SBI PO Prelims 2026 Previous Year Question Paper with Free PDF Download Shift 2 Memory Based Paper (Aug 1, 2026)
SBI PO Prelims 2026 Memory Based Paper PDF (Aug 01, 2026) (Shift 2)
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Read the following sentences carefully:
1. The manager have approved the new leave policy last week.
2. Employees who arrive late will be marked absent for the day.
3. She has been working on this project for three months.
4. Despite the rain, the delivery team managed to reach on time.
Q1. Which of the following sentences is grammatically incorrect?
(a) Sentence 1
(b) Sentence 2
(c) Sentence 3
(d) Sentence 4
(e) All are correct
Read the following sentences carefully:
1. Each of the employees are required to submit their reports by Friday.
2. The company has recently launched a new mobile application.
3. Despite the software update, several bugs still persist.
4. Customers who face issues can contact support anytime.
Q2. Which of the following sentences is grammatically incorrect?
(a) Sentence 1
(b) Sentence 2
(c) Sentence 3
(d) Sentence 4
(e) All are correct
Read the following sentences carefully:
1. Neither the teacher nor the students was aware of the change.
2. The number of students appearing for the exam are increasing every year.
3. One of the biggest challenges facing schools today is funding.
4. Each student have to submit their assignment by Monday.
Q3. Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?
(a) Sentence 1
(b) Sentence 2
(c) Sentence 3
(d) Sentence 4
(e) All are incorrect
Read the following sentences carefully:
1. The government has introduced strict measures to curb pollution.
2. Neither of the two proposals were accepted by the board.
3. Rising temperatures have significantly affected crop yields.
4. Experts believe that renewable energy will reduce carbon emissions.
Q4. Which of the following sentences is grammatically incorrect?
(a) Sentence 1
(b) Sentence 2
(c) Sentence 3
(d) Sentence 4
(e) All are correct
Rearrange the following sentences (A-E) to form a coherent paragraph:
A. As a result, many organisations have adopted hybrid work models to balance flexibility and productivity.
B. In recent years, remote work has transformed the way companies operate.
C. However, some employees reported feelings of isolation and reduced collaboration.
D. This shift was largely accelerated by the global pandemic, which forced businesses to adapt quickly.
E. Studies show that this approach tends to improve employee satisfaction while maintaining output.
Q5. What is the correct sequence of sentences to form a meaningful paragraph?
(a) BDCAE
(b) BDACE
(c) DBCAE
(d) BCDAE
(e) BDCEA
Rearrange the following sentences (A-E) to form a coherent paragraph:
A. Consequently, several cities have begun investing in rainwater harvesting systems.
B. Rapid urbanisation has placed immense pressure on existing water resources.
C. Groundwater levels in many metropolitan areas have dropped drastically over the last decade.
D. Experts warn that without sustainable management, the crisis could worsen significantly.
E. These systems, though costly, have shown promising results in replenishing local aquifers.
Q6. What is the correct sequence of sentences to form a meaningful paragraph?
(a) BCAED
(b) BACED
(c) BCADE
(d) CBAED
(e) BCAED
Rearrange the following sentences (A-E) to form a coherent paragraph:
A. This convenience, however, has led to a decline in footfall at traditional retail stores.
B. Over the past decade, e-commerce platforms have redefined consumer shopping habits.
C. Many brick-and-mortar businesses have responded by strengthening their online presence.
D. Customers now enjoy the ability to compare prices and order products from home.
E. As a result, the retail landscape continues to evolve rapidly.
Q7. What is the correct sequence of sentences to form a meaningful paragraph?
(a) BDACE
(b) BDCAE
(c) DBACE
(d) BADCE
(e) BDACE
A sentence has been split into three segments labelled (a), (b) and (c), given below in a jumbled order. Arrange them to form a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence.
(a) the committee decided to postpone the meeting
(b) due to the unavailability of key members
(c) until further notice was given
Q8. Choose the correct order of segments.
(a) abc
(b) acb
(c) bac
(d) cab
(e) bca
A sentence has been split into three segments labelled (a), (b) and (c), given below in a jumbled order. Arrange them to form a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence.
