SSC Previous Year Question Paper ECOLOGY ECOSYSTEM AND FUNCTIONS with Free PDF download link

ECOLOGY, ECOSYSTEM AND FUNCTIONS'

 

Q.1 Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants? [2022]

1. Alfalfa
2. Amaranth
3. Chickpea
4. Clover
5. Purslane (Kulfa)
6. Spinach

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6

Answer: (a)

Ex: Option (a) is correct: Alfalfa, chickpea, and clover are nitrogen-fixing plants. They belong to the leguminous family and form symbiotic associations with Rhizobium bacteria in their root nodules, aiding in nitrogen fixation and enriching soil fertility.

Amaranth, purslane (Kulfa), and spinach are non-leguminous plants and lack the ability to fix nitrogen as they do not form symbiotic relationships with nitrogen-fixing bacteria or develop root nodules. This natural ability of legumes like alfalfa, chickpea, and clover to fix nitrogen is extensively utilized in crop rotation practices to replenish soil nutrients and enhance agricultural productivity.

Additional Information:

Nitrogen fixation is a critical biological process that converts atmospheric nitrogen (N2), which plants cannot directly utilize, into ammonia (NH3) or other compounds that plants

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1 Diatoms are a type of phytoplankton that perform photosynthesis. They are among the most important primary producers in the oceans which contribute significantly to global carbon fixation. They are a key food source for zooplankton and other marine organisms.

Copepods and Foraminifera are consumers:

Copepods form a crucial link in the food chain and are often assigned the role of "primary consumers". Copepods play a significant ecological role by feeding numerous fish species. Foraminifera are any unicellular organism of the rhizopoda order Foraminiferida (formerly Foraminifera), characterized by long, fine pseudopodia that extend from a uninucleated or multinucleated cytoplasmic body encased within a test, or shell. In a variety of maritime habitats, foraminifera have been observed to feed mostly on bacteria, tiny diatoms, and nanoplankton. Copepods are small crustaceans that are not primary producers. They are zooplankton that feed on phytoplankton (primary producers) and other small organisms. They play a crucial role in marine food webs as a link between primary producers and higher trophic levels. Foraminifera are not primary producers. They are single-celled protists that belong to the zooplankton group. They feed on phytoplankton, detritus, and other small organisms. They are important in marine ecosystems as indicators of environmental conditions.

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Exp: Detritivores, also known as detritivores, detritophages, detritus feeders, or detritus eaters, are heterotrophs that obtain nutrients by consuming detritus (decomposing plant and animal parts as well as feces). By doing so, all these detritivores contribute to decomposition and the nutrient cycles.

Option (c) is correct: Earthworms, Millipedes and Woodlice are Detritivores. Detritivores are an important aspect of many ecosystems. They can live on any type of soil with an organic component, including marine ecosystems, where they are termed interchangeably with bottom feeders. Typical detritivorous animals include earthworm, millipedes, springtails, woodlice, dung flies, slugs, many terrestrial worms, sea stars, sea cucumbers, fiddler crabs, and some sedentary polychaetes such as worms of the family Terebellidae.

Q.5 In which one of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrients to enter the cycle? [2021]

(a) Carbon cycle
(b) Nitrogen cycle
(c) Phosphorus cycle
(d) Sulphur cycle

Answer: (c)

Exp: Option (c) is correct: Phosphate ions and other minerals gradually leak out of rocks as a result of weathering and rain. Phosphorus Cycle (unlike the carbon and nitrogen cycles) lacks an atmospheric component. Phosphorus is one of the most important nutrients in biological systems since it is a fundamental ingredient of nucleic acids, phospholipids, and several phosphorylated compounds.

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Option (a),(b) and (d) are incorrect:

- The carbon cycle primarily involves the exchange of carbon between the atmosphere, oceans, soil and living organisms. The main sources of carbon are atmospheric CO2 (used in photosynthesis) and organic matter decomposition. Weathering of rocks contributes minimally to the carbon cycle.
- The nitrogen cycle involves the conversion of nitrogen between its various chemical forms primarily through processes like nitrogen fixation, nitrification, and denitrification.
- The sulphur cycle involves the movement of sulphur through the atmosphere, lithosphere, and biosphere. It is released into the cycle through volcanic activity, burning of fossils, weathering of rocks, and decomposition of organic matter.

Q.6 Which of the following have species that can establish a symbiotic relationship with other organisms? [2021]

1. Cnidarians
2. Fungi
3. Protozoa

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Exp: Symbiotic Relationship:

- A relationship between two (or more) species that may or may not be advantageous to one or both is referred to as symbiotic.

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7. With reference to the water on the planet Earth, consider the following statements: [2021]

1. The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more than the amount of groundwater.
2. The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 Only
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (b)
Exp: Water makes up about 71% of the Earth's surface, while the other 29% consists of continents and islands. Oceans and Seas make up 97% of the Earth's water and only about 2.5% is in the form of freshwater. 71% of the earth surface constitutes water & only 29% constitutes a land area of earth. 97 % of the water area constitutes Oceans & Seas & 2.5% as freshwater.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Fresh Water distribution is as given below:
Ice Caps and Glaciers > Groundwater >Lakes Ice & Snow > Soil Moisture > Atmosphere > Rivers and Streams.
Statement 2 is correct: While about 69% of earth's freshwater is in ice caps and glaciers, groundwater has about 30% of earth's freshwater. Lakes, rivers and swamps etc make up the remaining 1%. While 75 % of freshwater is in glaciers & ice caps, only 7% of freshwater is groundwater.

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Exp: Both warm and mid-latitude deserts have a predominance of xerophytic or drought-resistant plants. This comprises cacti, thorny bushes, wiry grasses with extensive roots, and scattered dwarf acacias.

Option (d) is correct: In order to gather moisture and search for ground water, the majority of desert shrubs have lengthy roots that are widely distributed. These plants typically have a few (or no leaves) tiny, needle-shaped, waxy, leathery leaves or hairy foliage to reduce water loss through transpiration.

Q.9 The term 'M-StrIPES' is sometimes seen in the news in the context of [2017]

(a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
(b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves
(c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System
(d) Security of National Highways

Answer: (b)

Exp: MStrIPES stands for Monitoring system for Tigers - Intensive Protection and Ecological Status. M-StrIPES was launched in 2010 by NTCA and WII across Indian tiger reserves. It is a software-based monitoring system, designed to assist wildlife protection.

The system consists of two components:

- Field based methods for ecological monitoring, law enforcement, recording wildlife offences, and patrolling.
- A specialised GIS application for reporting, analysis, and data storage. Forest guards are required to use a GPS to track their movements as part of MStrIPES, in addition to entering their observations on site-specific data sheets.

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1. Virus
2. Fungi
3. Bacteria
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
Exp: Decomposers are organisms that primarily feed on dead organisms or the waste from living organisms. Some organisms perform a similar function as decomposers, and are sometimes called detritivores. The difference lies in the way decomposers and detritivores break down organic material. Detritivores must digest organic material within their bodies in order to break it down and gain nutrients from it. Decomposers do not need to digest organic material internally in order to break it down. Fungi and Bacteria are examples of decomposers. Scavengers are the one among the first to arrive at a dead organism's remains. It includes jackals, wolves, raccoons, and opossums.
Q.12 In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of: [2013]
(a) insects and fungi
(b) limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients
(c) water limits and fire
(d) None of the above

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Option (c) is correct: Grasslands are found in regions with seasonal rainfall or semi-arid conditions where water availability is limited. Grasses are more drought-resistant than trees and can survive with less water. Grasslands are often subject to frequent fires which prevent the establishment of trees. Grasses can quickly regenerate after a fire while trees are more vulnerable and less likely to survive. Thus these factors together maintain the dominance of grasses and prevent the succession to a forest ecosystem.

Option (a),(b) and (d) are incorrect:

- Insects and fungi play roles in ecosystems but they are not the primary factors preventing trees from replacing grasses in grasslands. Insects and fungi can affect plant health but they do not determine the overall structure of grassland ecosystems.
- Limited Sunlight and Paucity of Nutrients are not the primary limiting factor for tree growth. In fact grasses are highly efficient at utilizing available nutrients and sunlight which allows them to dominate these ecosystems.

Q.13 Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity? [2013]

(a) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves
(b) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
(c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans
(d) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands

Answer: (c)

Exp: Productivity is the rate of biomass production. It is measured in mass per unit volume per

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- Mangroves have the highest productivity due to abundant nutrients, tidal action, and high photosynthetic rates making them crucial breeding grounds for marine life (NPP: ~2000 gC/m²/year).
- Grasslands follow, as they receive ample sunlight but have moderate water availability, supporting rapid grass growth (NPP: ~600–1500 gC/m²/year).
- Lakes are less productive than grasslands because nutrient availability varies with depth and type (eutrophic lakes are more productive than oligotrophic ones) (NPP: ~300–1000 gC/m²/year).
- Oceans have the lowest productivity, as vast open waters are nutrient-poor, and deep layers receive minimal sunlight, though coastal areas and coral reefs are exceptions (NPP: ~50–200 gC/m²/year).

Q.14 With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements: [2013]

1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feeds upon each other.
2. Food chains are found within the populations of a species.
3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

Answer: (a)

Exp: Food Chain is the successive transfer of nutrients and energy from one creature to another. A food chain shows a straightforward relationship and only one component of the food or energy flow. E.g. Grasses → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk/Eagle. Statement 1 is correct: A food chain is a linear flow of energy and nutrients from one organism to another.

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15 Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism but also its functional role in the community of organisms? [2013]

(a) Ecotone
(b) Ecological niche
(c) Habitat
(d) Home range

Answer: (b)

Exp: The term Ecological Niche was first time used by Grinnell (1917) to explain microhabitats. It is the physical space occupied by the organism, its functional role in the community i.e., trophic position, its position in the environmental gradients of temperature, moisture, pH, soil etc. and the conditions of existence. Therefore, Niche is the sum of all the activities and relationships of a species by which it uses the resources in its habitat for its survival and reproduction. No two species have exactly the same niche.

Option (b) is correct: An ecological niche refers to both the physical space an organism occupies and its functional role in an ecosystem, including its interactions with other organisms, resource utilization, and contribution to energy flow and nutrient cycling. The concept was introduced by Joseph Grinnell (1917) and further developed by G. Evelyn Hutchinson (1957).

Option (a),(c) and (d) are incorrect:

- Ecotone is transition zone between two different ecosystems such as a mangrove forest between land and sea. It does not define the functional role of an organism.
- Habitat is the physical location where an organism lives (e.g., a pond for a frog) but does not describe its interactions and role in the ecosystem.
- Home range is the area in which animal regularly moves within for feeding and other activities, but it does not account for ecological interactions.

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17 The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes the following major categories of ecosystem services- provisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and cultural. Which one of the following is a supporting service? [2012]

(a) Production of food and water
(b) Control of climate and disease
(c) Nutrient cycling and crop pollination
(d) Maintenance of diversity

Answer: (c)

Exp: Millennium Ecosystem Assessment (MA) was initiated in 2001 by the United Nations. The objective of the MA was to evaluate how changing ecosystems might affect human wellbeing as well as the scientific foundation for any necessary action to improve the systems' conservation and sustainable usage, as well as their contribution to human wellbeing. Ecosystem services to the society are in the form of:

1. Provisioning services: food, raw materials, genetic resources, water, etc
2. Regulating services: carbon sequestration and climate regulation
3. Cultural services: tourism and religion
4. Supporting services: that are necessary for the production of all other ecosystem services such as nutrient recycling, crop pollination and soil formation, etc.

Q.18 What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason? [2012]

1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.
2. The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected.
3. The density of ocean water would drastically decrease.

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Statements 1 is correct: If phytoplankton are destroyed then less CO2 will be absorbed thereby increasing atmospheric carbon and contributing to global warming. Phytoplankton are responsible for carbon fixation through photosynthesis. They absorb CO2 from the atmosphere and convert it into organic matter. When phytoplankton die, some of this carbon sinks to the ocean floor, sequestering it for long periods.

Statements 2 is correct: Phytoplankton are the primary producers in marine ecosystems forming the base of the food web. They are consumed by zooplankton which in turn are eaten by larger organisms like fish, marine mammals, and seabirds. The destruction of phytoplankton would disrupt the entire marine food chain and can lead to the collapse of fisheries and the decline of marine biodiversity.

Statement 3 is incorrect: There are two main factors that make ocean water more or less dense, temperature and salinity. Cold, salty water is denser than warm, fresher water and will sink below the less dense layer. Phytoplankton population has no direct impact on the density of ocean water.

The density of ocean water is primarily determined by temperature and salinity and not by the presence of phytoplankton. While phytoplankton can slightly affect water properties through their metabolic activities but their destruction would not cause a drastic decrease in ocean water density.

Q.19 In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine upwelling zones are important as they increase marine productivity by bringing the: [2011]

1. Decomposer microorganisms to the surface.
2. Nutrients to the surface.
3. Bottom-dwelling organisms to the surface.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Statement 2 is correct: The water that upwelling causes to rise to the surface is usually cooler and nutrient-rich. Surface waters are "fertilised" by these nutrients, which means that they frequently have high biological production. As a result, good fishing spots are usually found where upwelling is frequent.

Upwelling regions bring nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, and iron from deep waters to the surface.

These nutrients enhance phytoplankton growth which supports higher trophic levels such as fish and marine mammals. Major upwelling zones include the coasts of Peru, California, and West Africa.

These regions contribute to high fishery productivity (Ex: Peruvian anchovy fishery). Statement 3 is incorrect: Bottom-dwelling (benthic) organisms such as crustaceans and mollusks are not brought to the surface by upwelling. Upwelling affects water movement but does not displace benthic creatures from the ocean floor.

Q.20 If a tropical rainforest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is because [2011]

(a) The soil of rainforest is deficient in nutrients
(b) Propagules of the trees in a rainforest have poor viability
(c) The rain forest species are slow-growing
(d) Exotic species invade the fertile soil of rainforest

Answer: (a)

Exp: Option (a) is correct: The high volume of rainfall in tropical rainforests leaches out most of the nutrients from the soil and makes these soils virtually useless and nutrient deficient for agricultural purposes.

Tropical rainforests and tropical deciduous forests differ in their nutrient cycles, soil composition, and regeneration capacity. When a tropical rainforest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly because of the nutrient-poor soil. In tropical rainforests, the warm

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- Propagules (seeds, spores, or other reproductive structures) of rainforest trees generally have high viability. However, the regeneration of rainforests is hindered more by soil nutrient deficiencies than by the viability of propagules.
- Many rainforest species are fast-growing especially pioneer species that colonize disturbed areas. However, the lack of nutrients in the soil limits their growth and the overall regeneration of the forest.
- In rainforests slow regeneration is due to nutrient loss and not exotic/invasive species. If soils were fertile, native plants would recover quickly but rainforest soils are typically nutrient-poor which limits their regrowth.

Q.21 A pesticide which is a chlorinated hydrocarbon is sprayed on a food crop. [2010] The food chain is: Food crop - Rat - Snake - Hawk. In this food chain, the highest concentration of the pesticide would accumulate in which one of the following?
(a) Food crop
(b) Rat
(c) Snake
(d) Hawk
Answer: (d)

Answer: (d)

Exp: The highest concentration of the pesticide accumulates in the hawk due to a process called biomagnification. Chlorinated hydrocarbon pesticides, such as DDT, are persistent chemicals that accumulate in the fatty tissues of organisms. As these pesticides move up the food chain, their concentration increases.

When a chlorinated hydrocarbon pesticide is applied to a crop, it may be consumed by a rat feeding on that crop. The pesticide accumulates in the rat's fatty tissues. When a snake eats the rat, it not only ingests the pesticide present in the rat but also the

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2.2 Within biological communities, some species are important in determining the ability of a large number of other species to persist in the community. Such species are called: [2000]
(a) Keystone species
(b) Allopatric species
(c) Sympatric species
(d) Threatened species
Answer: (a)

Exp: Option (a) is correct: Keystone species play a crucial role in maintaining ecosystem structure and function, having a disproportionate impact relative to their abundance. Like the keystone in an arch, they support the stability of the entire system. These species influence population sizes, modify the environment, and affect species diversity and community composition. Removing a keystone species can disrupt the ecosystem, leading to biodiversity loss and instability. Some of the Keystone Species are: Sea Otters (kelp forest ecosystem). Wolves and other top predators (Grassland ecosystem), Elephants (Savannah), Beavers and Starfish.

Options (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect:

Allopatric species are species that evolve separately due to geographic isolation, Eg. African and Indian elephants. Sympatric species are species that evolve separately within the same geographic area. Threatened species are species at risk of becoming endangered in the near future due to factors like habitat loss, climate change, and human activities.

Q.23 Consider the following programmes: [1996]

1. Afforestation and development of wastelands

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- Increasing substantially the forest/tree cover in the country through massive afforestation, reforestation and social forestry programmes
- Encouraging efficient utilisation of forest produce and maximising substitution of wood.
- Checking soil erosion and denudation in the catchment areas of rivers, lakes, reservoirs.
- However, the National Forest Policy of 1988 does not promote the wide use of insecticides and pesticides. Instead, it emphasizes the importance of maintaining a balanced ecosystem and preserving biodiversity within forests.

2. BIODIVERSITY

24. The organisms "Cicada, Froghopper, and Pond skater" are: [2024]

(a) Birds
(b) Fish
(c) Insects
(d) Reptiles

Answer: (c)

Exp: Option (c) is correct:

The organisms Cicada, Froghopper, and Pond Skater are all insects. They belong to the class Insecta within the phylum Arthropoda.

Cicada is a family of more than 3,000 species of sound-producing insects. They are found in tropical and temperate areas worldwide and occur in deserts, grasslands, and forests. Cicadas have long been used in folk medicines, as religious and monetary symbols, and as an important source of food for humans and many other organisms.

Froghoppers are species of small hopping insects which are worldwide in distribution and they produce a frothy substance known as spittle. The whitish nymph secretes a fluid

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- Pond skaters (also called water striders) are insects in the order Hemiptera. They are known for their ability to walk on water due to surface tension and their hydrophobic legs.

Q.25 Consider the following statements: [2023]

Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India.

Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (c)

Exp: Marsupials are a group of mammals commonly referred to as pouched mammals, such as kangaroos and wallabies. These animals are characterized by giving birth to

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1. Lion-tailed Macaque
2. Malabar Civet
3. Sambar Deer
How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Solution: (a)
Exp: Option 1 is incorrect: Lion-tailed Macaque, also referred to as the wanderoo, inhabits the upper canopy of tropical evergreen rainforests and monsoon forests across various elevations. This species is endemic to the Western Ghats. They are diurnal which means it is active during the day and not nocturnal. IUCN Red List: Endangered
Option 2 is correct: Malabar Civet is endemic to the Western Ghats of India. It is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List. The Malabar civet is considered nocturnal and so elusive that little is known about its biology and ecology apart from habitat use. IUCN Red List: Critically Endangered
Option 3 is incorrect: The Sambar, a large deer native to the Indian subcontinent and Southeast Asia, is crepuscular, active during twilight (morning and evening), and occasionally after sunset. Males are mostly solitary while females form small herds of up to 16 individuals. IUCN Red List: Vulnerable

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1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water.
2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water.
3. Some microorganisms can grow in a highly acidic environment with a pH below 3.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
Answer: (c)
Exp: Microorganisms are classified into three primary groups on the basis of their preferred range of temperature:
Psychrophiles (cold-loving microbes)
Mesophiles (moderate-temperature-loving microbes)
Thermophiles (heat-loving microbes).
Statement 1 is correct: Thermophiles are able to survive at temperatures up to 122°C.
Hyperthermophiles induce the production of heat shock proteins (HsPs), which are standard proteins responsible for responding to heat stress and safeguarding against cellular damage. For example, Methanopyrus kandleri can grow at temperatures up to 122°C.
Hyperthermophiles such as Pyrobolus and Pyrodictium can grow at temperatures exceeding 100°C especially in high-pressure environments like deep-sea hydrothermal vents.

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Statement 3 is correct: pH 6.5-7 (neutral range) is best suited for bacterial growth. However, some bacteria can grow at an acidic pH below 4 and are called acidophiles. While some bacteria prefer an alkaline pH (8-9), are called alkalophiles. Molds and yeasts (fungus) require an optimum pH of about 5 to 6 for growth. Thiobacillus acidophilus bacteria is known for its ability to survive in extremely low pH levels. Acidophiles such as Ferroplasma acidarmanus and Acidithiobacillus ferrooxidans thrive in environments with pH as low as 0.5, such as acidic hot springs, acid mine drainages, and volcanic sulfur pools. These microbes have evolved mechanisms to pump out excess protons (H⁺ ions) to maintain internal pH stability. Some acidophiles like Thermoplasma lack a cell wall but possess specialized membrane structures to withstand extreme acidity.

Q.29 Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood? [2023]

(a) Fishing cat
(b) Orangutan
(c) Otter
(d) Sloth bear

Answer: (b)

Exp: Option (b) is correct:

Orangutans are highly intelligent great apes known for their tool-using abilities. They have been observed breaking off small branches and using them as tools to scrape insects from holes in trees or logs. This behavior demonstrates their advanced cognitive skills, problem-solving abilities, and adaptability in foraging. None of the other listed animals.

Additional Information:

Orangutan (genus Pongo) is one of the three species of Asian great apes found in

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(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Exp: Statement 1 is correct: The Nagoya Protocol focuses on the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the use of genetic resources. In India, Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) play a crucial role in implementing this protocol by facilitating access to genetic resources and associated traditional knowledge, ensuring benefiting sharing mechanisms are in place. BMCs are established under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, which aligns with India's commitments to the Nagoya Protocol.

