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(Question 1 se Last Question tak – Proper Sequence)
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### General Awareness
Q.1) Who is the author of the book “My Country My life”?
(a) L K Advani
(b) Mamata Banerjee
(c) N Chandrababu Naidu
(d) Rahul Gandhi
(e) Prakash Javadekar
Q.2) Who is the Google policy head of India?
(a) Sukant Vatsa
(b) Archana Gulati
(c) Ritika Singh Verma
(d) Ramesh Kumar
(e) Chandra Sekhar
Q.3) Singareni coalfields are located in which state?
(a) Telangana
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Karnataka
(e) Odisha
Q.4) Delimitation is defined as the act or process of fixing limits or boundaries of territorial constituencies in a country or a province having a legislative body. It is the process of redrawing boundaries of Lok Sabha and state Assembly seats to represent changes in the population. It’s only after this exercise has been completed that an election can be conducted. Delimitation has happened in which State/UT recently?
(a) J&K
(b) Assam
(c) Meghalaya
(d) Telangana
(e) Lakshadweep
Q.5) Which of the following state is the winner of Santosh Cup?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Assam
(d) Gujarat
(e) Kerala
Q.6) Who is the runner up of Pro-kabaddi league held recently?
(a) Patna Pirates
(b) Dabang Delhi
(c) Tamil Thalaivas
(d) Puneri Paltan
(e) Telugu Titans
Q.7) In which year was Federal Reserve established in USA?
(a) 1913
(b) 1998
(c) 1987
(d) 1967
(e) 1955
Q.8) What is the ratio of ownership in an RRB by centre, state and sponsor banks at present?
(a) 50:15:35
(b) 40:30:30
(c) 60:20:20
(d) 75:15:10
(e) 35:15:50
Q.9) PM Kisan is a Central Sector Scheme with 100% funding from Government of India. Under the scheme an income support of Rs.6,000/- per year in three equal installments will be provided to all land holding farmer families. The funds are directly transferred to the bank accounts of the beneficiaries. State Government and UT administration will identify the farmer families which are eligible for support as per scheme guidelines. Which of the following is the correct allocation of PM Kisan in the recent budget?
(a) Rs 90,000 crore
(b) Rs 18,000 crore
(c) Rs 45,500 crore
(d) Rs 68,000 crore
(e) Rs 57,000 crore
Q.10) Where is Louvre Museum Located?
(a) Paris, France
(b) Boston, USA
(c) Berlin, Germany
(d) Stockholm, Sweden
(e) Amsterdam, Netherlands
Q.11) National Family Health Survey is a survey carried out on a massive scale across the country to collect information on many parameters which would ultimately help the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoH&FW) to frame policies and programs to help in the upliftment of the vulnerable groups in India. National Family Health Survey-5 is the recent round of the survey carried out by the MoH&FW. According to NFHS-5, what is the male to female ratio in India?
(a) 1020 women for 1000 men
(b) 989 women for 1000 men
(c) 1001 women for 1000 men
(d) 997 women for 1000 men
(e) 1050 women for 1000 men
Q.12) According to the latest State of World's Forest report, what is the percentage of world forest cover?
(a) 27%
(b) 19%
(c) 31%
(d) 50%
(e) 42%
Q.13) What is the venue of Climate Change Conference to be held in June 2022?
(a) Bonn, Germany
(b) New York, US
(c) Seattle, US
(d) Paris, France
(e) Madrid, Spain
Q.14) First-generation bio-alcohols (bioethanol) are produced via yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) fermentation of plant sugars and starches obtained from crops such as sugarcane (Saccharum sp.), sugar beet, and corn (Zeamays). Obtaining ethanol from food crops is also a practice of producing the first-generation biofuel. The 1st food-grain based ethanol factory is situated in which state?
(a) Bihar
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan
(e) Gujarat
Q.15) Coal Miners' Day is observed on ______ to honour the coal miners. The day is celebrated to highlight the contributions of coal miners in meeting our energy demands.
(a) April 8
(b) May 4
(c) June 12
(d) July 17
(e) August 19
Q.16) T+1 was implemented by which country for the first time?
(a) China
(b) Singapore
(c) Japan
(d) USA
(e) Germany
Q.17) Street vendors represent a very important constituent of the urban informal economy and play a significant role in ensuring availability of the goods and services at affordable rates at the doorstep of the city dwellers. The COVID-19 pandemic and consequent lockdowns have adversely impacted the livelihoods of street vendors. Therefore, the Central Government launched the PM-Svanidhi scheme, a Central Sector Scheme, which is fully funded by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with respect to the objectives of this scheme?
1) To facilitate working capital loan up to Rs 10,000
2) The loan will be provided for a period of 18 months
3) On early repayment, the vendors will be eligible for the next cycle of working capital loan with an enhanced limit i.e., Rs 15,000
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) Only 3
(e) Only 1 and 3
Q.18) In budget 2022, how much allocation has been made to the Jal Jeevan Mission?
(a) Rs 20,000 crore
(b) Rs 60,000 crore
(c) Rs 1,00,000 crore
(d) Rs 49,000 crore
(e) Rs 70,000 crore
Q.19) Repo Rate and CRR have been revised recently by RBI. On which date was the revision made and from which date has it been implemented?
(a) 2nd June 2022 and 18th August 2022
(b) 4th May 2022 and 21st May 2022
(c) 18th July 2022 and 1st August 2022
(d) 15th July 2022 and 31st August 2022
(e) 10th June 2022 and 1st September 2022
Q.20) The 2022 edition of 'The State of the World's Forests Report' was released on the first day of the World Forestry Congress, 2022. This year's report explores the potential of three forest pathways for achieving green recovery and tackling environmental crises, including climate change and biodiversity loss against the backdrop of the Glasgow Leaders' Declaration on Forests and Land Use and the pledge of 140 countries to eliminate forest loss by 2030 and to support restoration and sustainable production and consumption. The World State of the Forest Report is published by which organization?
(a) FAO
(b) IFAD
(c) UNEP
(d) IUCN
(e) WMO
Q.21) What is India's rank in the global fish production?
(a) 5th
(b) 2nd
(c) 8th
(d) 9th
(e) 10th
Q.22) What is the relationship between bond yields/rates and prices?
(a) Inverse relationship
(b) Direct relationship
(c) Not related
(d) Proportional relationship
(e) Indirect relationship
Q.23) Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect about the ASEEM portal?
I. Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) has launched ASEEM portal to help skilled people find sustainable livelihood opportunities
II. ASEEM stands for Atmanirbhar Skilled Employee Employer Mapping
III. It will improve the information flow and bridge the demand-supply gap in the skilled workforce market
(a) Only II and III
(b) Only I and III
(c) Only I, II, and III
(d) None are incorrect
(e) All are incorrect
Q.24) The Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) has been chosen by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, Government of India to set up the DACE centres. The objective of DACE is to empower the Scheduled Caste (SC) candidates by providing them high quality coaching absolutely free of cost for civil services examinations (Prelims and Mains). In DACE portal, E stands for?
(a) Excellence
(b) Enterprise
(c) Expertise
(d) Environment
(e) Expedition
Q.25) The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development is an intergovernmental organisation with 38 member countries to stimulate economic progress and world trade. The majority of OECD members are high-income economies with a very high Human Development Index (HDI), and are regarded as developed countries. It is a forum whose member countries describe themselves as committed to democracy and the market economy, providing a platform to compare policy experiences, seek answers to common problems, identify good practices, and coordinate domestic and international policies of its members. When was the OECD established?
(a) 1961
(b) 1987
(c) 1954
(d) 1988
(e) 1999
Q.26) The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a regional organization. Initially known as BIST-EC (Bangladesh-India-Sri Lanka-Thailand Economic Cooperation), the organisation is now known as BIMSTEC and comprises seven Member States with the admission of Myanmar on 22 December 1997, and Bhutan and Nepal in February 2004. When was BIMSTEC established?
(a) 1989
(b) 1997
(c) 1929
(d) 1990
(e) 1991
Q.27) Which is the 1st Geological Park in India?