(a) is expected to boost economic growth
(b) the government’s new infrastructure policy
(c) over the next five years
Q9. Choose the correct order of segments.
(a) bac
(b) abc
(c) cab
(d) bca
(e) cba
A sentence has been split into three segments labelled (a), (b) and (c), given below in a jumbled order. Arrange them to form a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence.
(a) before the deadline expires
(b) all applicants must submit their documents
(c) to avoid disqualification
Q10. Choose the correct order of segments.
(a) bac
(b) abc
(c) cab
(d) bca
(e) cba
The following six sentences, when arranged in the correct order, form a coherent paragraph. Read them and answer the questions that follow.
1. Farmers dependent on pollination for their crops have reported noticeable drops in yield.
2. Bees play a crucial role in pollinating a significant proportion of the world’s food crops.
3. Scientists attribute this decline to pesticide overuse, habitat loss and climate change.
4. Over the past two decades, however, bee populations have declined sharply across several continents.
5. Conservationists are now calling for stricter regulation of harmful agrochemicals.
6. Without urgent intervention, the long-term impact on global food security could be severe.
(The correct order is: 2-4-3-1-5-6)
Q11. Which sentence should come FIRST in the paragraph?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5
Q12. Which sentence should come SECOND in the paragraph?
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) 6
Q13. Which sentence should come THIRD in the paragraph?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 6
Q14. Which sentence should come FIFTH in the paragraph?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) 6
Q15. Which sentence should come LAST in the paragraph?
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) 6
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Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Urban ecosystems, once dismissed by ecologists as biologically impoverished compared to untouched wilderness, are increasingly recognised as dynamic and surprisingly diverse habitats in their own right. Cities host an eclectic mix of native and non-native species that have adapted, often ingeniously, to the peculiar pressures of concrete, artificial light and fragmented green spaces. Pigeons nest on window ledges that mimic cliff faces, peregrine falcons hunt from skyscrapers as they once did from canyon walls, and certain plant species exploit cracks in pavements where competition from larger vegetation is minimal. This adaptability, however, should not be mistaken for resilience against every form of disturbance; urban wildlife populations remain acutely vulnerable to pollution, heat-island effects and the relentless expansion of impervious surfaces.
What distinguishes urban ecology from traditional conservation biology is its explicit acknowledgment that humans are not external disruptors to be removed from the equation but active, permanent participants in the ecosystem’s functioning. Decisions about zoning, drainage infrastructure and even street-tree species selection ripple through the urban food web with consequences that are rarely anticipated at the planning stage. A seemingly innocuous choice, such as replacing native shrubs with ornamental hedges, can quietly eliminate the larval host plants that local butterfly populations depend upon, triggering cascading declines that are only noticed years later.
Proponents of biophilic urban design argue that cities can be deliberately engineered to support biodiversity rather than merely tolerate it. Green roofs, permeable pavements, wildlife corridors linking fragmented parks, and the strategic planting of native flora are among the interventions being piloted in metropolitan areas worldwide. Early results from several pilot programmes are encouraging: green corridors have been shown to measurably increase insect and bird diversity within just a few years of implementation. Sceptics, however, caution against overstating these gains, noting that small-scale interventions cannot fully compensate for the systemic habitat loss caused by continued urban sprawl.
Ultimately, the future of urban biodiversity will hinge not on isolated green initiatives but on whether city planners can integrate ecological thinking into the foundational logic of urban development, treating biodiversity as a core design parameter rather than an aesthetic afterthought.
Q16. What does the passage imply about the adaptability of urban wildlife?
(a) It guarantees complete protection from environmental disturbances
(b) It makes urban species immune to pollution and heat effects
(c) It does not equate to resilience against threats like pollution and heat-island effects
(d) It has eliminated the need for conservation efforts in cities
(e) It only applies to bird species and not to plants
Q17. Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the passage?
(a) Ornamental hedges always increase butterfly populations
(b) Replacing native shrubs with ornamental hedges can inadvertently harm local butterfly populations
(c) Urban ecology considers humans as external disruptors to be removed
(d) Green corridors have shown no measurable effect on biodiversity
(e) Traditional conservation biology and urban ecology share identical assumptions about humans
Q18. Choose the word that can best replace ‘eclectic’ as used in the passage.
