NDA Previous Year Question Paper 2021-II-shift-II|

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NDA 2021-II (English Language and General Studies)

Part A (English Language)

Directions (Q. Nos. 1-10)
Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word.

1. He is essentially a lowbrow person.
(a) coarse
(b) proud
(c) passionate
(d) pathetic
Answer: (a) ‘Lowbrow’ means not highly cultured and lacking in refinement. Hence, ‘coarse’ is its correct synonym.

2. His nostalgia is deep.
(a) excitement
(b) longing
(c) happiness
(d) ability
Answer: (b) ‘Nostalgia’ means a sentimental longing for a period in the past. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

3. His truancy is detrimental.
(a) loyalty
(b) integrity
(c) honesty
(d) absenteeism
Answer: (d) ‘Truancy’ refers to the problem or situation of children being absent from school regularly without permission. Hence, ‘absenteeism’ is its correct synonym.

4. He is a maleficent person.
(a) generous
(b) cunning
(c) criminal
(d) friendly
Answer: (c) ‘Maleficent’ means working or productive of harm or evil. Hence, ‘criminal’ is nearest in meaning to maleficent.

5. His solemnity is celebrated.
(a) greed
(b) desire
(c) trust
(d) dignity
Answer: (d) ‘Solemnity’ refers to the state of being serious and dignified. Hence ‘dignity’ is its correct synonym.

6. His bounty is limitless.
(a) benevolence
(b) gallantry
(c) nepotism
(d) chivalry
Answer: (a) ‘Bounty’ means generosity. Hence, ‘benevolence’ is its correct synonym.

7. The Holocaust was experienced by millions.
(a) celebration
(b) destruction
(c) construction
(d) beautiful
Answer: (b) ‘Holocaust’ refers to destruction that occurred on a massive scale. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

8. His aversion is known to all.
(a) hospitality
(b) hostility
(c) humility
(d) humbleness
Answer: (b) ‘Aversion’ refers to a strong dislike or disinclination towards something. Hence, ‘hostility’ is its correct synonym.

9. To be able to decipher something is wonderful.
(a) decode
(b) encode
(c) simulate
(d) animate
Answer: (a) ‘Decipher’ means to convert a coded text or signal into normal language. Hence, ‘decode’ is its correct synonym.

10. It is the opportune time to think about investment in the real estate sector.
(a) honorary
(b) appropriate
(c) difficult
(d) unsuitable
Answer: (b) ‘Opportune’ time means a time that is suitable for doing something. Hence ‘appropriate’ is its correct synonym.

Directions (Q. Nos. 11-20)
Each question in this section has a sentence with three parts labelled (a), (b) and (c). Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any part. If you find no error, your responses should be indicated as (d).

11. Nursery classes (a)/ for the children (b)/ starts on April every year. (c)/ No error (d)
Answer: (c) Part (c) contains the error. Replace ‘on’ with ‘in’ to make the sentence error free.

12. The pollution level is very (a)/ high in our city, and (b)/ becomes a health hazard. (c)/ No error (d)
Answer: (c) Part (c) contains the error. Replace ‘becomes’ with ‘has become’ to make the sentence error free.

13. Indian is a country of linguistic (a)/ and cultural diversity with (b)/ multiple ethnic and social groups. (c)/ No error (d)
Answer: (d) The given sentence is error free.

14. Why does the lapse rate (a)/ effect the tendency (b)/ of air to rise ? (c)/ No error (d)
Answer: (b) Part (b) contains the error. Replace ‘effect’ with ‘affect’ to make the sentence grammatically correct.

15. The thorax is the upper part (a)/ of your body from the neck down (b)/ to the bottom of the ribs and diaphragm. (c)/ No error (d)
Answer: (b) Part (b) contains the error. Replace ‘from’ with ‘extending from’ to make the sentence error free.

16. The practical uses of astrology (a)/ have seldom been seriously (b)/ studied outside India. (c)/ No error (d)
Answer: (d) The given sentence is error free and grammatically correct.

17. She collected (a)/ some armful of medicines and (b)/ poured them down a drain. (c)/ No error (d)
Answer: (c) Part (c) contains the error. Replace ‘a’ with ‘the’ to make the sentence error free.

18. In many countries, the United Nations (a)/ or other internationally organised (b)/ peacekeeping forces are trying to keep the peace. (c)/ No error (d)
Answer: (b) Part (b) contains the error. Replace ‘or’ with ‘and’ to make the sentence error free.

19. Early cities rely on food and water (a)/ from the surrounding countryside, (b)/ but today cities often depend on distant sources. (c)/ No error (d)
Answer: (a) Part (a) contains the error. Replace ‘early cities rely’ with ‘earlier cities relied’ to make the sentence grammatically correct.