(a) Lamheta
(b) Kurnool
(c) Anantapur
(d) Barmer
(e) Jaisalmer
Q.28) Under the Reserve Bank of India Act of 1934, RBI is entrusted with the responsibility of conducting monetary policy in India with the primary objective of maintaining price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth. RBI Act, 1934 provides for an empowered monetary policy committee (MPC) to be constituted by the Central Government for fixing the benchmark interest rate in India. The Monetary Policy Committee consists of ______ members?
(a) Seven
(b) Ten
(c) Five
(d) Six
(e) Two
Q.29) National Centre for Financial Education (NCFE) is a Not-for-Profit Company promoted by Reserve Bank of India (RBI), Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) and Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), under the aegis of Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC), Ministry of Finance, Government of India. When was NCFE established?
(a) 2013
(b) 2018
(c) 2019
(d) 2017
(e) 2012
Q.30) ECLGS- Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme has been expanded by ______ to Rs 5 lakh crore?
(a) Rs 50,000 crore
(b) Rs 30,000 crore
(c) Rs 25,000 crore
(d) Rs 20,000 crore
(e) Rs 15,000 crore
Q.31) A non-profit organization can be setup under which section of the Companies Act?
(a) Section 8
(b) Section 4
(c) Section 30
(d) Section 28
(e) Section 13
Q.32) In India, highest employment is generated in which sector after agriculture sector?
(a) Iron and Steel Industry
(b) Textile
(c) Automobile
(d) Software and IT
(e) Pharma
Q.33) How does the Monetary Policy Committee ensure transparency in inflation measurement?
(a) MPC increases/decreases policy rates
(b) MPC prepares the CPI index to measure inflation
(c) MPC monitors the residex to monitor housing prices
(d) Only A and B
(e) Only B and C
Q.34) The Employee Provident Fund's interest rate was cut to a decade low of ____ in 2021-22 fiscal?
(a) 8.1%
(b) 7.8%
(c) 8.9%
(d) 7.1%
(e) 7.5%
Q.35) If x is 18 years old and wants to have a pension of Rs 5000 when he retires under Atal Pension Yojana, then how much should he contribute regularly under Atal Pension Yojana?
(a) 300
(b) 180
(c) 150
(d) 210
(e) 250
Q.36) In order to provide skilling and livelihood opportunities, the Government of India implements various kinds of schemes from time to time. Recently, the Finance Minister of India Nirmala Sitharaman launched the DESH Stack e-portal. Through this portal, a digital ecosystem will be developed for skilling and livelihood. What does 'e' stand for in the DESH portal?
(a) Enterprise
(b) Ecosystem
(c) Effort
(d) Encore
(e) Establishment
Q.37) Peacekeeping medals were given by the United States to which country?
(a) South Sudan
(b) India
(c) Zambia
(d) Gambia
(e) Kenya
Q.38) What is the urban and rural sex ratio in India respectively?
(a) Rural- 924; Urban- 918
(b) Rural- 904; Urban- 998
(c) Rural- 933; Urban- 965
(d) Rural- 817; Urban- 980
(e) Rural- 898; Urban- 920
Q.39) When is a bank customer eligible to be insured under DICGC for his deposits made in a bank?
(a) Liquidation or Cancellation of bank's licence
(b) Amalgamation and merger
(c) Reconstruction or arrangement
(d) Only A and B
(e) Only A, B and C
Q.40) Union Minister for Finance and Corporate Affairs, Smt Nirmala Sitharaman, launched the asset monetisation pipeline of Central ministries and, public sector entities named as the 'National Monetisation Pipeline'. NITI Aayog has developed the pipeline, in consultation with infrastructure ministries, based on the mandate for 'Asset Monetisation' under Union Budget 2021-22. NMP estimates aggregate monetisation potential of ____?
(a) Rs 4 lakh crore
(b) Rs 6 lakh crore
(c) Rs 8 lakh crore
(d) Rs 10 lakh crore
(e) Rs 40 lakh crore
Q.41) What is the minimum NOF requirement for a public company to be incorporated as a Nidhi company?
(a) Rs 20 lakh
(b) Rs 40 lakh
(c) Rs 30 lakh
(d) Rs 15 lakh
(e) Rs 25 lakh
Q.42) How many beneficiaries are covered in Jal Jeevan Mission?
(a) 4.5 crore
(b) 2.7 crore
(c) 11.1 crore
(d) 3.8 crore
(e) 6.6 crore
Q.43) In which month of 2022, GST collection has exceeded Rs. 1.5 Lakh Crore mark?
(a) Rs 1.68 Lakh Crores in April 2022
(b) Rs 2.0 Lakh Crores in March 2022
(c) Rs 1.72 Lakh Crores in July 2022
(d) Rs 1.8 Lakh Crores in August 2022
(e) Rs 2.2 Lakh Crores in June 2022
Q.44) After National Education Policy, what is the allocation for education in Union Budget 2022?
(a) Rs 1,54,000 crore
(b) Rs 1,04,278 crore
(c) Rs 2,90,800 crore
(d) Rs 1,07,900 crore
(e) Rs 3,40,500 crore
Q.45) Azaadi se Antyodaya Tak Inter-ministerial campaign has been announced for?
(a) 50 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 80 days
(d) 90 days
(e) 75 days
Q.46) Jharokha scheme has been launched in how many states?
(a) 19
(b) 13
(c) 20
(d) 6
(e) 10
Q.47) The Sagarmala programme has a target of developing how many kms of inland waterways?
(a) 27,800 km
(b) 18,900 km
(c) 14,500 km
(d) 25,600 km
(e) 10,800 km
Q.48) How much additional subsidy is allocated to the fertilizer sector by the government?
(a) 2.78 lakh crore
(b) 2.55 lakh crore
(c) 0.80 lakh crore
(d) 1.10 lakh crore
(e) 2.07 lakh crore
Q.49) What is the name of the new initiative launched by the Indian Air Force and the Indian Oil Corporation Ltd.?
(a) Slice Supre Card
(b) Fleet Card - Fuel on Move
(c) OneCard Credit Card
(d) Uni Card 1/3rd card
(e) Gold credit card
Q.50) UPI and PayNow have been integrated to enable users of each of the two fast payment systems to make instant, low-cost fund transfers on a reciprocal basis without a need to get onboarded onto the other payment system. Which country does PayNow belong to?
(a) Singapore
(b) Mauritius
(c) USA
(d) Germany
(e) France
Q.51) Bharat Bond ETF is an open-ended Target Maturity Exchange Traded Bond Fund that seeks to track the returns provided by Nifty BHARAT Bond Index. Which company is tasked with managing the ETF?
(a) Aditya Birla Sun Life Mutual Fund
(b) Franklin Templeton Mutual Fund
(c) Baroda BNP Paribas Mutual Fund
(d) Edelweiss Mutual Fund
(e) Axis Mutual Fund
Q.52) Who is the next chairman of FATF and which country does he belong to?
(a) Trygve Lie from Norway
(b) Dag Hammarskjöld from Sweden
(c) Kurt Waldheim from Austria
(d) Javier Perez de Cuellar from Peru
(e) T Raja Kumar from Singapore
Q.53) Which country will provide an additional Sustainable Development aid worth 10 billion Euros to India to support the latter's green growth plan till 2030?
(a) Netherlands
(b) Germany
(c) Denmark
(d) France
(e) United Kingdom
Q.54) How many members are there in OECD?
(a) 38
(b) 43
(c) 67
(d) 80
(e) 55
Q.55) Which of the following are not MPC committee assumptions in April 2022?
(a) Assumption of a normal monsoon
(b) Moderation on international commodity price pressures
(c) Average crude oil price
(d) Steady economic recovery
(e) Tightened fiscal policy
Q.56) Which of the following is not a part of the Memorandum of a Company?
(a) Board of Director Clause
(b) Name Clause
(c) Object Clause
(d) Capital Clause
(e) Liability Clause
Q.57) How many institutions are members of the Financial Stability Board?
(a) 71
(b) 69
(c) 80
(d) 110
(e) 45
Q.58) Which of the following sector/area is not covered under the capital expenditure of government?
(a) Interest Payment
(b) Loan Repayment
(c) Grants to other countries
(d) Remittances
(e) Infrastructure development
Q.59) SBI card signed a deal with which technology company?
