SBI PO Prelims 2026 Previous Year Question Paper with Free PDF Download Memory Based Paper (Sep 12, 2026)
SBI PO Prelims 2026 Memory Based Paper PDF (Aug 01, 2026) (Shift 1)
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Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Over the past decade, several Indian cities have witnessed a quiet but steady rise in rooftop beekeeping. Apartment owners in Pune, Bengaluru and Coimbatore have begun installing small wooden hives on terraces, drawn partly by the promise of homegrown honey and partly by a growing awareness that urban bee populations have been declining due to pesticide use and the disappearance of flowering trees. Horticulturists argue that a single well-placed hive can improve pollination for kitchen gardens within a radius of nearly three kilometres, boosting yields of tomatoes, brinjals and gourds grown on balconies. However, civic bodies have been slow to draft guidelines for rooftop apiaries, leaving enthusiasts to rely on informal networks of experienced beekeepers for guidance on hive placement, swarm management and honey extraction. Critics point out that untrained hobbyists sometimes install hives too close to neighbouring balconies, leading to complaints and, in rare cases, allergic reactions among residents. Proponents counter that with proper training – typically a two-day workshop – the risk of stings drops sharply, since Indian rock bees and Italian honeybee colonies kept in movable-frame hives are generally docile when undisturbed. Several NGOs have started certification programmes that combine ecological education with practical hive management, hoping to formalise what has so far remained a scattered, enthusiast-driven movement into a recognised urban livelihood option for small honey producers.
Q1. According to the passage, what is one benefit horticulturists attribute to rooftop hives?
(a) They eliminate the need for balcony gardens
(b) They improve pollination for kitchen gardens within about three kilometres
(c) They reduce pesticide costs for farmers
(d) They increase the property value of apartments
(e) They replace the need for civic guidelines
Q2. Why have civic bodies been criticized in the passage?
(a) For banning rooftop beekeeping entirely
(b) For being slow to draft guidelines for rooftop apiaries
(c) For taxing honey production
(d) For promoting only Italian honeybees
(e) For closing NGO certification programmes
Q3. What is a concern critics raise about untrained hobbyists?
(a) They produce honey of poor quality
(b) They install hives too close to neighbouring balconies, causing complaints or allergic reactions
(c) They refuse to attend workshops
(d) They only keep rock bees
(e) They damage kitchen gardens directly
Q4. How long is the typical training workshop mentioned in the passage?
(a) One week
(b) Two days
(c) One month
(d) Three days
(e) Not mentioned
Q5. Which bee varieties are mentioned as being kept in movable-frame hives?
(a) African bees and bumblebees
(b) Indian rock bees and Italian honeybees
(c) Carpenter bees and wasps
(d) Only Italian honeybees
(e) Only Indian rock bees
Q6. What do NGOs’ certification programmes aim to do, per the passage?
(a) Discourage rooftop beekeeping
(b) Formalise the scattered movement into a recognised urban livelihood option
(c) Replace civic guidelines with private regulation
(d) Export honey internationally
(e) Ban informal beekeeping networks
Q7. Which of the following can be inferred about the current state of rooftop beekeeping regulation in India, as per the passage?
(a) It is comprehensively regulated by national law
(b) It remains largely informal and unregulated
(c) It has been banned in Bengaluru
(d) It is regulated only in Coimbatore
(e) It requires no training at all
Q8. Choose the word most similar in meaning to ‘docile’ as used in the passage.
(a) Aggressive
(b) Gentle/submissive
(c) Noisy
(d) Rare
(e) Toxic
Q9. Choose the word most opposite in meaning to ‘scattered’ as used in the passage.
(a) Dispersed
(b) Organised/concentrated
(c) Random
(d) Isolated
(e) Sparse
Q10. Choose the word most similar in meaning to ‘formalise’ as used in the passage.
(a) Officialise/institutionalise
(b) Abandon
(c) Simplify
(d) Deny
(e) Postpone
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In the following passage, some words have been left blank. Choose the most appropriate word for each blank from the given options.