20. Climate change, whether it is (a)/ natural or human-induced, (b)/ is stressful for the people. (c)/ No error (d)
Answer: (c) Part (c) contains the error. Replace ‘for’ with ‘to’ to make the sentence error free.

Directions (Q. Nos. 21-30)
Each question in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words (a), (b), (c) and (d). Select the option that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word.

21. His opinion is lopsided.
(a) partial
(b) crooked
(c) unequal
(d) balanced
Answer: (d) ‘Lopsided’ means not equally balanced. Hence, ‘balanced’ is its correct antonym.

22. His work is praiseworthy.
(a) admirable
(b) condemnable
(c) commendable
(d) creditable
Answer: (b) ‘Praiseworthy’ means deserving approval and admiration. Hence, ‘condemnable’ meaning blamable is opposite in meaning to praiseworthy.

23. His deeds had retrograde results.
(a) progressive
(b) negative
(c) retreating
(d) reverse
Answer: (a) ‘Retrograde’ means to revert to an earlier and inferior conditions. Hence, ‘progressive’ meaning forward-moving is its correct antonym.

24. He always offers palatable solutions.
(a) acceptable
(b) agreeable
(c) unacceptable
(d) pleasant
Answer: (c) ‘Palatable’ means acceptable or satisfactory. Hence, ‘unacceptable’ is its correct antonym.

25. His views on the subject are microscopic.
(a) broad-based
(b) minute
(c) precise
(d) fine
Answer: (a) ‘Microscopic’ means concerned with minute details. Hence, ‘broad-based’ is opposite in meaning to ‘microscopic’.

26. He is always obdurate in his behaviour towards other people.
(a) flexible
(b) callous
(c) insensible
(d) obnoxious
Answer: (a) ‘Obdurate’ means stubbornly refusing to change one’s opinion. Hence, ‘flexible’ is its correct antonym.

27. Mohan always had profound respect for Sohan.
(a) deep
(b) extreme
(c) sincere
(d) superficial
Answer: (d) ‘Profound’ means very great or intense. Hence, ‘superficial’ is its correct antonym.

28. We were living in turbulent times.
(a) destructive
(b) unstable
(c) calm
(d) stormy
Answer: (c) ‘Turbulent’ means involving a lot of sudden changes, arguments or violence. Hence, ‘calm’ is its correct antonym.

29. Amit is a dogmatic person.
(a) assertive
(b) amenable
(c) bold
(d) rigid
Answer: (b) ‘Dogmatic’ means of a person completely certain of their beliefs and expecting other people to accept them. Hence, ‘amenable’ is its correct antonym.

30. Sachin is very fickle in his behaviour.
(a) stable
(b) capricious
(c) mercurial
(d) vacillating
Answer: (a) ‘Fickle’ means frequently changing one’s loyalties and affections. Hence, ‘stable’ is its correct antonym.

Directions (Q. Nos. 31-40)
Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence, the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labelled P, Q, R and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your answer carefully.

31. symbolic of peace, and prosperity (P)/ the Gupta Empire in India is (Q)/ represented through numismatic archaeological (R)/ and literary evidences of multiple kinds (S)
The correct sequence should be
(a) QPRS
(b) QSRP
(c) PSQR
(d) RSQP
Answer: (a) QPRS

32. the transportation system so that it (P)/ and not just the affluent section of society (Q)/ provides mobility to everyone (R)/ there are many ways to restructure (S)
The correct sequence should be :
(a) PQRS
(b) RQPS
(c) SPRQ
(d) QRPS
Answer: (c) SPRQ

33. and accurately displays spatial (P)/ relationships between landforms and water bodies (Q)/ the globe shows Earth’s spherical shape (R)/ and comparative distance between locations (S)
The correct sequence should be :
(a) PQRS
(b) RPQS
(c) SPQR
(d) QRPS
Answer: (b) RPQS

34. the function of the capillaries (P)/ and other material to all the cells in (Q)/ is to take nutrients, oxygen (R)/ the body and to take away their waste material (S)
The correct sequence should be :
(a) PRQS
(b) RPQS
(c) SPQR
(d) QRPS
Answer: (a) PRQS

35. like mine (P)/ even to someone with (Q)/ a tin ear (R)/ her singing sounded pretty melodious (S)
The correct sequence should be
(a) PRQS
(b) RPQS
(c) SPQR
(d) QRPS
Answer: (d) QRPS

