NDA Previous Year Question paper 2019 -II
PART – A**
**Directions (For the 10 items which follow):**
(i) In this section, a number of sentences are given. The sentences are underlined in three separate parts and each one is labelled (a), (b), (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is an error in any underlined part. No sentence has more than one error. When you find an error in any one of the underlined parts (a), (b) or (c), indicate your responses on the Answer Sheet at the appropriate space. You may feel that there is no error in a sentence. In that case, (d) will signify a ‘No error’ response.
(ii) Errors may be in grammar, word usage or idioms. There may be a word missing or there may be a word which should be removed.
(iii) You are not required to correct the error. You are required only to indicate your response on the answer sheet.
1. None of the applicants have turned up for the interview on time. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2. Her mother did not reply when I asked her why was she weeping. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
3. The oxygen content of Mars is not sufficient enough to support life as we know it.
(a) (b) (c) No error.
(d)
4. He told his friends that each of them should be able to carry out the orders oneself.
(a) (b) (c) No error.
(d)
5. If the police would have worked in time the riot would not have occurred. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
6. The flag is risen in the morning and taken down at night by the guards. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7. I have seen him going to the theatre with his friends yesterday evening. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
8. He was charged of murder though the evidence did everything to convince the judge of his innocence. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
9. Neither he nor his brother is a good student but both are good players. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
10. He has taken charge as principal of our college three years ago. No error.
(a) (b) (c) (d)
**Directions (For the 10 items which follow):**
Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select the synonym of the word or words (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context.
11. MOMENTOUS changes are taking place in the social and economic life of India.
(a) notorious
(b) momentary
(c) official
(d) enormous
12. His condition DETERIORATED day by day.
(a) went bad
(b) grew worse
(c) went down
(d) grew bad
13. She is pretty INSIPID young lady.
(a) clever
(b) lazy
(c) dull
(d) lean
14. It is the difficulty or SCARCITY of a thing that it makes it precious.
(a) poverty
(b) absence
(c) insufficiency
(d) disappearance
15. We should not allow ADVERSITY to discourage us.
(a) poverty
(b) darkness
(c) time of trouble
(d) unfriendly criticism
16. He is very OBLIGING by nature.
(a) helpful
(b) nice
(c) thankful
(d) compelling
17. She thought that RUNNING INTO her old friend was a stroke of fate.
(a) meeting by chance
(b) colliding
(c) travelling with
(d) quarrelling with
18. He was a CHARISMATIC leader.
(a) exceptionally fascinating
(b) particularly popular
(c) compulsively pleasant
(d) strangely haunting
19. She was completely ENGROSSED in her work.
(a) disturbed
(b) absorbed
(c) fatigued
(d) successful
20. He is an INDEFATIGABLE worker.
(a) tired
(b) tireless
(c) brave
(d) skilful
**Directions (For the 10 items which follow):**
Each of the following items consists of a sentence followed by four words or group of words. Select the antonym of the word or words (occurring in the sentence in capital letters) as per the context.
21. A small ALTERCATION between the children started off a riot.
(a) quarrel
(b) friendly discussion
(c) contest
(d) race
22. He agreed reluctantly to sign the form but looked ILL AT EASE.
(a) embarrassed
(b) comfortable
(c) welcome
(d) easy
23. My mother has been working hard for the last two weeks and she feels RUN DOWN.
(a) energetic
(b) cold
(c) emotional
(d) morbid
24. The three states signed a pact to have COLLECTIVE economy.
(a) distributive
(b) disintegrative
(c) individual
(d) divided
25. He was deeply hurt by her CURT reply.
(a) abrupt
(b) short
(c) expansive
(d) rude
26. He was asked to ACCELERATE the pace of work.
(a) check
(b) control
(c) slacken
(d) supervise
27. The child was ABDUCTED when he was going to school.
(a) seized
(b) set free
(c) kidnapped
(d) ransomed
28. The baby has a very DELICATE body.
(a) crude
(b) strong
(c) hard
(d) bony
29. The government has ENHANCED the tuition fees in schools and colleges.
(a) magnified
(b) aggravated
(c) decreased
(d) augmented
30. He aims at PERFECTION in whatever job he undertakes.
(a) deficiency
(b) immaturity
(c) badness
(d) completeness
**Directions (For the 12 items which follow):**
In the following sentences, some parts of the sentences have been jumbled up. You are required to rearrange these parts which are labelled P, Q, R, S to produce the correct sentence. Choose the proper sequence and mark in your answer sheet accordingly.