(a) Tata Consultancy Services
(b) IBM
(c) Infosys
(d) Wipro
(e) Oracle
Q.60) Which is India's indigenous train accident system?
(a) Kavach
(b) Netra
(c) Suraksha
(d) Saksham
(e) Nikshay
Q.61) Which state's Khadi Gramodyog Samyukta Sangha gave the contract of production and supply of the National Flag?
(a) Uttarakhand Khadi Gramodyog Samyukta Sangha
(b) Kerala Khadi Gramodyog Samyukta Sangha
(c) Telangana Khadi Gramodyog Samyukta Sangha
(d) Karnataka Khadi Gramodyog Samyukta Sangha
(e) Gujarat Khadi Gramodyog Samyukta Sangha
Q.62) Project Venus of ISRO is to be launched in?
(a) December 2024
(b) June 2022
(c) August 2023
(d) September 2025
(e) October 2027
Q.63) Cyclone Asani is named by which country?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Thailand
(c) UAE
(d) Saudi Arabia
(e) Indonesia
Q.64) Covid Champion Award has been bagged by which airport?
(a) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport
(b) Cochin International Airport Limited
(c) Lokpriya Gopinath Bordoloi International Airport
(d) Indira Gandhi International Airport
(e) Veer Savarkar International Airport
Q.65) Khelo India University Championship 2021 was won by which university?
(a) Jain University
(b) Acharya Nagarjuna University
(c) Andhra University
(d) Vikrama Simhapuri University
(e) Bodoland University
Q.66) Central Intelligence Agency has appointed ______ as CIA's first-ever Chief Technology Officer (CTO).
(a) L. Murugan
(b) Chandra Sekhar
(c) Gopal Sadhwani
(d) Nand Mulchandani
(e) Pankaj Salodia
Q.67) National Forensic Science University comes under which ministry?
(a) Ministry of Agriculture and Family Welfare
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Science and Technology
(d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(e) Ministry of Finance
Q.68) When is the World Environment Day observed?
(a) June 5
(b) August 10
(c) July 18
(d) September 20
(e) April 22
Q.69) Asia's largest event on civil aviation was jointly organised by the Ministry of Civil Aviation and FICCI at the Begumpet airport in Hyderabad. What is the name of the event?
(a) Asia Air
(b) Fly India
(c) Civil India
(d) Wings India
(e) Aviation India
Q.70) How many Debt Recovery Tribunals are presently functioning in India?
(a) 39
(b) 43
(c) 50
(d) 80
(e) 78
Q.71) As per IRDAI, ____ is the second largest general insurance company?
(a) Star Health and Allied Insurance
(b) ICICI Lombard
(c) United India General Insurance
(d) Universal Sompo General Insurance
(e) Oriental General Insurance
Q.72) As per the National Education Policy, public investment is to be raised from 4.3% to ____ % of GDP?
(a) 8%
(b) 5%
(c) 4.5%
(d) 6%
(e) 5.7%
Q.73) India's monthly merchandise exports remained above US $ ____ billion for the first time in 2021-22?
(a) $40 billion
(b) $30 billion
(c) $20 billion
(d) $5 billion
(e) $10 billion
Q.74) When is the 'Food Processing Week 2.0' celebrated?
(a) April 25 to 30
(b) May 16 to 22
(c) April 1 to 7
(d) May 1 to 7
(e) May 17 to 22
Q.75) What is the current market size of the domestic pharmaceutical industry of India?
(a) $100 billion
(b) $50 billion
(c) $30 billion
(d) $65 billion
(e) $71 billion
Q.76) Who is the new chairperson of the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT)?
(a) R. K. Dhawan
(b) Rupinder Brar
(c) Santosh Kumar
(d) Sangeeta Singh
(e) Jaspal Singh
Q.77) Who is the author of "Leaders Politicians Citizens: Fifty Figures Who Influenced India's Politics" book?
(a) Rasheed Kidwai
(b) Gyan Bhushan
(c) Rajesh Kumar
(d) Santosh Shilpkar
(e) Shoeb Samad
Q.78) With which country has India agreed to establish a lighthouse cooperation for “Agroecology and Sustainable Management of Natural Resources” to benefit the rural population and small-scale farmers in India in terms of income, food security, climate resilience, improved soil, biodiversity, forest restoration and water availability?
(a) USA
(b) Germany
(c) France
(d) Denmark
(e) UK
Q.79) Where is the 'Miyan Ka Bada' railway station located?
(a) Jalore
(b) Barmer
(c) Jhalawar
(d) Sirohi
(e) Karauli
Q.80) How much additional subsidy for phosphate-based fertilizers has been announced?
(a) Rs 50000 crore
(b) Rs 78000 crore
(c) Rs 61000 crore
(d) Rs 25000 crore
(e) Rs 30000 crore
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### English Language
Instruction for Q.81 to Q.85
Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
On attending a conference, which focused on the role of the services sector in Indian economy I was amazed. The conference gave a very interesting perspective on the role of the service sector in the growth of Indian economy in relation to growth rates in agriculture and industry.
The current situation in India is that the growth rate of services has overtaken both agriculture and industry and is now contributing to more than 50% of GDP. The service sector has the highest growth rate and is the least volatile sector. Growth is particularly marked in public services, IT and financial services.
In some areas, the growth rate of the service sector is 40-50% due to increased use of mobile technologies. India, therefore, has a service-oriented economy. It doesn't have traditional growth models as in China. However, in the process of doing so, it has skipped the manufacturing and has jumped straight from the agriculture stage to the service stage, which is also the main reason for the expansion of the service sector.
In fact, the situation now is such that the growth in the service sector can and will support the agriculture and industrial sectors. However, the only setback for Indian economy is the lack of growth in the manufacturing sector which causes dependence on other countries, which is not so desirable in terms of job creation and increased prosperity.
Population is also a major concern for the Indian economy as the population of India grows so also does the number of dependents in the population in both the lower and higher age groups. In such a scenario of increasing population, especially in an economy which is still recovering from crisis, growth becomes difficult. For such an economy to grow it has to invest.
Currently, the public sector invests more than it saves. The household sector saves in surplus, but it is not increasing so it cannot continue to support private and public sectors. There is a massive need to spend on agriculture and infrastructure development of the country. Apart from that health and education should also be the priority of the government particularly the education of women to reduce the birth rate.
Q.81) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage.
'Volatile'
(a) Erratic
(b) Impatient
(c) Stable
(d) Solid
(e) Strained
Q.82) According to the passage, which of the following is/are true about the impact of increasing population on Indian economy?
1. If India attempts to absorb all the labour force, it will impact the growth of service sector negatively and in turn hamper the economic growth of the country.
2. As the population of the country increases, the number of dependants in the country also increases which in turn increases the pressure on the economy.
3. An increasing population can never lead the economy of the country towards prosperity; in fact, it can only put strain on the economy of a country.
(a) Only 2
(b) Only 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
(e) All of these
Q.83) According to the passage, which of the following can be said about the agriculture and industry sectors in India?
1. Looking at the growth of the services sector in India it can be safely said that the service sector will soon be in a position to support both agriculture and industry sector.
2. The agriculture and the industrial sector of the country have reached their threshold and there would be no use of further investment in these sectors.
3. Currently, the agriculture and industry sectors contribute lesser as compared to the service sector to the GDP of the country.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
(e) All of these
Q.84) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage.
'Perspective'
(a) Viewpoint
(b) Prospect
(c) Attitude
(d) Agreement
(e) Proportion
Q.85) Which of the following is true as per the passage?
(a) India has not followed the conventional model of growth and has moved directly from the agriculture sector to the service sector.
(b) The service sector of the country is yet to make a mark on the IT and financial sectors of the country
(c) With availability of labour and growth in human skills, the service sector of Indian economy is booming limitlessly as there is no restriction on movement of labour
(d) India has become self-reliant and does not have to depend on other countries because of the development in the manufacturing sector.
(e) All of the above
Instructions for Q.86 to Q.90
In the following passage, some of the words have been left out. Read the passage carefully and fill in the blanks by selecting the most appropriate alternatives. The question number from which a word is to be selected out of the given alternatives, is written in each blank space.