36. The sorry state of affairs in the modern factories (P)/ the Government of India (Q)/ under the British was pro-capitalist (R)/ though it took some half-hearted steps to mitigate (S)
The correct sequence should be :
(a) PRQS
(b) QRSP
(c) SPQR
(d) QPSR
Answer: (b) QRSP

37. of extreme poverty among its people (P)/ economic policies was the prevalence (Q)/ a major characteristic of British rule in India (R)/ and the net result of British (S)
The correct sequence should be :
(a) PRQS
(b) QRSP
(c) RSQP
(d) QPSR
Answer: (c) RSQP

38. you can’t judge (P)/ very intelligent, but (Q)/ a book by its cover (R)/ he doesn’t look (S)
The correct sequence should be :
(a) SQPR
(b) QRSP
(c) RSQP
(d) QPSR
Answer: (a) SQPR

39. membership and partisanship as well as (P)/ can be found in the decline in party (Q)/ evidence of a crisis in party politics (R)/ in the rise of antiparty groups and movements (S)
The correct sequence should be :
(a) RQPS
(b) QRSP
(c) RSQP
(d) QPSR
Answer: (a) RQPS

40. government, market and voluntary organisations (P)/ mixture of contributions from (Q)/ the provision of public goods (R)/ and services can be regarded as a complex (S)
The correct sequence should be
(a) RQPS
(b) QRSP
(c) RSQP
(d) QPSR
Answer: (c) RSQP

Directions (Q. Nos. 41-50)
Given below are some idioms/phrases followed by four alternative meanings for each. Choose the most appropriate answer from among the options (a), (b), (c) or (d).

41. Once-over
(a) To do something quickly
(b) To do something elaborately
(c) To do something perforce
(d) To do something for others
Answer: (a) The phrase ‘once-over’ means to review, inspect or examine something in a quick fashion.

42. A bag of bones
(a) An extremely fat person
(b) An extremely thin person
(c) A wealthy person
(d) A healthy person
Answer: (b) The idiom ‘a bag of bones’ means a very thin person or animal.

43. Muddy the waters
(a) To spread dirt around
(b) To make a situation easy
(c) To make one’s life happy
(d) To make the situation complicated
Answer: (d) The idiom ‘muddy the waters’ means to make a situation more complicated or confusing than it was before.

44. To level with
(a) To be honest
(b) To be on a plain
(c) To cheat someone
(d) To take revenge
Answer: (a) The phrase ‘to level with’ someone means to tell someone the truth, especially when it may be unpleasant.

45. Show your hand
(a) To tell people about the past
(b) To tell people about the future
(c) To tell people about them
(d) To tell people about your plans
Answer: (d) The idiom ‘show your hand’ means to allow people to know about your intentions.

46. To pull up
(a) To lift heavy weights
(b) To check oneself
(c) To shorten the distance
(d) Too short of destination
Answer: (b) The phrase ‘pull up’ means to cause someone to stop or pause; check.

47. Be out of action
(a) To get punishment
(b) To get reward
(c) To become dysfunctional
(d) To become superlative
Answer: (c) The idiom ‘be out of action’ means broken or not working.

48. Learning from the school of hard knocks
(a) Learning things from experience
(b) Learning things from others
(c) Learning things from environment
(d) Learning things through difficult experiences
Answer: (d) The idiom means learning things through difficult experiences.

49. Raise some hackles
(a) To annoy
(b) To make someone happy
(c) To do a great task
(d) To sit idle
Answer: (a) The idiom ‘raise some hackles’ means to annoy or upset someone.

50. A man of letters
(a) An excellent artist
(b) A scholar in literature
(c) An outstanding sportsman
(d) A known novelist
Answer: (b) ‘A man of letters’ means a man, usually a writer, who knows a lot about literature.

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Part B (General Studies)

51. Girth of stem of a plant increases due to division of cells in
(a) apical meristem only
(b) lateral meristem only
(c) apical and intercalary meristem
(d) both apical and lateral meristem
Answer: (b) The girth of the stem of a plant increases due to the division of cells in lateral meristem only.

52. Different varieties of the same gene are called
(a) Genotypes
(b) Sib pairs
(c) Alleles
(d) Isomers
Answer: (c) Different varieties of the same gene are called alleles.

53. Which one of the following viruses used to be responsible for highly infectious disease smallpox?
(a) Adenovirus
(b) Variola virus
(c) Aichi virus
(d) Coxsackie virus
Answer: (b) Variola virus.

54. Buoyancy is a/an
(a) upward pressure
(b) downward pressure
(c) downward force
(d) upward force
Answer: (d) upward force.

55. Weight and mass of an object are defined with Newton’s laws of motion. Which among the following is true?
(a) Weight is a constant of proportionality
(b) Mass is a constant of proportionality
(c) Mass is not a constant of proportionality
(d) Weight is a universal constant.
Answer: (b) Mass is a constant of proportionality.