31. he had ‘no’ to him such a winning smile that I could not say
P Q R S
The correct sequence should be
(a) Q P R S
(b) R P Q S
(c) S P Q R
(d) P R S Q
32. he nodded he understood as though everything
P Q R S
The correct sequence should be
(a) P R Q S
(b) P S Q R
(c) Q R S P
(d) S P R Q
33. the child burned down the house by playing with matches
P Q R S
The correct sequence should be
(a) R S P Q
(b) Q S P R
(c) R P S Q
(d) Q P S R
34. in his innocence I believed of the charge and acquittal
P Q R S
The correct sequence should be
(a) S Q R P
(b) Q P S R
(c) P R S Q
(d) R P Q S
35. My little sister in school instead of reading books who was quite intelligent played with dolls
P Q R S
The correct sequence should be
(a) P R S Q
(b) R S P Q
(c) Q P S R
(d) P R Q S
36. for having stood first last year at the B.A. examination he was awarded gold medal
P Q R S
The correct sequence should be
(a) P Q R S
(b) S P R Q
(c) P R Q S
(d) S R Q P
37. We are proud that as our chief guest our Mayor is a former student of this college who is presiding over today’s function
P Q R S
The correct sequence should be
(a) P Q R S
(b) Q P S R
(c) P Q S R
(d) Q S P R
38. At the end of the morning exercise, the soldiers to get ready to leave were asked for an unknown destination
P Q R S
The correct sequence should be
(a) P Q R S
(b) R S P Q
(c) S R Q P
(d) P R Q S
39. After having got up from bed the Magistrate to bring coffee ordered the attendant immediately
P Q R S
The correct sequence should be
(a) P Q R S
(b) S P Q R
(c) S P R Q
(d) P R Q S
40. to resolve it than it is easier to talk about a problem
P Q R S
The correct sequence should be
(a) R P Q S
(b) Q P R S
(c) P Q S R
(d) R S Q P
41. to my client that I speak immediately it is important
P Q R S
The correct sequence should be
(a) S R Q P
(b) S Q P R
(c) S P Q R
(d) P S Q R
42. You had better of getting a good response so that we will be sure work hard
P Q R S
The correct sequence should be
(a) R S Q P
(b) S Q R P
(c) S Q P R
(d) R P Q S
**Directions (For the next 08 items which follow):**
Read the following 02 passages and answer the questions that follow each passage :
**PASSAGE I**
There was a farewell ceremony on her last day at school, to which my parents and I were invited. It was a touching ceremony in a solemn kind of way. The City Corporation sent a representative and so did the two main political parties. There were many speeches and my grandmother was garlanded by a girl from every class. Then the head-girl, a particular favourite of hers, unveiled the farewell present the girls had bought for her by subscription. It was a large marble model of the Taj Mahal; it had a bulb inside and could be lit up like a table lamp. My grandmother made a speech too, but she couldn’t finish it properly, for she began to cry before she got to the end of it and to stop to wipe away her tears. I turned away when she began dabbing at her eyes with a huge green handkerchief, and discovered, to my surprise, that many of the girls sitting around me were wiping their eyes too. I was very jealous, I remember. I had always taken it for granted that it was my own special right to love her; I did not know how to cope with the discovery that my right had been infringed by a whole school.