The city’s old textile mill, (11) for decades after its closure, has finally been (12) into a cultural hub that hosts art exhibitions, weekend markets and a small amphitheatre. Local authorities, who had (13) several proposals over the years, eventually (14) a public-private partnership that promised to preserve the mill’s brick facade while (15) its interior for modern use. Residents nearby were initially (16) about noise and traffic, but organisers have (17) to limit evening events to twice a week. Early visitor numbers suggest the venue could (18) become a model for adaptive reuse in other declining industrial towns, provided maintenance costs are (19) responsibly and the original architecture is not (20) in the process.
Q11. Choose the correct word for blank (11).
(a) demolished
(b) abandoned
(c) renovated
(d) sold
(e) painted
Q12. Choose the correct word for blank (12).
(a) converted
(b) destroyed
(c) ignored
(d) relocated
(e) sold
Q13. Choose the correct word for blank (13).
(a) accepted
(b) rejected
(c) funded
(d) published
(e) approved
Q14. Choose the correct word for blank (14).
(a) cancelled
(b) approved
(c) opposed
(d) delayed
(e) forgot
Q15. Choose the correct word for blank (15).
(a) demolishing
(b) ignoring
(c) repurposing
(d) selling
(e) abandoning
Q16. Choose the correct word for blank (16).
(a) delighted
(b) apprehensive
(c) indifferent
(d) unaware
(e) supportive
Q17. Choose the correct word for blank (17).
(a) refused
(b) failed
(c) agreed
(d) forgotten
(e) declined
Q18. Choose the correct word for blank (18).
(a) never
(b) eventually
(c) rarely
(d) hardly
(e) barely
Q19. Choose the correct word for blank (19).
(a) ignored
(b) managed
(c) wasted
(d) inflated
(e) hidden
Q20. Choose the correct word for blank (20).
(a) preserved
(b) celebrated
(c) compromised
(d) highlighted
(e) documented
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Q21. Identify the part of the sentence that has an error. If there is no error, choose option E.
“The committee (A) / have decided to postponed (B) / the annual meeting (C) / until further notice (D) / No error (E)”
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Q22. Identify the part of the sentence that has an error. If there is no error, choose option E.
“Neither the manager nor the employees (A) / was informed about (B) / the sudden change in (C) / the company’s policy (D) / No error (E)”
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) No error
Q23. Choose the most appropriate word to fill the blank: “Despite repeated warnings, the trekking group decided to ___ the closed trail, ignoring the ranger’s advice.”
(a) abide
(b) venture
(c) retreat
(d) hesitate
(e) comply
Q24. Choose the most appropriate word to fill the blank: “The new policy will ___ into effect from the first of next month.”
(a) come
(b) bring
(c) take
(d) put
(e) set
Q25. Choose the correct improvement for the underlined part. If no improvement is needed, choose option E.
“She is one of the students who HAS COMPLETED the course early.”
(a) has complete
(b) have completed
(c) had completed
(d) completing
(e) No improvement
Q26. Arrange the sentences P, Q, R, S in the correct order to form a meaningful paragraph.
P: However, the festival’s organisers insist that stricter crowd-control measures will be enforced this year.
Q: Last year’s river festival drew record crowds but also faced criticism for inadequate safety arrangements.
R: They have hired additional volunteers and installed barricades along the riverbank.
S: Ticket sales this year, therefore, have been unusually brisk despite a modest price hike.
(a) QPRS
(b) PQRS
(c) QRPS
(d) SQPR
(e) PRQS
Q27. Choose the most appropriate connector to fill the blank: “The startup’s revenue tripled within a year, ____ its founders remained cautious about scaling too quickly.”
(a) so
(b) yet
(c) because
(d) since
(e) therefore
Q28. The idiom “to bite the bullet” means:
(a) to avoid a difficult situation
(b) to face a difficult situation with courage
(c) to argue aggressively
(d) to eat quickly
(e) to give up on a task
Q29. Choose the correctly spelt word.
(a) Neccessary
(b) Necessary
(c) Neccesary
(d) Necessery
(e) Nescessary
Q30. Choose the option that best combines the following two sentences: “The bridge was built in 1932. It is still in use today.”
(a) The bridge, which was built in 1932, is still in use today.
(b) The bridge was built in 1932 so it is used today.
(c) Building the bridge in 1932, it is still used today.
(d) The bridge is still using today despite built in 1932.
(e) In 1932, the bridge use today.