The latest surgical tools are certainly fashionable, especially lasers and laparoscopes. But their role in transforming surgery is ____ (86), as is the excitement they generate. Dr. Sanjay Chaddha from Delhi specialises in remodelling the ____ (87) with what is called an excimer laser. “It’s like etching on gold to design jewellery”, he says. “The laser manages to either flatten or raise the cornea, solving the problem of myopia”. Now watch Dr. Harshad P, in his clinic as he gazes not at this ____ (88) but at a television screen, which his patient too is ____ (89) from the operating table. Controlled from the outside, Dr. Harshad’s laser is waltzing through his patient’s prostrate; it’s called a laser prostatectomy. A miniature camera and a beam of light from a fibre-optic wire, both at the end of a laparoscope, allow him to see ____ (90) than with the naked eyes.
Q.86)
(a) questionable
(b) discretionary
(c) unpardonable
(d) unquestionable
(e) indisputable
Q.87)
(a) body
(b) clinic
(c) world
(d) eye
(e) physique
Q.88)
(a) family
(b) future
(c) patient
(d) awards
(e) reward
Q.89)
(a) operating
(b) diagnosing
(c) watching
(d) criticising
(e) monitoring
Q.90)
(a) tens of times better
(b) not much better
(c) restricted vision
(d) more colourfully
(e) much colored
Instructions for Q.91 to Q.95
A sentence has divided into five parts, of which one part contains an error. Identify the part and mark the corresponding number as your answer. Ignore the error of punctuation, if any.
Q.91) As sugar prices have (1)/ collapsed on, supply surges for four years in (2)/ a row, user industries (3)/ are being repeated a bonanza. (4)/ No error (5).
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5
Q.92) Coffee production in India (1)/ is expected to touch a new peak this year, (2)/ as the crop prospects ae encouraging (3)/ due to adequate rains. (4)/ No error (5).
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5
Q.93) Country launched a naval operation (1)/ to stop human traffickers (2)/ by bringing migrants (3)/ across the border. (4) No error. (5)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5
Q.94) In the swimming pool area (1)/ the guards were busy (2)/ to stopping children (3)/ from falling into the leg pool. (4) No error (5).
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5
Q.95) If cooking is an expression of love and you want (1)/ your loved ones to know how much you love them (2)/ it will be a pity if you could (3)/ did no much than order pizza. (4) No error (5).
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5
Instructions for Q.96 to Q.100
Each question below has two blanks, each blank is indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.
Q.96) Researchers ____ that eating less meat would help in ____ water resources in dry areas around the world.
(a) opine; conserve
(b) said; procuring
(c) suggest; removing
(d) prove; store
(e) believe; preserving
Q.97) Harish ____ with me some basic techniques that one can ____ at home without even owning a drum set.
(a) made; shred
(b) imparted; try
(c) learned; balance
(d) fits; rehearses
(e) shared; practice
Q.98) Forest department officials said that when the elephants were made to ____ from their trucks, they went straight to the spot where they had been ____ during the camp.
(a) jump; killed
(b) alight; tied
(c) enter; hurt
(d) step; played
(e) exit; enjoyed
Q.99) A collision between two houses ____ 6 people dead, ____ the driver of one of the buses.
(a) made; also
(b) left; including
(c) caused; combined
(d) resulted; except
(e) got; surpassing
Q.100) The protests were ____ at ____ awareness among the elite and the educated.
(a) held; generating
(b) aimed; creating
(c) targeted; awakening
(d) focused; building
(e) concentrated; producing
Q.101) In each of the following questions, a sentence split into four parts labelled 1, 2, 3, 4 is given. Rearrange the parts to form the original sentence and select the correct order from among the five choices given below.
1) acquires the nature of a corrective mechanism
2) of different hues and degrees
3) for a nation whose secular credentials are being nibbled at by various reactionary forces
4) any reminder of the ideology professed by its first Prime Minister
(a) 4321
(b) 3241
(c) 1243
(d) 3124
(e) 1432
Q.102)
1) depends not on merit and ability but on quotas based on caste
2) or have a good work ethic as one of its core values
3) community and gender or any other criterion, can hardly be stable
4) a society where access to education and jobs
(a) 3241
(b) 4231
(c) 3214
(d) 4123
(e) 4132
Q.103)
1) to locate the right man for the right job
2) with the dotcom frenzy refusing to suicide despite forecasts of a burnout
3) the high exit volume and the paucity of time and avenues
4) placement – fairs have moved in to rectify what software companies have been struggling with for some time
(a) 4123
(b) 3124
(c) 2431
(d) 2341
(e) 3214
Q.104)
1) the left democratic front government in Kerala
2) a section of the police force and some political parties in the ruling alliance
3) has shelved its plans to start the much-publicized people's policing scheme
4) faced with stiff opposition from the public
(a) 1342
(b) 2134
(c) 2341
(d) 4213
(e) 1423
Q.105)
1) Psychiatrists, child workers and educationists are emphasizing the importance of bed time stories
2) the practice of children watching television or playing computer games before going to bed
3) and they are questioning
4) since the kids are bidding adieu to fairy tales or the simple habit of reading at bed time for a variety of reasons
(a) 2413
(b) 4231
(c) 2314
(d) 1234
(e) 1324
Instructions for Q.106 to Q.110
Read the following passage carefully and answer the given questions.
In a reversal of the norm elsewhere, in India policy-makers and economists have become optimists while bosses do the worrying. The country's Central Bank has predicted that the country's economy is likely to grow at a double-digit rate during the next 20-30 years. India has the capability with its vast labour and lauded entrepreneurial spirit.
But the private sector which is supposed to do the heavy lifting that turns India from the world's 10th largest economy to the third largest by 2030 has become fed up. Business people often carp about India's problems, but their irritation this time has a nervous edge. In the first quarter of 2011, GDP grew at an annual rate of 7.8%; in 2005-07, it managed 9-10%.
The economy may be slowing naturally as the low interest rates and public spending that got India through the global crisis are belatedly withdrawn. At the same time, the surge in inflation caused by exorbitant food prices has spread more widely, casting doubt over whether India can grow at 8-10% in the medium term without overheating.
In India, as in many fast-growing nations, the confidence to invest depends on the conviction that the long-term trajectory is intact, and it is that which is in doubt. Big Indian firms too sometimes seem happier to invest abroad than at home, in deals that are often hailed as symbols of the country's growing clout, but sometimes speak of its weaknesses – purchases of natural resources that India has in abundance, but struggles to get out of the ground.
In fact, a further dip in investment could be self-fulfilling if fewer roads, ports and factories are built, this will hurt both short-term growth figures and reduce the economy's long-term capacity. There is a view that because a fair amount of growth is assured, the government need not try very hard. The liberalisation reforms that began in 1991 freed markets for products and gave rise to vibrant competition.
At the same time, what economists call factor markets, those for basic inputs like land, power, labour etc. remain unreformed and largely under state control, etc. which creates difficulties. Clearances today can take three to four years and many employers are keen to replace workers with machines despite an abundance of labour force.
This can be attributed to labour laws which are inimical to employee creation and to the education system, that means finding quality manpower is a major problem. In fact, the Planning Commission concluded that even achieving 9% growth will need marked policy action in unreformed sectors. 20 years ago, it was said that the yardstick against which India should be measured was its potential and it is clear that there remains much to do.
Q.106) Which of the following can be said about the Indian economy at present?
(a) It can comfortably achieve double digit growth rate at present.
(b) High food prices have led to overheating of the economy.
(c) Citizens are affluent owing to laxity in regulation.
(d) Private sector confidence in India's growth potential is high.
(e) Unreformed sectors are a drag on economic growth.
Q.107) Why are employers reluctant to hire Indian labour force?
1) India's labour force is overqualified for the employment opportunities available.
2) High attrition rate among employees is stemming from their entrepreneurial spirit.
3) Labour laws are not conducive to generating employment.
(a) Only 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
Q.108) What is the state of India's basic input sectors at present?
(a) These sectors attract Foreign Direct Investment because of their vast potential.