43. The farewell ceremony described in the passage is for the
(a) author’s mother used to teach at his/her school
(b) mother of head-girl teaching at her school
(c) grandmother of head-girl no longer teaching at her school
(d) grandmother of the author who used to teach at his/her school
44. The farewell ceremony made everyone feel
(a) sad
(b) unhappy
(c) happy
(d) bad
45. Before the writer attended the ceremony he/she had thought
(a) he/she was the only child who loved his/her grandmother
(b) all the girls in the school loved his/her grandmother
(c) only a few girls in the school loved his/her grandmother
(d) only his/her parents loved his/her grandmother
**PASSAGE II**
It is no doubt true that we cannot go through life without sorrow. There can be no sunshine without shadow, we must not complain that roses have thorns but rather be grateful that thorns bear flowers. Our existence here is so complex that we must expect much sorrow and suffering. Yet it is certain that no man was ever discontented with the world who did his duty in it. The world is like a looking glass; if you smile, it smiles; if you frown, it frowns back. Always try, then, to look at the bright side of things. There are some persons whose very presence seems like a ray of sunshine and brightens the whole room. Life has been described as a comedy to those who think and a tragedy to those who feel.
46. The author says that we cannot go through life without sorrow because
(a) it is our fate
(b) we are always discontented
(c) life is a tragedy
(d) human life is very complex
47. According to the author no man can be discontented with the world if he
(a) is determined to be happy
(b) is sincere in discharging his duties
(c) has a healthy attitude to life
(d) likes sunshine
48. The expression “life is a tragedy to those who feel” means that it is a tragedy to those who
(a) think about the world
(b) believe in fate
(c) do not understand the world
(d) are sensitive and emotional
49. The author says, “There are some persons whose very presence seems like a ray of sunshine and brightens the whole room”. The reason for this is that they
(a) have the capacity to love
(b) talk more of roses and less of thorns
(c) are happy and spread happiness
(d) look good and behave well
50. What is the author’s message in this passage ?
(a) Look at the bright side of things
(b) Our existence is so complex
(c) The world is a looking glass
(d) Expect much sorrow and suffering
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**PART – B**
**Directions :** The following Two (02) items consist of two statements, statement I and statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below :
**Code :**
(a) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I
(c) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but statement II is true
51. Statement I : Red blood cells burst when placed in water.
Statement II : Due to the phenomenon of osmosis water enters into red blood cells.
52. Statement I : Indigo formed the basis of a flourishing sector of commercial agriculture by the beginning of the 19th century.
Statement II : The Indigo Commission was set up to enquire into the grievances of the indigo cultivators in 1860.
53. Which one among the following water-borne diseases is not caused by a bacteria ?
(a) Cholera
(b) Typhoid
(c) Bacillary dysentery
(d) Hepatitis A
54. The process of conventional earlobe piercing does not lead to bleeding. This is because the
(a) heart does not supply blood to earlobes
(b) cartilage found in earlobe has lesser blood supply unlike other body parts
(c) earlobes consist of dead non-dividing tissue
(d) needle used for ear piercing is sterilized
55. After entering the human body through mosquito bite, the malarial parasite (plasmodium) shows initial multiplication in
(a) Spinal chord
(b) Blood
(c) Liver
(d) Spleen
56. Which one among the following parts of blood carries out the function of body defence ?
(a) Platelets
(b) White Blood Cells
(c) Haemoglobin
(d) Red Blood Cells
57. Which one among the following is not included in the major clinical sign as a case definition of AIDS in children < 12 years of age ?