56. Fundamental laws of physics require
(a) conservation of energy and non-conservation of charge
(b) conservation of charge and non-conservation of linear momentum
(c) conservation of charge and non-conservation of energy
(d) conservation of energy, momentum and charge
Answer: (d) conservation of energy, momentum and charge.

57. Work is said to be one Joule when a force of
(a) 4 N moves an object by 25 cm
(b) 2 N moves an object by 1 m
(c) 1 N moves an object by 1 cm
(d) 1 N moves an object by 50 cm
Answer: (a) 4 N moves an object by 25 cm.

58. A uniform motion of a car along a circular path experiences
(a) a change in speed due to a change in its direction of motion
(b) a change in velocity due to a change in its direction of motion
(c) a change in momentum due to no change in its direction of motion
(d) a constant momentum due to a change in its direction of motion
Answer: (b) a change in velocity due to a change in its direction of motion.

59. Three equal resistors are connected in parallel configuration in a closed electrical circuit. Then the total resistance in the circuit becomes
(a) one-third of the individual resistance
(b) two-third of the individual resistance
(c) equal to the individual resistance
(d) three times of the individual resistance
Answer: (a) one-third of the individual resistance.

60. Rutherford’s alpha-particle (α) scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of which one of the following?
(a) Electron
(b) Proton
(c) Atomic Nucleus
(d) Neutron
Answer: (c) Atomic Nucleus.

61. What is the maximum number of electrons in the M-Shell?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 18
(d) 32
Answer: (c) 18.

62. Chlorine occurs in nature in two isotopic forms of masses 35 u and 37 u in the ratio of 3 : 1 respectively. What is the average atomic mass of the Chlorine atom?
(a) 36.1 u
(b) 35.5 u
(c) 36.5 u
(d) 35.1 u
Answer: (c) 36.5 u.

63. Which one of the following elements’ isotopes is used in the treatment of cancer?
(a) Iodine
(b) Sodium
(c) Cobalt
(d) Uranium
Answer: (c) Cobalt.

64. To protect steel and iron from rusting, a thin layer of which one of the following metals is applied?
(a) Magnesium
(b) Zinc
(c) Aluminium
(d) Lead
Answer: (b) Zinc.

65. Cinnabar is an ore of which one of the following?
(a) Copper
(b) Zinc
(c) Mercury
(d) Manganese
Answer: (c) Mercury.

66. Imagine a current-carrying straight conductor with magnetic field of lines in anti-clockwise direction. Then the direction of current is determined by
(a) the Right-Hand Thumb rule and it would be in the downward direction.
(b) the Left-Hand Thumb rule and it would be in the downward direction.
(c) the Right-Hand Thumb rule and it would be in the upward direction.
(d) the Left-Hand Thumb rule and it would be in the upward direction.
Answer: (c) the Right-Hand Thumb rule and it would be in the upward direction.

67. The device used to produce electric current is known as
(a) motor
(b) generator
(c) ammeter
(d) galvanometer
Answer: (b) generator.

68. Myopia is a defect in human vision where an image of a
(a) nearby object is focused beyond the retina.
(b) nearby object is focused before the retina.
(c) distant object is focused before the retina.
(d) distant object is focused beyond the retina.
Answer: (c) distant object is focused before the retina.

69. Tyndall effect is a phenomenon of
(a) scattering of light by the colloidal particles
(b) refraction of light by the colloidal particles
(c) dispersion of light by dust particles
(d) refraction of light by dust particles
Answer: (a) scattering of light by the colloidal particles.

70. Twinkling of stars is primarily due to the atmospheric
(a) refraction
(b) reflection
(c) polarisation
(d) dispersion
Answer: (a) refraction.

71. Dingko Singh, an Asian Games gold medallist, who died recently, was associated with which one of the following games?
(a) Swimming
(b) Boxing
(c) Archery
(d) Gymnastics
Answer: (b) Boxing.

72. Who among the following is the lone Indian Cricketer included in the ICC Hall of Fame special inductions to mark the inaugural ICC World Test Championship Final?
(a) Dilip Vengsarkar
(b) Ravi Shastri
(c) Mohinder Amarnath
(d) Vinoo Mankad
Answer: (d) Vinoo Mankad.

73. Which one of the following nations is not a permanent member of G7?
(a) India
(b) Canada
(c) France
(d) Italy
Answer: (a) India.

74. Operation Olivia, an initiative to protect Olive Ridley turtles, is undertaken by
(a) Indian Navy
(b) Indian Coast Guard
(c) Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change
(d) Ministry of Earth Sciences
Answer: (b) Indian Coast Guard.