(b) These sectors are lagging as projects are usually awarded to foreign companies.
(c) These sectors are stagnating and badly in need of reforms.
(d) These sectors are well regulated as these are governed by state.
(e) None of the above
Q.109) What is the author's main objective in writing the passage?
(a) Showcasing India's growth potential to entice foreign investors.
(b) Exhorting India to implement measures to live up to its potential.
(c) Recommending India's model of development to other developing countries.
(d) Berating the private sector for not bidding for infrastructure development projects.
(e) Criticising the measures taken by India during the economic crisis.
Q.110) What impact has the GDP growth of 7.8% had?
1) Indian Industry is anxious about India's economic growth.
2) India has achieved status as the world's third economy at present.
3) Foreign investment in India has drastically increased
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) All of these
(e) None of these
---
### Quantitative Aptitude
Q.111) Marked price is 1.45 times of cost price. Selling price is Rs 1500. The profit is 25%. Find the discount percentage.
(a) 14%
(b) 15%
(c) 16%
(d) 12%
(e) 13%
Instruction for Q.112 to Q.115
Identify the wrong term (X) and answer the questions that follow: 2,3,7,22,89,445,2677,18740
Q.112) Find the LCM of (X - 400) and 25.
(a) 125
(b) 250
(c) 225
(d) 275
(e) 450
Q.113) 20% of X is same as which number from left?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fourth
(e) Fifth
Q.114) Which of the following is a prime number?
(a) X + 2
(b) X + 4
(c) X + 5
(d) X + 3
(e) X + 6
Q.115) In Jar A, there is 40 litres milk and 6 litres water. In Jar B, there is 78 litres mixture of milk and water and the ratio is 10:3. A and B jars are emptied in a Jar C. In Jar C, there is already 6 litres water. What is the percentage of water in Jar C?
(a) 77%
(b) 25%
(c) 23%
(d) 75%
(e) 21%
Instruction for Q.116
Consider the given question and decide which of the following statements is sufficient to answer the question.
Q.116) What is the speed of train A?
Statement A: The length of train A is 180m and the length of train B is 220m.
Statement B: If train A crossed train B in 25 sec, both trains are running in the opposite direction.
(a) If question can be answered using A alone but not using B alone
(b) If question can be answered using B alone but not using A alone
(c) If question can be answered using either of the statements alone
(d) If question can be answered using both statements together but not using either A or B alone
(e) If question can't be answered even using A and B together
Instruction for Q.117 to Q.118
Consider the below given two series (with two missing values P and Q) and answer the questions thereafter:
15, 17, 11, 23, P, 33
400, Q, 300, 750, 2625, 11812.5
Q.117) If R is a composite value such that 14 < R < 18, what can be the possible values of (P + R)?
1) 18
2) 19
3) 20
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(e) Only 1
Q.118) Find the value of (Q - 2) / P x 3
(a) 180
(b) 186
(c) 198
(d) 201
(e) 192
Instruction for Q.119 to Q.121
Consider the below two quadratic equations:
ax² - 9x + 7 = 0
by² - 8y + 4 = 0
• a and b are positive integers
• b > a
• 6/b is the bigger root of second equation
• The ratio of highest roots of equation 1 to 2 is 7:4.
Q.119) What are the values of a and b respectively?
(a) 1, 2
(b) 2, 3
(c) 1, 3
(d) 3, 1
(e) 3, 2
Q.120) Find the roots of the first equation.
(a) 2; 2/3
(b) 1; 2
(c) 1; 7/2
(d) 2; 3
(e) 1; 5/4
Q.121) Find the roots of the second equation.
(a) 2; 3
(b) 1; 2
(c) 2/3; 2
(d) 4/3; 1
(e) 5/2; 3
Q.122) What is Amit's present age?
1) Five years ago, Amit's age was double that of his daughter's age at that time.
2) Present ages of Amit and his daughter are in the ratio of 11:6 respectively.
3) Five years hence, the respective ratio of Amit's age and his daughter's age will become 12:7.
(a) Only 1 and 3 are sufficient to answer the question
(b) Only 1 and 2 are sufficient to answer the question
(c) Only 2 and 3 are sufficient to answer the question
(d) Any two of the three statements are sufficient to answer the question
(e) All 1, 2 and 3 are required to answer the question
Q.123) A invested 2000 more than B. A left the business after 8 months. If annual profit is 6800 and share of A is 400F, then find the investment of B.
Note: 7F² = 472 - √576
(a) 2400
(b) 4000
(c) 6000
(d) 7200
(e) 8000
Q.124) Rohan mixed two varieties of clay for selling the mixture in his shop. What is the quantity of clay of the first variety in the mixture?
A) The price of the first variety of clay is Rs 36 per kg. Rohan earned a profit of 20% by selling the mixture at Rs 57.60 per kg.
B) The price of second variety of clay is Rs 50 per kg. The difference between the quantity of first variety and the second variety of clay in the mixture is 3 kg.
(a) If question can be answered using A alone but not using B alone
(b) If question can be answered using B alone but not using A alone
(c) If question can be answered using either of the statements alone
(d) If question can be answered using both statements together but not using either A or B alone
(e) If question can't be answered even using A and B together
Q.125) What is the rate of the compound interest?
A) A sum of 1000, amounts to 1331 at the rate of compound interest.
B) The amount was invested for the period of three years.
C) The simple interest received on that amount in one year is equal to the compound interest received on that amount in the first year.
(a) The data in statements A and C together are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement B are not sufficient to answer the question.
(b) The data in statements A and B together are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement C are not sufficient to answer the question.
(c) The data in statement A, B and C together are not sufficient to answer the question.
(d) The data in statement only A and B together or only statement C are sufficient.
(e) The data in all the statements A, B and C together are necessary to answer the question.
Q.126) A boat with a speed of 21 km/hr in still water, travels from point A to B in the downstream direction and returns to point A. Another boat with speed of 28 km/hr travels from B to A and returns to point B. The difference between the time taken by them to cover the distance is 6.5 hrs. What is the distance between points A and B, if the speed of stream is 7 km/hr?
(a) 420 km
(b) 120 km
(c) 280 km
(d) 350 km
(e) 210 km
Q.127) A person can purchase three articles in Rs. 49. What is the price of costliest article?
A) The cost price of two articles each is Rs. 1 less than the cost price of costliest article.
B) The cost price of two articles is same.
C) The cost price of costliest article is 6.25% more than the cost price of cheapest article.
(a) Either statement A alone or statements B and C together are sufficient.
(b) Only statement C is sufficient.
(c) Only statement A and B together are sufficient.
(d) Only statement A and C together are sufficient.
(e) None of these
Q.128) ABC bank offers 12% interest per annum compounded half yearly on deposits. DEF Bank and GHI Bank offer simple interest but the annual interest rate offered by GHI Bank is twice that of DEF Bank. Sameer invests a certain amount in DEF Bank for a certain period and Seema invests Rs 20,000 in GHI Bank for twice that period. The interest that would accrue to Sameer during that period is equal to the interest that would have accrued had he invested the same amount in ABC Bank for one year. The interest accrued to Seema is
(a) Rs 9992
(b) Rs 9888
(c) Rs 9910
(d) Rs 9844
(e) None of the above
Q.129) A double-decker bus travelled at 2/3rd of its normal speed and therefore reached the destination 45 minutes after the scheduled time. On its return journey, the bus initially travelled at its normal speed for 10 minutes but then stopped for 5 minutes for an emergency. The percentage by which the bus must now increase its normal speed in order to reach the destination at the scheduled time, is nearest to
(a) 9%
(b) 6.67%
(c) 10%
(d) 13.33%
(e) 5%
Instruction for Q.130 to Q.133
Study the following pie charts carefully and answer the questions given beside.
Total number of commodities being manufactured in a factory is 10,00,000 units. Total commodities being sold are 2,80,000 units. There are 6 types of commodities namely A, B, C, D, E and F. Total number of commodities manufactured of these six types in terms of percentage has been given in pie chart-1, and pie chart-2 gives the number of commodities unsold in terms of degrees.