(a) Persistent cough for more than 1 month
(b) Loss of weight
(c) Chronic diarrhoea
(d) Prolonged fever
58. Polio disease is caused by
(a) Bacteria
(b) Fungi
(c) Virus
(d) Worm
59. Which one among the following is the hardest part of our body ?
(a) Skull bones of head
(b) Thumb nails
(c) Enamel of teeth
(d) Spinal vertebra
60. Which of the following group is present in animal cells ?
(a) Mitochondria, Cell membrane, Cell wall, Cytoplasm
(b) Chloroplasts, Cytoplasm, Vacuole, Nucleus
(c) Nucleus, Cell membrane, Mitochondria, Cytoplasm
(d) Vacuole, Cell membrane, Nucleus, Mitochondria
61. Which one among the following statements is correct ?
In digestive system of living organisms
(a) glucose is broken down into glycerol
(b) glucose is converted into glycogen
(c) glucose is broken down into carbon dioxide and water
(d) proteins are broken down into amino acids
62. Which one among the following rocks does not belong to the same group ?
(a) Shale
(b) Limestone
(c) Slate
(d) Sandstone
63. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List I (World Heritage Site) List II (State)
A. Brihadisvara Temple 1. Maharashtra
B. Ellora Caves 2. Karnataka
C. Hampi 3. Tamil Nadu
D. Mahabodhi Temple 4. Bihar
Code :
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 3 1 2 4
64. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List I (Himalayan Peak) List II (State)
A. K2 1. Uttarakhand
B. Nanda Devi 2. Jammu & Kashmir
C. Tara Pahar 3. Sikkim
D. Kanchenjunga 4. Himachal Pradesh
Code :
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 3 4 1 2
65. The Deccan Trap Formation was caused by
(a) Shield eruption
(b) Composite eruption
(c) Caldera eruption
(d) Flood basalt eruption
66. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone is a low pressure belt which forms an important zone of contact over Northern India and Pakistan.
2. Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone invites inflow of winds from different directions.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
67. Consider the following characteristics of industries :
1. They can be located in a wide variety of places.
2. They are not dependent on any specific raw material.
3. They are generally not polluting industries.
4. The most important factor in their location is accessibility.
Which one of the following types of industries has the above characteristics ?
(a) Market oriented
(b) Foot loose
(c) Sunset
(d) Sunrise
68. Consider the following statements regarding El Nino effect on Indian Monsoon :
1. The surface temperature goes up in the Southern Pacific Ocean and there is deficient rainfall in India.
2. The Walker Circulation shifts eastward from its normal position and reduces monsoon rainfall in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
69. In which among the following terrains the bore wells and canals can be dug easily ?
(a) Gneiss, granites and basaltic terrain of Peninsular India
(b) Rolling and dotted hilly terrain of North-East India
(c) Soft alluvium of the Northern Plains
(d) Confined aquifer below the normal water table
70. Wide range and variability in rainfall, torrential in character, reversal of winds and uncertain arrival are the characteristics of
(a) Westerlies
(b) Trade winds
(c) Monsoon
(d) Anti trade winds
71. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. The local time of Itanagar (Arunachal Pradesh) is about two hours ahead than Dwarka (Gujarat).
2. The local time at Chennai (Tamil Nadu) and Lucknow (Uttar Pradesh) is almost same.
3. The local time of Mumbai (Maharashtra) is one hour ahead than Kolkata (West Bengal).
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
72. Mackeral sky is associated with cloud type
(a) Cumulo-nimbus
(b) Strato-cumulus
(c) Alto-cumulus
(d) Cirro-cumulus
73. The average surface temperature of the earth’s surface is
(a) 10°C
(b) 15°C
(c) 8°C
(d) 5°C
74. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List I (Atomic power station) List II (Position in map)
A. Narora
B. Rana Pratap Sagar
C. Tarapur
D. Kalpakkam
(Map of India with points 1, 2, 3, 4)
Code :
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 1 4 3 2
75. Ferral’s law is related to deflection of
(a) cold air-mass
(b) hot air-mass
(c) monsoon air-mass
(d) trade wind and ocean currents
76. The grassland region of South Africa is known as
(a) Selvas
(b) Downs
(c) Veldt
(d) Llanos
77. In India, the Tropical Savanah (AW) type of climate prevails largely in
(a) Rajasthan desert region
(b) Peninsular plateau region
(c) Jammu & Kashmir region
(d) North-Eastern region
78. The Nokrek biosphere reserve is located in
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Assam
(c) Sikkim
(d) Meghalaya
79. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List I (Place) List II (Industry)
A. Jabalpur 1. Petro-chemical
B. Bengaluru 2. Information technology
C. Modinagar 3. Paper
D. Ballarpur 4. Automobile
Code :