(a) Uniform
(b) Diverse
(c) Scarce
(d) Artificial
(e) Fragile
Q19. Choose the word that can best replace ‘impoverished’ as used in the passage.
(a) Enriched
(b) Deficient
(c) Expanded
(d) Protected
(e) Isolated
Q20. According to the passage, what do proponents of biophilic urban design advocate?
(a) Removing all human activity from cities
(b) Deliberately engineering cities, through measures like green roofs and wildlife corridors, to support biodiversity
(c) Focusing only on rural conservation instead of urban areas
(d) Banning all non-native species from cities
(e) Ignoring the effects of zoning decisions on ecosystems
Q21. Which of the following best captures the central argument of the passage?
(a) Cities are inherently incapable of supporting biodiversity
(b) Isolated green initiatives alone are sufficient to secure urban biodiversity
(c) The future of urban biodiversity depends on integrating ecological thinking into the core logic of urban planning, not just isolated projects
(d) Urban wildlife populations are declining and cannot be saved
(e) Traditional conservation biology should be applied unchanged to cities
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In the following passage, some words have been blanked out. For each blank, choose the most appropriate option from the five given.
The rapid adoption of digital payment systems across India has __(22)__ the way small businesses handle daily transactions. Vendors who once relied __(23)__ on cash now accept payments through mobile applications within seconds. While this transition has undeniably improved convenience, it has also __(24)__ concerns about data privacy and the digital divide faced by those unfamiliar with such technology. Policymakers are therefore under pressure to __(25)__ regulations that protect consumers without stifling innovation. Unless this balance is achieved carefully, the very inclusivity that digital payments promise could __(26)__ into further exclusion for the most vulnerable sections of society.
Q22. Choose the most appropriate word for blank (22).
(a) transformed
(b) destroyed
(c) ignored
(d) repeated
(e) concealed
Q23. Choose the most appropriate word for blank (23).
(a) rarely
(b) exclusively
(c) occasionally
(d) hardly
(e) seldom
Q24. Choose the most appropriate word for blank (24).
(a) resolved
(b) eliminated
(c) raised
(d) dismissed
(e) buried
Q25. Choose the most appropriate word for blank (25).
(a) discard
(b) ignore
(c) delay
(d) frame
(e) abandon
Q26. Choose the most appropriate word for blank (26).
(a) collapse
(b) thrive
(c) expand
(d) strengthen
(e) flourish
A sentence has been split into three segments labelled (a), (b) and (c), given below in a jumbled order. Arrange them to form a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence.
(a) which had been delayed for months
(b) the construction of the new bridge
(c) finally began last week
Q27. Choose the correct order of segments.
(a) bac
(b) abc
(c) cab
(d) bca
(e) cba
A sentence has been split into three segments labelled (a), (b) and (c), given below in a jumbled order. Arrange them to form a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence.
(a) to improve transparency in public spending
(b) the new financial regulations
(c) aim primarily
Q28. Choose the correct order of segments.
(a) bca
(b) abc
(c) cab
(d) bac
(e) cba
Read the following sentences carefully:
1. Regular exercise help improve both physical and mental health.
2. Doctors recommend at least thirty minutes of activity daily.
3. Poor sleep patterns have been linked to several chronic illnesses.
4. A balanced diet, combined with exercise, reduces the risk of disease.
Q29. Which of the following sentences is grammatically incorrect?
(a) Sentence 1
(b) Sentence 2
(c) Sentence 3
(d) Sentence 4
(e) All are correct
Read the following sentences carefully:
1. Investors who diversify their portfolios tend to face lower risks.
2. The stock market have shown significant volatility this quarter.
3. Analysts recommend reviewing investments periodically.
4. Rising interest rates often discourage excessive borrowing.
Q30. Which of the following sentences is grammatically incorrect?
(a) Sentence 1
(b) Sentence 2
(c) Sentence 3
(d) Sentence 4
(e) All are correct
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Q31. A boat’s speed in still water is 12 km/hr and the speed of the stream is 3 km/hr. Find the total time taken by the boat to travel 45 km downstream and then return to the starting point.