Q.130) In pie chart-2, there is some discrepancy in one of the commodities in terms of number of units sold and unsold. Identify that commodity.
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Q.131) The average number of units unsold of commodities B, D and F together are what % of total manufactured units of commodity B?
(a) 110.33%
(b) 108.66%
(c) 110.66%
(d) 108.33%
(e) None of the above
Q.132) Half of units sold of commodity A, one-fourth units sold of commodity C and one-fifth units sold of commodity D were sold to a particular customer. If the number of units sold to this particular customer are represented on a pie chart, then what corresponding angle the number of units sold of C will make? (approximately)
(a) 40°
(b) 42°
(c) 44°
(d) 46°
(e) 48°
Q.133) It is known that 15%, 10% and 5% of units unsold of commodities A, C, and F respectively are defective, while 10% and 20% of B and D respectively are defective. In B and D, how many more/less units are defective with respect to A, C, and F?
(a) 5%
(b) 5.25%
(c) 6%
(d) 6.25%
(e) 7%
Instruction for Q.134 to Q.137
Study the table and answer the given question.
The below table contains data related to salary structure of individuals from different organizations in March:
| Individuals | Basic salary (Rs) | Total allowance (Rs) | Total deduction (Rs) | Net salary (Rs) |
|-------------|-------------------|----------------------|----------------------|-----------------|
| P | 21800 | 28600 | - | - |
| Q | - | - | 4350 | 25850 |
| R | 10400 | 12400 | 2800 | 20000 |
| S | 11200 | 13800 | - | - |
| T | - | 21600 | 5700 | - |
Note: Total Deduction = Provident Fund Deduction (which is 10% of the basic salary) + Other deduction
Net salary = Basic salary + Total Allowance – Total Deduction
Q.134) If Q's total allowance was Rs.3,000 more than his basic salary, what was his total allowance?
(a) Rs. 18,000
(b) Rs. 16,600
(c) Rs. 15,500
(d) Rs. 19,000
(e) Rs. 22,000
Q.135) If the respective ratio of Provident Fund Deduction and other deduction of S was 7:13, what was S's other deduction?
(a) Rs. 3100
(b) Rs. 2080
(c) Rs. 3500
(d) Rs. 2150
(e) Rs. 3245
Q.136) If other deduction of P was Rs. 4,720, what was his net salary?
(a) Rs. 35500
(b) Rs. 42510
(c) Rs. 51000
(d) Rs. 40000
(e) Rs. 43500
Q.137) Basic salary of S is what percent more than the basic salary of R?
(a) 1(1/12)%
(b) 3(4/13)%
(c) 5(1/12)%
(d) 7(9/13)%
(e) 4(3/8)%
Instruction for Q.138 to Q.140
The given line graph shows the number of passengers travelled by 2 cab drivers and the table shows the percentage of females who travelled in the cabs in different months.
| Month | Driver A Percentage of females | Driver B Percentage of females |
|-----------|--------------------------------|--------------------------------|
| May | 30% | 50% |
| June | 50% | 70% |
| July | 20% | 40% |
| August | 60% | 30% |
| September | 40% | 50% |
Q.138) Find the ratio of the average of the female in the month of June and July by Driver A to the average of the males in the same month by Driver B.
(a) 55 : 42
(b) 42 : 55
(c) 11 : 17
(d) 17 : 11
(e) 29 : 27
Q.139) Driver A rejects 20% of the total passengers who booked for the cab in the month of May and Driver B rejects 10% of the passengers who booked for the cab for the same month. Find how much percent Driver A picks the passengers less than that of Driver B in the same month.
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 40%
(d) 20%
(e) 33.33%
Q.140) Find the ratio of number of female passengers who booked for Driver A in the month of July and August to the number of male passengers who booked for Driver B in the month of May and September.
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 1 : 4
(c) 3 : 7
(d) 5 : 6
(e) 2 : 5
---
### Reasoning
Q.141) From which of the below given words maximum words can be formed by replacing the vowel with other vowels without changing the position of any letter?
(a) SICK
(b) LIST
(c) TICK
(d) TEST
(e) FARM
Q.142) In the word “REVOLUTION”, how many pairs of letters has as many vowels between them as in the English Alphabet from left to right?
(a) two
(b) three
(c) four
(d) more than four
(e) None of the above
Q.143) In which of the following pairs, at least one of the words cannot be formed into any other word?
(a) Sink, tile
(b) deaf, bask
(c) face, dust
(d) clay, veil
(e) bean, arty
Q.144)
W ≤ A ≤ S ≤ P = T
Z > T > Y > E
J = H ≥ K ≥ P
(a) J < S
(b) J > S
(c) J ≥ S
(d) J ≤ S
(e) J = S or the relationship can't be determined
Instruction for Q.145 to Q.149
Study the following information and answer the questions given below.
Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U, and V are from seven different countries India, Brazil, China, USA, UAE, UK, and Russia not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them works in the same company but on different designation i.e., Chief Executive Officer (CEO), Chairman, Manager, Deputy Manager (DM), Assistant Manager (AM), Assistant and Clerk. These ranks are given in descending order (ex. CEO is the senior and Clerk is the junior). P is senior to V but he is neither CEO nor Manager. U is senior to R who is not from UAE. Two designations are between Q and the one who is from Brazil. P is from China and immediate senior to the one who is from UAE. Q is a junior to the AM and he is from Russia. More than four people are senior to S. The number of people who are senior to the one who is from Brazil is the same as the number of people junior to V. T is from the USA and is junior to one who is from India.
Q.145) What is the designation of V?
(a) COO
(b) Manager
(c) DM
(d) Assistant
(e) AM
Q.146) How many persons are senior to T?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) None
Q.147) Who among the following is from UAE?
(a) P
(b) R
(c) S
(d) V
(e) U
Q.148) Which of the following is the incorrect pair?
(a) P - China
(b) Assistant - S
(c) T - Chairman
(d) R - Brazil
(e) CEO - India
Q.149) How many designations are there between U and S?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5
Instruction for Q.150
In a family, T is the mother of J. J is the husband of C. C is the mother of K. K is married to L. Y is the mother of L. Y is married to S. R is married to P. K is the brother of P. O is the daughter of K.
Q.150) How is O related to R?
(a) Niece
(b) Nephew
(c) Son
(d) Can't be determined
(e) Daughter
Instruction for Q.151
The critical reasoning question is given below consists of a passage followed by three statements and a question. You must read the passage, question, and statements carefully to choose the correct alternative.
Passage: The sense that justice requires punishment for wrongs runs deep and is not the same as a mere thirst for revenge or a desire to get even. On the contrary, punishment plays an important role in any healthy moral ecosystem.
Statements: (A) Healthy moral ecosystem is desirable. (B) Forgiving is a bad practice. (C) Punishment at times is to be given to the wrong people.
Q.151) Which of the above three statements is an assumption implicit in the passage?
(a) Only A
(b) Both A and B
(c) Only B
(d) Both A and C
(e) Both B and C
Instruction for Q.152
Read the following passage and find out the inferences stated through the passage.
Statement: A biofuel is produced through contemporary processes from biomass rather than conventional fossil fuels. They are renewable energy resources and can play an important role in minimizing CO2 emissions. Crop residues could be turned to biofuel but our farmers require proper incentives and handholding.
Q.152) Which of the following can be logically inferred from the statement above?
(a) Other countries are generating Bio fuels which are Eco-friendly.
(b) This is a good example of re-cycling where waste can be converted into something productive.
(c) Bio fuels have a high calorific value in comparison to the conventional fossil fuels.
(d) Government has not done much for the farmers in the past.
(e) None of these.
Instruction for Q.153
In the question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. You have to assume everything in the statement to be true and on the basis of the information given in the statement, decide which of the suggested course of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Q.153)
Statement: Urban India generates 62 million tonnes of waste annually, and it has been predicted that this will reach 165 million tonnes in 2030.
Courses of Action:
I) Classification of the garbage into recyclable and non-recyclable material must be implemented at every level in the country.
II) Regular waste audits should be conducted across the country so that smarter purchasing decisions are made.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows
(d) Neither I nor II follows
(e) Both I and II follow
Instruction for Q.154
In the question below are given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursuing.