Statement 2 is correct: BMCs play a crucial role in preparing peoples' biodiversity registers (PBRs), containing comprehensive information on local biological resources and associated traditional knowledge. BMCs are empowered under the Biological Diversity Act to regulate access to biological resources within their jurisdiction. They can levy collection fees for commercial utilization of these resources and ensure that benefits derived are shared equitably. These funds support biodiversity conservation and local community development.

Additional Information:

As per the Biodiversity Act of 2002, Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) are constituted at the local level. The act implements India's obligations outlined in the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) of 1992.

The Nagoya Protocol, adopted on October 29, 2010, in Nagoya, Japan, is a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). It aims to ensure the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources and associated traditional knowledge. The protocol contributes to biodiversity conservation

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Additional Information:

- The Nagoya Protocol (2010) is an international agreement under the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) that ensures the equitable sharing of benefits derived from the use of biological resources and traditional knowledge.
- BMCs help in creating People's Biodiversity Registers (PBRs) to document local biodiversity and associated knowledge, ensuring the protection of indigenous rights and promoting sustainable use.
- Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) regulations formulated by the NBA [2014] provide a legal framework for benefit-sharing agreements between users (such as pharmaceutical companies, research institutions) and local communities.
- Companies using medicinal plants for drug production must share a portion of their revenue with local communities managing those resources, as facilitated by BMCs.

Q.31 Which one of the following is used in preparing a natural mosquito repellent? [2021]

(a) Congress grass
(b) Elephant grass
(c) Lemongrass
(d) Nut grass

Solution: (c)

Exp: Lemongrass is a tall herb that is widely distributed in tropical and subtropical regions of Asia, Africa, and Australia. Lemongrass is most frequently produced in China and India. The lemongrass herb is well known for its effectiveness at warding off mosquitoes, it and works as a mosquito repellent. It contains the chemical citronella, which aids in disguising the smells that mosquitoes use to target victims. A 2011 study found that the strong odour of lemongrass oil effectively killed or fully repelled more than 90% of the mosquitoes from a particular range of species.

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Exp: Savanna Biome is a particular kind of grassland biome made up of vast expanses of open grassland with few trees. Tropical and Semi-tropical savannas are two kinds of savannas. All continents excluding Antarctica have grasslands. The largest savannas are found close to the equator in Africa.

The combination of high temperatures and little precipitation makes savannas perfect areas for grass and brush fires during their dry seasons. Many of the savanna biome animals are grazing herbivores that migrate through the region. Savanna regions have two distinct seasons - a wet season and a dry season.

There is very little rain in the dry season. In the wet season vegetation grows, including lush green grasses and wooded areas.

Vegetation of the Savanna Biome is influenced by the soil properties but the soil properties do not control the development of forest.

Option (c) is correct:

- Frequent wildfires both natural (lightning-induced) and human-induced prevent the establishment of dense forests. Fires destroy young tree saplings before they can mature into large trees, thus maintaining grasslands. Savanna fires are a key ecological process that helps maintain the balance between grasslands and scattered trees.
- Large herbivores like elephants, zebras, and antelopes feed on young tree shoots, preventing forests from expanding. Grazing by animals ensures that tree cover remains sparse which allows grasses to dominate. Studies on African and Indian savannas have shown that herbivory is a critical limiting factor for tree growth.
- The limited and unpredictable rainfall pattern allows grasses to outcompete trees for available water. Savannas experience distinct wet and dry seasons leading to limited water availability. Trees require consistent moisture to grow into dense forests but in evergreen grasslands, the vegetation is dominated by grasses.

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Exp: Transfer of pollen grains (shed from the anther) to the stigma of a pistil is termed pollination. Flowering plants have evolved an amazing array of adaptations to achieve pollination. Depending on the source of pollen, pollination is divided into three types, i.e. Autogamy, Geitonogamy and Xenogamy.

Statements 1 and 3 are correct: Bees, butterflies and other biotic agents play a vital role in the pollination of plants and production of crops by transporting pollen grains from one place to another. Wasps, ants, parasitic flies, birds, snakes, toads, rats etc. are some of the common predators of butterflies. The decline in the butterfly population would therefore adversely affect the food chain.

Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no direct link between fall in butterflies' population and increase in fungal infection.

Statement 1 is correct: Butterflies are important pollinators for many flowering plants. Plant species particularly those that produce brightly colored, scented flowers with deep nectar tubes are adapted to butterfly pollination. A drastic fall in butterfly populations would result in reduced pollination, affecting plant reproduction and possibly leading to a decline in the population of such plant species.

Statement 2 is incorrect: There is no direct link between butterfly populations and fungal infections in cultivated plants. Fungal infections are influenced by factors like humidity, temperature, plant health, and soil conditions rather than by the presence or absence of butterflies.

Statement 3 is correct: Butterflies form a crucial part of the food chain, serving as prey for birds, wasps, spiders, and other insectivores. Many species of small birds (e.g., flycatchers, warblers, bee-eaters) depend on butterflies and their larvae (caterpillars) as a major food source. If butterfly populations decline then predators depending on them may suffer a population decline

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- Declaring the entire Western Ghats as an Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA).
- Dividing the region into three zones (Ecologically Sensitive Zones 1, 2, and 3), with strict regulations on mining, industries, and land-use changes.
- Implementing bottom-up democratic decision-making by involving local communities in conservation efforts.
- Banning large-scale developmental projects in sensitive zones.

Q.35 How does the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting Indian Agriculture? [2012]

1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants.
3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological resources cannot be made without the approval of NBA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Exp: National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established in 2003 with HQ in Chennai under the ambit of MoEF&CC. As per the Biological Diversity Act of 2002, NBA is a statutory body. Two Important Functions of the NBA, inter alia: Advising the central government, regulating activities and issuing guidelines for access to biological resources and for fair and equitable benefit sharing in accordance with the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.

Taking necessary measures to oppose the grant of intellectual property rights in any

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Statement 2 is incorrect: NBA does not directly supervise scientific research on genetic modification (GM) of crops. The regulation of Genetically Modified (GM) crops falls under the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) which functions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.

Statement 3 is correct: The NBA's approval is mandatory before filing any Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) application for patents related to biological resources originating in India. This prevents foreign companies from claiming patents on Indian plants, seeds, and traditional medicines without sharing benefits with local communities.

Additional Information:

National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established in 2003 with HQ in Chennai under the ambit of MoEF&CC. As per the Biological Diversity Act of 2002, NBA is a statutory body. Two Important Functions of the NBA, inter alia:

- Advising the central government, regulating activities and issuing guidelines for access to biological resources and for fair and equitable benefit sharing in accordance with the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.
- Taking necessary measures to oppose the grant of intellectual property rights in any country outside India on any biological resource obtained from India or knowledge associated with such biological resources derived from India illegally. This way, it checks the biopiracy.

Q.36 The "Red Data Books" published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resource (IUCN) contain lists of [2011]

1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots.
2. Threatened plant and animal species.

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Statement 1 is incorrect: The Red Data Books primary purpose is not to catalog endemic species in biodiversity hotspots. Its focus is on the conservation status of species, particularly those that are threatened (vulnerable, endangered, or critically endangered). Statement 2 is correct: The purpose of the Red Data Books is to provide a detailed list of threatened species, including plants and animals. These species are categorized based on their risk of extinction, using criteria such as population size, rate of decline, and geographic range. Statement 3 is incorrect: The Red Data Books do not focus on listing protected sites or conservation areas. Information about protected sites (such as national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, or biosphere reserves) is typically found in other publications or databases, such as the World Database on Protected Areas (WDPA) or national-level conservation reports.

Q.37 Which one of the following is not a site for the in-situ method of conservation of flora?

[2011]

(a) Biosphere Reserve

(c) National Park

(b) Botanical Garden

(d) Wildlife Sanctuary

Answer: (b)

Ex situ Conservation
In situ Conservation
Ex situ conservation is the preservation of biodiversity away from their natural habitats. Here, zoological or botanical parks are places where animals and
In situ conservation refers to the preservation of plants and animals in their natural environments. This includes the establishment of:

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3. Three of the following criteria have contributed to the recognition of Western Ghats-Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma regions as hotspots of biodiversity: [2011]

1. Species richness
2. Vegetation density
3. Endemism
4. Ethno-botanical importance
5. Threat perception
6. Adaptation of flora and fauna to warm and humid conditions

Which three of the above are correct criteria in this context?

(a) 1, 2 and 6
(b) 2, 4 and 6
(c) 1, 3 and 5
(d) 3, 4 and 6

Answer: (c)

Exp: Biodiversity Hotspot are regions with high species richness and a high degree of endemism. In 1988, the British biologist Norman Myers coined the term "biodiversity hotspot" as a biogeographic region characterized both by exceptional levels of plant endemism and by serious levels of habitat loss and provided certain qualifications for a hotspot.

Options 1, 3 and 5 are correct: In 1989, Conservation International (CI) adopted Myers' hotspots as its institutional model. Western Ghats-Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma Region meets the Myers' criterion to qualify as Biodiversity Hotspot:

Species richness and endemism is one of the major criteria which must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants (>0.5% of the world's total) as endemics. Degree of Threat' is also a major criteria for the recognition of biological hotspots. It has to have lost at least 70% of its original habitat. (It must have 30% or less of its

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Exp: The diversity of plants and animals varies widely over the world. The tropics are home to more species than temperate or polar regions.

Statement 1 is correct: Species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the pole.

This is due to several reasons:

- Lower latitudes experience warmer temperatures and more stable climates, which support a greater variety of life forms.
- The equatorial regions receive more consistent and intense sunlight throughout the year, leading to higher primary productivity (photosynthesis) and thus more diverse ecosystems.
- Tropical regions, such as rainforests, have complex habitats with multiple layers (canopy, understory, forest floor) which support a wide range of species.
- Tropical regions have remained relatively stable over geological time, allowing species to diversify over millions of years.

Statement 2 is correct: Elevational diversity gradient (EDG) is an ecological pattern where biodiversity changes with elevation. The EDG states that species richness tends to increase as elevation increases, up to a certain point, creating a "diversity bulge" at middle elevations, after which it decreases with altitude. Therefore, it is true that along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes.

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Ecosystem Services
Protection of water resources
Soil formation and protection
Nutrient storage and recycling
Pollution breakdown and absorption
Contribution to climate stability
Maintenance of ecosystems
Recovery from unpredictable events
Biological Services
Food
Medicinal resources and pharmaceutical drugs
Wood products
Ornamental plants
Pollination of crops
Breeding stocks
Diversity in genes, species and ecosystems
Social Services
Research, education and monitoring
Recreation and tourism
Cultural values

Q.41 The Himalayan Range is very rich in species diversity. Which one among the following is the most appropriate reason for this phenomenon? [2011]

(a) It has high rainfall that supports luxuriant vegetative growth
(b) It is a confluence of different biogeographical zones

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1. Biodiversity hotspots are located only in tropical regions.
2. India has four biodiversity hotspots i.e., Eastern Himalayas, Western Himalayas, Western Ghats and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
Exp: Biodiversity hotspot concept is promoted by Conservation international. Each biodiversity hot spot represents a remarkable universe of extraordinary floral and faunal endemicity struggling to survive in rapidly shrinking ecosystems. To qualify as a hotspot, a region must meet two strict criteria: Species endemism: It must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants (> 0.5% of the world’s total) as endemics, and Degree of threat: It has to have lost at least 70% of its original habitat.
Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect: Biodiversity hotspots aren’t limited to tropical regions; examples include the Mediterranean Basin and California Floristic Province. While India is home to significant biodiversity but it has only three recognized hotspots. These hotspots are the Eastern Himalayas, Western Ghats and Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The Western Himalayas are not considered as a separate biodiversity hotspot.
Q.43 Consider the following statements: [2008]
1. Salt-water crocodile is found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

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1. Crocodile
2. Elephant
Which of these is/are endangered species?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)

Exp: The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) is a global organization that assesses the conservation status of species. IUCN maintains a Red List to categorize species based on their risk of extinction. Endangered species are those at high risk, requiring urgent conservation efforts to prevent extinction and protect biodiversity. Some of the common species which are under ‘Endangered’ category of the Red Book, are listed as under:

1. Indian Elephant
2. Bengal Tiger
3. Asiatic Lion
4. Indian Rhino
5. Ganges Dolphin
6. Crocodile

The Gharial (Gavialis gangeticus), a species of crocodile found in India, is critically endangered, with fewer than 250 individuals remaining in the wild. The Mugger Crocodile (Crocodylus palustris) is classified as Vulnerable. Habitat loss, poaching, and declining prey populations have contributed to their endangered status.

The Asian Elephant (Elephas maximus) is listed as Endangered by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Habitat loss, human-wildlife conflict, and poaching are significant threats to their survival. India is home to approximately 60% of the global Asian elephant population.

Note: Presently, Mugger is under Vulnerable category and Saltwater crocodiles are under

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4.6 "System of rice Intensification" of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in: [2022]

1. Reduced seed requirement
2. Reduced methane production
3. Reduced electricity consumption

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Exp: The System of Rice Intensification involves cultivating rice with as much organic manure as possible, starting with young seedlings planted singly at wider spacing in a square pattern; and with intermittent irrigation that keeps the soil moist but not inundated, and frequent inter cultivation with weeder that actively aerates the soil.

SRI is not a standardised, fixed technological method. It is rather a set of ideas, a methodology for comprehensively managing and conserving resources by changing the way that land, seeds, water, nutrients, and human labour are used to increase productivity from a small but well-tended number of seeds.

Advantages of SRI
Disadvantages of SRI
Higher yields – Both grain and straw
Higher labour costs in the initial years
Reduced duration
Difficulties in acquiring the necessary skills
Reduced seed requirement
Not suitable when no irrigation
Lesser chemical inputs

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1. Permaculture farming discourages monocultural practices but in conventional chemical farming, monoculture practices are predominant.
2. Conventional chemical farming can cause an increase in soil salinity but the occurrence of such a phenomenon is not observed in permaculture farming.
3. Conventional chemical farming is easily possible in semi-arid regions but permaculture farming is not so easily possible in such regions.
4. Practice of mulching is very important in permaculture farming but not necessarily so in conventional chemical farming.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 4 only
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Exp: Permaculture is a totally integrated design system that's modelled on nature.

Statement 1 is correct: Permaculture farming promotes multi-cropping and integrated farming systems. While chemical farming is more suitable for monoculture cropping due to the use of crop-specific inputs like irrigation, chemical fertiliser and harvesting methods.

Statement 2 is correct: Conventional farming usually alters the natural environment, increases soil salinity, and eliminates biodiversity. Such problems are not seen in permaculture farming as it relies on organic fertilizers.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Chemical farming is based on the intense use of inputs like chemical fertilizers and irrigation that make the soil less fertile over time, thus restricting its practice in semi-arid regions. Thus, conventional farming is not suitable for semi-arid regions. Permaculture involves well-designed systems that don't produce waste and permaculture tries to imitate well-designed systems. Thus, it can work in arid climates as well.

Statement 4 is correct: Mulching is an important component of Permaculture systems for

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Exp: Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA) is a strategy to assist those in charge of managing agricultural systems in efficiently adapting to climate change. The CSA approach pursues the triple objectives of:

- Sustainably increasing productivity and incomes
- Adapting to climate change
- Reducing greenhouse gas emissions where possible

Statement 1 is correct: The Climate-Smart Village project in India is a CGIAR Research Program on Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS).

Statement 2 is correct: Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCFAS) is carried out under CGIAR (formerly the Consultative Group for International Agricultural Research). Statement 3 is correct: ICRISAT is a CGIAR Research Center. It is a non-profit, non-political public international research organization that conducts agricultural research for development in Asia and sub-Saharan Africa with a wide array of partners throughout the world.

Q.49 What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture? [2020]

1. Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible.
2. Efficient application of Rock Phosphate and all other phosphatic fertilizers is possible.
3. Increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible.
4. Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (c)

Exp: Fertigation is a technique for applying fertilizer where the drip irrigation system incorporates the fertilizer into the irrigation water. In this technology, irrigation is applied to

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1. Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the residue of the previous crop.
2. Without the need for a nursery of rice saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is possible.
3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Exp: The practice of sowing seed without tillage or preparation of soil is called Zero-tillage or No-till farming. In some cases it may reduce labour, fuel, irrigation and machinery costs. Another possible benefit is that because of the higher water content, instead of leaving a field fallow it can make economic sense to plant another crop instead. No-till farming decreases the amount of soil erosion tillage causes in certain soils, especially in sandy and dry soils on sloping terrain.
Statement 1 is correct: Zero tillage is the process where the crop seed will be sown through drillers without prior land preparation and disturbing the soil where previous crop stubbles are present.
Statement 2 is correct: Direct Seeded Rice (DSR) is a viable option to reduce the unproductive water flows, with increasing shortage of water, dry-DSR with minimum or zero tillage further enhances the benefits of this technology by saving labour.
Statement 3 is correct: Carbon sequestration is the process of capturing and storing atmospheric carbon dioxide to mitigate climate change. No-tillage farming has been claimed to increase soil organic matter, and thus increase carbon sequestration.

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- Legume intensification: A category of plants known as leguminous plants (legume) contain edible roots or knobs that help nitrogen-rich soil grow vegetables or other meals. A leguminous crop is typically cultivated alongside the primary crop. Legumes contribute to increased soil fertility by fixing nitrogen from the atmosphere.

- Crop Rotation: It entails the methodical planting of various crops in a specific order over the course of several years in the same growing space. It contributes to the preservation of soil nutrients, the reduction of soil erosion, and the prevention of pests and disease in plants.

- Tensiometer: A tensiometer is a device used to measure soil moisture levels, helping in precision irrigation. Literally, it means "measuring strain." The plant must overcome the soil's suction tension in order to absorb water from the surrounding medium. Farmers and other irrigation managers can use tensiometers to help them decide when to water the land.

It helps in reducing excessive water use and promotes water conservation in agriculture.
Option 4 is incorrect:

Vertical farming is the process of raising crops in vertical layers and frequently combines soilless farming methods and controlled-environment agriculture, which attempts to maximise plant development.

Q.52 What is the use of biochar in farming? [2020]

1. Biochar can be used as a part of the growing medium in vertical farming.
2. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it promotes the growth of nitrogen-

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Statement 1 is correct: The use of biochar in vertical farming, part of the growing medium, can increase output significantly. As biochar migrates vertically through the soil profile, therefore can be used as a part of the growing medium in vertical farming.

Statement 2 is correct: Its presence on the earth can improve water quality, increase soil fertility, raise agricultural productivity, and reduce pressure on old-growth forests. Using biochar in the soil promotes the growth of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms.

Statement 3 is correct: Biochar is hygroscopic. Thus it is a desirable soil material in many locations due to its ability to attract and retain water.

Q.53 In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as [2019]

(a) pesticides in agriculture
(b) preservatives in processed foods
(c) fruit-ripening agents
(d) moisturizing agents in cosmetics

Answer: (a)

Exp: In India, pesticides must be registered with the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare's Directorate of Plant Protection, Quarantine and Storage before they can be used. A 2015 report by the Anupam Verma Committee recommended banning 27 pesticides, including some commonly used chemicals mentioned above:

- Carcinogenic: Oxyfluorfen, Pendimethalin (causes Thyroid follicular cell adenoma)
- Endocrine disruptor: Dicofol, Carbofuran, Oxyfluorfen
- Eco-toxic: Carbofuran, Monocrotophos, Carbofuran, Oxyfluorfen.

Additional Information

Pesticides restricted for use in the India: Aluminium Phosphide, Captafol, Cypermethrin, Dazomet, Dichloro Diphenyl Trichloro ethane (DDT), Fenitrothion, Methyl Bromide, Monocrotophos, Trifluralin.

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Option (a) is correct: Carbon fertilisation results in an increase in the instantaneous rate of photosynthesis in C3 plants; and increases the transpiration efficiency of the leaf (C3 and C4 plants). During high concentration of carbon dioxide, plants maintain narrow openings of leaf surface which protects them from water loss. Faster plant growth enhances food production and allows for the sequestration of more carbon dioxide. Plants distribute a greater proportion of photosynthate to roots under high concentrations of atmospheric carbon dioxide. The reproductive biomass growth, as well as vegetative biomass growth, is usually increased by elevated carbon dioxide. Additional Information:

Additional Information:

- The term that describes "increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere" is Global Warming.
- Ocean acidification: It refers to the ongoing decrease in the pH (and thus increasing acidity) of Earth's oceans due to the absorption of excess carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
- The term that describes adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere is Climate Adaptation.

Q.55 With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements: [2018]

1. A high content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.
2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.

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1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4. Using crop residues to cover soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

Answer: (c)

Exp: Conservation Agriculture (CA) is a farming system that promotes minimum soil disturbance (i.e. no tillage), maintenance of a permanent soil cover, and diversification of plant species. It enhances biodiversity and natural biological processes above and below the ground surface, which contribute to increased water and nutrient use efficiency and to improved and sustained crop production.

According to FAO's website there are three principles of Conservation of Agriculture:

1. Minimum mechanical soil disturbance: It refers to low disturbance no-tillage and direct seeding. The disturbed area must be less than 15 cm wide or less than 25% of the cropped area (whichever is lower).

2. Permanent soil organic cover: Three categories are distinguished: 30-60%, >60-90% and >90% ground cover, measured immediately after the direct seeding operation. An area with less than 30% cover is not considered as CA.

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Exp: Efficient water use in agriculture refers to practices and techniques that aim to maximize the productivity of crops while minimizing water consumption. It involves employing methods such as capturing and storing water and drip irrigation to deliver water directly to the plant roots, reducing losses due to evaporation or runoff. Statements 1 and 3 are correct: Conservation Tillage includes no-till farming or zero tillage which is a way of growing crops or pasture from year to year without disturbing the soil through tillage. Zero tillage helps in soil moisture conservation. Crop residues act as mulches and reduce evaporation losses and protect the soil from direct impact of raindrops, thus controlling crusting and sealing processes. Statement 2 is incorrect: Though, Gypsum helps in dissolution of the salt clay pan found in soils that hinder the percolation of water and helps in water conservation. But the official answer key published by UPSC shows option (c) as the correct answer. Thus, going by the UPSC key statement 2 is wrong.