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Q31. Find the next term in the series: 5, 9, 17, 33, 65, ?
(a) 127
(b) 129
(c) 131
(d) 125
(e) 133
Q32. Find the next term in the series: 8, 12, 19, 29, 42, ?
(a) 56
(b) 58
(c) 60
(d) 54
(e) 62
Q33. Find the wrong number in the series: 3, 8, 15, 24, 35, 47
(a) 8
(b) 15
(c) 24
(d) 35
(e) 47
Q34. Find the next term in the series: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
(a) 40
(b) 42
(c) 44
(d) 38
(e) 46
Q35. Find the wrong number in the series: 7, 10, 16, 29, 52, 100
(a) 10
(b) 16
(c) 29
(d) 52
(e) 100
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In each of the following questions, two equations I and II are given. Solve both the equations and choose the correct relation between x and y.
A) x > y B) x ≥ y C) x < y D) x ≤ y E) Relationship cannot be established
Q36.
I. x² – 9x + 20 = 0
II. y² – 13y + 42 = 0
(a) x > y
(b) x ≥ y
(c) x < y
(d) x ≤ y
(e) Relationship cannot be established
Q37.
I. x² – 5x + 6 = 0
II. y² – y – 2 = 0
(a) x > y
(b) x ≥ y
(c) x < y
(d) x ≤ y
(e) Relationship cannot be established
Q38.
I. x² – 7x + 12 = 0
II. y² – 11y + 30 = 0
(a) x > y
(b) x ≥ y
(c) x < y
(d) x ≤ y
(e) Relationship cannot be established
Q39.
I. 2x² – x – 3 = 0
II. y² – y – 6 = 0
(a) x > y
(b) x ≥ y
(c) x < y
(d) x ≤ y
(e) Relationship cannot be established
Q40.
I. x² – 81 = 0
II. y² – 17y + 72 = 0
(a) x > y
(b) x ≥ y
(c) x < y
(d) x ≤ y
(e) Relationship cannot be established
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Q41. (15% of 480) + (25% of 240) = ?
(a) 120
(b) 132
(c) 144
(d) 128
(e) 136
Q42. √1296 + √841 = ?
(a) 61
(b) 63
(c) 65
(d) 67
(e) 69
Q43. 12.5% of 640 – 1/4 of 88 = ?
(a) 54
(b) 56
(c) 58
(d) 60
(e) 62
Q44. 3/7 of 490 + 2/5 of 150 = ?
(a) 260
(b) 265
(c) 270
(d) 275
(e) 280
Q45. 68% of 350 = ?
(a) 228
(b) 233
(c) 238
(d) 243
(e) 248
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Study the following table showing the number of Fiction and Non-fiction books sold by five bookstores in a month, and answer the questions based on it.
| Store | Fiction sold | Non-fiction sold |
|------------|--------------|------------------|
| Meridian | 420 | 180 |
| Bluebell | 350 | 210 |
| Northgate | 580 | 320 |
| Silverline | 270 | 330 |
| Coral Bay | 480 | 240 |
Q46. What is the total number of books (Fiction + Non-fiction) sold by Northgate store?
(a) 850
(b) 880
(c) 900
(d) 920
(e) 940
Q47. What is the ratio of Fiction books sold by Meridian to Non-fiction books sold by Silverline?
(a) 14:11
(b) 11:14
(c) 7:5
(d) 5:7
(e) 12:11
Q48. Non-fiction sales of Bluebell and Coral Bay together account for approximately what percent of the total non-fiction sales of all five stores?
(a) 32.8%
(b) 35.2%
(c) 37.5%
(d) 40.1%
(e) 29.4%
Q49. By approximately what percent is Northgate’s Fiction sales more than Silverline’s Fiction sales?
(a) 110.8%
(b) 112.4%
(c) 114.8%
(d) 116.2%
(e) 118.5%
Q50. What is the average number of books (Fiction + Non-fiction) sold per store?
(a) 656
(b) 666
(c) 676
(d) 686
(e) 696
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The pie chart below shows the distribution of a family’s monthly budget of ₹60,000 across six categories, expressed in degrees.
Rent: 108° Groceries: 72° Education: 54° Transport: 36° Savings: 45° Miscellaneous: 45°
Q51. What is the amount spent on Groceries?
