles for some
time.
3.
4. Vaccine roll out will improve the current scenario and tourism sector will boom.
5. Vaccine roll out is uncertain, and it puts the economy in danger.
Que. 145 According to the passage, OECD now estimates that international tourism will fall by around how
much percent in 2021?
1. 80%
2. 70%
3. 60%
4. 50%
5. 40%
Que. 146 Before the pandemic, how much percent did the tourism sector directly contribute to the GDP?
1. 22.6
2. 4.4
3. 6.9
4. 21.5
5. 4.5
Que. 147 Which statement is grammatically incorrect in the given options?
1. The sector also risk being among one of the last to recover.
2. This is having very tangible economic and social consequences for many people.
3. This has been hindered as many countries face further waves of the virus.
4. These shares are much higher for several OECD countries.
5. None of these
Que. 148 Why all destinations or businesses have not been benefited ?
due to ongoing restrictions on movement within countries and altered demand patterns and
behaviours.
1.
2. due to delay in vaccine roll out and the sector is potentially facing stop/start cycles for some time.
3. because there has been some pick up in domestic tourism activities since the middle of the year.
4. because this is having very tangible economic and social consequences for many people
5. as it drives regional development and underpins local communities.
Que. 149 Which of the following statements is not true according to the passage?
While there has been some resumption of international tourism activity, this remains very
limited.
1.
2. Tourism was one of the first sectors to be deeply impacted by the pandemic,
3. OECD now estimates international tourism will fall by around 50% in 2021.
UNWTO now foresees a decline in international arrivals close to 70%, with recovery to pre-crisis
levels not expected before 2023.
4.
5. None of these
Que. 150 Choose the combination that forms a correct sentence.
A. It was a sunny day i. or D. the wind was cold.
B. I'm going to write good jokes ii. yet E. she would die.
C. She had to have the operation iii. and F. become a good comedian.
1. A-iii-D
2. B-iii-F
3. C-ii-E
4. C-iii-F
5. B-ii-A
Que. 151 Choose the combination that completes the sentence.
A. We cannot understand disease i. until D. .as this information was received.
B. You’ll just have to wait ii. as soon E.we understand the person who has the disease
C. The airstrikes were halted iii. unless F. they call your name
1. A-i-E
2. B-ii-D
3. C-iii-D
4. A-iii-E
5. C-ii-E
Que. 152 Choose the combination that completes the sentence.
A. I decided to take a nap under
my desk
i. whenever D. sometimes
they missed their friends.
B. The
Sharmas liked their new home,
ii. while E. someone walks by our
house.
C. Our dog barks iii. although F. everyone else was in
the meeting.
1. C-iii-E
2. B--iii-D
3. B-i-E
4. C-i-F
5. A-i-E
Que. 153 Choose the combination that completes the sentence.
A. Our best teams can still
be competitive i. lest D.
they annoyed the neighbours.
B. There was additional work to be
done
ii. as
long as
E. all the troops would be
ready.
C. They
were afraid to complain about
the noise
iii.
before
F. they put out their strongest
sides.
1. B-iii-D
2. A-i-F
3. A-ii-F
4. B-ii-E
5. C-i-E
Que. 154 Choose the combination that completes the sentence.
A. I told her to leave, i. for D. does he want to live
in the city.
B. The grocery store was out of tomatoes, ii. so E. I was very tired
C. He doesn't want to live in the country when he grows up, iii. nor F. I borrowed some from my
neighbor.
1. A-ii-E
2. B-i-D
3. A-i-E
4. B-iii-F
5. C-i-D
Que. 155 Choose the combination that completes the sentence.
A. The rest of his 'team' are simply assistants, i. lest D.he should report
the matter to the king
B. They feared to spare him ii. provided that E. all very good at what they
do.