Q.58 What can be the impact of excessive/inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture? [2015]

1. Proliferation of nitrogen fixing microorganisms in soil can occur.
2. Increase in the acidity of soil can take place.
3. Leaching of nitrate to the groundwater can occur.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Exp: With excessive use of nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture, the necessity for nitrogen-fixing bacteria decreases as soil nitrogen levels increase. The soil becomes more acidic and nitrate leaches into the groundwater where nitrogenous fertilizers are used.

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1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced.
2. It is the only means of irrigation in dryland farming.
3. In some areas of farming, the receding of groundwater tables can be checked.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Exp: Micro-irrigation is the slow distribution of water to the soil using surface drip and micro-sprinkler systems in the form of discrete or continuous drips, tiny streams, or miniature spray.

Benefits of micro irrigation systems: Helps in water-saving and checking further depletion, Increased irrigation efficiency, Higher yields, Less water loss, Energy efficient, Lower consumption of fertilizers, Weed and disease reduction, Cost savings, Precision farming. Statement 1 is correct: An efficient drip irrigation system reduces the consumption of fertilizer through fertigation.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Dryland farming is defined as the production of crops without irrigation in regions that receive rainfall of less than 500mm annually. Crop selection, Microcatchments and Runoff farming are some other methods of irrigation in dryland farming.

Statement 3 is correct: Micro-irrigation helps in water-saving and checking further groundwater depletion.

Q.60 Consider the following agricultural practices: [2012]

1. Contour bunding
2. Relay cropping
3. Zero tillage

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Options 1 and 2 are incorrect:

- Contour bundling involves the construction of banks along the contours. Terracing and contour bunding divide the hill slope into numerous small slopes, check the flow of water, promote absorption of water by soil and save soil from erosion. Retaining walls of terraces control the flow of water and help in reducing soil erosion.
- Relay Cropping is the process of growing one crop, then planting another crop (usually a cover crop) in the same field before harvesting the first. This helps avoid competition between the main crop and the intercrop. It also uses the field for a longer time, since the cover crop usually continues to grow after the main crop is harvested.

4. POLLUTION

Q.61 With reference to perfluoroolky and polyfluoroolky substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements: [2024]

1. PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials.
2. PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment.
3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

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Additional Information:

Feature
Bioaccumulation
Biomagnification
Definition
Buildup of toxins in an organism over time.
Increase in toxin concentration as it moves up the food chain.
Occurs In
A single organism.
Across multiple trophic levels.
How It Happens
Organism absorbs more toxins than it excretes.
Predators consume prey with toxins, leading to higher concentrations.
Affected Organisms
All organisms, especially long-living ones.
Organisms at higher trophic levels (top predators).
Example
Mercury accumulating in a single fish.
Mercury levels increasing from small fish to larger fish to humans.
Impact
Can affect individual growth, reproduction, and survival.
Can lead to ecosystem imbalances and species decline.

Q.62 Consider the following statements:[2024]

Statement-I:

Many chewing gums found in the market are a source of environmental pollution.

Statement-II:

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Statement II is correct: Modern chewing gums often use synthetic polymers, such as polyethylene and polyvinyl acetate, as part of their gum base, which are essentially plastics. These materials do not biodegradable easily, causing long-lasting environmental harm.

The presence of plastic in gum makes it non-biodegradable and a significant contributor to pollution when improperly disposed of. Hence, Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.

Q.63 Consider the following: [2023]

1. Aerosols
2. Foam agents
3. Fire retardants
4. Lubricants

In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer: (c)

Exp: Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are a climate "Super-Pollutant" - Greenhouse gases with hundreds to thousands of times the heat-trapping power of carbon dioxide (CO2). HFCs are synthetic gases used in air conditioning systems, aerosol propellants, foam-blowing agents, solvents, and flame retardants. These gases were first developed as alternatives to ozone-depleting chemicals, but after their rollout, it was learned that their release to the atmosphere during manufacturing processes and leakage during use, servicing, and retirement/replacement of equipment poses a grave threat to our climate. Lubricants are typically based on oils and synthetic esters, not HFCs.

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Statement 2 is correct: Mercury is released into the atmosphere via the burning of coal and other fossil fuels. Because coal has far higher mercury content than other fossil fuels, coal-fired power stations frequently produce more mercury pollution than power plants that burn other fossil fuels.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) considers mercury vapor concentrations above 0.01 mg/m³ hazardous for prolonged exposure, with an acceptable limit of 0.1 mg/m³ based on an 8-hour time-weighted average. Both American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists (ACGIH) and National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) recommend even lower exposure levels to minimize health risks.

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2022, India extracts more than a quarter of the world's groundwater withdrawal each year. This indicates that India has a significant reliance on groundwater resources for various purposes, including irrigation, drinking water, and industrial use. Statement-II is not correct: Approximately 89% of India's groundwater is utilised for irrigation purposes. The primary portion of the total groundwater extracted in India serves irrigation needs rather than being allocated for drinking and sanitation purposes. Only a small portion of groundwater is utilized for domestic and industrial purposes.

Q.66 In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements : [2022]

1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 ug/m3.
2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the period of inclement weather.
3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer:(b)

Exp: The updated [2021] WHO Global Air Quality Guidelines (AQGs) provide recommendations on air quality guideline levels as well as interim targets for six key air pollutants. The guidelines focus on so-called classical pollutants, particulate matter (PM2.5 and PM10), ozone (O3), nitrogen dioxide (NO2), sulfur dioxide (SO2) and carbon monoxide (CO). Statement 1 is correct: The 24-hour ceiling mean of PM 2.5 used to be 25 micrograms but has now dropped to 15.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Ozone at ground level is formed by the reaction with sunlight

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PM₁₀ (≤10 microns) can reach deep into the lungs, but the more harmful PM₂.₅ (≤2.5 microns) can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream, posing severe health risks.

Statement 4 is correct: Excessive ozone in the air can have a marked effect on human health. It causes breathing problems, triggers asthma, reduces lung function and causes lung diseases. Ozone triggers asthma because it is very irritating to the lungs and airways. Additional Information

- The Central Pollution Control Board, under the Ministry of Environment, Forest, and Climate Change is responsible for monitoring and managing India's air quality.
- It introduced the National Air Quality Index (AQI) to provide a standardized assessment of air pollution levels across cities.
- The AQI system classifies air quality into six categories—Good (0-50), Satisfactory (51-100), Moderate (101-200), Poor (201-300), Very Poor (301-400), and Severe (401-500)—based on the concentration of major pollutants.
- 8 pollutants covered under the index are:
  - Particulate matter (PM2.5)
  - Particulate matter10 (PM10)
  - Ozone (O3)
  - Carbon Monoxide (CO)
  - Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2)
  - Sulphur Dioxide (SO2)
  - Lead (Pb)
  - Ammonia (NH3)

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Option (b) is correct: Nitrous oxide and Sulphur dioxide cause Acid rain. The acid rain harms microorganisms in the soil; inhibits the activity of nitrogen fixation bacteria; soil acidification; ocean acidification; affects the growth of plants; food chain; kills aquatic animals; corrosion of metals & weathering of stone buildings & statues. NOx + SO2 + Moisture + other chemicals → Acid Rain (HNO3 + H2SO4)

Q.68 Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants? [2021]

1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into the environment.
2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into the environment.
3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)

Answer: (b)

Exp: Copper Smelting is a process of applying heat to ore in order to extract a base metal. Smelting uses heat and a chemical reducing agent to decompose the ore, driving off other elements as gases or slag and leaving the metal base behind. It is the method of extracting pure elemental copper (Cu) from copper concentrate (CuFeS2). Statement 1 is incorrect: Copper smelting generally does not release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide(CO) into the environment. Statement 2 and 3 are correct: Some smelting processes can also produce large quantities of solid waste, known as slag. This slag may leach heavy metals (arsenic,

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Exp: Statement 1 is correct: Furnace oil or fuel oil is a dark viscous residual product of crude-oil distillation. It is used as a fuel in different types of combustion equipment. Statement 2 is correct: Marine engines and slow speed engines use Furnace oil for power generation, they are used for drying tea leaves. Thermic fluid heaters and hot air generators also use Furnace oil. Statement 3 is correct: The emissions of oxides of sulphur are a direct result of the sulphur content of the fuel oil. Additional Information - Furnace oil is a dark, viscous residual fuel obtained by blending mainly heavier components from crude distillation units. Compared to other petroleum products, it has a relatively low flash point and high viscosity. - Its major advantages are: - High energy content, making it an efficient fuel choice for heating purposes - Often cost-competitive compared to other heating options - Readily available in many regions, ensuring a consistent supply - Furnace/fuel oil combustion can produce emissions, including sulfur dioxide (SO2), nitrogen oxides (NOx), and particulate matter

Q.70 Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems, are generated as environmental pollutants from which of the following? [2021]

1. Brakes of motor vehicles
2. Engines of motor vehicles
3. Microwave stoves within homes
4. Power plants
5. Telephone lines
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

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7.1 The Common Carbon Metric, supported by UNEP, has been developed for [2021]

(a) assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world
(b) enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading
(c) enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries
(d) assessing the overall carbon foot-print caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit time

Answer: (a)

Exp: The Common Carbon Metric' is a protocol developed by United Nations Environment Program's Sustainable Buildings & Climate Initiative (UNEP-SBCI) for measuring energy use & reporting GHG emissions from Building Operations. Its purpose is to support greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions reductions through accurate measurement of energy efficiency improvements in building operations.

Q.72 What is blue carbon? [2021]

(a) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems
(b) Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and agricultural soils
(c) Carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas.
(d) Carbon present in atmosphere

Answer: (a)

Exp: Blue Carbon is the carbon captured by the world's ocean and coastal ecosystems. There are three types of coastal ecosystems - mangroves, seagrasses and tidal marshes; these store half the "blue" carbon buried beneath the ocean floor. These areas absorb

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1. Automobile exhaust
2. Tobacco smoke
3. Wood burning
4. Using varnished wooden furniture
5. Using products made of polyurethane
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer:(a)
Exp: At room temperature, benzene is a colorless or pale yellow liquid with a sweet odor and is highly flammable. It evaporates quickly into the air, and its vapor is denser than air, which can cause it to settle in low-lying areas. Benzene is a toxic air pollutant released from various sources and it can also contaminate water.
Option (a) is correct: Natural sources of benzene include volcanoes and forest fires. It is also present in gasoline, cigarette smoke, and crude oil, fuel evaporation, coal and oil combustion, and other activities. In various industries, benzene is used as a raw material to produce chemicals for making plastics, resins, nylon, and synthetic fibers. It is also found in the production of certain lubricants, rubbers, dyes, detergents, drugs, and pesticides. Although varnishes and paints may contain benzene, and the thermal breakdown of polyurethane can release benzene among other substances, these are not well-established as sources of benzene pollution.

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First-Generation Biofuels (also referred to as Basic biofuels) i.e. bioethanol and biodiesel, are produced from types of biomass that are often used for food, such as corn, soy, and sugarcane. These biofuels are made through fermentation or chemical processes that convert the oils, sugars, and starches in the biomass into liquid fuels.

Second-Generation Biofuels (also referred to as Advanced biofuels) i.e., ethanol, municipal solid waste to drop-in fuels, are produced from non-food biomass, such as perennial grass and fast-growing trees. The processes to make them often involve converting fibrous non-edible material called "cellulose" into fuel.

Third-generation biofuels are derived from algae and bacteria, which can produce large quantities of lipid oils or other biofuels like biomethanol or biohydrogen. Algae, in particular, grows quickly and has the potential to generate more biomass per unit of land compared to conventional crops.

Option (a) is correct: The Policy expands the scope of raw material for ethanol production by allowing the use of Sugarcane Juice, Sugar containing materials like Sugar Beet, Sweet Sorghum, Starch containing materials like Corn, Cassava, Damaged food grains like wheat, Broken rice, Rotten Potatoes.

Additional Information

The following are the main amendments approved to the National Policy on Biofuels:

To allow more feedstocks for production of biofuels
To advance the ethanol blending target of 20% blending of ethanol in petrol to ESY 2025-26 from 2030,
To promote the production of biofuels in the country, under the Make in India program, by units located in Special Economic Zones (SEZ)/ Export Oriented Units (EoUs)
To add new members to the NBCC
To grant permission for export of biofuels in specific cases

Q.75 Which one of the following statements best describes the term 'Social Cost of Carbon'?

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1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury.
2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment.
3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer:(d)
Exp: Statement 1 is correct: Coal ash contains contaminants like mercury, cadmium and arsenic. Without proper management, these contaminants can pollute waterways, groundwater, drinking water, and the air.
Statement 2 is correct: Burning of fossil fuels (which contain sulphur and nitrogenous matter) such as coal and oil in power stations and furnaces or petrol and diesel in motor engines produce sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides, which also leads to 'acid rain'. Statement 3 is correct: Indian Coal has comparatively higher ash content than imported coal due to the drift theory of the formation of coal deposits in India. Coal seams formed due to drift theory contain higher ash as compared to the in-situ theory of formation.
Q.77 In the context of which one of the following are the terms 'pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned? [2019]
(a) Extraction of rare earth elements
(b) Natural gas extraction technologies
(c) Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles
(d) Waste-to-energy technologies
Answer:(d)
Exp: Waste-to-Energy (WTE) technologies consist of any waste treatment process that creates

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7.8 Why is there a great concern about the 'microbeads' that are released into the environment? [2019]

(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.
(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.
(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.
(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.

Answer:(a)

Exp: Microbeads are manufactured solid plastic particles of less than one millimetre in their largest dimension. They are most frequently made of polyethene but can be of other petrochemical plastics such as polypropylene and polystyrene. They are used in exfoliating personal care products, toothpaste and in biomedical and health-science research.

Option (a) is correct: Microbeads can cause plastic particle water pollution and pose an environmental hazard for aquatic animals in freshwater and ocean water. NGT had earlier directed the Gol to test cosmetic products containing microbeads after a plea sought a ban on their use on the ground they are extremely dangerous for aquatic life and the environment.

Q.79 Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate'? [2019]

1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in the atmosphere oxidised to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only

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1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Which of the above are released into the atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer:(d)
Exp: Burning stubble (parali) is the process of removing crop residue from the field in order to prepare it for the next crop. Open stubble burning releases a lot of harmful pollutants into the air, including smoke, particles, greenhouse gases (CO₂, N₂O, O₃ CH₄), air pollutants (CO, NH₃, NOx, SO₂, NMHC), and volatile organic compounds. These pollutants are dangerous to human health. Husk burning reduces the fertility of the soil by destroying its nutrients. When stubble burns, heat is produced that permeates the soil, causing the loss of moisture and beneficial microbes.
Q.81 Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in river beds? [2018]
1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water-table
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only

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2 Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for: [2017]

(a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions

Answer:(c)

Exp: BOD measures the amount of dissolved oxygen required by microorganisms to break down organic material in water over a specific time. BOD is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by bacteria in decomposing the organic wastes present in water. It is measured in milligrams per litre of water of oxygen. The higher value of BOD indicates low (Dissolved Oxygen) DO content of water. BOD is not a reliable method for assessing water pollution because it only includes biodegradable elements.

Additional Information

- Standard Method 5210B is the most widely used method for determining Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD). It measures the difference in dissolved oxygen (DO) over a five-day incubation period at 20°C.
- The initial DO is recorded, and after incubation, the final DO is measured. The BOD value is then calculated based on oxygen depletion.
- Higher BOD indicates poor water quality due to higher oxygen demand, while lower BOD suggests purer water with less oxygen consumption. DO levels are lower in summer as warm water holds less oxygen.

Q.83 In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation techniques ? [2017]

1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs.

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Statement 1 is correct: Bioremediation uses naturally occurring organisms to break down hazardous substances into less toxic or non-toxic substances.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Not all contaminants are easily treated by bioremediation using microorganisms. For eg. Heavy metals such as cadmium and lead are not readily absorbed or captured by microorganisms.

Statement 3 is correct: The use of genetic engineering to create organisms specifically designed for bioremediation has great potential. For e.g. Alcanivorax, a bacteria with oil-eating abilities, can be used to create species that are much more capable of cleaning oil spills.

Additional Information

Types of Bioremediation:

- Aerobic Bioremediation: Requires oxygen for microbial reactions, where bacteria use a carbon substrate as an electron donor and oxygen as the electron acceptor to break down contaminants.
- Anaerobic Bioremediation: Occurs in the absence of oxygen, using alternatives like nitrate, sulfate, or carbon dioxide as electron acceptors. Processes include fermentation, methanogenesis, and reductive dechlorination to degrade pollutants.
- Cometabolic Bioremediation: Microbes degrade contaminants without gaining energy or carbon from them, breaking down pollutants as a side reaction while metabolizing other substances.

Q.84 It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry? [2017]

1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents.

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Statement 1 is incorrect: Algaculture (farming algae) can be initiated on land unsuitable for agriculture or saline water or wastewater.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct: Producing algae for biofuels (excluding simple seaweed production) requires significant capital investments, which may be a significant barrier in developing countries that have a weak investment climate. Also during the setup stage, the production of algae-based biofuels will necessitate expertise in advanced technology.

Using the land allotted to food crops to algal biofuel reduces the amount of food available for humans, resulting in an increased cost for both the food and the fuel produced. This is an ecological as well as economic concern.

Q.85 Which of the following best describe/ describes the aim of the 'Green India Mission' of the Government of India? [2016]

1. Incorporating environmental benefits and costs into the Union and State Budgets thereby implementing the 'green accounting'
2. Launching the second green revolution to enhance agricultural output so as to ensure food security to one and all in the future
3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution : (c)

Exp: Green India Mission is one of the eight missions launched under the National Action Plan

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1. Carbon dioxide
2. Carbon monoxide
3. Nitrogen dioxide
4. Sulfur dioxide
5. Methane
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer:(b)
Exp: There are six AQI categories, namely Good + Satisfactory, Moderately polluted, Poor, Very Poor, and Severe. Each of these categories is decided based on ambient concentration values of air pollutants and their likely health impacts (known as health breakpoints). AQ sub-index and health breakpoints are evolved for eight pollutants, namely:
- Ground-level Ozone
- Particulate Matter (PM10 and PM 2.5)
- Carbon Monoxide or CO
- Sulphur Dioxide or SO2
- Nitrogen Dioxide or NO2
- Ammonia (NH3)
- Lead (Pb)
Q.87 Which of the following are some important pollutants released by the steel industry in India ? [2014]
1. Oxides of sulphur
2. Oxide of nitrogen
3. Carbon monoxide
4. Carbon dioxide
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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8 There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are used by the industry in the manufacture of various products. Why? [2014]

1. They can accumulate in the environment and contaminate water and soil.
2. They can enter the food chains.
3. They can trigger the production of free radicals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Exp: Nanoparticles are used in the manufacture of scratch proof eyeglasses, crack-resistant paints, anti-graffiti coatings for walls, transparent sunscreens, stain-repellent fabrics, and self-cleaning windows, and ceramic coatings for solar cells. Additionally, stronger, lighter, cleaner, and more intelligent surfaces and systems can be created with nanoparticles.

Statement 1 is correct: A matter particle with dimension ranging from 1 to 100 nanometers is referred to as nanoparticle. Nanoparticles can accumulate in the environment and contaminate water and soil.

Statement 2 is correct: Nanoparticles can also enter the food chain and cross cell membranes.

Statement 3 is correct: Nanoparticles can trigger free radicals and may damage cells in organs like the liver, heart, or blood.

Additional Information

Health Implications Of Nanoparticles:

- Nanoparticles enhance drug delivery and target-specific treatment. However, some

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9Brominated flame retardants are used in many household products like mattresses and upholstery. Why is there some concern about their use? [2014]

1. They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment.
2. They are able to accumulate in humans and animals.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:(c)

Exp: Brominated Flame Retardants (BFRs) are mixtures of man-made chemicals that are added to a wide variety of products, including for industrial use, to make them less flammable. They are used commonly in plastics, textiles and electrical/electronic equipment.

Statement 1 is correct: Brominated Flame Retardants (BFRs) don't degrade easily in fact they are highly resistant to degradation in the environment.

Statement 2 is correct: Some brominated flame retardants were identified as persistent, bioaccumulative, and toxic to both humans and the environment and were suspected of causing neurobehavioral effects and endocrine disruption.

Q.90 Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India? [2013]

1. Arsenic
2. Sorbitol

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Options 1, 3 and 5 are correct: Arsenic, Fluoride, Iron, Uranium, Nitrate, Salinity are some major groundwater pollutants in India.

Option 2 is incorrect: Sorbitol is a sugar alcohol found in fruits and plants with diuretic, laxative and cathartic properties. It is not related to drinking water pollution.

Option 4 is incorrect: Formaldehyde is used to preserve fish longer. The use of this chemical is banned in fresh foods by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India. The International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) of WHO classifies formaldehyde as "carcinogenic to humans". Formaldehyde is not established as a drinking water pollutant.

Additional Information

Water Quality Criteria according to CPCB

Drinking Water Source without conventional treatment but after disinfection
- Total Coliforms Organism MPN/100ml shall be 50 or less
- pH between 6.5 and 8.5
- Dissolved Oxygen 6mg/l or more
- Biochemical Oxygen Demand 5 days 20C 2mg/l or less

Drinking water source after conventional treatment and disinfection
- Total Coliforms Organism MPN/100ml shall be 5000 or less pH between 6 to 9 Dissolved Oxygen 4mg/l or more
- Biochemical Oxygen Demand 5 days 20C 3mg/l or less

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Exp: E-waste is any electrical or electronic equipment that's been discarded. Recently, India's first e-waste clinic was inaugurated in Bhopal.