75. Who among the following is the winner of French Open 2021 Men’s Singles Final?
(a) Novak Djokovic
(b) Rafael Nadal
(c) Stefanos Tsitsipas
(d) Daniil Medvedev
Answer: (a) Novak Djokovic.

76. Economist Rebeca Grynspan, who recently became the first woman to be appointed as the head of the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD), hails from
(a) Germany
(b) Poland
(c) Costa Rica
(d) Mexico
Answer: (c) Costa Rica.

77. ‘Belt and Road Initiative’ is a foreign policy initiative of
(a) China
(b) USA
(c) Canada
(d) Japan
Answer: (a) China.

78. Which one of the following is the theme of the International Day of Yoga 2021?
(a) Yoga at home and yoga with family
(b) Yoga for climate action
(c) Yoga for well-being
(d) Yoga for peace.
Answer: (c) Yoga for well-being.

79. Kenneth Kaunda, who died recently at the age of 97, was the former President of
(a) Brazil
(b) Mexico
(c) Zambia
(d) South Sudan
Answer: (c) Zambia.

80. The maiden Indian Navy - European Union Naval Force (IN-EUNAVFOR) Exercise (2021) was conducted in
(a) Gulf of Mannar
(b) Gulf of Aden
(c) Gulf of Khambhat
(d) Gulf of Aqaba
Answer: (b) Gulf of Aden.

81. The pH value of Milk of Magnesia is approximately
(a) Zero
(b) 7
(c) 10
(d) 14
Answer: (c) 10.

82. Which one of the following compounds is used in ‘black and white’ photography?
(a) AgF
(b) AgBr
(c) AgCl
(d) Ag₂SO₄
Answer: (b) AgBr.

83. What is the number of water molecules present in a Ferrous Sulphate crystal?
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 7
Answer: (d) 7.

84. What is the colour of the precipitate obtained by passing CO₂ gas through lime water?
(a) Green
(b) Blue
(c) White
(d) Brown
Answer: (c) White.

85. Which one of the following pairs of elements is liquid at room temperature and at normal pressure?
(a) Gallium and Bromine
(b) Mercury and Bromine
(c) Gallium and Mercury
(d) Gallium and Caesium
Answer: (b) Mercury and Bromine.

86. Which one of the following methods can be used to separate anthracene from a mixture of salt and anthracene?
(a) Distillation
(b) Sublimation
(c) Evaporation
(d) Chromatography
Answer: (b) Sublimation.

87. Shoots of plant show upward movement and it can be designated to be
(a) Negatively phototropic
(b) Positively chemotropic
(c) Positively hydrotropic
(d) Negatively geotropic
Answer: (d) Negatively geotropic.

88. Which one of the following statements about the process of photosynthesis is correct?
(a) Chemical energy is converted into light energy.
(b) Carbon dioxide is oxidised to form carbohydrate.
(c) Water molecule splits into hydrogen and oxygen.
(d) Light energy is directly used to split water.
Answer: (d) Light energy is directly used to split water.

89. How are evergreen plants with woody stems having naked seed classified?
(a) Angiosperms
(b) Monocotyledons
(c) Pteridophytes
(d) Gymnosperms
Answer: (d) Gymnosperms.

90. Which one of the following tissues is known as basic packing tissue and found in xylem and phloem?
(a) Collenchyma
(b) Parenchyma
(c) Sclerenchyma
(d) Vessels
Answer: (b) Parenchyma.

91. Which one from among the following planets is largest in size?
(a) Earth
(b) Venus
(c) Mars
(d) Mercury
Answer: (a) Earth.

92. Match List I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I (Place) | List II (Feature)
A. Mumbai | 1. Queen of the Arabian Sea
B. Visakhapatnam | 2. Biggest port of India
C. Chennai | 3. Land-locked harbour
D. Kochi | 4. Oldest port on the Eastern Coast

Codes
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 3 4 2
(d) 1 4 3 2

Answer: (b) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

93. Which one of the following is a crater lake in India?
(a) Lonar lake
(b) Sambhar lake
(c) Chilika lake
(d) Vembanad lake
Answer: (a) Lonar lake.

94. Fine-grained bed of ephemeral lake in a desert is also known as
(a) Playa
(b) Oasis
(c) Drumlin
(d) Natural levee
Answer: (a) Playa.

95. Which one of the following factors does not affect the distribution of groundwater?
(a) Amount of precipitation
(b) Rate of evaporation
(c) Ability of the ground surface to allow water to infiltrate into the groundwater system
(d) Distance from the sea
Answer: (d) Distance from the sea.