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 4 2 1 3
80. Where is Aghil Pass located ?
(a) Nepal Himalayas
(b) Sikkim Himalayas
(c) Eastern Himalayas
(d) Trans Himalayas
81. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List I (River) List II (Sea)
A. Volga 1. Sea of Azov
B. Dnieper 2. Black Sea
C. Rhine 3. Caspian Sea
D. Don 4. Mediterranean Sea
Code :
A B C D
(a) 1 4 2 3
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 3 4 2 1
82. Which one among the following transitions is associated with the largest change in energy in hydrogen atom ?
(a) n = 5 to n = 3
(b) n = 2 to n = 1
(c) n = 3 to n = 2
(d) n = 4 to n = 2
83. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List I (Compound) List II (Use)
A. Cellulose nitrate 1. Soft soap
B. Potassium sulphate 2. Gun powder
C. Potassium salt of fatty acids 3. Fertilizer
D. Calcium oxide 4. Glass
Code :
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 4 3 1 2
84. Which one among the following does not have an allotrope ?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Sulphur
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Carbon
85. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List I (Scientist) List II (Discovery)
A. Goldstein 1. Atomic theory
B. Chadwick 2. Proton
C. JJ Thomson 3. Neutron
D. John Dalton 4. Electron
Code :
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 1 3 4 2
86. Consider the following statements :
1. Diamond is hard and graphite is soft.
2. Diamond is soft and graphite is hard.
3. Diamond is a bad conductor but graphite is a good conductor.
4. Diamond is a good conductor but graphite is a bad conductor.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
87. The most important raw materials used in the manufacture of cement are
(a) Potassium nitrate, charcoal and sulphur
(b) Limestone, clay and gypsum
(c) Transition metal oxides, sodium hydroxide or potassium hydroxide
(d) Limestone, sodium carbonate and silica
88. Which one among the following equations is correctly balanced ?
(a) NaOH + Al + H₂O → 2H₂ + NaAlO₂
(b) 2NaOH + 2Al + 2H₂O → 3H₂ + 2NaAlO₂
(c) 2NaOH + 2Al + 3H₂O → 4H₂ + 2NaAlO₂
(d) 2NaOH + 2Al + H₂O → H₂ + 2NaAlO₂
89. Three elements Na, S and O combine to form a compound Na₂SO₃. What is the valency of S in this compound ?
(a) 2+
(b) 4+
(c) 6+
(d) 8+
90. Which one among the following is the equivalent weight of sulphuric acid ?
(Atomic weight : H = 1, S = 32, O = 16)
(a) 98
(b) 60
(c) 100
(d) 49
91. Deionised water is produced by
(a) Calgon process
(b) ion-exchange resin process
(c) Clark’s process
(d) permutit process
92. Which one among the following is a double salt ?
(a) K₄[Fe(CN)₆]
(b) K₂SO₄·Al₂(SO₄)₃·24H₂O
(c) CuSO₄·5H₂O
(d) NaCl
93. Which one among the following is the correct order of strength of acids ?
(a) H₂SO₄ > H₃PO₃ > CH₃COOH
(b) H₃PO₃ > H₂SO₄ > CH₃COOH
(c) CH₃COOH > H₃PO₃ > H₂SO₄
(d) CH₃COOH > H₂SO₄ > H₃PO₃
94. Given below is an approximate composition of a substance :
CaO 60-70%
SiO₂ 20-25%
Al₂O₃ 5-10%
Fe₂O₃ 2-3%
The substance is
(a) Plaster of Paris
(b) Cement
(c) Marble stone
(d) Quartz
95. In KMnO₄ molecule, the oxidation states of the elements Potassium (K), Manganese (Mn) and Oxygen (O) are respectively
(a) +1, +5, -2
(b) +1, +7, -2
(c) 0, 0, 0
(d) +1, +7, 0
96. Air is
(a) always a compound
(b) always a mixture
(c) a compound in pollution free zones
(d) a mixture in industrial zones
97. Consider the following figure :
(Potential Energy vs Position graph with points A, B, C, D)
Which of the following labelled points in the figure given above indicate unstable state of an object ?