E-waste Sources
Constituents
PCBs, glass panels, and Computer monitors
Lead
Resistors & Semiconductors
Cadmium
Relays and switches, &PCBs
Mercury
Galvanised steel plates & decorator or hardener
Chromium
Cabling, Computer & housing
Plastics & PVC
Electronic equipments & circuit boards
Brominated flame-retardants
Front panels of CRTs
Barium, Phosphorus & Heavy metals
Copper wires, PCB tracks
Copper
Nickel Cadmium batteries
Nickel

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Q.92 Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by [2013]

(a) carbon dioxide and nitrogen
(b) carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
(c) ozone and carbon dioxide
(d) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide

Answer:(d)

Exp: Normal rain has a pH of about 5.6 when pH falls below this; it is called Acid rain (pH 4.2 to 4.4). Acid rain results when Sulphur Dioxide (SO2) & Nitrogen Oxides (NOx) react with water, oxygen & other chemicals to form Sulfuric & Nitric acids.

NOx + SO2 + Moisture + other chemicals → Acid Rain (HNO3 + H2SO4)

Acid rain harms microorganisms in the soil; inhibits the activity of nitrogen fixation bacteria; soil acidification; ocean acidification; affects the growth of plants; food chain; kills aquatic animals; corrosion of metals & weathering of stone buildings & statues.

Q.93 Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among [2013]

(a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
(b) CO2, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight
(c) CO2, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature
(d) high concentration of NO2, O3 and CO in the evening

Answer:(a)

Exp: Photochemical smog, often referred to as "Los Angeles smog," is most commonly found in urban areas with high numbers of automobiles. It does not require smoke or fog to form. This type of smog is formed from the nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbon (peroxyacetyl nitrate, a hazardous pollutant) vapors released by vehicles and other sources, which then

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1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries.
2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon.
3. Upwelling in the seas.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:(d)

Exp: A rapid rise in the population of algae in an aquatic system is known as an algal bloom, marine bloom, or water bloom. Algal blooms can appear in both marine and freshwater habitats. "Harmful algal blooms (HAB)" are blooms that can affect wildlife or the environment. Harmful Algal Bloom can lead to fish die-offs, cities cutting off water to residents, or states having to close fisheries.

Statement 1 is correct: Nutrients promote and support the growth of algae and Cyanobacteria. The Eutrophication (nutrient enrichment) of waterways is considered as a major factor behind the increase in harmful algal blooms.

Statement 2 is correct: External sources include runoff and soil erosion from fertilized agricultural areas, erosion from river banks, river beds, land clearing (deforestation), and sewage effluent enriches nutrient content of water resulting in algal bloom conditions.

Statement 3 is correct: Water that rises to the surface as a result of upwelling is typically colder and is rich in nutrients, which again leads to algal blooms.

Q.96 Consider the following statements: [2005]

1. Kyoto protocol came into force in the year 2005.
2. Kyoto protocol deals primarily with the depletion of the ozone layer.
3. Methane as a greenhouse gas is more harmful than carbon dioxide.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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5. CLIMATE CHANGE

Q97. Consider the following statements: [2023]

Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.

Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is but incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Answer: (b)

Exp: Statement I is correct: Carbon markets are trading systems in which carbon credits are sold and bought. Companies or individuals can use carbon markets to compensate for their greenhouse gas emissions by purchasing carbon credits from entities that remove or reduce greenhouse gas emissions. One tradable carbon credit equals one tonne of carbon dioxide or the equivalent amount of a different greenhouse gas reduced, sequestered or avoided.

Carbon markets, including compliance and voluntary markets, are widely recognized as effective tools for reducing greenhouse gas emissions. They incentivize emission reductions by allowing entities to trade carbon credits, making them a key mechanism in global climate action.

Statement II is correct: Carbon markets help reduce greenhouse gas emissions by assigning value to carbon and creating a market for trading carbon credits, which represent the right to emit a certain amount of greenhouse gases. They enable more efficient allocation of emission reduction efforts and facilitate the exchange of allowances

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4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the 'Under2 Coalition'.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: (b)
Exp: Statement 1 is correct: The Climate Group is an international non-profit organization that works to accelerate climate action by building and running large networks of businesses, governments, and other organizations. It focuses on initiatives like RE100 (renewable energy), EP100 (energy productivity), and EV100 (electric vehicles).
Statement 2 is incorrect: The EP100 initiative is led by the Climate Group in partnership with the Alliance to Save Energy, not the International Energy Agency (IEA).
Statement 3 is correct: EP100 is a global initiative that encourages companies to commit to doubling their energy productivity (output per unit of energy consumed). This helps drive innovation, increase competitiveness, and reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
Statement 4 is correct: Several Indian companies, such as Mahindra & Mahindra, Godrej and Dalmia Cement, are members of EP100 and have committed to improving their energy productivity.
Statement 5 is incorrect: EP100 is a global initiative that brings together companies committed to improving energy productivity. The Under2 Coalition is a global alliance of state and regional governments committed to reducing greenhouse gas emissions. Its Secretariat is managed by Climate Group.
Additional Information
Climate Group

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9.99 "Climate Action Tracker" which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a: [2022]

(a) Database created by coalition of research organisations
(b) Wing of "International Panel of Climate Change"
(c) Committee under "United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change"
(d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank

Answer: (a)

Exp: Option (a) is correct: The Climate Action Tracker (CAT) is an independent scientific project that monitors government climate action and measures it against the globally agreed Paris Agreement aim of "holding warming well below 2°C, and pursuing efforts to limit warming to 1.5°C." It is a collaboration between Climate Analytics and the New Climate Institute. CAT has been providing assessments since 2009. It evaluates countries' emission reduction pledges, policies, and their impact on global warming.

Options (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect:

- The Climate Action Tracker is neither a part of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) nor the UNFCCC. The IPCC is a separate body that assesses scientific, technical, and socio-economic information related to climate change.
- The UNFCCC is an international treaty that provides the framework for global climate negotiations.
- The Climate Action Tracker is not funded or promoted by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) or the World Bank. It is an independent initiative run by research organizations.

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Statement 2 is correct: The NYDF sets a global timeline to end natural forest loss by 2030 and to restore 350 million hectares of degraded forest and agricultural land by the same year. It also aims to halve deforestation by 2020 (though this target was not met).

Statement 3 is incorrect: The New York Declaration on Forests (NYDF) is a voluntary and non-legally binding international declaration aimed at ending global deforestation.

Statement 4 is correct: The NYDF has been endorsed by a wide range of stakeholders, including national governments, multinational companies, NGOs, and indigenous communities. Over 200 entities have pledged their support.

Statement 5 is incorrect: India was not a signatory to the NYDF at its inception. While many countries, including the United States, Canada, and several European nations, endorsed the declaration, India has still not joined as a signatory.

Q.101 In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into the stratosphere? [2019]

(a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions
(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones
(c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
(d) Reducing the global warming

Answer:(d)

Exp: There is a renewed interest in two dominant methods of geoengineering such as stratospheric sulphate aerosol increase and cirrus cloud thinning aims to reduce global warming effects. Geoengineering, often known as climate intervention, is the deliberate and extensive modification of the Earth's climatic system with the intention of reducing

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1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into the environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into the environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into the environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer:(d)
Exp: As per the Indian Nitrogen Assessment report, 2017, the share of agriculture in total GHG emissions has gradually declined from 28% in 1994 to 14% in 2016. Agricultural emissions in India are primarily from the livestock sector (54.6%) and the use of nitrogenous fertilizers (19%). Rice cultivation in anaerobic conditions accounts for a major portion of agricultural emissions (17.5%).
Statement 1 is correct: Agricultural soils are the largest single source of nitrous oxide (N2O) emissions.
Statement 2 is correct: Cattle account for 80% of the ammonia production.
Statement 3 is correct: Poultry industry recorded an excretion of reactive nitrogen compounds of 0.415 tonnes in 2016.
Statement 1 is correct: Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into the environment
o Fertilizers (especially nitrogen-based like urea) lead to the emission of nitrous oxide (N2O), a greenhouse gas.
o Microbial processes such as nitrification and denitrification release NO, NO2, and N2O.
Statement 2 is correct: Cattle release ammonia into the environment
o Cattle excrete urea in urine, which breaks down into ammonia (NH3) through microbial action.

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(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer:(b)

Exp: Hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) is a blended gas. It is produced by mixing hydrogen with CNG. HCNG reduces emissions of CO up to 70% and engines can be calibrated to release lower amounts of NO. enables up to 5% savings in fuel. It can be the first step towards the future Hydrogen economy. It gives better performance due to higher Octane rating of H2. Statement 1 is incorrect: HCNG doesn't eliminate but reduces emissions of CO up to 70%. Statement 2 is correct: It can be used in place of gasoline, diesel fuel and propane (C3H8) / LPG and its combustion produces fewer undesirable gases. Statement 3 is correct: The blending of hydrogen with CNG provides a blended gas termed as HCNG. Also, the ideal Hydrogen concentration is close to 20%. It can prove to be the ideal fuel for heavy-duty vehicles and applications with high loads. Statement 4 is incorrect: The current cost of Hydrogen is more than the cost of Natural Gas. So, HCNG's cost is more than CNG.

Q.104 In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be potential sites for carbon sequestration? [2017]

1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline formations

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q.105 The term 'Intended Nationally Determined Contributions' is sometimes seen in the news in the context of [2016]

(a) pledges made by the European countries to rehabilitate refugees from the war-affected Middle East
(b) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world to combat climate change
(c) capital contributed by the member countries in the establishment of Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
(d) plan of action outlined by the countries of the world regarding Sustainable Development Goals

Answer:(b)

Exp: Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDCs) are planned reductions in greenhouse gas emissions outlined by countries under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). NDCs are at the heart of the Paris Agreement and embody efforts by each country to reduce national emissions and adapt to the impacts of climate change.

The UNFCCC, in its Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC) Synthesis Report, has called for more ambitious climate action plans by the countries in order to achieve the Paris Agreement target of containing global temperature rise to 2°C by the end of the century (ideally it is 1.5°C).

Additional Information:

United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) The UNFCCC (United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change) is an

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1.06 What is 'Greenhouse Gas Protocol'? [2016]

(a) It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions.
(b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies
(c) It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified by all the member countries of the United Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2022
(d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the World Bank

Answer: (a)

Exp: GHG Protocol is developing standards, tools and online training that helps countries to measure and manage greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions from private and public sector operations, value chains and mitigation actions.

The GHG Protocol arose when the World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD) recognized the need for an international standard for corporate GHG accounting and reporting in the late 1990s.

GHG Protocol is for assisting nations, cities, and businesses in monitoring their progress toward their climate goals, GHG Protocol is creating standards, tools, and online training. GHG Protocol establishes frameworks to measure and manage greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions from private and public sector operations, value chains and mitigation actions.

Additional Information:

- World Resources Institute (WRI): A research organization that provides data, analysis, and solutions to help governments, businesses, and communities tackle environmental challenges like climate change, water management, sustainable cities, and food security. It was founded in 1982 and is headquartered in Washington.

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(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer:(b)

Exp: Statement 1 is correct: If the global temperature increases beyond 3°C above the preindustrial level, the terrestrial biosphere will tend towards being a net carbon source. Taiga and temperate forests act as an important carbon sink that would turn into a carbon source.

Statement 2 is correct: As temperatures rise, mass coral bleaching events occur. If the temperature keeps on rising, widespread coral mortality will occur.

Statement 3 and 4 are incorrect: The temperate regions can still survive if the temperature increases. The temperate zones are where the widest seasonal changes occur. The vegetation can survive there. The weather should be warm and moist during the early stage of the growth of cereals. Therefore, the cultivation of cereals would still be possible if the temperature rises.

Q.108 With reference to the usefulness of the byproducts of the sugar industry, which of the following statements is/are correct? [2013]

1. Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy.
2. Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers.
3. Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:(c)

Exp: Bagasse and Molasses:

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Statements 1 and 3 are correct: Bagasse can be used for the generation of heat energy and electricity. Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol and it is also used as the ingredient in the distillation of a few alcoholic beverages.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Clearly, Molasses is not used for the production of chemical fertilizers. Synthetic fertilizers are typically made from chemical compounds like ammonia, urea, and phosphates, which are derived from petrochemicals or mineral sources. Molasses is rich in sugars and organic matter which make it unsuitable for the production of synthetic fertilizers.

Q.109 Consider the following statements: [2012]

Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used:

1. In the production of plastic foams.
2. In the production of tubeless tyres.
3. In cleaning certain electronic components.
4. As pressurizing agents in aerosol cans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

Exp: Chlorofluorocarbons, Hydrochlorofluorocarbons, Carbon tetrachloride, Methyl chloroform, Methyl chloroform, Halons, Methyl bromide, etc. are Ozone Depleting Substances. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) also referred to as ozone depleting materials, are used to make plastic foams, cleaning electronic components, and pressurising aerosol cans. They are non-toxic, nonflammable chemicals containing atoms of carbon, chlorine and fluorine.

Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct: Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used in the production of plastic foams, in cleaning electronic

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Statements 1 is incorrect: CO₂ is a heavy gas that primarily accumulates in the troposphere and lower stratosphere but does not escape into the outer stratosphere or space. The primary removal mechanisms of CO₂ involve absorption by oceans, photosynthesis by plants, and geological sequestration rather than atmospheric escape. Statements 3 is incorrect: Polar ice caps and glaciers are not a major active carbon sink. Ice trapping does not remove a significant amount of CO₂ from the atmosphere on short time scales. While some CO₂ gets sealed in glaciers but melting due to climate change can release CO₂ back into the atmosphere thereby making this process less effective in long-term carbon storage.

Q.112 Consider the following: [2011]

1. Carbon dioxide
2. Oxides of Nitrogen
3. Oxides of Sulphur

Which of the above is/are the emission/emissions from coal combustion at thermal power plants?

(a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only

Answer:(d)

Exp: Emissions of all the above-mentioned gases i.e. Carbon dioxide, Oxides of Nitrogen and Oxides of Sulphur take place from coal combustion at thermal power plants.

Gas
Sources and Causes
Carbon dioxide (CO2)
Burning of fossil fuels, deforestation

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Exp: Antarctic Ozone Hole was discovered by British Antarctic Survey scientists Farman, Gardiner and Shanklin in 1985. The formation of the ozone hole in the Antarctic has been an annual occurrence (in the months of September, October and November, due to a set of special meteorological and chemical conditions that arise at the South Pole, such as the presence of strong polar front, polar stratospheric clouds and increasing inflow of human-made chemicals like CFCs, etc. Additional Information: Effects of Ozone Depletion:

Additional Information:

Effects of Ozone Depletion:

Increased UV radiation, leading to higher risks of skin cancer, cataracts, and weakened immune systems. Negative impacts on marine ecosystems, crop yields, and wildlife. Global Response: Montreal Protocol: The Montreal Protocol (1987) is an international treaty aimed at phasing out ozone-depleting substances (ODS). Due to its success, the ozone layer is gradually recovering, with projections; over the Antarctic, this recovery is expected by around 2066, and by 2045 over the Arctic. In 2016 an additional agreement to the Montreal Protocol, known as the Kigali Amendment, required a phase-down of the production and consumption of some hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).

Q.114 Regarding "carbon credits", which one of the following statements is not correct? [2011]

(a) The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol
(b) Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse

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Additional Information : India's Carbon Credit Market:

Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS): In July 2024, India adopted detailed regulations for the CCTS, establishing a compliance carbon market aimed at reducing greenhouse gas emissions through the trading of carbon credit certificates.

Indian Carbon Market (ICM): The ICM framework comprises two key mechanisms:

o Compliance Mechanism: Targets emissions from energy use and industrial sectors.
o Offset Mechanism: Incentivizes voluntary actions from entities not covered under compliance for greenhouse gas reduction.

Support for Industries: The carbon credit market is designed to assist industries in meeting global carbon emission standards, thereby enhancing their competitiveness in international markets.

Q.115 What are the possible limitations of India in mitigating the global warming at present and in the immediate future? [2010]

1. Appropriate alternate technologies are not sufficiently available.
2. India cannot invest huge funds in research and development.
3. Many developed countries have already set up their polluting industries in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)

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1. Soot
2. Sulphur hexafluoride
3. Water vapour
Which of the above contribute to the warming up of the atmosphere?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Exp: The Earth's atmosphere contains gases and particles that contribute to the greenhouse effect, trapping heat and leading to global warming. These gases absorb and re-emit infrared radiation, while particles like soot can alter solar radiation balance and reduce the reflectivity of surfaces like ice and snow, further influencing climate change.
Option (d) is correct:
- Soot directly contributes to warming by absorbing sunlight and reducing the reflectivity of snow and ice.
- Sulphur hexafluoride is a potent greenhouse gas with a high global warming potential.
- Water vapour is the most significant greenhouse gas and amplifies the warming effect through feedback mechanisms.
- Other gases that contribute to the greenhouse effect and cause global warming are Carbon Dioxide, Methane, Nitrous Oxide, Ozone and Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).
Q.117 The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an international treaty drawn at: [2010]
(a) United Nations Conference on the Human Environment, Stockholm, 1972

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Q.118 The concept of carbon credit originated from which one of the following? [2009]

(a) Earth Summit, Rio de Janeiro
(b) Kyoto Protocol
(c) Montreal Protocol
(d) G-8 Summit, Heiligendamm

Answer: (b)

Exp: A carbon credit represents the reduction or removal of 1 metric ton of CO2 or its equivalent from the atmosphere. It allows for compensating carbon emissions by funding projects that either reduce emissions, like renewable energy or energy efficiency, or remove CO2 through methods like reforestation or carbon capture.

The concept of carbon credits was formalized under the Kyoto Protocol (1997), introducing mechanisms like Emission Trading, where countries could sell excess credits, and the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), allowing investments in emission-reduction projects in developing countries for credits.

Additional Information:

Features of the Kyoto Protocol (1997):

Legally Binding Targets: Developed nations (Annex I) committed to reducing greenhouse gas emissions by an average of 5% below 1990 levels during the first commitment period (2008-2012).

Commitment Periods:

First Commitment Period (2008-2012): Binding targets for developed countries.
Second Commitment Period (2013-2020) - Doha Amendment: Extended Kyoto but with reduced participation.

Flexible Market Mechanisms:

Clean Development Mechanism (CDM): Developed countries fund emission-reduction projects in developing nations.

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Exp: Option (c) is correct: The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) under the UNFCCC allows developing countries to receive funds from developed countries for adopting technologies that reduce greenhouse gas emissions, promoting sustainable development. The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) allows developed countries to invest in emission-reduction projects in developing countries and earn carbon credits in return.

Options (a), (b) and (d) are incorrect:

- Carbon footprint refers to the total carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions linked to the activities of an individual or entity (e.g., building, company, country).
- Emission Reduction Norms refer to regulations or standards set to limit the amount of greenhouse gases that can be emitted by industries, sectors, or countries.
- Carbon Credit Rating is a measure of how reliable and effective a carbon credit is in reducing emissions and helping the environment.

Q.120 Consider the following statements: [2008]

1. Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) in respect of carbon credits is one of the Kyoto Protocol Mechanisms.
2. Under the CDM, the projects handled pertain only to the Annex-I countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)

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6. ENVIRONMENTAL LAWS, CONVENTIONS AND POLICIES

Q.121 Consider the following statements: [2024]

Statement-I:

The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the "vermin" category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

Statement-II:

The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-1 and Statement-ll are correct and Statement-ll explains Statement-1
(b) Both Statement-1 and Statement-ll are correct, but Statement-ll does not explain Statement-1
(c) Statement-1 is correct, but Statement-ll is incorrect
(d) Statement-1 is incorrect, but Statement-ll is correct

Answer: (c)

Exp: Note: Vermin category listed in Schedule V of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 has been removed after the Wildlife Protection Amendment Act 2022, as now there are only 4 schedules in WPA. Hence the answer is subject to considerations made by the Commission.

Statement 1 is correct: The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the "vermin" category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 due to its destructive tendencies towards fruit farms.

Statement 2 is incorrect: Bats are the only flying mammals in the world, and the Indian Flying Fox is one of the largest. The species, Pteropus giganteus, also called the Great Indian Fruit Bat, eats fruits, feeding on the juice, and helps in seed dispersion and

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2024

(a) Locomotives using fossil fuels
(b) Ships using fossil fuels
(c) Extraction of metals from ores
(d) Power plants using fossil fuels

Ans: (d)

Exp: Emissions that lead to high concentrations of SO2 generally also lead to the formation of other SOx. The largest sources of SO2 emissions are from fossil fuel combustion at power plants and other industrial facilities. EPA's national ambient air quality standards for SO2 are designed to protect against exposure to the entire group of sulfur oxides (SOx). SO2 is the component of greatest concern and is used as the indicator for the larger group of gaseous sulfur oxides (SOx). Other gaseous SOx (such as SO3) are found in the atmosphere at concentrations much lower than SO2.

Q.123 Consider the following statements: [2024]

Statement I: India does not import apples from the United States of America.
Statement II: In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I.
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I.
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

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1. The definition of "Critical Wildlife Habitat" is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
Exp: Statement 1 is correct: Critical Wildlife Habitats (CWH) are defined under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006. These are areas within wildlife sanctuaries and national parks that are critical for the survival of wildlife species and where human activities may be restricted.
Statement 2 is correct: The Baiga tribe in Madhya Pradesh was one of the first communities in India to be granted Habitat Rights under the Forest Rights Act, 2006. This recognition ensures their right to live in and sustainably use forest resources in their traditional habitats.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The declaration of Habitat Rights is the responsibility of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and state-level authorities under the framework of the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
Q.125 Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? [2022]

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Additional Information:

Organization
Affiliated Ministry/Department
Key Responsibilities
Central Ground Water Board (CGWB)
Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation
Management, exploration, monitoring, assessment, augmentation, and regulation of groundwater resources in India.
National Water Development Agency (NWDA)
Ministry of Jal Shakti, Department of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation
Conducts water balance and feasibility studies, prepares reports for river interlinking projects, and supports the National Perspective Plan (NPP) for water resource development.
Central Water Commission (CWC)
Ministry of Jal Shakti
Technical organization responsible for water resource planning, flood forecasting, inter-state river disputes resolution, and dam safety.