(a) 7 hours
(b) 7.5 hours
(c) 8 hours
(d) 8.5 hours
(e) 9 hours
Q32. A and B start a business investing Rs 24,000 and Rs 36,000 respectively. After 4 months, A withdraws half of his capital. If the total profit at the end of the year is Rs 52,000, find A’s share of the profit.
(a) Rs 14,000
(b) Rs 15,000
(c) Rs 16,000
(d) Rs 17,000
(e) Rs 18,000
Q33. Rakesh’s income is 20% more than Suresh’s income, and Suresh’s income is 25% less than Tarun’s income. If Tarun’s income is Rs 40,000, find Rakesh’s income.
(a) Rs 32,000
(b) Rs 34,000
(c) Rs 35,000
(d) Rs 36,000
(e) Rs 38,000
Q34. The difference between the compound interest and simple interest on a certain sum for 2 years at 10% per annum is Rs 150. Find the sum.
(a) Rs 12,000
(b) Rs 13,500
(c) Rs 15,000
(d) Rs 16,500
(e) Rs 18,000
Q35. The length of a rectangle is 8 cm more than its breadth. The perimeter of the rectangle is 72 cm. A circle is drawn with radius equal to the breadth of the rectangle. Find the area of the circle. (Use π = 22/7)
(a) 484 sq cm
(b) 512 sq cm
(c) 550 sq cm
(d) 616 sq cm
(e) 660 sq cm
Q36. A shopkeeper marks an article 40% above its cost price and then offers two successive discounts of 10% and 5%. Find his overall profit percentage.
(a) 18.5%
(b) 19%
(c) 19.7%
(d) 20.5%
(e) 21%
Q37. In what ratio should tea worth Rs 200 per kg be mixed with tea worth Rs 260 per kg so that the resulting mixture is worth Rs 230 per kg?
(a) 1:2
(b) 2:1
(c) 1:1
(d) 3:2
(e) 2:3
Q38. A train 180 metres long crosses a platform 270 metres long in 30 seconds. Find the speed of the train in km/hr.
(a) 48 km/hr
(b) 50 km/hr
(c) 52 km/hr
(d) 54 km/hr
(e) 56 km/hr
Q39. A train running at a speed of 72 km/hr crosses a pole in 15 seconds. It then crosses a bridge in 40 seconds. Find the length of the bridge.
(a) 450 m
(b) 480 m
(c) 500 m
(d) 520 m
(e) 550 m
Q40. A can complete a piece of work in 20 days and B can complete it in 30 days. They work together for 5 days, after which A leaves. In how many more days will B complete the remaining work?
(a) 15 days
(b) 16 days
(c) 17 days
(d) 17.5 days
(e) 18 days
Q41. Find the next term in the series: 7, 9, 14, 24, 41, ?
(a) 58
(b) 63
(c) 67
(d) 71
(e) 75
Q42. Find the next term in the series: 2, 6, 15, 31, 56, ?
(a) 84
(b) 88
(c) 92
(d) 96
(e) 100
Q43. Find the next term in the series: 800, 400, 200, 100, 50, ?
(a) 20
(b) 22.5
(c) 25
(d) 27.5
(e) 30
Q44. Find the next term in the series: 3, 8, 18, 38, 78, ?
(a) 148
(b) 152
(c) 158
(d) 162
(e) 168
Q45. Find the next term in the series: 1, 4, 10, 22, 46, ?
(a) 88
(b) 90
(c) 92
(d) 94
(e) 96
Q46. Find the missing term in the series: 2.5, 3.6, 5.8, 9.1, 13.5, ?
(a) 17.5
(b) 18.0
(c) 18.5
(d) 19.0
(e) 19.5
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Study the following table carefully and answer the questions that follow. The table shows the total number of employees and the percentage of women employees in five companies (P, Q, R, S and T) in the year 2025.
| Company | Total Employees | % Women |
|---------|-----------------|---------|
| P | 800 | 45% |
| Q | 950 | 40% |
| R | 1200 | 50% |
| S | 700 | 60% |
| T | 1100 | 35% |
Q47. What is the total number of women employees in companies P and S together?