(a) ₹10,000
(b) ₹11,000
(c) ₹12,000
(d) ₹13,000
(e) ₹14,000
Q52. What is the ratio of the amount spent on Rent to the amount spent on Transport?
(a) 2:1
(b) 3:1
(c) 4:1
(d) 3:2
(e) 5:1
Q53. Savings and Miscellaneous together constitute what percent of the total budget?
(a) 20%
(b) 22.5%
(c) 25%
(d) 27.5%
(e) 30%
Q54. If the Education expense increases by 20% next month (amount only), what will be the new Education amount?
(a) ₹10,200
(b) ₹10,400
(c) ₹10,600
(d) ₹10,800
(e) ₹11,000
Q55. What is the difference between the amount spent on Rent and the combined amount spent on Education and Transport?
(a) ₹2,000
(b) ₹2,500
(c) ₹3,000
(d) ₹3,500
(e) ₹4,000
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Q56. A boat travels 36 km downstream in 3 hours and returns upstream in 6 hours. What is the speed of the boat in still water?
(a) 7 km/h
(b) 8 km/h
(c) 9 km/h
(d) 10 km/h
(e) 11 km/h
Q57. The present age of Rohan is thrice that of his son. After 8 years, Rohan’s age will be twice his son’s age. Find Rohan’s present age.
(a) 21 years
(b) 24 years
(c) 27 years
(d) 30 years
(e) 33 years
Q58. Meera can complete a task in 15 days and Farhan can complete the same task in 10 days. They work together for 4 days, after which Farhan leaves. In how many more days will Meera finish the remaining work?
(a) 3 days
(b) 4 days
(c) 5 days
(d) 6 days
(e) 7 days
Q59. A shopkeeper marks an article 40% above cost price and offers a discount of 15% on the marked price. Find his profit percentage.
(a) 16%
(b) 17%
(c) 18%
(d) 19%
(e) 20%
Q60. Find the simple interest on ₹25,000 at 8% per annum for 2.5 years.
(a) ₹4,000
(b) ₹4,500
(c) ₹5,000
(d) ₹5,500
(e) ₹6,000
Q61. Find the compound interest on ₹8,000 for 2 years at 10% per annum, compounded annually.
(a) ₹1,600
(b) ₹1,650
(c) ₹1,680
(d) ₹1,700
(e) ₹1,750
Q62. Two partners, Devika and Kabir, invest ₹45,000 and ₹60,000 respectively in a business. Devika invests for the full year while Kabir invests only for 9 months. If the total profit at year-end is ₹58,000, find Devika’s share.
(a) ₹26,000
(b) ₹27,000
(c) ₹28,000
(d) ₹29,000
(e) ₹30,000
Q63. A container has milk and water in the ratio 5:3. If 24 litres of the mixture is removed and replaced with pure water, the new ratio of milk to water becomes 5:7. Find the initial quantity of the mixture.
(a) 64 litres
(b) 68 litres
(c) 72 litres
(d) 76 litres
(e) 80 litres
Q64. The average weight of 12 students in a class is 48 kg. When a new student joins, the average increases by 1 kg. Find the weight of the new student.
(a) 58 kg
(b) 59 kg
(c) 60 kg
(d) 61 kg
(e) 62 kg
Q65. A train 180 metres long crosses a platform 220 metres long in 20 seconds. Find the speed of the train in km/h.
(a) 64 km/h
(b) 68 km/h
(c) 72 km/h
(d) 76 km/h
(e) 80 km/h
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Seven friends – Naina, Omkar, Priya, Qasim, Reema, Suraj and Tanvi – sit in a row facing north, not necessarily in this order.
1. Qasim sits third to the left of Reema.
2. Only two people sit between Reema and Priya.
3. Suraj sits immediate right of Priya.
4. Omkar sits second to the left of Suraj.
5. Naina sits immediate left of Qasim.
6. Tanvi does not sit at either end.
(Based on the above conditions, the seating from left to right is: Naina, Qasim, Omkar, Reema, Tanvi, Priya, Suraj.)
Q66. Who sits at the extreme left end of the row?