C. You may keep the book a further week iii. though F. no one else requires it.
1. C-i-F
2. A-ii-E
3. B-i-D
4. C-iii-F
5. A-i-F
155 Questions
Que. 1 Correct Option - 4
Que. 2 Correct Option - 2
Que. 3 Correct Option - 2
Que. 4 Correct Option - 1
Que. 5 Correct Option - 2
Que. 6 Correct Option - 4
Que. 7 Correct Option - 5
Que. 8 Correct Option - 5
Que. 9 Correct Option - 3
Que. 10 Correct Option - 1
Que. 11 Correct Option - 5
Que. 12 Correct Option - 4
Que. 13 Correct Option - 4
Que. 14 Correct Option - 1
Que. 15 Correct Option - 3
Que. 16 Correct Option - 1
Que. 17 Correct Option - 5
Que. 18 Correct Option - 2
Que. 19 Correct Option - 4
Que. 20 Correct Option - 2
Que. 21 Correct Option - 4
Que. 22 Correct Option - 1
Que. 23 Correct Option - 5
Que. 24 Correct Option - 5
Que. 25 Correct Option - 3
Que. 26 Correct Option - 3
Que. 27 Correct Option - 3
Que. 28 Correct Option - 2
Que. 29 Correct Option - 2
Que. 30 Correct Option - 1
Que. 31 Correct Option - 2
Que. 32 Correct Option - 2
Que. 33 Correct Option - 2
Que. 34 Correct Option - 2
Que. 35 Correct Option - 4
Que. 36 Correct Option - 1
Que. 37 Correct Option - 2
Que. 38 Correct Option - 4
Que. 39 Correct Option - 5
Que. 40 Correct Option - 2
Que. 41 Correct Option - 1
Que. 42 Correct Option - 3
Que. 43 Correct Option - 3
Que. 44 Correct Option - 4
Que. 45 Correct Option - 3
Que. 46 Correct Option - 1
Que. 47 Correct Option - 5
Que. 48 Correct Option - 3
Que. 49 Correct Option - 3
Que. 50 Correct Option - 3
Que. 51 Correct Option - 4
Que. 52 Correct Option - 5
Que. 53 Correct Option - 2
Que. 54 Correct Option - 4
Que. 55 Correct Option - 3
Que. 56 Correct Option - 2
Que. 57 Correct Option - 5
Que. 58 Correct Option - 3
Que. 59 Correct Option - 4
Que. 60 Correct Option - 2
Que. 61 Correct Option - 2
Que. 62 Correct Option - 4
Que. 63 Correct Option - 2
Que. 64 Correct Option - 1
Que. 65 Correct Option - 3
Que. 66 Correct Option - 4
Que. 67 Correct Option - 2
Que. 68 Correct Option - 1
Que. 69 Correct Option - 3
Que. 70 Correct Option - 1
Que. 71 Correct Option - 2
Que. 72 Correct Option - 3
Que. 73 Correct Option - 4
Que. 74 Correct Option - 2
Que. 75 Correct Option - 1
Que. 76 Correct Option - 4
Que. 77 Correct Option - 1
Que. 78 Correct Option - 4
Que. 79 Correct Option - 2
Que. 80 Correct Option - 1
Que. 81 Correct Option - 4
Que. 82 Correct Option - 1
Que. 83 Correct Option - 1
Que. 84 Correct Option - 4
Que. 85 Correct Option - 2
Que. 86 Correct Option - 1
Que. 87 Correct Option - 3
Que. 88 Correct Option - 1
Que. 89 Correct Option - 3
Que. 90 Correct Option - 3
Que. 91 Correct Option - 5
Que. 92 Correct Option - 1
Que. 93 Correct Option - 3
Que. 94 Correct Option - 2
Que. 95 Correct Option - 3
Que. 96 Correct Option - 4
Que. 97 Correct Option - 4
Que. 98 Correct Option - 2
Que. 99 Correct Option - 2
Que. 100 Correct Option - 4
Que. 101 Correct Option - 2
Que. 102 Correct Option - 4
Que. 103 Correct Option - 3
Que. 104 Correct Option - 1
Que. 105 Correct Option - 3
Que. 106 Correct Option - 3
Que. 107 Correct Option - 1
Que. 108 Correct Option - 5
Que. 109 Correct Option - 2
Que. 110 Correct Option - 4
Que. 111 Correct Option - 5
Que. 112 Correct Option - 3
Que. 113 Correct Option - 3
Que. 114 Correct Option - 1
Que. 115 Correct Option - 1
Que. 116 Correct Option - 2
Que. 117 Correct Option - 1
Que. 118 Correct Option - 1
Que. 119 Correct Option - 1
Que. 120 Correct Option - 2
Que. 121 Correct Option - 5
Que. 122 Correct Option - 1
Que. 123 Correct Option - 3
Que. 124 Correct Option - 2
Que. 125 Correct Option - 3
Que. 126 Correct Option - 5
Que. 127 Correct Option - 1
Que. 128 Correct Option - 2
Que. 129 Correct Option - 2
Que. 130 Correct Option - 1
Que. 131 Correct Option - 3
Que. 132 Correct Option - 3
Que. 133 Correct Option - 5
Que. 134 Correct Option - 3
Que. 135 Correct Option - 2
Que. 136 Correct Option - 2
Que. 137 Correct Option - 4
Que. 138 Correct Option - 3
Que. 139 Correct Option - 1
Que. 140 Correct Option - 2
Que. 141 Correct Option - 5
Que. 142 Correct Option - 1
Que. 143 Correct Option - 1
Que. 144 Correct Option - 3
Que. 145 Correct Option - 1
Que. 146 Correct Option - 2
Que. 147 Correct Option - 1
Que. 148 Correct Option - 1
Que. 149 Correct Option - 3
Que. 150 Correct Option - 2
Que. 151 Correct Option - 4
Que. 152 Correct Option - 2
Que. 153 Correct Option - 3
Que. 154 Correct Option - 3
Que. 155 Correct Option - 3

SBI PO Mains 2020 Previous Year Question Paper with Free PDF Download Memory Based Paper-Jan 02, 2020

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