(a) 720
(b) 750
(c) 780
(d) 800
(e) 820
Q48. Find the number of men employees in company R.
(a) 500
(b) 550
(c) 600
(d) 650
(e) 700
Q49. What is the ratio of the number of women employees in company Q to that in company T?
(a) 19:19
(b) 76:77
(c) 77:76
(d) 4:5
(e) 5:4
Q50. What is the average number of total employees across all five companies?
(a) 900
(b) 925
(c) 950
(d) 975
(e) 1000
Q51. The number of men employees in company S is approximately what percent of the number of men employees in company Q?
(a) 44.1%
(b) 46.5%
(c) 49.1%
(d) 52.3%
(e) 55.0%
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A family’s total monthly expenditure is Rs 60,000. The pie chart below shows the percentage distribution of this expenditure across six categories.
Rent: 25% Food: 20% Education: 15% Transport: 10% Savings: 20% Others: 10%
Q52. What is the total amount spent on Food and Transport together?
(a) Rs 15,000
(b) Rs 16,000
(c) Rs 17,000
(d) Rs 18,000
(e) Rs 19,000
Q53. Savings is what percent more than Education expenditure?
(a) 25%
(b) 30%
(c) 33.33%
(d) 35%
(e) 40%
Q54. Find the central angle (in degrees) corresponding to the Rent category in the pie chart.
(a) 72
(b) 81
(c) 90
(d) 95
(e) 100
Q55. If the Education expense increases by 20% next month while all other categories remain unchanged, what will be the new total monthly expenditure?
(a) Rs 60,900
(b) Rs 61,200
(c) Rs 61,500
(d) Rs 61,800
(e) Rs 62,000
Q56. What is the ratio of the amount spent on Rent to the amount spent on Others?
(a) 2:1
(b) 5:2
(c) 3:1
(d) 7:3
(e) 5:3
Q57. In the following question, two equations I and II are given. Solve both and determine the relation between x and y.
I. x² – 11x + 30 = 0
II. y² – 13y + 42 = 0
(a) x > y
(b) x < y
(c) x = y
(d) x ≤ y
(e) Relationship cannot be determined
Q58. In the following question, two equations I and II are given. Solve both and determine the relation between x and y.
I. 2x² – 9x + 9 = 0
II. y² – 5y + 6 = 0
(a) x > y
(b) x < y
(c) x = y
(d) x ≥ y
(e) Relationship cannot be determined
Q59. In the following question, two equations I and II are given. Solve both and determine the relation between x and y.
I. x² – 15x + 56 = 0
II. y² – 17y + 72 = 0
(a) x > y
(b) x < y
(c) x = y
(d) x ≤ y
(e) Relationship cannot be determined
Q60. Find the approximate value: (15.98)² + (24.02)² – (12.01 × 8.03) = ?
(a) 656
(b) 696
(c) 716
(d) 736
(e) 756
Q61. Find the approximate value: √2499.9 + 34.98% of 599.8 = ?
(a) 240
(b) 250
(c) 260
(d) 270
(e) 280
Q62. Find the approximate value: (7.98 × 12.02) + 45.1% of 199.9 = ?
(a) 166
(b) 176
(c) 186
(d) 196
(e) 206
Q63. The average of five consecutive even numbers is 34. Find the largest of these numbers.
(a) 36
(b) 38
(c) 40
(d) 42
(e) 44
Q64. The ratio of the present ages of A and B is 3:4. After 6 years, the ratio of their ages will become 4:5. Find A’s present age.
(a) 15 years
(b) 16 years
(c) 18 years
(d) 20 years
(e) 21 years
Q65. A sum of Rs 8,400 is divided among X, Y and Z in the ratio 4:5:7. Find Y’s share.
(a) Rs 2,100
(b) Rs 2,325
(c) Rs 2,500
(d) Rs 2,625
(e) Rs 2,800
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Eight people – Amit, Bhavna, Chetan, Divya, Esha, Farhan, Gauri and Hemant – visit a doctor across four months: January, February, March and April of the same year. Exactly two of them visit in each month, one on the 8th and the other on the 22nd of that month. The following information is known:
1. Four people visit between Bhavna and Chetan (considering the order of all visits from January 8th to April 22nd).
2. Amit visits immediately before Hemant (i.e., Amit visits on a date immediately followed, in the overall order, by Hemant’s visit).