Q.126 With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:

[2022]

1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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Statement 3 is incorrect : Mere apprehension or fear that a wild animal could endanger human life is not a ground for capture or killing. As per Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, only if the wild animal becomes a danger to human life or is deceased or disabled beyond recovery can it be allowed to be captured or killed by the competent authority, the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State.

Q.127 If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication? [2020]

(a) A licence is required to cultivate that plant.
(b) Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any circumstances.
(c) It is a Genetically Modified crop plant.
(d) Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the ecosystem.

Answer:(a)

Exp: The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 has six schedules. Schedule VI mandates, 'no person is allowed to cultivate a specified plant mentioned in schedule 6, except with a licence granted by the Chief Wildlife Warden'.

The plants mentioned in the sixth schedule includes :

Beddomes Cycad
Blue Vanda
Kuth
Ladies slipper orchids
Pitcher plant
Red Vanda

Additional Information :

The Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act, 2022 has reduced the total number of

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(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:(d)

Exp: Steel Slag, a by-product of steel making, is produced during the separation of the molten steel from impurities in steel-making furnaces. The slag occurs as a molten liquid melt and is a complex solution of silicates and oxides that solidifies upon cooling.

Statement 1 and 3 are correct: Steel slag is used as a base course material, the material under the surface layer of an asphalt road, track or surface. It is also used in production of portland slag cement.

Statement 1 is correct: Steel slag is widely used as a base course material in road construction, providing a strong and durable foundation beneath asphalt roads, tracks, and paved surfaces. Its high strength, resistance to deformation, and excellent drainage properties enhance pavement longevity.

Statement 3 is correct: Additionally, it is utilized in the production of Portland slag cement (PSC), where it is blended with ordinary Portland cement to improve durability and resistance to chemical attacks. This not only enhances cement quality but also promotes sustainable construction by recycling industrial byproducts.

Statement 2 is correct: Steel slag can be used in the agricultural sector due to its ability to correct soil acidity. In fact, developed countries like Japan, the USA have taken the lead in making fertilisers using steel-making slag.

Q.129 In rural road construction, the use of which of the following is preferred for ensuring environmental sustainability or to reduce carbon footprint? [2020]

1. Copper slag

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Option 3 is correct: The Government has allowed the use of coir based geotextiles for construction of rural roads under the Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana in 2020. Options 4 and 5 are incorrect: Hot Mix Asphalt (HMA) is a combination of approximately 95% stone, sand, or gravel bound together by asphalt cement, a product of crude oil. The wide use of hot mix technology leads to environmental pollution as these plants emit a huge amount of greenhouse gases. Portland cement is a major CO2 emitter.

Q.130 Consider the following statements: [2019]

1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown in forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Exp: Statement 1 is incorrect: The Indian Forest Act, 1927, was amended in 2017 to exclude bamboo grown on non-forest land from the definition of "tree," thereby allowing its free cultivation and transportation. However, this amendment does not grant forest dwellers the right to fell bamboo grown on forest areas. Bamboo in forest areas is still regulated under forest laws.

Statement 2 is correct: The Forest Rights Act (FRA) of 2006 recognizes bamboo as a minor forest produce (MFP).

Statement 3 is correct: The FRA, 2006, grants forest dwellers the right to own, collect, use, and dispose of minor forest produce (MFP). This includes bamboo, tendu leaves, honey,

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Exp: Laws to manage e-waste have been in place in India since 2011 under The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011, which was amended in 2016 as E-waste (Management) Rules, 2016. It recognises producers' liability for recycling and reducing e-waste in the country. Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) is a policy approach under which producers are given a significant responsibility - financial and/or physical - for the treatment or disposal of post-consumer products. The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) has been given the Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) authorisation under the new e-waste rules.

Q.132 Consider the following statements: [2019]

1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer:(a)
Exp: Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act (Campa Act), 2016 is aimed at providing an appropriate institutional mechanism to utilize afforestation funds. The Act sets up the Central and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management & Planning Authorities (CAMPA).
Statement 1 is correct: As per the Act, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) is set up at both central and state levels for expeditious and transparent utilisation of funds released for forest land diverted for non-forest purposes. The National Fund receives 10% & State Fund gets 90% of funds collected.
Statement 2 is incorrect: In the given context, There is no mention of people's

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Exp: Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 is aimed at protecting, improving the environment & reducing pollution. The Act empowers the Government of India for coordination of action by the state, planning and execution of nationwide programmes. The Act authorises the central government to control & reduce pollution from all sources.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The provisions in the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 does not explicitly mention detailed provisions for public participation. However, it does enable certain mechanisms that indirectly promote public involvement.

Statement 2 is correct: Clearly the Central Government lays down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources.

Section 3(2)(v) of the Act states that the central government can prescribe standards for the quality of the environment and emissions or discharges of pollutants from various sources. The Act also allows the government to regulate industrial and commercial activities that may harm the environment.

Q.134 As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct? [2019]

(a) Waste generators have to segregate waste into five categories.
(b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.
(c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.
(d) It is mandatory on the part of the waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.

Answer: (c)

Exp: Solid 

Q.135

How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)? [2018]

1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the Government.

2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Exp: Both NGT and CPCB were established by Acts — NGT Act, 2010 and Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. NGT provides effective and expeditious disposal of environmental cases.

---

Q.136

With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’, which of the following statements is/are correct? [2018]

1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.

2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.

3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Exp: GACSA is a voluntary, action-oriented multi-stakeholder platform. The concept of Climate-Smart Agriculture was developed by FAO and presented at the Hague Conference in 2010.

---

Q.137–Q.138

PDF में प्रश्न उपलब्ध नहीं/अधूरा है।
Question text not available/incomplete in the PDF.

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Q.139

According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law? [2017]

1. Gharial

2. Indian wild ass

3. Wild buffalo

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Exp: Species listed in Schedule I receive the highest level of protection; hunting is prohibited except under specific circumstances.

---

Q.140

Consider the following statements: [2015]

1. The Paris Agreement is a legally binding international treaty on climate change.

2. The Agreement aims to limit greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2°C or even 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels.

3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility in global warming and committed to donate $1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Exp: Paris Summit COP21-2015 is a legally binding International Treaty. NDCs are voluntary. Developed countries committed $100 billion, not $1000 billion.

---

Q.141

Consider the following statements: [2015]

1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the ‘Club of Rome’.

2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Exp: SDGs were established by the United Nations in 2015, with a target to achieve them by 2030. The Club of Rome’s 1972 report did not propose SDGs.

---

Q.142

PDF में प्रश्न अधूरा/उपलब्ध नहीं है।
Question text incomplete/not available in the PDF.
(Explanation available on UNCCD: established 1994, 197 Parties, addresses arid/semi-arid/dry sub-humid areas, bottom-up approach.)

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Q.143

Consider the following pairs: [2016]

Terms sometimes seen in news	Their origin
1. Annex-1 Countries	Cartagena Protocol
2. Certified Emissions Reductions	Nagoya Protocol
3. Clean Development Mechanism	Kyoto Protocol

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Answer: 3 only
Exp: Annex-1 Countries belong to UNFCCC/Kyoto Protocol. CERs are issued under Kyoto Protocol. CDM is under Kyoto Protocol.

---

Q.144

PDF में प्रश्न अधूरा/उपलब्ध नहीं है।
Question text incomplete/not available in the PDF.
(Explanation available on TEEB: launched by Germany and European Commission in 2007.)

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Q.145

Which of the following statements is/are correct? [2016]

Proper design and effective implementation of UN-REDD+ Programme can significantly contribute to:

1. protection of biodiversity

2. resilience of forest ecosystems

3. poverty reduction

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

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Q.146

Consider the following statements: [2015]

1. It is a global action plan for sustainable development.

2. It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable Development held in Johannesburg in 2002.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Exp: Agenda 21 was adopted at the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.

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Q.147

Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substances? [2015]

Answer: Montreal Protocol
Exp: Montreal Protocol (1987) aims to phase out ozone-depleting substances.

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Q.148

What is the Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the news? [2015]

(a) It is the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development
(b) It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World Trade Organization
(c) It is a Conference of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change
(d) It is a Conference of the Member Countries of the Convention on Biological Diversity

Answer: (a)

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Q.149

The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the [2015]

(a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
(b) Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
(c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
(d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

Answer: (c)

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Q.150

What are the significances of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as ‘Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative (SSI)’? [2014]

1. It involves using less seeds, raising seeds in a nursery, and following new planting methods.

2. It provides ample scope for intercropping and drip irrigation.

3. It excludes application of inorganic fertilizers.

4. It increases cane yields significantly.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
Answer: 1, 2 and 4 only
Exp: SSI uses both inorganic and organic fertilizers.

---

Q.151

Consider the following international agreements: [2014]

1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture

2. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification

3. The World Heritage Convention

Which of the above has/have a bearing on biodiversity?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

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Q.152

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Earth Hour’: [2014]

1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO.

2. It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year.

3. It is a movement to raise awareness about climate change and the need to save the planet.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Exp: Earth Hour was started by WWF in 2007.

---

Q.153

PDF में प्रश्न उपलब्ध नहीं है।
Question not available in the PDF.

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Q.154

With reference to ‘Wetlands International’, which of the following statements is/are correct? [2014]

1. It is an intergovernmental organization formed by the signatories of the Ramsar Convention.

2. It works on field-level projects that generate knowledge on wetland management and conservation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Exp: Wetlands International is an independent NGO, not an intergovernmental organization.

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Q.155

Consider the following pairs: [2014]

Wetlands	Confluence of Rivers
1. Harike Wetlands	Confluence of Beas and Satluj/Sutlej
2. Keoladeo Ghana National Park	Confluence of Banas and Chambal
3. Kolleru Lake	Confluence of Musi and Krishna

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

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Q.156

With reference to ‘Global Environment Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct? [2014]

(a) It serves as a financial mechanism for ‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and ‘United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change’.
(b) It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at global level.
(c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries.
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer: (a)

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Q.157

PDF में प्रश्न उपलब्ध नहीं है।
Question not available in the PDF.

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Q.158–Q.159

PDF में प्रश्न उपलब्ध नहीं/अधूरे हैं।
Questions not available/incomplete in the PDF.

(Explanation available on groundwater: 256 districts critical/over-exploited; CGWA established under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986; India largest groundwater irrigation area.)

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Q.160

The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at [2018]

(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg
(b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro
(c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris
(d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi

Answer: (b)

---

Q.161

PDF में प्रश्न अधूरा/उपलब्ध नहीं है।
Question incomplete/not available in the PDF.
(Explanation available on ‘Climate Neutral Now’ initiative.)

---

Q.162

With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are correct? [2017]

1. It is an initiative of the European Union.

2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.

3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

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Q.163

Consider the following statements: [2017]

1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries.

2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

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Q.164

Consider the following statements: [2014]

1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Exp: TRAFFIC is an independent NGO and a strategic alliance between WWF and IUCN.

---

Q.165

PDF में प्रश्न अधूरा/उपलब्ध नहीं है।
Question incomplete/not available in the PDF.
(Explanation available on GIAHS: FAO initiative; protects traditional agricultural systems; does not automatically confer GI status.)

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Q.166

With reference to an organisation known as ‘BirdLife International’, which of the following statements is/are correct? [2015]

1. It is a global partnership of conservation organisations.

2. It originated the concept of biodiversity hotspots.

3. It identifies Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas (IBAs).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: 1 and 3 only
Exp: Biodiversity hotspots concept was introduced by Norman Myers, not BirdLife International.

---

Q.167

With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resource (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct? [2015]

1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments.

2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.

3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

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Q.168

Consider the following statements: [2014]

1. It is intended to assist developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change.

2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Exp: Green Climate Fund was established in 2010 by 194 countries party to UNFCCC.

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Q.169

Consider the following statements: [2014]

1. Animal Welfare Board of India was established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

2. National Ganga River Basin Authority was established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

3. National Green Tribunal was established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Answer: 2 only
Exp: NGRBA was established in 2009 under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. AWBI is under Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960. NGT is under NGT Act, 2010.

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Q.170

With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements: [2014]

1. It is an autonomous organisation under the Ministry of Environment and Forests.

2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and public awareness.

3. It organises and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Exp: BNHS is a non-governmental organisation, not an autonomous body under MoEF.

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Q.171

Consider the following statements: [2023]

Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’:

1. The Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest.

2. Hunting is not allowed in such areas.

3. People of such areas are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce.

4. People of such areas are allowed traditional agricultural practices.

How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Answer: (b)

Exp: Statement 1 is incorrect. State Government establishes a management committee. Statements 2 and 3 are correct.

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Q.172

With reference to the Ramsar Convention, consider the following statements: [2014]

1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.

2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.

3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

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Q.173

The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the: [2022]

(a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas
(b) Development of gardens using genetically modified flora
(c) Creation of mini forests in urban areas
(d) Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces

Answer: (c)

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Q.174

Consider the following pairs: [2022]

Wetlands	Location
1. Hokera Wetland	Jammu and Kashmir
2. Renuka Wetland	Himachal Pradesh
3. Rudrasagar Lake	Tripura
4. Sasthamkotta	Kerala

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
Answer: All four
(As per PDF explanation, Option (b) is correct.)

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Q.175

“If rainforests and tropical forests are lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statements? [2022]

Answer: Wetlands filter pollutants from water.
Exp: Natural wetlands are called “earth’s kidneys” because they absorb and store excess nutrients, heavy metals, and chemicals from runoff.

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Q.176

With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct? [2020]

1. It is spread over two districts.

2. There is no human habitation inside the Park.

3. It is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian Bustard.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Exp: Desert National Park is in Jaisalmer and Barmer districts. Human habitation exists inside. It is a habitat of the Great Indian Bustard.

---

Q.177

Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”? [2020]

(a) Corbett
(b) Ranthambore
(c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam
(d) Sunderbans

Answer: (c)

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Q.178

Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a subspecies of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous? [2020]

Answer: Kanha National Park
Exp: Hard Ground Barasingha is found in Kanha National Park.

---

Q.179

Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat? [2020]

1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary

2. Gangotri National Park

3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary

4. Manas National Park

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 4 only

Answer: (a)

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Q.180

Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine? [2019]

(a) Manas National Park
(b) Namdapha National Park
(c) Neora Valley National Park
(d) Valley of Flowers National Park

Answer: (d) 

Q.181 Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve? [2019]
(a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai
Tiger Reserve
(b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley
National Park
(c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and
Mukurthi National Park
(d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife San ctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar -Srisailam
Tiger Reserve
Answer: (a)
Exp: Option (a) is correct:
Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve was established in 2001. It is located near the
southernmost tip of the Western Ghats. It includes the following wildlife sanctuar ies:
Kalakkad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve, Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary, Peppara Wildlife
Sanctuary, and Neyyar Wildlife Sanctuary. It comprises the tropical wet evergreen
forests
of India, the moist deciduous forests of the South Western Ghats, the montane rain
forests
of the South Western Ghats, and the Shola forests. The Kanikaran tribe, one of the
oldest
extant ancient tribes in the world, is also found in Agasthyamalai. In 2016, it was added
to
the World Network of Biosphere Reserves of UNESCO.
Q.182 In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located? [2018]
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Manipur
(c) Meghalaya (d) Nagaland
Answer: (a)
Exp: Option (a) is correct:
Pakke Tiger Reserve is also known as “Pakhui Tiger Reserve”. It is si tuated in the East
Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh, India. It is one of the key protected areas in the
Eastern Himalayas and is renowned for its rich biodiversity. The reserve lies within the
Eastern Himalayan biodiversity hotspot, an area known for i ts diverse flora and fauna.
Pakhui is home to a significant population of Royal Bengal tigers, along with Asian
elephants, clouded leopards, Hoolock gibbons, and a variety of bird species, including
the
endangered Great Indian hornbill. For its Hornbill Ne st Adoption Program, this Tiger
Reserve received the 2016 India Biodiversity Award in the category of "Conservation of
vulnerable species."

Q.183 From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance
in
being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats? [2017]
(a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
(b) Nallamala Forest
(c) Nagarhole National Park
(d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve
Answer: (a)
Exp: Option (a) is correct:
Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve (STR) is situ ated where the Western and Eastern
Ghats
converge. This region is home to a sizable tiger population and is adjacent to other
landscapes dedicated to protecting tigers, including BRT, Bandipur, Mudumalai, and
Nagarahole. Due to its peculiar location, the t iger reserve offers a distinctive ecological
landscape containing a wide variety and complex mix of vegetation and animals. The
connectivity provided by Sathyamangalam also plays a crucial role in reducing human -
wildlife conflict, preserving ecosystems, and supporting conservation initiatives.
Q.184 Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating
vegetation
that supports a rich biodiversity? [2015]
(a) Bhitarkanika National Park
(b) Keibul Lamjao National Park
(c) Keoladeo Ghana National Park
(d) Sultanpur National Park
Answer: (b)
Exp: Option (b) is correct:
Keibul Lamjao National Park in the Bishnupur district of the Indian state of Manipur is
the
only floating park in existence and is a crucial component of Loktak L ake, which lies in
North East India.
Locally known as "Phumdi," the national park is distinguished by floating decaying plant
matter. It was established in 1966 as a wildlife sanctuary to protect the Eld's deer's
natural
habitat, which is in risk of exti nction (Cervus eldi eldi). It was declared a national park in
1977.
The park is unique in that it is "too shallow to be a lake, too deep to be marsh."
The park offers a diverse array of aquatic, wetland, and terrestrial ecosystems and is
mostly made up of damp, semi -evergreen forests. Fauna found in the park include the
brow-antlered deer (Cervus eldi eldi), which is its emblematic species, as well as the
Asian Golden Cat, Marbled Cat, Malayan Bear, Hog Deer, Himalayan Black Bear, and
others.

Q.185 Which one of the following National Parks has a climate that varies from tropical
to
subtropical, temperate and arctic? [2015]
(a) Khangchendzonga National Park
(b) Nanda Devi National Park
(c) Neora Valley National Park
(d) Namdapha National Park
Answer: (d)
Exp:
Option (d) is correct:
The Namdapha National Park is located at the international border between India and
Myanmar (Burma) in Changlang District, Arunachal Pradesh in northeast India. It is
known
for its unique climate that ranges from tro pical to subtropical, temperate, and arctic due
to its vast altitude variation. Spanning from 200 meters to 4,500 meters above sea level,
the park encompasses a wide range of ecosystems. The lower altitudes experience
tropical and subtropical climates with rich biodiversity, including dense forests and
diverse wildlife. As you move higher, the climate shifts to temperate, and eventually, at
the
highest elevations, it reaches an arctic -like climate, hosting snow -covered peaks. This
diversity in climate allow s the park to support an incredible variety of flora and fauna,
including species like the snow leopard, clouded leopard, and tiger.
Q.186 With reference to 'Eco -Sensitive Zones', which of the following statements is/are
correct?
[2014]
1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection)
Act, 1972.
2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco -Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of
human activities in those zones except agriculture.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (d)
Exp: Eco-Sensitive Zones are defined as “areas/zones with identified environmental
resources
having incomparable values which require special attention for their co nservation”
because of its landscape, wildlife, biodiversity, historical and natural values.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The National Wildlife Action Plan (2002 -2016) of the Ministry
of
Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) stipulates that state governments
should declare land falling within 10 km of the boundaries of national parks and wildlife
sanctuaries as eco -fragile zones or Eco -Sensitive Zones (ESZs) under the
Environmental

(Protection) Act, 1986 and not Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The basic aim is to regulate certain activities around National
Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries so as to minimise the negative impacts of such activities
on the fragile ecosystem encompassing the protected area. In Eco-Sensitive Zones
(ESZs),
prohibited activities include commercial mining, polluting industries, and large
hydropower projects. Regulated activities involve tree felling, hotel construction, and
road
widening.
Permitted activities include ongoing farming, organic practices, rainwater harvesting,
and
use of renewable energy. Activities such as eco -tourism, education, and sustainable
development can take place under the guidelines issued by MoEFCC
Q.187 The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity toge ther with
traditional
human life is the establishment of: [2014]
(a) Biosphere reserves (b) Botanical gardens
(c) National parks (d) Wildlife sanctuaries
Answer: (a)
Exp: A Protected Area is a clearly defined geographical space, recognized, dedicated
and
managed through legal or other effective means, to achieve the long -term conservation
of nature with associated ecosystem services and cultural values. Biosphere reserves,
Botanical gardens, National parks, Wildlife sanctuaries, Conservation and Community
reserve etc are examples of protected areas.
Option (a) is correct:
Biosphere reserves are legally protected regions where people and the environment
can
coexist while honouring each other's needs. These areas might be terrestrial, coastal, or
a
combination of both. They are recognised under UNESCO's MAB programme and
nominated and established by the relevant nations. They consist of three zones: the core
zone, buffer zone, and transition zone. The core zone is strictly protected, while the
buffer
and transition zones allow for sustainable human activities, ensuring a balance between
conservation and livelihood.
Unlike national parks and wildlife sanctuaries, which primarily focus on preserving
wildlife,
biosphere reserves encourage sustainable human ac tivity and help integrate
conservation with traditional practices. Therefore, they serve as a model for preserving
biodiversity alongside the needs of local communities.