Q.154)
Statement: The management of XYZ Ltd has been at the receiving end of constant complaints from its employees about the HR department. The management is concerned that poor HR management will likely spread to impact all levels of the company causing issues such as employee conflict, poor team building, personality conflicts among many others.
Which of the following statements is/are a viable course of action to tackle the problem?
I) Replacing the HR personnel with a HR management software.
II) Develop an effective training program for HR which includes guidance on the company's interdepartmental communications improvement.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Both I and II follow
(d) Neither I nor II follows
(e) Either I or II follows
Instruction for Q.155 to Q.159
Study the following information carefully to answer the questions given below.
There are four floors in a given hall such that floor 2 is above floor 1 and floor 3 is above floor 2 and so on. There are three flats in each floor such that flat 3 is in the east of Flat 2 and Flat 2 is in the east of Flat 1. In each flat, a certain number of persons live and the same number of persons do not live in two flats at the same time. There are six persons on an even number of flat and even number of floor. The number of persons living in flat 3 of floor 2 is a multiple of 4 but less than 10. There are four persons on either flat 1 or flat 2 of floor 4. The number of persons living in flat 1 of floor 2 is a multiple of 6 but less than 18. There are 10 people living in flat 3 on floor 1. The total number of persons living on floor 2 is 26. There are 11 persons in an even-numbered floor of flat 1. The total number of persons on floor 4 is 29. The sum of the number of persons on flat 3 comprising all the floor is 37. One of the odd-numbered flats of floor 3 contains 7 persons. The number of persons available on flat 1 of floor 1 is the difference in the total number of persons available on flat 3 on floor 2 and flat 3 of floor 3. The number of people living on flat 2 of floor 3 is a square of the number of persons available on flat 1 of floor 1. The total number of persons on flat 2 comprising all floor is 32.
Q.155) How many persons are in flat 3 in 2nd floor?
(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
Q.156) How many total persons are there in flat 1 in all floor?
(a) 32
(b) 29
(c) 33
(d) Data inadequate
(e) None of these
Q.157) 12 persons are on which floor?
(a) floor 1
(b) floor 2
(c) floor 3
(d) floor 4
(e) Data inadequate
Q.158) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way, based on their position. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
(a) 11
(b) 12
(c) 8
(d) 5
(e) 14
Q.159) Choose the correct option:
(a) 7 persons are in flat 2's row 2.
(b) Total 20 persons are in row 3.
(c) Difference between total no. of persons between flat 1 and flat 3 is 4.
(d) 14 persons are in Row 2's flat 3.
(e) None of these
Q.160)
Statements: The COVID-19 pandemic is reaching a peak and the economy of the world is suffering a lot because of it.
Assumptions:
I) Some pandemics are capable of destroying the world's economy.
II) The economy of the world can never be affected no matter how big a threat is.
(a) Only I is implicit
(b) Only II is implicit
(c) Either I or II is implicit
(d) None
(e) Both are implicit
Instruction for Q.161
In each of the following questions, a statement is given followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions can be drawn definitely from the given statement.
Q.161)
Statement: The banking system in India has four tiers: (a) scheduled commercial banks, (b) regional rural banks, (c) cooperative banks, (d) payment banks and small finance banks.
Conclusions:
I) The scheduled commercial banks are the most significant category in India's banking system.
II) India is planning to expand its banking network.
(a) Only I follows
(b) Only II follows
(c) Both I and II follow
(d) Neither I nor II follows
(e) Either I or II follows
Instruction for Q.162 to Q.166
Read the given information and answer the below questions.
Ten Managers namely Raman, Ankit, Raja, Aman, Akshay, Ajay, Priyank, Rahul, Shubham and Tarun from an MNC have meeting on five different days starting from Monday to Friday of the same week but not necessarily in the same order. Managers have meeting at two different time slots 08:45 AM and 12:45 PM. Shubham has a meeting on Tuesday at 08:45 AM. The number of people who have meeting between Priyank and Aman is the same as the number of people who have the meeting between Raja and Rahul. Ankit has the meeting on the day immediately before Shubham. Shubham does not have meeting on any of the days before Priyank. There is one manager who has meeting at 08:45 AM immediately before Tarun. Rahul does not have meeting at 12:45 PM. Aman does not have meeting on any day after Akshay. Only three people have meeting between Priyank and Akshay. Neither Priyank nor Akshay has any meeting on Friday. Only 2 people have meeting between Ajay and Tarun. Ajay does not have any meeting on any of the day after Rahul.
Q.162) Which of the following is the group of people whose meeting slot is 8:45 AM?
(a) Priyank, Shubham, Akshay, Ajay, Rahul
(b) Priyank, Shubham, Raman, Ajay, Rahul
(c) Priyank, Shubham, Akshay, Ajay, Tarun
(d) Either A or B
(e) None of these
Q.163) What is time and day for meeting of Raman?
(a) Thursday – 8 : 45 AM
(b) Thursday – 12 : 45 PM
(c) Friday – 8 : 45 AM
(d) Friday – 12 : 45 PM
(e) None of these
Q.164) How many people have meeting between Raman and Shubham?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) Can't be determined
(e) None of these
Q.165) Whose meeting is on Friday?
(a) Rahul and Tarun
(b) Raman and Ajay
(c) Rahul and Raman
(d) Either 2 or 3
(e) None of these
Q.166) Which of the following statement is definitely false?
(a) Shubham has meeting on Tuesday
(b) Aman has meeting on Tuesday
(c) Rahul has meeting on Friday
(d) Ajay has meeting on Monday
(e) All are true
Instruction for Q.167
The following question consists of three statements numbered I, II and III. Decide if data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the questions below.
Q.167) Among five friends P, Q, R, S and T each studying in a different standard, viz 3rd, 4th, 5th, 6th and 8th. In which standard does R study?
I) Q studies in a standard which is an odd number. R is Q's senior but does not study in 8th standard.
II) Only three students are senior to P. Q is senior to P but junior to R.
III) S is not junior to T.
(a) Inadequate data
(b) Only II
(c) Only I and II
(d) Only I and III
(e) All I, II and III
Instruction for Q.168
The following question consists of three statements numbered I, II and III. Decide if the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read the statements carefully and give the answer.
Q.168) Which word would be coded as CHAPTER?
I) In the code language, 'Chapter is complete' is written as 'DIBQUFS JT DPNMFUF'
II) In the same language, 'This chapter is very easy' is written as 'UIJT DIBQUFS JT WFSZ FBTZ'
III) In the same language, 'Manish is intelligent' is written as 'NBOJTI JT JOUFMMJHFOU'
(a) Only I and II are sufficient
(b) Only I and III are sufficient
(c) All the statements are needed to answer the question
(d) Only II and III are sufficient
(e) Question cannot be answered even with the information in all the statements
Instruction for Q.169
Given below is a question with two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the statements and give the answer.
Q.169) Among A, B, C, D and E, who is in the middle while standing in a row?
Statements:
I) C, who is third to the left of D, is at the immediate right of A, and second to the left of E.
II) C is second to the left of E, who is not at any of the ends and who is third to the right of A.
(a) I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient
(b) II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
(c) Either I or II is sufficient.
(d) Neither I nor II is sufficient
(e) Both I and II are required
Instruction for Q.170 to Q.174
Read the following information and answer the questions given below:
Eight friends – A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H – are seated in a row, but not necessarily in the same order. Some of them are facing north and the others are facing south. Each of the friends likes a different colour among white, green, blue, red, yellow, black, pink and purple.
I. E sits four places away from the person who likes pink colour. The person who likes pink faces south.
II. D sits two places away from the person who likes pink.
III. More than two persons sit between D and E. D and E face the same direction.
IV. One of the immediate neighbours of the person who likes pink likes black. Either A or C likes black.
V. B sits second to the right of the person who likes black but does not sit adjacent to D. Only two persons sit between B and G.
VI. The person who likes yellow sits second to the left of B.
VII. The person who likes green sits to the immediate right of G and faces in the opposite direction to that of the person who likes blue.
VIII. H sits to the immediate left of the person who likes blue. Only one person sits between F and the person who likes blue.