3. Only one person visits after Gauri in the overall order.
4. Only one person visits before Farhan, and six people visit after Amit, in the overall order.
5. Divya visits in March.
6. Esha visits last of all, on the 22nd of April.
7. Farhan visits on the 22nd of a month, immediately after Bhavna’s visit.
(Based on the above, the complete visiting order works out to: Bhavna (Jan-8), Farhan (Jan-22), Amit (Feb-8), Hemant (Feb-22), Divya (Mar-8), Chetan (Mar-22), Gauri (Apr-8), Esha (Apr-22).)
Q66. Who visits the doctor on 8th March?
(a) Amit
(b) Chetan
(c) Divya
(d) Gauri
(e) Hemant
Q67. How many people visit the doctor between Farhan and Chetan (in the overall order)?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
(e) None
Q68. Which of the following person-month combinations is correct?
(a) Amit-March
(b) Chetan-April
(c) Gauri-April
(d) Hemant-January
(e) Divya-February
Q69. If all eight people are rearranged in alphabetical order of their names from position 1 to position 8 (in the same overall sequence of eight positions), the position of how many people would remain unchanged compared to the original arrangement?
(a) None
(b) Only one
(c) Only two
(d) Only three
(e) Only four
Q70. Who visits the doctor immediately before Gauri (in the overall order)?
(a) Amit
(b) Chetan
(c) Divya
(d) Hemant
(e) Esha
Q71. Who is the other person that visits the doctor in the same month as Hemant?
(a) Bhavna
(b) Farhan
(c) Amit
(d) Chetan
(e) Divya
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Eight people – J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q – sit around a circular table at equal distances from one another. Some of them face the centre while others face outside. Positions are numbered 1 to 8 in the clockwise direction, starting from J at position 1.
1. J sits at position 1 and faces the centre.
2. K sits second in the clockwise direction from J (i.e., at position 2) and faces outside.
3. L sits immediately next to K in the clockwise direction (position 3) and faces the centre.
4. M sits immediately next to L in the clockwise direction (position 4) and faces outside.
5. N sits immediately next to M in the clockwise direction (position 5) and faces the centre.
6. O sits immediately next to N in the clockwise direction (position 6) and faces outside.
7. P sits immediately next to O in the clockwise direction (position 7) and faces the centre.
8. Q occupies the only remaining position (position 8) and faces outside.
(So facing direction alternates around the table: centre, outside, centre, outside, and so on.)
Q72. Who sits exactly opposite J at the table?
(a) K
(b) L
(c) M
(d) N
(e) P
Q73. How many people sit between K and P when counted in the anticlockwise direction from K?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) Five
Q74. Which of the following pairs of people face the same direction (both towards the centre)?
(a) J and K
(b) K and M
(c) L and N
(d) M and O
(e) J and M
Q75. Who sits third in the clockwise direction from M?
(a) N
(b) O
(c) P
(d) Q
(e) J
Q76. Who are the immediate neighbours of O?
(a) M and N
(b) N and P
(c) L and P
(d) J and Q
(e) K and Q
Q77. How many people who face outside sit between Q and K when counted in the clockwise direction from Q to K?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) Four
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In a family, Ramesh and Sarita are a married couple with two children – Anil (son) and Kavita (daughter). Anil is married to Bina, and Kavita is married to Deepak. Rohit is the son of Anil and Bina. Suresh is the son of Kavita and Deepak. There are no other members in the family.
Q78. How is Rohit related to Kavita?
(a) Brother
(b) Cousin
(c) Nephew
(d) Son
(e) Uncle
Q79. How is Deepak related to Ramesh?
(a) Son
(b) Son-in-law
(c) Brother
(d) Nephew
(e) Father-in-law
Q80. How is Suresh related to Rohit?
(a) Brother
(b) Cousin
(c) Uncle
(d) Nephew
(e) Grandson
Q81. How is Bina related to Sarita?