96. The Constitution (35th Amendment) Act of 1974 is related to which one of the following States?
(a) Mizoram
(b) Sikkim
(c) Nagaland
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer: (b) Sikkim.

97. Which one of the following best describes the electoral system of India?
(a) First-Past-the-Post System
(b) Proportional Representation
(c) Mixed System
(d) General Ticket
Answer: (a) First-Past-the-Post System.

98. Which one of the following is a non-justiciable right?
(a) Right to adequate livelihood
(b) Right against exploitation
(c) Right of accused
(d) Right to life and personal liberty
Answer: (a) Right to adequate livelihood.

99. Which one of the following is not a writ?
(a) Mandamus
(b) Habeas Corpus
(c) Certiorari
(d) Severability
Answer: (d) Severability.

100. Which one of the following is not a part of Fundamental Rights?
(a) Right to education
(b) Right to establish educational institutions by minorities
(c) Right to be conferred with titles
(d) Right against untouchability
Answer: (c) Right to be conferred with titles.

101. Which one of the following is not a function of the Constitution of India?
(a) To ensure participation of good people in politics.
(b) To guarantee a set of rights to citizens.
(c) To define the power of the different organs of government.
(d) To create conditions for a just society.
Answer: (a) To ensure participation of good people in politics.

102. Which one of the following statements about biodiversity is not correct?
(a) The term ‘biodiversity’ was coined by Walter G. Rosen in 1986.
(b) The term ‘biodiversity hotspots’ was coined by Norman Myers in 1988.
(c) The regions having richest biodiversity are called ‘biodiversity hotspots’.
(d) More than 100 hotspots of biodiversity are identified in the world.
Answer: (d) More than 100 hotspots of biodiversity are identified in the world. (Actually there are 36.)

103. The Earth’s atmosphere is mainly heated by which one of the following?
(a) Short wave solar radiation
(b) Reflected solar radiation
(c) Long wave terrestrial radiation
(d) Scattered solar radiation
Answer: (c) Long wave terrestrial radiation.

104. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of layers as we move from the Earth’s surface upwards?
(a) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Thermosphere, Mesosphere
(b) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere
(c) Thermosphere, Mesosphere, Stratosphere, Troposphere
(d) Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Troposphere, Thermosphere
Answer: (b) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere.

105. Which one of the following is not a soil forming factor?
(a) Parent material
(b) Topography
(c) Climate
(d) Human habitation
Answer: (d) Human habitation.

106. Which one of the following best describes the Lithosphere?
(a) Upper and lower mantle
(b) Crust and core
(c) Crust and upper mantle
(d) Lower mantle and core
Answer: (c) Crust and upper mantle.

107. Which one of the following countries has the maximum time difference from Greenwich Mean Time (GMT)?
(a) India
(b) Nepal
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Bhutan
Answer: (d) Bhutan.

108. Which one of the following is not a feature of the Constitution of India?
(a) It provides a set of basic rules.
(b) It specifies the power of the Government.
(c) It is the supreme law of the land.
(d) It specifies the supremacy of the judiciary.
Answer: (d) It specifies the supremacy of the judiciary.

109. Which one of the following statements about the Attorney General of India is not correct?
(a) He has the right of audience only in the Supreme Court of India.
(b) He shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine.
(c) He shall be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
(d) He shall give advice to the Government of India on all legal matters.
Answer: (a) He has the right of audience only in the Supreme Court of India.

110. Who among the following described the Directive Principles of State Policy as the novel feature of the Constitution of India?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) S.N. Mukherjee
(d) B.R. Ambedkar
Answer: (d) B.R. Ambedkar.

111. Cornea in human eye
(a) is a light sensitive screen.
(b) is a muscular diaphragm.
(c) contains blood vessels.
(d) is composed of proteins and cells.
Answer: (d) is composed of proteins and cells.

112. Power of a lens of focal length 25 cm is
(a) +2.5 Dioptre
(b) +3 Dioptre
(c) +4 Dioptre
(d) +5 Dioptre
Answer: (c) +4 Dioptre.

113. What is the total number of chambers in the stomach of domestic animals like cattle, buffalo, goat and sheep?
(a) Four
(b) Two
(c) One
(d) Three
Answer: (a) Four.

114. Intestinal bacteria are main source of which one of the following vitamins?
(a) Vitamin E
(b) Vitamin C
(c) Vitamin B₁₂
(d) Vitamin A
Answer: (c) Vitamin B₁₂.

115. Which one of the following hormones is responsible for the development of female sexual characters?
(a) Prolactin
(b) Estrogen
(c) Oxytocin
(d) Progesterone
Answer: (b) Estrogen.