Q.188 Consider the following protected areas: [2012]
1. Bandipur
2. Bhitarkanika
3. Manas
4. Sunderbans
Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (b)
Exp: Project Tiger was initiated in 1973 under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, with the
Nati onal
Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) overseeing the implementation. The project was
launched with the primary goal to protect the Bengal tiger, enhance their population,
and
safeguard their habitats through the establishment of Tiger Reserves. The pro ject has
been highly successful, expanding to include a range of conservation efforts.
A Tiger Reserve is a protected area legally designated for the conservation of striped
big
cats. It can also be classified as a national park or wildlife sanctuary. For example,
Sariska
Tiger Reserve is also a national park because it was initially established as a national
park
before being dedicated to tiger conservation.
Option (b) is correct:
List of Tiger Reserve
State Tiger Reserves
Arunachal Pradesh Namdapha; Kamlang Tiger Reserve; Pakke
Assam Manas; Nameri; Orang Tiger Reserve; Kaziranga
Andhra Pradesh Nagarjunasagar Srisailam
Bihar Valmiki
Chattisgarh
Udanti-Sitanadi; Achanakmar; Indravati; Guru Ghasidas National Park
and Tamor Pingla Wildlife Sanctuary (latest)
Jharkhand Palamau
Karnataka
Bandipur; Bhadra; Dandeli-Anshi; Nagarhole; Biligiri Ranganatha
Temple
Kerala Periyar; Parambikulam
Madhya Pradesh
Kanha; Pench (contiguous with Maharashtra); Bandhavgarh; Panna;
Satpura; Sanjay-Dubri
Maharashtra
Pench (contiguous with Madhya Pradesh); Melghat; Tadoba-Andhari;

Sahyadri; Nawegaon-Nagzira; Bor
Mizoram Dampa
Odisha Simlipal; Satkosia
Rajasthan
Ranthambore; Sariska; Mukundra Hills; Ramgarh Vishdhari Wildlife
Sanctuary
Tamil Nadu
Kalakad-Mundanthurai; Annamalai Mudumakai; Sathyamangalam;
Srivilliputhur Megamalai
Telangana Kawal; Amrabad
Uttar Pradesh Dudhwa; Pilibhit; Amangarh (Buffer of Corbett TR)
Uttarakhand Corbett; Rajaji
West Bengal Sundarban; Buxa

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Q.189 In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local
people
not allowed to collect and use the biomass? [2012]
(a) Biosphere Reserves
(b) National Parks
(c) Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention
(d) Wildlife Sanctuaries
Answer: (b)
Exp: Option (b) is correct:
According to the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change , a national park
is
defined as an area, whether within a sanctuary or not, that can be designated by th e
state government due to its ecological, faunal, floral, geomorphological, or zoological
significance. The purpose of this designation is to protect, propagate, or develop the
wildlife and its environment. In National Parks, local people are generally no t allowed to
collect and use the biomass or any resources for subsistence purposes. The primary
objective of National Parks is the protection of biodiversity and preservation of
ecosystems. These parks are strictly protected under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972,
and
human activities, including the collection of resources like firewood, grazing, and
hunting,
are prohibited unless specifically allowed for research or management purposes.
Q.190 Consider the following pairs: [2010]
Protected area Well-known for
1. Bhitarkanika, Orissa — Salt Water Crocodile
2. Desert National Park, — Great Indian Bustard Rajasthan

3. Eravikulam, Kerala — Hoolak Gibbon
Which of the pairs given above is / are correctly matched ?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)

Exp: Pair 1 is correctly matched: Bhitarkanika National Park is well -known for its
population of
Saltwater Crocodiles (Crocodylus porosus), which are the largest living reptiles in the
world. The park is located in the Kendrapara district of Odisha and is home to a
significant
number of these crocodiles. It also has rich biodiversity, including mangroves and
various
bird species.
Pair 2 is correctly matched: Desert National Park is well -known for being a habitat of
the
critically endangered Great Indian Bustard, a large bird species. The National Park is
located in Jaisalmer and Barmer district of Rajasthan.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Eravikulam National Park in Kerala is known for its
population
of Nilgiri Tahr, not the Hool ock Gibbon. The Hoolock Gibbon (Hoolock hoolock) is found
in
parts of Northeast India and in the forests of Assam, Meghalaya, and Arunachal
Pradesh,
not in Kerala.
Q.191 Consider the following statements: [2010]
1. The boundaries of a National Park are defined by legislation.
2. A Biosphere Reserve is declared to conserve a few specific species of flora and
fauna.
3. In a Wildlife Sanctuary, limited biotic interference is permitted.
Which of the statements given above is / correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
Exp: Statement 1 is correct: National Parks in India are designated under the Wildlife
Protection
Act, 1972, and their boundaries are clearly defined by legal statutes. This is done to
ensure
strict protection and conservation of biodiversity, and no human activity is allowed within
the park unless specifically authorized.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Biosphere Reserves, designated under the Man and Biosphere
Reserves Programme of UNESCO started in 1971 by the Ministry of Environment and

Climate Change (MoEFCC). Biosphere Reserves are established to conserve
biodiversity in
its entirety, not just a few specific species. These reserves focus on both species and
ecosystems in a sustainable manner, including human communities. They aim for
ecological conservation, research, and sustainable use of natural resources.
Statement 3 is correct: In Wildlife Sanctuaries, human activity and biotic interference are
allowed in certain circumstances, like grazing or col lection of non-timber forest products,
as long as they do not harm the wildlife or environment. The level of interference is
regulated based on the sanctuary's management plan.
Q.192 India is a party to the Ramsar Convention and has declared many areas as
Ramsar sites.
Which of the following statements best describes how we should maintain these sites in
the context of this convention? [2010]
(a) Keep all the sites completely inaccessible to man so that they will not be exploited.
(b) Conserve all the si tes through ecosystem approach and permit tourism and
recreation only.
(c) Conserve all the sites through an ecosystem approach for a period without any
exploitation, with specific criteria and specific period for each site, and then allow
sustainable use of them by future generations.
(d) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem approach and allow their simultaneous
sustainable use.
Answer: (d)
Exp: The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands is an international treaty for the conservation
and
sustainable use of w etlands across the planet. It encourages the conservation of all the
sites through an ecosystem approach and allows their simultaneous and sustainable
use.
The goal is to ensure that wetlands continue to provide ecosystem services (like flood
regulation, water purification, and habitat for biodiversity) while enabling economic and
social benefits for local communities.
The mission as stated by the Convention is, “the conservation and wise use of all
wetlands
through local and national actions and internati onal cooperation as a contribution
towards achieving sustainable development throughout the world.
The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands is an international treaty focused on the
conservation and sustainable use of wetlands worldwide. It promotes the ecosyste m
approach to conserve wetland sites while ensuring their sustainable use, aiming to
preserve ecosystem services like flood regulation, water purification, and biodiversity
habitat, while benefiting local communities economically and socially. The Conventi on's
mission is to support the conservation and wise use of wetlands through local, national,
and international efforts to achieve sustainable development globally.
The Ramsar Convention was signed on February 2, 1971, in Ramsar, Iran. India
became a

party to the convention and has since designated several wetlands as Ramsar sites to
protect and sustainably manage these ecologically important areas.
9. SPECIES
Q.193 Consider the following: [2024]
1. Carabid beetles 2. Centipedes
3. Flies 4. Termites
5. Wasps
Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms?
(a) Only two (b) Only three
(c) Only four (d) All five
Ans: (b)
Exp: Many animals are predators, parasites or parasitoids, using othe r animals as food.
They
use a great diversity of hunting strategies and behaviours to capture or feed on their
prey.
Invertebrate predators, parasites and parasitoids play an important role in keeping many
animal populations under control.
● Parasitoid is an insect whose larvae feed and develop within or on the bodies of
other arthropods. Each parasitoid larva develops on a single individual and
eventually kills that host. Most parasitoids are wasps, but some flies and a small
number of beet les (carabid beetles), moths, lacewings, and even one caddisfly
species have evolved to be parasitoids. Parasitoids alone number about 68,000
named species, and most have yet to be named and described.
● Predator: They are organisms that capture and eat another (the prey). This act is
called predation. The predatory invertebrates include scorpions, centipedes,
predatory mites, predatory snails and slugs, nematodes and planarian worms.
● Detritivores: Termites are detritivores that eat dead and decaying organic matter like
logs of wood in a forest. They form an important link in the cycling of nutrients in the
forests by breaking down wood and organic residues on the ground
Q.194 Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has
coevolved
with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree? [2024]
(a) Fig (b) Mahua
(c) Sandalwood (d) Silk cotton
Ans: (a)
Exp: The banyan fig tree Ficus microcarpa is famous for its aerial roots, which spr out
from
branches and eventually reach the soil. Aerial roots are roots above the ground that are
found in diverse plant species like mangroves, banyan figs and orchids. The tree also
has
a unique relationship with a wasp that has coevolved with it and is the only insect that

can pollinate it. Figs are known to sustain at least 1,200 bird and mammal species. Fig
trees were among the earliest domesticated crops and appear as sacred symbols in
Hinduism, Buddhism and other spiritual traditions.
Q.195 Consider the following: [2024]
1. Butterflies
2. Fish
3. Frogs
How many of the above have poisonous species among them?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
Ans: (c)
Exp: Butterflies: Hybrid Heliconius butterflies are poisonous in nature. In nature, these
butterflies
are rare. Heliconius melpomene and Heliconius cydno are both highly poisonous, having
evolved to produce their own cyanide, and predators have learned exactly what both of
these toxic insects look like.
Fish: “Venomous” fish are those that can inject their toxic venom into victims, whereas
“poisonous” fish are those that cause toxic symptoms only if they are eaten. For
example:
Lionfish, red-bellied piranha etc.
Frogs: Frogs are amphibians which ca n survive both on land and water. Some of them
can be poisonous also. Poison dart frogs are small, brightly colored amphibians that live
on tropical rainforest floors across Central and South America. Poison dart frogs are
named for the toxins they secrete from their skin, which have traditionally been used to
tips of hunters' weapons. For example, the Embera and Noanama Indigenous people in
western Colombia have used the skin of golden poison frogs (Phyllobates terribilis) to tip
blowgun darts for hundreds of years.
Q.196 Consider the following pairs: [2024]
S.No. Country Animal found in its natural habiat
1. Brazil Indri
2. Indonesia Elk
3. Madagascar Bonobe
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
Ans: (d)
Exp: Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: The Indri is endemic to the island country of
Madagascar,
specifically inhabiting the eastern rainforests. The unique geographical features and
climate of Madagascar have faci litated the evolution of numerous species found
nowhere else on Earth, including the Indri.

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Elk is the largest and most advanced subspecies of red
deer,
found in North America and in the high mountains of Central Asia. It is a member of the
deer family. Recent genetic studies suggest that the “red deer” may have three species:
● European red deer.
● Tibetan–West Chinese red deer.
● Elk.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched: Bonobos and chimpanzees look very similar and both
shar e
98.7% of their DNA with humans —making the two species our closest living relatives.
Bonobos are usually a bit smaller, leaner, and darker than chimpanzees. They are found
only in the Democratic Republic of Congo. Their discontinuous range extends from the
Lualaba River in the east to the Kasai/Sankuru Rivers in the south and as far as the
Congo
River in the west and around Lake Tumba/Lake Mai-Ndombe.
Q.197 Consider the following statements: [2024]
1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season.
2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar.
3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Exp: Statement 1 is correct: Both males and females of the lions are polygamous and
breed
throughout the year, but females are usually restricted to one or two adult males of their
pride. In captivity, lions often breed every year, but in the wild, t hey usually breed no
more
than once in two years. Females are receptive to mating for three or four days within a
widely variable reproductive cycle.
Statement 2 is correct: There are four big cats that can roar: lion, tiger, leopard and
jaguar
- all of which belong to the genus Panthera. In these species, the epihyal bone, part of
the
voice box, is replaced by a ligament. This can be stretched, creating a larger sound-
producing passage and thus a wider range of pitch. The bones of the cheetah's voice
box
form a fixed structure, with divided vocal cords that vibrate with both in and out breaths.
This structure is the same for all the 'small' cats. While this design enables these cats to
purr continuously, it limits the range of other sounds and prevents the m from being able
to roar.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Leopards are known for their solitary nature and impressive
hunting abilities. They are skilled predators that primarily hunt at night, using their

incredible agility and stealth to catch a variety of prey. Leopards are considered
opportunistic hunters, adapting and targeting different species based on availability and
their specific habitat. To avoid competition and conflicts, leopards establish their own
territories, marking them with scent and claw ma rks on trees. Male leopards will fiercely
defend their territories if they overlap with other males.
Q.198 Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops the Global Invasive Species
Database)
belongs to which one of the following organisations? [2023]
(a) The International Union for Conservation of Nature
(b) The United Nations Environment Programme
(c) The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development
(d) The World Wide Fund for Nature
Answer: (a)
Exp: Option (a) is correct: The I nvasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a global
network of
scientific and policy experts on invasive species, organised under the auspices of the
Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the International Union for Conservation of
Nature
(IUCN). The ISSG f osters and enables the worldwide exchange of knowledge and
information concerning invasive species. It also ensures the linkage between knowledge,
practice, and policy to ensure that decisions are based on well-informed insights.
Q.199 Consider the following statements: [2023]
1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.
2. Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties
3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four
Answer: (d)
Exp: Statement 1 is correct: Mushrooms possess antibacterial properties, enhance the
immune
system, and aid in lowering cholesterol levels. Moreover, they serve as significant
reservoirs of bioactive compounds. Consequently, certain mushroom extracts are
utilised
to support human health and are available in the form of dietary supplements.
Statement 2 is correct: Psychoactive properties refer to substances that influence brain
function, resulting in alterations in mood, awareness, cognition, emotions, or behaviour.
Psilocybin is a hallucinogenic compound found in specific mushrooms commonly known
as magic mushrooms.
Statement 3 is correct: In recent times, there has been a growing discovery of
insecticidal

compounds within mushrooms.
Statement 4 is correct: Bioluminescence refers to the generation and release of light by
living organisms. Panellus stipticus stands out as one of the most luminous
bioluminescent mushrooms found on our planet. The newly discovered species,
designated as Roridomyces phyllostachydis found in Meghalaya, now joins the ranks of
the 97 recognised types of bioluminescent fungi world- wide.
Q.200 Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels: [2023]
1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
3. They are omnivorous.
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) All three (d) None
Answer: (b)
Exp: Statement 1 is incorrect: Indian squirrels, such as the Indian Palm Squirrel, do not
burrow in
the ground to build nests. Instead, they construct nests in trees, crevices, or other
elevated
areas using materials like leaves and twigs. B urrow-making is more characteristic of
rodents like rats or ground squirrels, which are not typical Indian squirrels.
Statement 2 is correct: Nuts serve as the primary food source for these creatures year-
round, especially during the winter months when th ey are preparing for hibernation.
They
store nuts by burying them underground, enabling retrieval during the winter season.
Statement 3 is correct: Squirrels are omnivores. Their diet primarily consists of nuts and
fruits, although they will also consume seeds, insects, small mammals, reptiles, eggs,
and
occasionally even bird chicks.
Q.201 With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the
following
statements: [2022]
1. It is a fungus.
2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.
3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
Exp: Statement 1 is correct: Guchhi mushroom is a species of fungus in the family
Morchellaceae of the Ascomycota. They are prized for their unique, honeycomb -like
appearance.

Statement 2 is correct: It is grown in the foothills of Himalayas mostly in the temperate
forests of Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, and Jammu and Kashmir.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The mushrooms cannot be cultivated commercially and grow
in
conifer forests across temperate regions. These mushrooms are only found in high
mountain regions and grow only when the snow melts on the mountains. They are
harvested from the wild by local communities.
These mushrooms cannot be cultivated commercially due to their specific growth
conditions. Found in conifer forests of temperate regions, they grow only in high
mountain
areas after the snow melts and are harvested wild by local communities.
Q.202 Which of the following is not a bird ? [2022]
(a) Golden Mahseer (b) Indian Nightjar
(c) Spoonbill (d) White Ibis
Answer: (a)
Exp: Option (a) is correct : Golden Mahseer is also known as the tiger of Ind ian rivers.
It is a
species of the genus Tor. The Golden Mahseer, the longest -living freshwater fish, is
native
to mountain and sub-mountain regions found in the Himalayan Rivers (Indus, Ganga and
Brahmaputra). The Pong Dam reservoir supports an ample popu lation of the golden
Mahseer.
IUCN Conservation Status: Endangered.
The Indian Nightjar (Caprimulgus asiaticus), Spoonbill (Platalea leucorodia), and White
Ibis (Threskiornis aethiopicus) are all bird species found in India.

Q.203 Consider the following animals: [2021]
1. Hedgehog
2. Marmot
3. Pangolin
To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms
rolls
up/roll up and protects/protects its/their vulnerable parts?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1 and 3
Answer: (d)
Exp: Option 1 is correct: Hedgehogs are small mammals with short limbs and a body low
to the
ground. Their most distinctive characteristic is the thousands of stiff, sharp spines,
harder
and sharper than those of a porcupine that cover the a nimal's back and sides, like a

pincushion filled with needles. If attacked they will curl into a prickly and unappetizing
ball
that deters most predators.
Option 2 is incorrect: Marmot are any of 14 species of giant ground squirrels found
primarily in Nor th America and Eurasia. Marmots are well suited for life in cold
environments and have small fur -covered ears, short, stocky legs, and strong claws for
digging. Marmots do not roll up and protect their vulnerable parts. They often use their
sharp teeth and powerful jaws to defend themselves.
Option 3 is correct: Pangolin, also called scaly anteaters because of their preferred diet.
pangolins They are the most trafficked mammal in the world. If touched or grabbed it will
roll up completely into a ball, while the sharp scales on the tail can be used to lash out.

Q.204 Which one of the following is a filter feeder? [2021]
(a) Catfish (b) Octopus
(c) Oyster (d) Pelican
Answer: (c)
Exp: Option (c) is correct:
Filter feeders are a subgroup of suspension feed ing animals that feed by straining
suspended matter and food particles from water, typically bypassing the water over a
specialised filtering structure. Clams, krill, sponges, oysters, etc are among the creatures
that rely on this way of feeding (including some sharks). Filter feeders include some
birds
like flamingos and several varieties of duck. Filter feeders are regarded as ecosystem
engineers since they might be crucial in the clarification of water. They serve as indicator
organisms and are crucial in bioaccumulation.
Option (a),(b) and (d) are incorrect :
● Catfish are bottom-dwellers that feed on a variety of food sources, including insects,
crustaceans, and small fish.
● Octopuses are predators that feed on crustaceans, mollusks, and fish.
● Pelicans are birds that feed on fish and other aquatic animals.
Q.205 With reference to ‘palm oil’, consider the following statements: [2021]
1. The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia.
2. Palm oil is a raw material for some industries producing lipstick and perfumes.
3. The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
Exp: Statement 1 is incorrect: Oil palm trees are native to West Africa but were brought
to
South-East Asia over 100 years ago as an ornamental tree crop. Southeast Asia,
particularly Indonesia and Malaysia, is the largest producer of palm oil.

Statement 2 is correct: Non -food applications of Palm oil are Cosmetics, toiletries,
soaps
and detergents. Oleochemical ind ustry, as a base material for laundry detergents,
household cleaners and cosmetics.
Statement 3 is correct: Palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel, which can be used in
compression ignition engines, i.e., diesel engines without any modifications.
Q.206 Consider the following statements: [2021]
1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree.
2. The Tamarind tree is endemic to South Asia.
3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce.
4. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa.
5. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
Answer: (b)
Exp: Leguminous plants have legumes or small spaces in their roots where a special
kind of
bacteria live. These bacteria are called nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
Leguminous plants have small pockets or nodules in their roots that host a specific type
of
bacteria known as nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
Statements 1 and 2 are incorrect: Moringa is a fast -growing, drought-resistant tree
native
to the Indian subcontinent. Found in the wild in the sub -Himalayan regions of Northern
India and now grown worldwide in the tropics and sub -tropics. Mori nga is not a
leguminous plant and it is deciduous rather than evergreen, meaning it sheds its leaves
seasonally. Tamarind, a leguminous tree, bearing edible fruit, is indigenous to tropical
Africa, not South Asia.
Moringa is a rapidly growing, drought-tolerant tree native to the Indian subcontinent. It
is
found naturally in the sub -Himalayan regions of Northern India and is now cultivated
globally in tropical and subtropical climates. Unlike leguminous plants, Moringa is not a
legume and is deciduous, sh edding its leaves seasonally. On the other hand, tamarind,
a
leguminous tree known for its edible fruit, is native to tropical Africa, not South Asia.
Statements 3 and 4 are correct: In India most of the Tamarind is collected as Minor
Forest
Produce with Minimum Support Price. Tamarind is also actively exported from India.
Statement 5 is correct: Biodiesel is derived from the tamarind seed through the
transesterification process as potential alternative feedstock for the diesel engine. The
seeds of Moringa too can be used for biodiesel production.

Q.207 With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements: [2020]
1. The leader of an elephant group is a female.
2. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months.
3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only.
4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer: (a)
Exp: Asian Elephants come in three sub -species i.e. Indian, Sumatran, and Sri Lankan.
The
majority of the continent's remaining elephants belong to the Indian subspecies, which
has the largest range.
Statement 1 is correct: The leader of a group is the oldest female. She guides the herd
in
their search for food and water sources. These matriarchal units can occasionally divide
into smaller, temporary groups.
Statement 2 is correct: The gestation period lasts for 22 months, yielding a single baby.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Although sexually mature in their early teens, elephants
generally
only start to mate at about 20 years and stop bearing calves at about 50.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Recent census showed Kerala as having 5,706 elephants,
while
Karnataka has 6049 elephants.
Q.208 With reference to India's biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet,
Gray -
chinned minivet and White-throated redstart are [2020]
(a) Birds (b) Primates
(c) Reptiles (d) Amphibians
Answer: (a)
Exp: Option (a) is correct:
The Ceylon frogmouth (Batrachostomus moniliger), Coppersmith barbet (Megalaima
haemacephala), Gray -chinned minivet (Pericrocotus solaris), and White -throated
redstart (Myioborus albogularis) are all species of birds found in India.
These birds are known for their unique characteristics and are an important part of
India's
rich avifauna. The Ceylon frogmouth is a nocturnal bird, while the Coppersmith barbet is
known for its distinctive call that sounds like a coppersmith at work.
Q.209 Consider the following statements: [2019]
1. Asiatic lions are naturally found in India only.
2. Double-humped camels are naturally found in India only.