(a) Point A only
(b) Point B only
(c) Points A and C
(d) Points B and D
98. Which one among the following is an electrochemical cell that cannot be charged ?
(a) Electrolytic cell
(b) Storage cell
(c) Primary cell
(d) Fuel cell
99. Which one among the following is the correct order of power consumption for light of equal intensity ?
(a) CFL tube < Fluorescent tube < Incandescent bulb < Light emitting diode
(b) Light emitting diode < CFL tube < Fluorescent tube < Incandescent bulb
(c) CFL tube < Fluorescent tube < Light emitting diode < Incandescent bulb
(d) Incandescent bulb < Light emitting diode < Fluorescent tube < CFL tube
100. One feels heavier in a lift when the lift
(a) is going down steadily
(b) just begins to go up
(c) is moving up steadily
(d) descends freely
101. A swinging pendulum has its maximum acceleration at
(a) the bottom of the swing
(b) the two extremities of the swing
(c) every point on the swing
(d) no particular portion of the pendulum
102. Which one among the following statements about thermal conductivity is correct ?
(a) Steel > Wood > Water
(b) Steel > Water > Wood
(c) Water > Steel > Wood
(d) Water > Wood > Steel
103. The process of nuclear fusion in the sun requires
(a) very high temperature and very high pressure
(b) low temperature and high pressure
(c) high temperature and low pressure
(d) very high temperature and no pressure
104. Which one among the following is the true representation of (i) variable DC potential (ii) rheostat and (iii) AC ammeter respectively ?
(Options with circuit symbols)
105. In India, distribution of electricity for domestic purpose is done in the form of
(a) 220 V; 50 Hz
(b) 110 V; 60 Hz
(c) 220 V; 60 Hz
(d) 110 V; 50 Hz
106. The earth’s magnetic field is approximately
(a) 1 Tesla
(b) 2 Gauss
(c) 10⁴ Tesla
(d) 1 Gauss
107. Yellow colour light is used as fog light because yellow colour
(a) light is most scattered by fog
(b) has the longest wavelength among all colours
(c) has the longest wavelength among all colours except red and orange but the red colour is already used for brake light and stop light whereas orange colour is avoided due to its similarity with red
(d) has the shortest wavelength among all colours not already reserved for other purpose
108. A hot object loses heat to its surroundings in the form of heat radiation. The rate of loss of heat depends on the
(a) temperature of the object
(b) temperature of the surroundings
(c) temperature difference between the object and its surroundings
(d) average temperature of the object and its surroundings
109. The mirror used for the head light of a car is
(a) spherical concave
(b) plane
(c) cylindrical
(d) parabolic concave
110. An iron ball and a wooden ball of the same radius are released from a height ‘H’ in vacuum. The time taken to reach the ground will be
(a) more for the iron ball
(b) more for the wooden ball
(c) equal for both
(d) in the ratio of their weights
111. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List I (Magnet) List II (Property)
A. Artificial magnet 1. Long lived
B. Permanent magnet 2. Last for infinitely long period
C. Temporary magnet 3. Short lived
D. Earth as a magnet 4. Induced magnet
Code :
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 2 4 1 3
112. A body weighs 5 kg on equator. At the poles it is likely to weigh
(a) 5 kg
(b) less than 5 kg but not zero
(c) 0 kg
(d) more than 5 kg
113. The polarity of an unmarked horse shoe magnet can be determined by using
(a) a charged glass rod
(b) a magnetic compass
(c) an electroscope
(d) another unmarked bar magnet
114. A staircase has 5 steps each 10 cm high and 10 cm wide. What is the minimum horizontal velocity to be given to the ball so that it hits directly the lowest plane from the top of the staircase ?
(g = 10 ms⁻²)
(a) 2 ms⁻¹
(b) 1 ms⁻¹
(c) √2 ms⁻¹
(d) ½ ms⁻¹
115. Consider the following statements :
1. If a piece of bar magnet is broken into two equally long pieces, the pieces will not lose the magnetic properties.
2. Magnetic properties of a substance lie in the atomic level.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
116. Consider the following circuit :
(3Ω resistors in parallel with 6V source)
The current flowing through each of the resistors connected in the above circuit is
(a) 2 A
(b) 1 A
(c) 0.5 A
(d) 4 A
117. Consider the following statements :
The state government shall appoint a Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats and to make recommendations as to
1. the distribution between the state and Panchayats of the net proceeds of taxes, tolls and fees leviable by the states.