(a) Qasim
(b) Naina
(c) Omkar
(d) Reema
(e) Priya
Q67. How many people sit between Qasim and Priya?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) 1
Q68. Who sits immediate right of Reema?
(a) Priya
(b) Suraj
(c) Tanvi
(d) Omkar
(e) Qasim
Q69. Who sits exactly in the middle of the row?
(a) Qasim
(b) Omkar
(c) Reema
(d) Tanvi
(e) Priya
Q70. Which of the following pairs sits at the two extreme ends of the row?
(a) Naina-Priya
(b) Naina-Suraj
(c) Qasim-Priya
(d) Omkar-Suraj
(e) Reema-Suraj
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Eight people – Kabir, Lata, Manav, Nisha, Om, Pooja, Rahul and Sana – sit around a circular table, all facing the centre.
1. Lata sits third to the right of Kabir.
2. Manav sits second to the left of Lata.
3. Om sits immediate right of Manav.
4. Nisha sits opposite Kabir.
5. Pooja sits between Rahul and Sana.
6. Rahul sits immediate left of Kabir.
(Based on the above conditions, the clockwise seating order is: Kabir, Manav, Om, Lata, Nisha, Sana, Pooja, Rahul.)
Q71. Who sits immediate right of Lata?
(a) Om
(b) Nisha
(c) Manav
(d) Sana
(e) Kabir
Q72. How many people sit between Om and Rahul, counting clockwise from Om to Rahul?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 2
(e) 6
Q73. Who sits directly opposite Pooja?
(a) Manav
(b) Lata
(c) Om
(d) Sana
(e) Kabir
Q74. Who sits between Nisha and Pooja?
(a) Rahul
(b) Sana
(c) Om
(d) Lata
(e) Kabir
Q75. Four of the following five pairs are alike in that both persons in each pair are immediate neighbours; find the pair that is different.
(a) Kabir-Manav
(b) Om-Lata
(c) Nisha-Sana
(d) Pooja-Kabir
(e) Rahul-Kabir
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Q76. Pointing to a photograph, Vikram said, “She is the daughter of my grandfather’s only son.” How is the woman related to Vikram (assuming Vikram is his grandfather’s grandson through that son)?
(a) Mother
(b) Sister
(c) Aunt
(d) Daughter
(e) Cousin
Q77. A is B’s brother. C is D’s mother. E is A’s father. C is married to E, and D is B’s sister. How is E related to D?
(a) Father
(b) Uncle
(c) Grandfather
(d) Brother
(e) Husband
Q78. Introducing a man, a woman said, “His wife is the only daughter of my father.” How is the woman related to the man?
(a) Sister
(b) Mother
(c) Wife
(d) Daughter
(e) Mother-in-law
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In each question below, two or three statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Assuming the statements to be true, even if they seem at variance with commonly known facts, decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s).
A) Only conclusion I follows
B) Only conclusion II follows
C) Both conclusions I and II follow
D) Neither conclusion follows
E) Either I or II follows
Q79. Statements: All pens are pencils. All pencils are erasers.
Conclusions: I. All pens are erasers. II. Some erasers are pens.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Both I and II follow
(d) Neither follows
(e) Either I or II follows
Q80. Statements: Some books are notebooks. No notebook is a diary.
Conclusions: I. No book is a diary. II. Some books are not diaries.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Both I and II follow
(d) Neither follows
(e) Either I or II follows
Q81. Statements: All tigers are lions. Some lions are elephants.
Conclusions: I. Some tigers are elephants. II. Some elephants are tigers.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Both I and II follow
(d) Neither follows
(e) Either I or II follows
Q82. Statements: No cup is a plate. All plates are spoons.
Conclusions: I. No spoon is a cup. II. Some spoons are not cups.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Both I and II follow
(d) Neither follows
(e) Either I or II follows
Q83. Statements: All rivers are lakes. All lakes are oceans. Some oceans are seas.
Conclusions: I. All rivers are oceans. II. Some oceans are rivers.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Both I and II follow
(d) Neither follows
(e) Either I or II follows
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Study the following coding pattern carefully.
In a certain code language:
‘MARKET RATE HIGH’ is coded as ‘zx ty mp’
‘HIGH DEMAND LOW’ is coded as ‘mp kd rw’
‘DEMAND MARKET FALL’ is coded as ‘kd zx pl’
Q84. What is the code for ‘MARKET’?