3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
Exp: Statement 1 is correct: The Asiatic lion (Panthera leo persica) is a subspecies of
lion that is
naturally found only in India. The Gir Forest is a protected area that provides a habitat
for
these majestic animals, and conservation efforts are in place to protect and manage the
Asiatic lion population.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Double -humped camels (Camelus bactrianus) are naturally
found in the Central Asian region, particularl y in countries like Mongolia, China, and
parts
of Afghanistan. In India, they are found in the Ladakh region, but their native habitat is
not
India alone.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The one -horned rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis) is found in
India, particularly in Assam and other northeastern states and it is also found in parts of
Nepal and Bhutan.
Q.210 Consider the following statements: [2019]
1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (d)
Exp: Statement 1 is correct: Many species of t urtles are herbivores, especially those
that live in
freshwater or on land. For instance, the green sea turtle (Chelonia mydas) is primarily
herbivorous, feeding on seagrass and algae. Similarly, the Aldabra giant tortoise is also
herbivorous, feeding mainly on grasses and leaves.
Statement 2 is correct: Several species of fish are herbivores, consuming algae, aquatic
plants, or detritus. Examples include parrotfish, which graze on algae, and certain
species
of surgeonfish, which feed on marine plants.
Statement 3 is correct: Some marine mammals are herbivores, notably the manatee
and
dugong, which feed on seagrasses. These mammals are specialized to thrive on a plant
-

based diet.
Statement 4 is correct: Boa Constrictors and Green Anacondas are examples of
viviparous snakes, meaning they give birth to live young with no eggs involved at any
stage of development.
Q.211 Consider the following pairs: [2019]
Wildlife : Naturally found in
1. Blue-finned Mahseer : Cauvery River
2. Irrawaddy Dolphin : Chambal River
3. Rusty-spotted Cat : Eastern Ghats
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
Exp: Pair 1 is correctly matched: Blue Finned Mahseer is found in the Mula -Mutha River
close to
the Indian city of Pune, a part of the Krishna River basin. It is a freshwater fish. It is also
known as Deccan Mahseer or Tor Khudree.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Irrawaddy Dolphin’s habitat extends from the Bay of
Bengal
to New Guinea and the Philippines. It is found in three rivers namely the Irrawaddy
(Myanmar), the Mahakam (Indonesian Borneo) and the Mekong but not in the Chambal
river. The highest single lagoon population of dolphins is considered to be found in
Chilika
Lake.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Rusty Spotted Cat has been observed in eastern Gujarat's
Gir
National Park, in Maharashtra's Tadoba -Andhari Tiger Reserve and along India's
Eastern
Ghats.
Q.212 Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in the news? [2018]
(a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
(c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
Exp: Option (b) is correct:
Prosopis juliflora, commonly known as mesquite or vilayati babul, is a species of
flowering
plant in the legume family that is often discussed in environmental and ecological
contexts due to its invasive nature. It is native to South America but has spread w idely
in

regions such as India, Africa, and the Middle East, where it has become problematic. It
is
considered invasive in many countries, particularly in India, where it has spread rapidly
and reduced local biodiversity. Prosopis juliflora outcompetes nat ive plant species for
resources such as water and nutrients, often leading to the decline of indigenous flora
and fauna.
Prosopis juliflora, or mesquite, is a leguminous flowering plant native to South America.
It
has become invasive in regions like India , Africa, and the Middle East, where it
competes
with native species for water and nutrients, threatening local biodiversity.
Q.213 If you want to see Gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is
the best
place to visit? [2017]
(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves (b) Chambal River
(c) Pulicat Lake (d) Deepor Beel
Answer: (b)
Exp: Option (a) is incorrect: Gharials inhabit deep freshwater habitats, while crocodile
species
are found in both freshwater and saltwater habitats. Bhitarkanika Mangrove s is the
home
to saltwater crocodiles.
Option (b) is correct: Gharials (Gavialis gangeticus) are a species of crocodile that are
native to the Indian subcontinent. They are found in freshwater rivers, streams, and
wetlands, and are known for their distin ctive narrow snout. The Chambal River and its
tributaries which flow through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar
Pradesh are one of the best places to see gharials in their natural habitat. The Chambal
River is home to a significant population of gharials, and the National Chambal
Sanctuary
has been established to protect and conserve these magnificent creatures.
Gharials (Gavialis gangeticus) are crocodiles native to the Indian subcontinent,
recognized for their narrow snouts. They inhabit freshwater rivers, streams, and
wetlands,
with the Chambal River in Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh being a
prime
location to see them. The National Chambal Sanctuary was established to protect and
conserve this species, which has a significant population in the river.
Option (c) is incorrect: Pulicat Lake is the second lar gest brackish water lake or lagoon
in
India after Chilika Lake while Gharials inhabit deep freshwater habitats.
Option (d) is incorrect: Deepor Beel is one of the largest freshwater lakes in Assam and
the

State’s only Ramsar site besides being an Importa nt Bird Area by Birdlife International.
Till
date no credible information has been found regarding the Gharial population in Deepor
beel.
Q.214 What is/are unique about ‘Kharai camel’, a breed found in India? [2016]
1. It is capable of swimming up to three kilometres in seawater.
2. It survives by grazing on mangroves.
3. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (a)
Exp: Statement 1 is correct: Kharai camels have a special ability to swim in seawater
and feed
on saline plants and mangroves, which is how they get their name, Kharai. Recognized
as
a separate breed a few years ago by the National Bureau of Animal Genetic
Resources(NBAGR), it is probably the only domesticated breed of camel that lives in
dual
ecosystems. There are two camel breeds in Kutch, a coastal region of Gujarat that is
also
a sizable desert territory.
Statement 2 is correct: Kharai camels are known to f eed on mangroves on the island
offshore and to eat this salty marine food, they sometimes swim for hours.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Kharai camels have the ability to survive both on land and sea.
Kharai camels are domesticated and are often used by local communities for
transportation and other purposes.
Statement 1 is correct: Kharai camels have the remarkable ability to swim in seawater
and
feed on saline plants and mangroves. This adaptation gives them their name, "Kharai."
They are considered the only domesticated camel breed that thrives in both marine and
desert ecosystems. They were identified as a separate breed by the National Bureau of
Animal Genetic Resources (NBAGR) in recent years.
Statement 2 is correct: Kharai camels are known to feed on m angroves and other salty
marine plants found on offshore islands. To access this unique food source, they can
swim for several hours in seawater.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Kharai camels are domesticated and play an essential role for
local communities, often being used for transportation and various other purposes in the
coastal and desert regions of Gujarat.
Q.215 With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the
following

statements: [2016]
1. It is a tree species found in a part of South India.
2. It is one of the most important trees in the tropical rainforest areas of South India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (a)
Exp: ‘Red Sanders’ ar e known for their rich hue and therapeutic properties. They are in
high
demand across Asia, particularly in China and Japan for use in cosmetics and medicinal
products as well as for making furniture, woodcraft and musical instruments. The main
threats th at Red Sanders face are illicit felling for smuggling, forest fires, cattle grazing
and other anthropogenic threats.
Statement 1 is correct: Red Sanders is an Indian endemic tree species, with a restricted
geographical range in the Eastern Ghats. It is e ndemic to a distinct tract of forests in
Andhra Pradesh. Red Sanders usually grow in the rocky, degraded and fallow lands with
Red Soil and hot and dry climate.
Red Sanders is an endemic tree species native to the Eastern Ghats, specifically found
in
the forests of Andhra Pradesh. It thrives in rocky, degraded, and fallow lands with red
soil
and a hot, dry climate.
Statement 2 is incorrect: It occurs in the forest formation which is classified as
“Southern
Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests”. The tree is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red
List, due
to over-exploitation of its timber and habitat loss. Efforts are being made to protect the
tree's habitats and to promote sustainable harvesting practices.
Q.216 In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the
‘Great
Indian Hornbill’ in its natural habitat? [2016]
(a) Sand deserts of northwest India
(b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Salt marshes of western Gujarat
(d) Western Ghats
Answer: (d)
Exp: India is home to nine species of hornbills, which is roughly one -fifth of the over 50
hornbill
species found worldwide. They are primarily frugivore i.e. feeding on fruits but some of
them also feed upon small mammals, reptiles and other small birds. The Great Indian
Hornbills primarily reside in tropical evergreen forests.
Option (d) is correct:

The great hornbill (Buceros bicornis) also known as the Great Indian hornbill is one of
the
larger members of the hornbill family. A large majority of their population is foun d in
India
with a significant proportion in the Western Ghats and the Nilgiris. It is a habitat
specialist
that requires large trees with cavities for nesting and roosting.
Option (d) is correct: India is home to nine hornbill species, about one -fifth of the 50+
species worldwide. While mainly frugivores, some also consume small mammals,
reptiles,
and birds. The Great Indian Hornbill primarily inhabits tropical evergreen forests and is
found mostly in the Western Ghats and Nilgiris. It relies on large trees with cavities for
nesting and roosting.
Q.217 With reference to 'dugong', a mammal found in India, which of the following
statements
is/are correct? [2015]
1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.
2. It is found along the entire coast of India.
3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
Answer: (c)
Exp: Dugongs are strictly a marine mammal. Commonly known a s "sea cows," dugongs
graze
peacefully on sea grasses in shallow coastal waters of the Indian and western Pacific
Oceans.
Statement 1 is correct: Dugong is one of the surviving species in the Order Sirenia and
it is
the only existing species of herbivorous mammal that lives exclusively in the sea
including
in India. It is one of the few marine mammals that is strictly herbivorous and plays a
crucial role in maintaining healthy seagrass ecosystems, which are vital for marine
biodiversity.
Statement 1 is co rrect: Dugongs, or "sea cows," are marine mammals that graze on
seagrasses in shallow coastal waters of the Indian and western Pacific Oceans. As the
only herbivorous mammal living exclusively in the sea, including in India, dugongs are
crucial for maintaining healthy seagrass ecosystems, which support marine biodiversity.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The dugong is not found along the entire coast of India. It is
mainly found in the Gulf of Mannar and Palk Bay (Tamil Nadu and Kerala) and in the
waters of Anda man and Nicobar Islands. The species has a restricted distribution and is
not widespread along India's entire coastline..

Statement 3 is correct: The dugong is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection)
Act, 1972, which provides it with the high est level of protection in India. As a protected
species, hunting, poaching, or harm to the dugong is illegal.
Q.218 Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India? [2015]
(a) Saltwater crocodile (b) Olive ridley turtle
(c) Gangetic dolphin (d) Gharial
Answer: (c)
Exp: Option (c) is correct:
The Gangetic dolphin (Platanista gangeticus) is a freshwater dolphin species that is
endemic to the Indian subcontinent. It belongs to the family Platanistidae and is one of
the four species of freshwater dolphins found in the world.
It is characterized by its distinctive dorsal fin, which is triangular in shape, and its long,
thin
beak.
It has a stocky body, typically gray or brown in color, and can grow up to 2.5 meters in
length.
The species is well adapted to its freshwater habitat, with a number of specialized
physical and behavioral traits, including its ability to navigate through murky waters using
echolocation. They are also called ‘susu’.
Gangetic Dolphin is the National Aquatic Animal of India. The Ganges -Brahmaputra-
Meghna and Karnaphuli -Sangu river systems of Nepal, India, and Bangladesh make its
natural habitat.
The Gangetic Dolphin (Platanista gangeticus) is India's National Aquatic Animal. It is
native to the Ganges -Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems, which
span Nepal, India, and Bangladesh.
Endemic to the Indian subcontinent, the Gangetic dolphin belongs to the Platanistidae
family and is one of only four freshwater dolphin species globally. Recognized by its
triangular dorsal fin and long, slender beak, this stocky, gray or brown dolphin can grow
up to 2.5 meters. Adapted to murky freshwater environments, it uses echolocation to
navigate and is locally known as ‘susu.’
Q.219 With reference to Neem tree, consider the following statements: [2014]
1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of
insects and mites.
2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital detergents.
3. Neem oil has applications in the pharmaceutical industry.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: ( c)
Exp: Azadirachta indica, commonly known as the Indian neem tree, is a tropical
evergreen
belonging to the Meliaceae family, native to the Indian subcontinent, renowned for its

medicinal and ecological significance. Neem is typically grown in tropical and subtropical
regions.
Statement 1 is correct: Neem oil and neem barks are used as an insec t repellent and
can
be used for controlling the spread of some insects and mites.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While neem seeds contain oil, which has potential as biofuel
,the
manufacturing of hospital detergents is not a common or widespread use of neem
seeds.
The primary application of neem oil in hospital settings is in disinfectants or antiseptic
creams, not detergents specifically.
Statement 3 is correct: Neem oil has multiple applications in the pharmaceutical
industry.
Neem is considered a weed and b ased on its antimicrobial resistance and other
antifungal properties, they are also used in pharmaceutical and cosmetic industries.
Q.220 Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline in the
population of
Ganges River Dolphins? [2014]
1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers
2. An increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers
3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally
4. Use of synthetic fertilisers and other agricultural chemicals in crop -fields in the
vicinity of rivers.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (c)
Exp: Gangetic dolphins live in the Ganges -Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu
river
systems of Nepal, India, and Bangladesh. The Ganges river dolphin can only live in
freshwater. They are essentially blind. They are also called ‘susu’.
Statement 1 is correct: Dams and barrages disrupt the natural flow of rivers, reducing
the
availability of suitable habitats for the dolphins. They also fragment populations and
prevent dolphins from migrating to areas with adequate food resources. These
structures
can obstruct the dolphins' access to breeding and feeding grounds.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While crocod iles may compete with dolphins for food, an
increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers is not considered a threat to Gangetic
dolphins.
Statement 3 is correct: Dolphins die as a result of accidentally being caught in fishing
nets, also known as bycatch.

Statement 4 is correct: The use of pesticides and fertilizers in agricultural practices
leads
to water pollution, which can degrade the dolphins' habitat by reducing water quality and
food availability (as it affects the aquatic food chain).
Q.221 If you walk through countryside, you are likely to see some birds stalking
alongside the
cattle to seize the insects disturbed by their movement through grasses. [2014]
Which one of the following is/are such bird/birds?
1. Painted Stork
2. Common Myna
3. Black-necked Crane
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
Answer: (b)
Exp: Common mynas are native to south Asia. Their natural breeding range is from
Afghanistan through India and Sri L anka to Bangladesh. They have been introduced to
many tropical areas of the world except for South America. Common mynas are a
resident species in India, although occasional east-west movements have been
reported.
Option 2 is correct: Common Myna is an opportunistic feeder on insects, disturbed by
grazing cattle. Common Myna is an omnivorous open woodland bird with a strong sense
of territorial instinct. It has adapted extremely well to the urban environment.
Option 2 is correct: Common mynas are native to South Asia, with their breeding range
extending from Afghanistan through India and Sri Lanka to Bangladesh. They have been
introduced to many tropical regions worldwide, except South America. While generally
resident in India, occasional east -west movem ents occur. The Common Myna is an
omnivorous, opportunistic feeder, often foraging on insects disturbed by grazing cattle. It
thrives in urban environments and is known for its strong territorial instincts, often found
in
open woodlands.
Option 1 is incorrect: Painted storks forage in flocks in shallow waters along rivers or
lakes.
A wading bird that lives in the wetlands of tropical Asia. They feed on fish, frogs, and
insects in shallow water. It has distinctive pink tertial feathers
Option 3 is incorrec t: The habitat of Black -necked Crane is in the high altitude
wetlands
and grasslands of the Tibetan plateau, Sichuan (China), and eastern Ladakh (India).
They
are not opportunistic feeders.
Q.222 Consider the following fauna of India: [2013]

1. Gharial
2. Leatherback turtle
3. Swamp deer
Which of the above is/are endangered?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
Answer: (c)
Exp: Option (c) is correct:
Option 1 is correct: The Gharial once found across the Indian subcontinent, its
population
has drastically declined due to habitat loss, reduction in prey species, entanglement in
fishing nets, and water pollution. It is now confined to a few river systems, especially in
the
Chambal River. The Gharial is listed as critically endangered by the IUCN Red List.
Option 2 is correct: The Leatherback turtle is the largest species of sea turtle and is
listed
as vulnerable by the IUCN. The species faces numerous threats, including accidental
capture in fishing nets, habitat destruction (especially nesting sites), and illegal hunting.
It
is found along India's coasts, particularly in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands and parts
of the Tamil Nadu coast. However many subpopulations (such as in the Pacific and
Southwest Atlantic) are Critically Endangered.
Option 3 is correct: The Swamp deer (also called the Barasingha) is endangered. It is
found in wetland areas in parts of India, such as Uttarakhand and Madhya Pradesh.
Habitat destruction, hunting, and the drainage of wetlands have contributed to its
population decline.
Note : According to UPSC Answer Key Option C is correct
Q.223 Consider the following: [2013]
1. Star tortoise 2. Monitor lizard
3. Pygmy hog 4. Spider monkey
Which of the above are naturally found in India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a)
Exp: Option 1 is correct: Star Tortoise (Geochelone elegans) is naturally found in India. It
is a
species of tortoise that inhabits the dry forests and scrublands of India, particularly in
Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, and parts of Tamil Nadu. It is easily recognizable
due
to the star -like patterns on its shell. The species is endangered due to habitat loss and
illegal trade. There is a huge international demand for these animals as exotic pets
which

threatens their survival.
Option 2 is correct: Monitor lizards are found in India and are widespread across the
country. Several species, including the Indian monitor lizard (Varanus bengalensis), can
be found in forests, grasslands, and even ne ar human settlements. These lizards are
known for their size, strength, and scavenging habits.
Option 3 is correct: Pygmy Hog (Porcula salvania) is naturally found in India, specifically
in
the grasslands of Assam. It is a critically endangered species an d is the smallest wild
pig
in the world. The Pygmy hog’s population has been reduced due to habitat destruction,
especially the loss of grasslands in the region.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The Spider monkey is not naturally found in India. It is native to
Central and South America, specifically the tropical forests of the Amazon Basin.
Q.224 Consider the following animals: [2013]
1. Sea cow
2. Sea horse
3. Sea lion
Which of the above is/are mammal/mammals?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (b)
Exp: Mammals are a group of animals that include humans. Mammals are warm -
blooded
animals with hair and vertebrates, or backbones. Unlike other classes of animals, female
mammals produce milk to nourish their young. Almost all mammals give birth to live
young (except for the platypus and echidna, which lay eggs).
Statement 1 is correct: Dugong belongs to the order Sirenia and is a marine mammal
found in warm coastal waters. The Dugong (Dugong dugon) is the sea cow found in
Indian waters. They are herbivorous and are known for their gentle nature. They give
birth
to live young and nurse them with milk, characteristic of mammals. They are found in
over
30 countries and in India are seen in the Gulf of Mannar, Gulf of Kutch, Palk Bay, and
the
Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Sea Horse is not a mammal but a fish, part of the genus
Hippocampus. Despite its name, the sea horse is a small marine creature, known for its
unique horse-like head and upright swimming posture. It is an ectothermic species (cold-
blooded) and lays eggs, unlike mammals which give birth to live young.
Statement 3 is correct: Sea Lion is a mammal. It belongs to the family Otariidae and is a
type of pinniped (a group of fin -footed mammals). Sea lions are marine mammals that

live in coastal areas and are known for their external ear flaps and ability to "walk" on
land
using their front flippers.
Q.225 Consider the following organisms: [2013]
1. Agaricus
2. Nostoc
3. Spirogyra
Which of the above is/are used as biofertilizer/biofertilizers?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
Answer: (b)
Exp: Bio-fertilizers are living or biologically active products or microbial inoculants of
bacteria,
algae and fungi (separately or in combination) which are able to enrich the soil with
nitrogen, phosphorus, organic matter etc.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Agaricus refers to a genus of fungi, commonly known for
species
like Agaricus bisporus, the common button mushroom. While it is used i n culinary and
medicinal contexts, it is not used as a biofertilizer. They are not involved in nitrogen
fixation
or other activities that promote soil fertility, which are characteristic of biofertilizers.
Statement 2 is correct: Nostoc is a genus of cyanobacteria (blue-green algae) that can
fix
atmospheric nitrogen. It is often used as a biofertilizer because of its ability to enhance
soil fertility by converting atmospheric nitrogen into a form that plants can utilize. Nostoc
is commonly found in rice pa ddies and is used to improve nitrogen content in the soil,
especially in organic farming.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Spirogyra is a genus of green algae that primarily plays a role
in
freshwater ecosystems. While it is important for oxygen production and c an contribute
to
the aquatic environment, it is not used as a biofertilizer. Unlike Nostoc, Spirogyra does
not
have significant nitrogen-fixing capabilities.
Q.226 In which of the following States is lion-tailed macaque found in its natural habitat?
[2013]
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Kerala
3. Karnataka
4. Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (a)
Exp: Lion-tailed macaques (Macaca silenus) are found only in India in the Western
Ghats.They
live in evergreen and semi-evergreen rainforests and monsoon forests. They typically
are
associated with broadleaf trees, and can be found at elevations as great as 1,500 m.
The
species is of conservation significance due to its retention of primitive traits among
macaques.
Option (a) is correct:
Although the species has a relatively wide range, its area of occupancy is small and
severely fragmented. The Lion -tailed Macaque has a distinctive appearance, with a dark
brown or black coat and a silver -white mane that runs along its back, giving it a lion -like
appearance. It has a long tail and a pink face. It can also be found in monsoon forests in
hilly country and in disturbed forest. Lion-tailed Macaque is endemic to the Western
Ghats
in the states of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu. Lion -tailed Macaque are not found
in
the state of Andhra Pradesh.
Option (a) is correct: Lion-tailed macaques (Macaca silenus) are endemic to India,
found
only in the Western Ghats. They inhabit evergreen and semi -evergreen rainforests,
typically at elevations up to 1,500 meters, and are often associated with broadleaf trees.
This species is of conservation importance due to its primitive traits.
Despite having a relatively wide range, their habitat is small and highly fragmented. The
Lion-tailed Macaque has a distinctive appearance with a dark coat, silver -white mane,
long tail, and pink face. It resides in monsoon forests and disturbed habitats across
Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu, but is absent in Andhra Pradesh.
Q.227 Vultures which used to be very common in Indian countryside some years ago
are rarely
seen nowadays. This is attributed to: [2012]
(a) the destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species
(b) a drug used by cattle owners for treating their discased cattle
(c) scarcity of food available to them
(d) a widespread, persistent and fatat disease among them
Answer: (b)
Exp: The drastic decline in the vulture population in India is primarily attributed to the use
of a
veterinary drug called diclofenac. This drug was commonly administered to cattle to treat
inflammation and pain. However, when vultures fed on the carcasses of cattle that had
been treated with diclofenac, they suffered from kidney failure and fat al toxicity, leading