2. the determination of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees which may be assigned to the Panchayats.
3. the principles that will determine grant-in-aid to the Panchayats.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
118. Which one among the following monuments was earlier known as ‘All India War Memorial’ ?
(a) Gateway of India
(b) India Gate
(c) Charminar
(d) Lal Quila
119. Which of the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Constitution of India is/are correct ?
1. The Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution.
2. The words ‘secular’ and ‘socialist’ have been a part of the Preamble since its inception.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
120. Normally the Parliament can legislate on the subjects enumerated in
(a) the Union List
(b) the Concurrent List
(c) the State List
(d) the Union as well as Concurrent List
121. Which one among the following statements relating to the Home Rule movement is not correct ?
(a) The movement, instead of going forward after its great advance in 1917, gradually declined in 1918
(b) Annie Besant, the leader of the movement did not oppose the entry of Extremists
(c) The movement became weaker and weaker because of the continuous differences of opinion among the nationalist leaders
(d) The movement was again revived by Mahatma Gandhi
122. Why did Gandhiji go to Champaran ?
(a) To launch a Satyagraha movement
(b) To launch a non-cooperation movement
(c) To enquire into the grievances of the indigo cultivators
(d) To fight against the zamindars
123. Which one among the following was the fundamental cause of the first Karnataka War between the British and the French ?
(a) Participation of the English and the French in the native politics of Karnataka
(b) The ambition of Dupleix to drive out the English from the South
(c) The trade rivalry between the English and the French
(d) The war of Austrian succession because of which Britain and France became each other’s enemy in every part of the world
124. Which one among the following cities was the best producer of silk cloth under Gupta reign ?
(a) Pataliputra
(b) Murshidabad
(c) Ghazipur
(d) Varanasi
125. Which one among the following is not correct about the cave paintings at Ajanta ?
(a) Scenes have no dividing frame and blend into each other
(b) Scenes are both religious and secular in nature
(c) The influence of the Gandhara art is seen
(d) Scenes mostly depict tales from Jatakas
126. Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of
(a) members of both Houses of Parliament
(b) members of Rajya Sabha only
(c) elected members of both Houses of Parliament
(d) elected members of Lok Sabha only
127. Who among the following has a right to speak and otherwise take part in proceedings of either House of Parliament and to be a member of any parliamentary committee but is not entitled to vote ?
(a) Chairman, Finance Commission
(b) The Attorney General
(c) The Comptroller and Auditor General
(d) The Chief Election Commissioner
128. Which one among the following countries is not touched by the Stilwell Road constructed during the World War II ?
(a) Myanmar
(b) Thailand
(c) China
(d) India
129. Which one among the following wars ended by the Treaty of Salbai ?
(a) First Maratha War
(b) Second Maratha War
(c) Third Maratha War
(d) Fourth Mysore War
130. Navroze is a festival celebrated in India by the
(a) Hindus
(b) Muslims
(c) Parsis
(d) Christians
131. The Jury Act of 1827 was opposed by many Indians. One of the grounds for opposing it was that it denied both to the Hindus and Mohammedans the honor of a seat on the Grand Jury. Which among the following was known for his opposition to the Jury Act ?
(a) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(b) Lord Sinha
(c) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
(d) Raja Rammohan Roy
132. Plan Balkan was
(a) a plan devised by Mountbatten to transfer power to separate provinces or confederation of provinces, with the Bengal and Punjab Assemblies being given the options to vote for partition of their provinces
(b) The plan devised by Pethick Lawrence to give autonomy to Indian princes and provinces
(c) A plan devised by the Muslim League and the Congress to provide autonomy to Indian provinces to form confederations
(d) A plan devised by Mountbatten to allow Indian princes the freedom to either be independent or to join either India or Pakistan