(a) zx
(b) ty
(c) mp
(d) kd
(e) pl
Q85. What is the code for ‘DEMAND’?
(a) mp
(b) kd
(c) rw
(d) ty
(e) pl
Q86. What is the code for ‘HIGH’?
(a) zx
(b) ty
(c) mp
(d) kd
(e) rw
Q87. What would be the code for ‘FALL RATE LOW’ using the same scheme?
(a) pl ty rw
(b) zx ty mp
(c) mp kd rw
(d) kd zx pl
(e) ty rw zx
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In the following questions, the symbol ‘>’ means ‘greater than’, ‘<’ means ‘less than’, ‘≥’ means ‘greater than or equal to’, ‘≤’ means ‘less than or equal to’, and ‘=’ means ‘equal to’. Read the given statements and conclusions, and decide which conclusion(s) follow.
A) Only conclusion I follows
B) Only conclusion II follows
C) Both conclusions I and II follow
D) Neither conclusion follows
E) Either I or II follows
Q88. Statements: A > B ≥ C = D < E.
Conclusions: I. A > D II. E > C
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Both I and II follow
(d) Neither follows
(e) Either I or II follows
Q89. Statements: P ≤ Q < R; R = S; S > T.
Conclusions: I. Q < S II. P ≤ S
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Both I and II follow
(d) Neither follows
(e) Either I or II follows
Q90. Statements: X < Y ≤ Z; Z < W.
Conclusions: I. X < W II. Y < W
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Both I and II follow
(d) Neither follows
(e) Either I or II follows
Q91. Statements: M > N; O ≥ N; O > P.
Conclusions: I. M > P II. M > O
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Both I and II follow
(d) Neither follows
(e) Either I or II follows
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Q92. Rakesh walks 8 km towards East, then turns left and walks 6 km, then turns left again and walks 8 km. How far is he from his starting point?
(a) 4 km
(b) 6 km
(c) 8 km
(d) 10 km
(e) 14 km
Q93. Point A is 10 km north of Point B. Point C is 6 km east of Point A. Point D is 6 km east of Point B. What is the distance between C and D?
(a) 6 km
(b) 8 km
(c) 10 km
(d) 12 km
(e) 16 km
Q94. Sonal starts from her house and walks 5 km South, then turns right and walks 5 km, then turns right again and walks 5 km, then turns left and walks 3 km. In which direction and how far is she now from her starting point?
(a) 8 km East
(b) 8 km West
(c) 5 km West
(d) 3 km North
(e) 8 km South
Q95. Find the missing term in the series: B2D, D6F, F12H, H20J, ?
(a) J30L
(b) J28L
(c) K30L
(d) J30K
(e) L30N
Q96. If in the word ‘PLATFORM’ each letter is replaced by the next letter in the English alphabet, how many vowels will the new word have?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3
(e) 4
Q97. Arrange the following words as they would appear in a dictionary and pick the one that comes third:
1. Harmony 2. Harness 3. Harvest 4. Hardware 5. Harbour
(a) Harmony
(b) Harness
(c) Harvest
(d) Hardware
(e) Harbour
Q98. Six people – Ira, Jatin, Kavya, Lalit, Mona and Nikhil – are ranked based on their scores in a test, with rank 1 being highest. Kavya scored higher than Jatin but lower than Mona. Lalit scored higher than Mona. Nikhil scored lower than Jatin but higher than Ira. Who scored the second highest?
(a) Lalit
(b) Mona
(c) Kavya
(d) Jatin
(e) Nikhil
Q99. In a certain code, ‘TRAIN’ is written as ‘UQBHO’. How is ‘PLANE’ written in the same code?
(a) QKBMF
(b) QKBNF
(c) QLBMF
(d) PKBMF
(e) QKAMF
Q100. Pointing to a man in a photograph, Aditi, who has no brothers, said, “He is the only grandson of my father’s father.” How is the man related to Aditi?
(a) Brother
(b) Cousin
(c) Father
(d) Uncle
(e) Nephew
SBI PO Mains 2026 Previous Year Question Paper with Free PDF Download Memory Based Paper (Sep 12, 2026)
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