to a sharp decline in their population.
Additional Information
In India, there are nine species of vultures, and most of them are at risk of extinction.
● Indian Vulture (Long-billed Vulture): Critically Endangered
● Indian White-backed Vulture: Critically Endangered
● Red-headed Vulture: Critically Endangered
● Slender-billed Vulture: Critically Endangered
● Egyptian Vulture: Endangered
● Cinereous Vulture: Near Threatened
● Bearded Vulture: Near Threatened
● Himalayan Vulture: Near Threatened
● Griffon Vulture: Least Concern
Q.228 Consider the following kinds of organisms: [2012]
1. Bat
2. Bee
3. Bird
Which of the above is/are pollinating agents/agents?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (d)
Exp: When a pollen grain moves from the anther (male part) of a flower to the stigma
(female
part), pollination happens and it is the first step in a process that produces seeds, fruits,
and the next generation of plants. Vectors that move pollen w ithin the flower and from
flower to flower are called pollinators.
Option (d) is the correct answer:
Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the stamens (the flower parts that
produce
them) to the ovule -bearing organs or to the ovules (seed p recursors) themselves.
There
are two categories of pollinators, i.e. invertebrate pollinators which includes bees, moths,
flies, wasps, beetles and butterflies and vertebrate pollinators which have monkeys,
rodents, lemurs, tree squirrels, bats and birds.
● The fruit bats (also known as megabats) and nectar -feeding bats are particularly
involved in pollination. Bats are vital for the pollination of various species, including
certain species of cacti, bananas, and agave plants, which rely on them for
reproduction.
● Bees are some of the most efficient and well -known pollinators responsible for
pollinating a significant portion of the world's food crops.
● Certain species of birds, particularly hummingbirds and some species of sunbirds,
are also important pollinators. They feed on nectar and, in the process, move pollen
from one flower to another. This form of pollination is common in plants with red or

orange flowers that attract birds and require birds with long bills or beaks for
feeding.
Q.229 The Gover nment of India encourages the cultivation of ‘sea buckthorn’. What is
the
importance of this plant: [2012]
1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification.
2. It is a rich source of biodiesel.
3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes.
4. Its timber is of great commercial value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: (c)
Exp: Seabuckthorn (soil binding, rich in vitamins) is a shrub which produces an orange -
yellow
coloured edible berry. It can be found in India above treeline in the Himalayan region,
usually in arid places like the cold deserts of Ladakh and Spiti. Seabuckthorn grows
naturally in Lahaul, Spiti, and some regions of Kinnaur in Himachal Pradesh.
Statements 1 and 3 are correct: Seabuckthorn is a soil -binding plant which prevents
soil -
erosion, it also has commercial value, as it is used in making juices, jams, nutritional
capsules etc.
Statement 2 is incorrect: While sea buckthorn has various uses, including medicinal and
nutritional, it is not primarily known for being a biodiesel source. While some studies
have
explored its potential as a biofuel, it is not widely regarded as a pr imary source of
biodiesel.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Sea buckthorn does not have significant commercial value for
its
timber. The plant is primarily valued for its fruits, oils, and medicinal properties, not for
timber production.
Q.230 Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of
endangered
species? [2012]
(a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass
(b) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and Great Indian Bustard
(c) Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey and Saras (Crane)
(d) Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur and Cheetal
Answer: (a)
Exp: The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List of Threatened
Species,

also known as the IUCN Red List or Red Data Book, founded in 196 4, is an inventory of
the
global conservation status and extinction risk of biological species.
Option (a) is correct:
Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda and Asiatic Wild Ass (Currently
Vulnerable,
but as the question is from 2012, we will cons ider it as Endangered) all are Endangered
Species.
Important species and their Conservation status are:
Species Particulars
Great Indian Bustard
• State bird of Rajasthan
• Flagship grassland species, representing the health of the
grassland ecology.
• States: Rajasthan and Gujarat. Small populations occur in
Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
• Conservation Status: Critically Endangered
Musk Deer
• Habitat: J&K, Uttarakhand. Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim and
Arunachal Pradesh.
• Conservation Status: Endangered
Red Panda
• The red panda is endemic to the temperate forests of the
Himalayas.
• Habitat: Sikkim and Assam, northern Arunachal Pradesh.
• Threats: habitat loss and fragmentation, poaching, and
inbreeding depression.
• Conservation Status: Threatened Species
Asiatic Wild Ass
• Scientific Name: Equus hemionus
• Also called: Asiatic Wild Ass, Asian Wild Ass, Indian onager or,
Ghudkhur and Khur (Gujarati language)
• Habitat: Western India, southern Pakistan (i.e. provinces of Sindh
and Baluchistan), Afghanistan, and south-eastern Iran.
• Conservation Status:
• IUCN: currently listed as Near Threatened (Earlier it was listed
under Endangered Category)
Q.231 What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru? [2012]
(a) Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas w hereas Chiru is adapted to live in
steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains.
(b) Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached for its musk.

(c) Oryx exists in western India only whereas Chiru exists in north-east India only.
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct.
Answer: (a)
Option (a) is correct:
The Chiru, or Tibetan Antelope, is adapted to the cold, high -altitude regions of the
Tibetan
Plateau, steppes, and semi -desert areas. These regions are ch aracterized by cold
temperatures and sparse vegetation. Chiru is well -suited to survive in these challenging
environments. It is primarily poached for its fine wool, known as Shahtoosh rather than
for
musk.
Oryx is a type of antelope that is adapted to hot, arid, and desert regions, such as the
Thar
Desert in western India and regions in Africa. These antelopes are well -suited to
extreme
heat and dryness due to their ability to survive with very little water, and they often thrive
in desert environments. It is poached for its horns and meat.

Q.232 Consider the following: [2012]
1. Black-necked crane
2. Cheetah
3. Flying Squirrel
4. Snow Leopard
Which of the above are naturally found in India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Solution : (b)
Exp: Option 1 is correct : Black-necked crane is a state bird of Ladakh. It is found in
northeastern
Ladakh and some parts of Himalayan foothills in India. It is endemic to the Tibetan
Plateau
and migrates to India during the winter months. It is listed as vulnerable and is
considered
an important species for conservation.

Option 2 is incorrect : The Cheetah was historically found in India but was declared
extinct
in India in the 1950s due to hunting and hab itat loss. However, the species is now being
reintroduced in India, especially in Kuno National Park, Madhya Pradesh.
Statement 3 is correct : In India, most of these species are found in the eastern
Himalayas
and the north- east, at the confluence of two biogeographically significant regions, the
Himalayan and the Indo-Malayan regions. These arboreal mammals are adapted to glide
between trees in search of food.
Statement 4 is correct : The Snow Leopard is found in high -altitude regions of Himachal
Pradesh, Ladakh, and parts of Uttarakhand and Sikkim. It is classified as vulnerable and
is
an apex predator in cold mountain ecosystems.

Q.233 Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area?
[2012]
1. Global warming
2. Fragmentation of habitat
3. Invasion of alien species
4. Promotion of vegetarianism
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer:(a)
Exp: Option 1 is correct: Rising temperatures are affecting biodiversity. Global warming
induced
climate change is causing changing rainfall patterns, extreme weather events, and
ocean
acidification. These are putting pressure on species already threatened by other human
activities.
Option 2 is correct: Mammals and birds that require large territories as well as animals
with migratory habitat are adversely affected by fragmentation of habitat. This results in
population decline.
Option 3 is correct: Invasive alien species are animals, plants, fungi and
microorganisms
entered and established in the environment from outside of their natural habitat. They
reproduce rapidly, out-compete native species for food, water and space, and are one of
the main causes of global biodiversity loss.
Option 4 is incorrect: Promotion of vegetarianism is not a cause for the loss or threat of
biodiversity.
Q.234 A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an Indian animal species. The
animal

has no predators in that area but its existence is threatene d due to the destruction of its
habitat. Which one of the following could be that animal ? [2011]
(a) Indian wild buffalo (b) Indian wild ass
(c) Indian wild boar (d) Indian gazelle
Answer: (b)
Exp: The Indian wild ass also known as the Ghudkhur, is nat ive to the Rann of Kutch in
Gujarat,
India. This region is characterized by sandy and saline desert conditions, which are the
natural habitat of the Indian wild ass. The species has no natural predators in this area,
but its survival is threatened due to h abitat destruction, human encroachment, and
competition for resources. It is listed under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act of
1972 .
Listed as Near Threatened in the IUCN’s Red List of Threatened Species.
Options (a), (c) and (d) are incorrect. Th e Indian wild buffalo(IUCN Endangered)
prefers
wetland and grassland habitats. The Indian wild boar is found in a variety of habitats,
including forests and grasslands. The Indian gazelle (chinkara) inhabits arid and semi -
arid regions.
10. MISCELLANEOUS
Q.235 Consider the following materials: [2024]
1. Agricultural residues
2. Corn grain
3. Wastewater treatment sludge
4. Wood mill waste
Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation
Fuel?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Ans: (c)
Exp: Sustainable aviation fuel (SAF), hydrogen and electric all have a role to play in the
decarbonization of aviation. SAF is vitally important as it can address decarbonization of
fuel over its lifecycle, and this is now available to be used in all turbine engines including
in mid and long-range aircraft. Therefore, understanding the feedstock landscape as well
as the technology pathways is integral to maximising the production and supply of SAF.
The production of SAF starts with one of five main families of raw materials:
● Corn grain
● Oil seeds
● Algae
● Other fats, oils, and greases
● Agricultural residues
● Forestry residues
● Wood mill waste
● Municipal solid waste streams

● Wet wastes (manures, wastewater treatment sludge)
● Dedicated energy crops.
Q.236 Consider the following: [2024]
1. Battery storage 2. Biomass generators
3. Fuel cells 4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units
How many of the above are considered “Distributed Energy Resources”?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four
Ans: (d)
Exp: Distributed energy resources, or DERs, are small -scale energy systems that power
a
nearby location. DERs can be connected to electric grids or isolated, with energy flowing
only to specific sites or functions. DERs include both energy generation technologies
and
energy storage systems.
When energy generation occurs through distributed energy resources, it is referred to
as
distributed generation. Examples of distributed energy resources that can be installed
include:
● Roof top solar photovoltaic units
● Wind generating units
● Battery storage
● Batteries in electric vehicles used to export power back to the grid
● Combined heat and power units, or tri -generation units that also utilise waste heat
to provide cooling
● Biomass generators, which are fuelled with waste gas or industrial and agricultural
by-products.
● Open and closed cycle gas turbines
● Reciprocating engines (diesel, oil)
● Hydro and mini-hydro schemes
● Fuel cells.
Q.237 Consider the following statements: [2023]
Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its
electricity production.
Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the
production
of electricity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement- I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II is the correct
explanation for Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement -II are correct and Statement -II is not the correct

explanation for Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct
Answer: (c)
Exp: Statement-I is correct: Although India has significant uranium deposits, its reliance
on
coal for electricity production is higher compared to uranium. It constitutes 55% of the
nation’s energy requirements.
Statement-II is incorrect: For electricity generation, uranium enrichment to a level of 3 to
5
percent of the Uranium (235) isotope is necessary. Research reactors utilise uranium
enriched to a minimum concentration of 20%. Uranium enriched to at least 90% is
classified as weapons-grade uranium.

Q.238 Consider the following infrastructure sectors: [2023]
1. Affordable housing
2. Mass rapid transport
3. Health care
4. Renewable energy
On how many of the above does the UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure
and
Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?
(a) Only one (b) Only two
(c) Only three (d) All four
Answer: (c)

Exp: Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct: The UNOPS Sustainable Investments in
Infrastructure
and Innovation (S3i) initiative was introduced in 2015 as a pilot project to investigate
inventive approaches to financing sustainable infrastructure endeavours in developing
nations. The initiative sought to capitalise on UNOPS’ proficiency and track record in
providing infrastructure solutions that align with the requirements and ambitions of
individuals and communities. The S3i initiative provides i nitial funding for significant
projects in affordable housing, renewable energy, and health infrastructure. It does not
emphasise investments in mass rapid transport infrastructure.

Q.239 'R2 Code of Practices' constitutes a tool available for promoting the adoption of:
[2021]
(a) environmentally responsible practices in electronics recycling industry
(b) ecological management of Wetlands of International Importance under the Ramsar
Convention
(c) sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands
(d) ‘Environmental Impact Assessment’ in the exploitation of natural resources
Answer: (a)
Exp: Option (a) is correct: The R2 Code of Practices (R2 Standard) is a set of guidelines
designed to promote environmentally responsible pr actices in the electronics recycling
industry. It provides a framework for recyclers to ensure that electronic waste (e-waste)
is
managed in a way that protects human health, safety, and the environment. The R2
Standard covers areas such as:
● Safe handling and disposal of hazardous materials.
● Data security and destruction.
● Worker health and safety.
● Environmental responsibility.
Q.240 Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of
Himalayan nettle (Gir ardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source
of: [2019]
(a) anti-malarial drug (b) biodiesel
(c) pulp for paper industry (d) textile fibre
Answer: (d)
Exp: Option (d) is correct : The Himalayan nettle has gained attention as a sus tainable
source
of textile fibre. The fibres extracted from the stems of this plant are strong, durable, and
eco-friendly, making them suitable for producing textiles. This has significant potential for
promoting sustainable livelihoods in rural and mounta inous regions, especially in the
Himalayas.
Option (a),(b) and (c) are incorrect :
● Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) is not known for its use as an anti- malarial

drug. Anti -malarial drugs are derived from plants like Artemisia annua (source of
artemisinin) or Cinchona officinalis (source of quinine).
● Himalayan nettle is not recognized as a source of biodiesel. Biodiesel is usually
derived from oil-rich plants like Jatropha, Pongamia, or algae.
● While Himalayan nettle is a fibrous plant but it is not widely used as a source of pulp
for the paper industry. The paper industry primarily relies on wood pulp from trees
like Eucalyptus, Bamboo, or agricultural residues like wheat straw and bagasse.
Q.241 With reference to Forest Carbon Partnership Facility, which of the following
statements
is/are correct? [2015]
1. It is a global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society and indigenous
peoples.
2. It provides financial aid to universities, individual scientists and institutions involved
in scientific forestry research to develop eco -friendly and climate adaptation
technologies for sustainable forest management.
3. It assists the countries in their 'REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and
Forest Degradation+)' efforts by prov iding them with financial and technical
assistance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (c)
Exp: Statement 1 is correct: The Forest Carbon Partnership Facility (FCPF) is a global
partnership that includes governments, businesses, civil society organizations, and
indigenous peoples. It was established to support efforts to reduce emissions from
deforestation and forest degradation (REDD+).
Statement 2 is incorrect: Th e FCPF does not provide financial aid to universities,
individual
scientists, or institutions for scientific forestry research. Instead, it focuses on providing
financial and technical assistance to countries for REDD+ readiness and
implementation.
The FCP F supports REDD+ efforts through two separate but complementary funds -
The
FCPF Readiness Fund and The FCPF Carbon Fund.
Statement 3 is correct: The FCPF assists countries in their REDD+ efforts by providing
financial and technical assistance. This includ es helping countries prepare for REDD+
implementation, develop national strategies, and build capacity for monitoring, reporting,
and verification (MRV) of forest carbon emissions.
Q.242 BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes' is managed by the:
[2015]
(a) Asian Development Bank
(b) International Monetary Fund

(c) United Nations Environment Programme
(d) World Bank
Answer: (d)
Exp: The BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes (ISFL) is
managed by the
World Bank. This initiative aims to reduce greenhouse gas emissions from deforestation
and forest degradation in developing countries, promoting sustainable land -use
practices. It seeks to promote reduced greenhouse gas emissions from the land sector,
from deforestat ion and forest degradation in developing countries (REDD+), and from
sustainable agriculture, as well as smarter land-use planning, policies and practices.
Additional Information:
1. World Bank
● Headquarters: Washington, D.C., USA.
● Established: July 1944 during the Bretton Woods Conference.
● Purpose: Provides loans and grants to governments of poorer countries for capital
projects.
● World Bank Group:
○ International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
○ International Development Association (IDA)
○ International Finance Corporation (IFC)December
○ Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA)
○ International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID).
2. Asian Development Bank (ADB)
● Established: December, 1966
● Headquarters: Manila, Philippines
● Objective: Promotes social and economic development in Asia, striving for a
prosperous, inclusive, resilient, and sustainable region while working to eradicate
extreme poverty.
3. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
● Established: 1944, Articles of Agreement came into force in December 1945.
● Headquarters: Washington, D.C., USA
● Purpose: Ensures the stability of the international monetary system by facilitating
global monetary cooperation, securing financial stability, and promoting sustainable
economic growth.
4. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
● Headquarters: Nairobi, Kenya
● Role: Coordinates the UN’s environmental activities and supports developing
countries in adopting environmentally sustainable policies and practices.
Q.243 If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to
a
tropical deciduous forest. This is because: [2011]
(a) the soil of rain forest is deficient in nutrients

(b) propagules of the trees in a rain forest have poor viability
(c) the rain forest species are slow- growing
(d) exotic species invade the fertile soil of rain forest
Answer: (a)
Exp: Tropical rainforests have highly weathered soils that are often nutrient -poor due to
continuous leac hing caused by heavy rainfall. Most of the nutrients in a rainforest
ecosystem are stored in the biomass (trees, plants, and decomposing organic matter)
rather than in the soil. When a rainforest is removed, the nutrient cycle is disrupted, and
the exposed soil quickly loses its fertility, making regeneration difficult.
In contrast, tropical deciduous forests have soils that are richer in nutrients due to
seasonal shedding of leaves, which decompose and return nutrients to the soil. This
makes them regenerate more quickly after disturbance.
Q.244 As a result of their annual survey, the National Geographic Society and an
international
polling firm Globe Scan gave India top rank in Greendex 2009 score. What is this score?
[2010]
(a) It is a measure of effor ts made by different countries in adopting technologies for
reducing carbon footprint.
(b) It is a measure of environmentally sustainable consumer behaviour in different
countries.
(c) It is an assessment of programmes/ schemes undertaken by different co untries for
improving the conservation of natural resources.
(d) It is an index showing the volume of carbon credits sold by different countries.
Answer: (b)
Exp: In the Greendex 2009 report, India was ranked top in the world . The Greendex is a
measure o f consumer environmental behaviors, which was created by the National
Geographic Society in collaboration with the international polling firm GlobeScan. The
score reflects how environmentally responsible the population of a country is based on
their consum er behavior, such as their attitudes and actions towards sustainability,
including energy usage, waste management, and preferences for eco -friendly products.
India's top rank in Greendex 2009 highlighted the eco- friendly practices and sustainable
consumption behaviors prevalent among Indian consumers compared to other nations.
Q.245 Where was the World Summit on Sustainable Development (Rio+10) held? [2008]
(a) Davos (b) Nova Scotia
(c) Johannesburg (d) Shanghai
Answer: (c)
Exp: The World Summit on Sustainable Development (WSSD), also known as Rio+10,
was held in
Johannesburg, South Africa, in 2002. This summit marked the 10th anniversary of the
Earth
Summit held in Rio de Janeiro, in 1992.

The WSSD focused on sustainable development issues, including poverty alleviation,
environmental conservation, and the promotion of sustainable practices worldwide.
In 1992, the Earth Summit (United Nations Conference on Environment and
Development)
was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. It resulted in key outcomes suc h as the Rio
Declaration,
Agenda 21, and the establishment of the Convention on Biological Diversity and the UN
Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
Q.246 Due to their extensive rice cultivation, some regions may be contributing to global
warming. To what possible reason/ reasons is this attributable ? [2010]
1. The anaerobic conditions associated with rice cultivation cause the emission of
methane.
2. When nitrogen based fertilizers are used, nitrous oxide is emitted from the cultivated
soil.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (c)
Exp: Statement 1 is correct. Methane, a potent greenhouse gas, is released during rice
cultivation as flooded paddies creat e anaerobic conditions, promoting methane -
producing microorganisms. This makes rice farming a major source of methane
emissions.
Statement 2 is correct. Nitrous oxide, a potent greenhouse gas, is emitted when nitrogen
fertilizers in soil undergo denitrification, converting unused nitrate into nitrous oxide. This
gas escapes into the atmosphere, contributing to global warming.

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