116. Spherical mirror formula relating an object distance ‘u’, image distance ‘v’ and focal length of mirror ‘f’ may be applied to a plane mirror when
(a) focal length goes to infinity.
(b) focal length goes to zero.
(c) image distance goes to zero.
(d) image distance goes to infinity.
Answer: (a) focal length goes to infinity.

117. Nuclear energy is generated by
(a) nuclear fission and its expression was proposed by Einstein.
(b) nuclear fission and its expression was proposed by Rutherford.
(c) nuclear fusion and its expression was proposed by Bohr.
(d) nuclear fusion and its expression was proposed by Heisenberg.
Answer: (b) nuclear fission and its expression was proposed by Rutherford.

118. Reverberation is a phenomenon associated with a
(a) multiple refraction of sound.
(b) multiple reflection of sound.
(c) single refraction of sound.
(d) single reflection of sound.
Answer: (b) multiple reflection of sound.

119. Which among the following is true for propagation of sound waves?
(a) Sound can travel in vacuum and it is a transverse wave in air.
(b) Sound cannot travel in vacuum and it is a longitudinal wave in air.
(c) Sound can travel in vacuum and it is a longitudinal wave in air.
(d) Sound cannot travel in vacuum and it is a transverse wave in air.
Answer: (b) Sound cannot travel in vacuum and it is a longitudinal wave in air.

120. A tennis ball is thrown in the vertically upward direction and the ball attains a maximum height of 20 m. The ball was thrown approximately with an upward velocity of
(a) 8 m/s
(b) 12 m/s
(c) 16 m/s
(d) 20 m/s
Answer: (d) 20 m/s.

121. An object of mass 2000 g possesses 100 J kinetic energy. The object must be moving with a speed of
(a) 10.0 m/s
(b) 11.1 m/s
(c) 11.2 m/s
(d) 12.1 m/s
Answer: (a) 10.0 m/s.

122. Which one of the following ions is not iso-electronic with F⁻?
(a) O²⁻
(b) Na⁺
(c) Ne
(d) N⁻
Answer: (d) N⁻.

123. What is the total number of covalent bonds in methanol?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Answer: (c) 5.

124. Which one of the following is the chemical formula of Plaster of Paris?
(a) CaSO₄ · ½ H₂O
(b) CaSO₄ · 2H₂O
(c) CaSO₄ · 5H₂O
(d) CaSO₄ · 4H₂O
Answer: (a) CaSO₄ · ½ H₂O.

125. The unit of the ratio between thrust and impulse is same as that of
(a) frequency
(b) speed
(c) wavelength
(d) acceleration
Answer: (a) frequency.

126. Which one of the following figures correctly shows the path of a ray of light through a glass prism?
Answer: (a)

127. When a light beam falls on a triangular glass prism, a band of colours is obtained. Which one of the following statements is correct in this regard?
(a) Red light bends the most, as the refractive index of glass for red light is greatest.
(b) Red light bends the most, as the refractive index of glass for red light is lowest.
(c) Violet light bends the most, as the refractive index of glass for violet light is greatest.
(d) Violet light bends the most, as the refractive index of glass for violet light is lowest.
Answer: (c) Violet light bends the most, as the refractive index of glass for violet light is greatest.

128. The image of an object formed by a plane mirror is
(a) erect, real and larger.
(b) erect, virtual and same size.
(c) inverted, virtual and same size.
(d) inverted, real and smaller.
Answer: (b) erect, virtual and same size.

129. Which one of the following is not a conservative force?
(a) Frictional force
(b) Electric force
(c) Gravitational force
(d) Spring force
Answer: (a) Frictional force.

130. A negative work is done when an applied force F and the corresponding displacement S are
(a) perpendicular to each other.
(b) parallel to each other.
(c) anti-parallel to each other.
(d) equal in magnitude.
Answer: (c) anti-parallel to each other.

131. Which of the following statements about the Indian Councils Act of 1861 is/are correct?

1. It enlarged the Governor General’s Council for the purpose of making laws.
2. The Governor General was not authorised to increase the number of members.
   Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
   (a) Only 1
   (b) Only 2
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2
   Answer: (a) Only 1.

132. Which one of the following statements about Tattvabodhini Patrika is correct?
(a) It promoted a systematic study of India’s past in the Bengali language.
(b) It promoted a systematic study of India’s past through Sanskrit sources.
(c) It promoted a systematic study of India’s past through Persian sources.
(d) It promoted a systematic study of India’s past through Western sources.
Answer: (a) It promoted a systematic study of India’s past in the Bengali language.