(a) Sister
(b) Daughter
(c) Daughter-in-law
(d) Niece
(e) Mother-in-law
Q82. How is Sarita related to Rohit?
(a) Mother
(b) Aunt
(c) Grandmother
(d) Sister
(e) Niece
Q83. How many male members are there in the family in total?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six
(e) Seven
Remaining Pages (15–17) ka Complete Plain Text:
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Nine employees – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I – are distributed among three departments: HR, IT and Sales, with at least two employees in each department.
1. HR has the maximum number of employees and Sales has the minimum number of employees.
2. A, B and E are in the same department, which is not Sales.
3. D and G are together in Sales, and no one else is in Sales.
4. C and F are in the same department as I, but this department is not HR.
5. H is in HR.
(This results in: HR = {A, B, E, H}, IT = {C, F, I}, Sales = {D, G}.)
Q84. Which department has exactly three employees?
(a) HR
(b) IT
(c) Sales
(d) Both HR and IT
(e) Cannot be determined
Q85. How many employees are there in the HR department?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
(e) Six
Q86. C belongs to the same department as which of the following employees?
(a) A
(b) D
(c) F
(d) H
(e) G
Q87. Which department does H belong to?
(a) HR
(b) IT
(c) Sales
(d) Either HR or IT
(e) Cannot be determined
Q88. If two employees are transferred from HR to Sales, how many employees will Sales have?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
(e) Six
Q89. Which of the following combinations of employee-department is correct?
(a) C-HR
(b) D-Sales
(c) H-IT
(d) A-Sales
(e) F-HR
Q90. Statements: P > Q = R ≥ S; T < S.
Conclusions: I. P > T II. Q ≥ T
Which of the conclusions logically follow(s)?
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both conclusions follow
(d) Neither conclusion follows
(e) Either I or II follows
---
Q91. Find the missing number in the series: 5, 11, 23, 47, 95, ?
(a) 185
(b) 187
(c) 189
(d) 191
(e) 193
Q92. In four of the following five number pairs, the second number is the square of the first. Find the pair that does NOT fit this pattern.
(a) 8-64
(b) 6-36
(c) 9-81
(d) 5-30
(e) 7-49
Q93. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ‘GARDEN’ each of which has as many letters between them (in the word) as there are between them in the English alphabet?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Five
(d) Six
(e) Seven
Q94. Rohan introduced Meena, saying, ‘She is the daughter of my mother’s only son.’ How is Meena related to Rohan?
(a) Sister
(b) Niece
(c) Daughter
(d) Wife
(e) Cousin
Q95. Pointing to a man, Aditi said, ‘His wife is the only daughter of my father’s mother.’ How is the man related to Aditi?
(a) Father
(b) Brother
(c) Uncle
(d) Cousin
(e) Grandfather
Q96. Statements: All pens are pencils. Some pencils are erasers. No eraser is a marker.
Conclusions: I. Some pencils are not markers. II. Some pens are erasers.
Which of the conclusions logically follow(s)?
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both conclusions follow
(d) Neither conclusion follows
(e) Either I or II follows
Q97. Statements: Some rivers are lakes. All lakes are ponds. No pond is an ocean.
Conclusions: I. No lake is an ocean. II. Some rivers are ponds.
Which of the conclusions logically follow(s)?
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both conclusions follow
(d) Neither conclusion follows
(e) Either I or II follows
---
Q98. Find the wrong number in the series: 3, 4, 9, 29, 113, 566
(a) 4
(b) 9
(c) 29
(d) 113
(e) 566
Q99. Four of the following five letter-pairs are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the English alphabet, and hence form a group. Find the one that does NOT belong to the group.
(a) BD
(b) EG
(c) KM
(d) PS
(e) TV
Q100. Statements: M > N ≥ O > P; Q > P.
Conclusions: I. M > P II. Q > N
Which of the conclusions logically follow(s)?
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Both conclusions follow
(d) Neither conclusion follows
(e) Either I or II follows
---SBI PO Prelims 2026 Previous Year Question Paper with Free PDF Download Shift 2 Memory Based Paper (Aug 1, 2026)
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