133. Which one among the following prominently rose in revolt against the British in 1857 ?
(a) Punjab Army
(b) Madras Regiment
(c) Bengal Army
(d) Awadh Regiment
134. The first Prime Minister of India in 1947 was appointed by
(a) the Governor General
(b) the President of India
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) a committee headed by Dr. Rajendra Prasad
135. Which one among the following statements is correct ?
The press in democracy must
(a) be free and impartial
(b) be committed to the policies of the government
(c) highlight the achievement of the government without criticizing its policies
(d) criticize the policies of the government
136. Telescopes are placed in space to view distant galaxies primarily to
(a) get closer to the observed objects
(b) avoid the absorption of light or other radiations in the atmosphere of the earth
(c) avoid light pollution from the earth’s populated areas
(d) avoid steering the telescope against the earth’s motion
137. SONAR is mostly used by
(a) Doctors
(b) Engineers
(c) Astronauts
(d) Navigators
138. A bucket full of water is kept in a room and it cools from 75°C to 70°C in time T₁ minutes, from 70°C to 65°C in time T₂ minutes, and from 65°C to 60°C in time T₃ minutes, then
(a) T₁ = T₂ = T₃
(b) T₁ < T₂ < T₃
(c) T₁ > T₂ > T₃
(d) T₁ < T₃ < T₂
139. For a simple pendulum, the graph between T² and L (where T is the time period & L is the length) is
(a) straight line passing through origin
(b) parabolic
(c) circle
(d) none of the above
140. When an electrical safety fuse is rated (marked) as 16 A, it means it
(a) will not work if current is less than 16 A
(b) has a resistance of 16 Ω
(c) will work if the temperature is more than 16°C
(d) will be blown (break) if current exceeds 16 A
141. Who among the following was recently (May 2012) elected as Chair of the Asian Development Bank’s Board of Governors ?
(a) Pranab Mukherjee
(b) Montek Singh Ahluwalia
(c) Duvvuri Subbarao
(d) Aditya Puri
142. Consider the following statements :
1. Justice Dalveer Bhandari was recently elected as the President of International Court of Justice.
2. Justice Bhandari was a senior Judge of the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
143. Consider the following names in the field of Indian cinema :
Vidya Balan
Soumitra Chatterjee
Tapan Sinha
VK Murthy
Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. All of them are winners of Dadasaheb Phalke award.
2. While Tapan Sinha is a film director VK Murthy is known for cinematography.
3. Soumitra Chatterjee was the last to get the Dadasaheb Phalke award.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
144. Who among the following was awarded the first Tagore Award for Cultural Harmony for the year 2012 ?
(a) Jasraj
(b) Ravi Shankar
(c) Nikhil Banerjee
(d) Bhimsen Joshi
145. Consider the following about the budget proposals for the year 2012-2013 :
1. Service tax rate raised and covers all services including those in the negative list.
2. Increase in defence allocation over the previous year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
146. Suppose, the Naxalites have kidnapped a Deputy Commissioner from Baster region in Chhattisgarh and taken him to the Abujmad area. In return for his release, the Naxals demand that all Naxal prisoners must be released from jails across India. In such a situation which among the following may be the best conflict resolution mechanism ?
1. The paramilitary and local police attack the Naxalites and attempt to release the kidnapped.
2. The state forces offer huge sums of money to the Naxals as ransom and release all Naxal prisoners.
3. The state forces engaged the Naxals in a dialogue while simultaneously sending in a commando force to release the prisoners.
4. The state forces utilize local mediators to engage with the Naxals to workout a resolution process for release of the kidnapped.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 4 only
147. A high level committee set up by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation conducted a survey of the slum populations in India’s states. Which one among the following states was identified as being the one with highest slum population ?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
148. The UN has recently passed a resolution against human right violation in a South Asian country. Which of the following was the country ?
(a) Nepal
(b) India
(c) Pakistan
(d) Sri Lanka
149. Prof. Vijay Raghavan, an Indian scientist, who has been elected Fellow of Royal Society in the year 2012, is a renowned
(a) Biotechnologist
(b) Chemist
(c) Agricultural scientist
(d) Missile engineer
150. ‘Operation Cactus’ is the name given to Indian Military intervention in
(a) Maldives
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Bhutan
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**End of the Test Booklet**
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