133. In which one of the following years did the British demarcate a large area of land as Damin-i-koh for settling the Santhals?
(a) 1810
(b) 1793
(c) 1885
(d) 1832
Answer: (d) 1832.

134. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through which one of the following States?
(a) Manipur
(b) West Bengal
(c) Gujarat
(d) Jharkhand
Answer: (a) Manipur.

135. Which of the following pairs of crop and product is/are correctly matched?

1. Food crop – Ragi
2. Cash crop – Jute
3. Plantation crop – Coconut
   Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
   (a) Only 1
   (b) 2 and 3
   (c) 1, 2 and 3
   (d) Only 3
   Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3.

136. Which one of the following coalfields is not located in Jharkhand?
(a) Jharia
(b) Ramgarh
(c) Deogarh
(d) Umaria
Answer: (d) Umaria.

137. Which one of the following is the longest parallel of latitude?
(a) Tropic of Cancer
(b) Tropic of Capricorn
(c) Arctic Circle
(d) Equator
Answer: (d) Equator.

138. The periodic rise and fall of ocean water in response to gravitational forces is called
(a) Current
(b) Waves
(c) Tides
(d) Tsunami
Answer: (c) Tides.

139. Which of the following statements about the first Indian Factory Act passed in 1881 is/are correct?

1. The Act dealt primarily with the problem of child labour.
2. The Act laid down that children between 7 years and 12 years of age would not work for more than 9 hours a day.
   Select the correct answer using the code given below:
   (a) Only 1
   (b) Only 2
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2
   Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2.

140. Which of the following statements about Mahatma Gandhi’s anti-untouchability campaign is/are correct?

1. The All India Harijan Sevak Sangh was founded for this purpose.
2. The campaign was to root out untouchability, since it did not enjoy the sanction of the Hindu Shastras.
   Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
   (a) Only 1
   (b) Only 2
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2
   Answer: (a) Only 1.

141. The founders of the Paramhansa Mandali founded in Maharashtra believed in which one of the following?
(a) Social distancing along caste lines
(b) Glorification of caste system
(c) Forbidding widow remarriage
(d) One God and in breaking caste rules
Answer: (d) One God and in breaking caste rules.

142. Which one of the following statements about the ishtahars issued during the Revolt of 1857 is correct?
(a) They glorified the Muslim rule in India.
(b) They glorified the co-existence of different communities under the Mughal Empire.
(c) They glorified the message of Islam.
(d) They glorified the role of Queen Victoria.
Answer: (b) They glorified the co-existence of different communities under the Mughal Empire.

143. During the Industrial Revolution, who among the following designed the ‘flying shuttle loom’?
(a) Samuel Crompton
(b) Edmund Cartwright
(c) John Kay
(d) Richard Arkwright
Answer: (c) John Kay.

144. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I (Dam) | List II (State)
A. Hirakud | 1. Gujarat
B. Panchet | 2. Bihar
C. Kosi | 3. Odisha
D. Ukai | 4. Jharkhand

Codes
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 1 2 4 3
(d) 1 4 2 3

Answer: (a) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

145. Which one of the following features is the result of erosion and deposition work of a river?
(a) Pothole
(b) Oxbow lake
(c) Levee
(d) Rapid
Answer: (a) Pothole.

146. Which one of the following is not a feature of agriculture in India?
(a) Subsistence agriculture
(b) Pressure of population on agriculture
(c) Dependence upon Monsoon
(d) Predominance of cash crops
Answer: (d) Predominance of cash crops.

147. Which one of the following is not a specified Sub-Mission of the National Livestock Mission?
(a) Livestock development
(b) Pig development in North-Western region
(c) Fodder and feed development
(d) Skill development, technology transfer and extension
Answer: (b) Pig development in North-Western region.

148. Who among the following wrote the famous text ‘A Discourse on Political Economy’?
(a) Montesquieu
(b) Voltaire
(c) Rousseau
(d) Adam Smith
Answer: (c) Rousseau.

149. Which of the following statements about the resolution adopted in the Karachi session of the Indian National Congress with regard to fundamental rights and economic policy is/are correct?

1. It was opposed by Ambalal Sarabhai.
2. Its 20 points included demands for civil liberties and adult suffrage.
   Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
   (a) Only 1
   (b) Only 2
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2
   Answer: (b) Only 2.

150. Which of the following statements about the Law Commission headed by Lord Macaulay is/are correct?

1. It attempted to codify the laws.
2. It was opposed to uniform system of Courts.
   Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
   (a) Only 1
   (b) Only 2
   (c) Both 1 and 2
   (d) Neither 1 nor 2
   Answer: (a) Only 1.

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