IX. A sits to the immediate right of the person who likes purple. The person who likes red sits second to the left of H.
Q.170) Who among the following sits at an extreme end of the row?
(a) The person who likes yellow
(b) The person who likes blue
(c) The person who likes red
(d) The person who likes purple
(e) The person who likes black
Q.171) Four among the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Find the one which does not belong to that group.
(a) B
(b) F
(c) A
(d) G
(e) D
Q.172) Which of the following is true about F?
(a) F faces north direction
(b) F sits third to the right of A
(c) F and H face the same direction.
(d) F likes purple
(e) F is the immediate neighbour of E
Q.173) What is the position of H with respect to the person who likes purple?
(a) Fourth to the left
(b) Third to the left
(c) Second to the right
(d) Third to the right
(e) Second to the left
Q.174) Find the odd one out.
(a) Red-Blue
(b) White-Green
(c) Pink-Black
(d) Green-Pink
(e) Black-Red
Q.175)
Statements: L ≥ A ≥ C, K = Y ≤ C, H > D ≤ K, A > E < Y
Conclusions:
I) D ≤ A
II) A = D
III) L > Y
(a) All the conclusions follow
(b) Either conclusion I or II follows
(c) Only conclusion III follows
(d) Only conclusion II and III follow
(e) None of the conclusions follows
Q.176)
Statements: M > H = A, X ≥ G < H, Y < M < P, G > O > K
Conclusions:
I) P > X
II) G < P
III) Y < H
(a) All the conclusions follow
(b) Either conclusion I or II follows
(c) Only conclusion I and III follow
(d) Only conclusion II follows
(e) None of the conclusions follows
Instruction for Q.177 to Q.179
Given below are the codes for the digits/symbols. Study the conditions given below and answer the questions accordingly:
| Digit/Symbol | Code |
|--------------|------|
| 5 | F |
| 9 | C |
| % | O |
| 2 | G |
| # | S |
| & | B |
| 0 | T |
| @ | E |
| 8 | A |
| * | L |
| 1 | H |
| ! | M |
| $ | P |
| 3 | J |
| 4 | V |
| ? | Q |
| 7 | D |
Conditions:
I) If the right most element in the group is an odd digit and the left most element is an even digit, then reverse the order of the code for the group.
II) If the right most element is a symbol and the left most is an even digit, then the codes of these two get interchanged.
III) If both the right most and the left most elements are symbols, then the code for both will be Z.
IV) If the right most element in the group is an even digit and the left most element is an odd digit, then the codes for the first two elements get interchanged between them and the codes for the last two elements get interchanged between them.
V) If the right most element is an odd digit and the left most element is a symbol, then the code for both will be X.
Q.177) 5@*8172
(a) EFLAHDG
(b) FELAHDG
(c) FELAHGD
(d) EFLAHGD
(e) None of the above
Q.178) 40!371&
(a) VHDJMTB
(b) BTMJDHV
(c) TBMJDVH
(d) VTMJDHB
(e) ZTMJDHZ
Q.179) 857&219
(a) AFDBGHC
(b) FADBGCH
(c) CHGBDFA
(d) CFDBGHA
(e) YFDBGHY
Instruction for Q.180
Study the below given information and answer the questions that follow
In a certain code language,
'board neck spiritual truck' is written as 'ga po ni fu'
'spiritual bloom if preach' is written as 'dx ga bd pk'
'truck for neck preach' is written as 'ni sr fu dx'
'board bloom if bird' is written as 'bd po pk ke'
Q.180) What is the code for 'bloom' as per the given code language?
(a) dx
(b) ga
(c) either 'bd' or 'pk'
(d) either 'ni' or 'po'
(e) po
Instruction for Q.181
In the question below are given three statements followed by three conclusions I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the given conclusions and then decide which of the following conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Q.181)
Statements: Some Lipsticks are Gloss. Some Gloss are not Lip Balms. All Lip Balms are Lip Pencil.
Conclusions:
I. Some Lip Pencils being Gloss is a possibility.
II. All Lip Balms being Lipstick is a possibility.
III. Some Lip Pencil being Lip Balm is a possibility.
(a) Only Conclusion I follows
(b) Both Conclusion I and II follows
(c) Only Conclusion III follows
(d) Both Conclusion I and III follows
(e) None of these
Instruction for Q.182
Read the question in statement is given followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. Consider the statement and decide which of the given assumptions are implicit.
Q.182)
Statement: “If you have obtained 75 per cent or more marks in XII Standard examination, your admission to our coaching class for NEET is guaranteed”, a XYZ coaching institute advertisement.
Assumptions:
I. Bright students do not generally opt for attending coaching classes.
II. The coaching class has adequate capacity to accommodate all such students.
(a) Only assumption I is implicit
(b) Only assumption II is implicit
(c) Both assumption I and II is implicit
(d) Either assumption I or II is implicit
(e) Neither assumption I nor II is implicit
Instruction for Q.183 and Q.184
Below in each question are given two statements (A) and (B). These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choices correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.
Q.183)
(A) The meteorological department has issued a statement mentioning deficit rainfall during monsoon in many parts of the country.
(B) The Government has lowered the revised estimated GDP growth from the level of earlier estimates.
(a) Statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is the effect.
(b) Statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is the effect.
(c) Both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
(d) Both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.
(e) Both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.
Q.184)
(A) As per the statistics there has been a rise in the number of electric cars in country 'X' this year.
(B) The oil prices have fallen strongly in country 'X' this year and are estimated to stay low for at least two years for now and not decrease further.
(a) Statement (A) is the cause and statement (B) is the effect.
(b) Statement (B) is the cause and statement (A) is the effect.
(c) Both the statements (A) and (B) are independent causes.
(d) Both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of independent causes.
(e) Both the statements (A) and (B) are effects of some common cause.
Instruction for Q.185
In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between 'strong' and 'weak' arguments. 'Strong' arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. 'Weak' arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question.
Q.185)
Statement: Should the institutes of higher learnings in India like IITs and IIMs be made totally free from government control?
Arguments:
I. No, government needs to regulate functions of these institutes for national interest.
II. Yes, such institutes in the developed countries are run by non-government agencies.
III. No, these institutes are not capable to take policy decisions for smooth functioning.
(a) Only I is strong
(b) Only III is strong
(c) I and II are strong
(d) I and III are strong
(e) All the three are strong
Instruction for Q.186 to Q.190
Study the following information carefully to answer the following questions:
There are eight persons J, K, L, M, R, O, P and N are sitting around a rectangular table in such a way that four of them sit at four corners of the Table while four sits in the middle of each of the four sides. The one who sit at the four corners face outside the centre while those who sit in the middle of the sides face inside. P sit second to the left of O. K sits second to the right of J. L sits third to the left of N. L faces inside. R sits third to the left O. L is not the immediate neighbour of J.
Q.186) Who among the following sits second to the right of K?
(a) M
(b) N
(c) L
(d) R
(e) None of these
Q.187) Four of the following five belongs to a group. Find the one that does not belong to that group.
(a) L
(b) R
(c) K
(d) N
(e) J
Q.188) Who among the following faces R?
(a) K
(b) L
(c) M
(d) N
(e) None of these
Q.189) Who among the following sits third to the left of the one who sits second to the right of R?
(a) O
(b) P
(c) N
(d) L
(e) None of these
Q.190) Who among the following sits exactly opposite to M?
(a) L
(b) R
(c) N
(d) P
(e) None of these
Instruction for Q.191 to Q.195
Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
When a number and number arrangement machine is given an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: weight 34 93 and 14 density 84 concept to 49 74 be understood 56
Step 1: and weight 34 93 density 84 concept to 49 74 be understood 56 14
Step 2: 34 and weight 93 density 84 concept to 49 74 understood 56 14 be
Step 3: concept 34 and weight 93 density 84 to 74 understood 56 14 be 49
Step 4: 56 concept 34 and weight 93 84 to 74 understood 14 be 49 density
Step 5: to 56 concept 34 and weight 93 84 understood 14 be 49 density 74
Step 6: 84 to 56 concept 34 and weight 93 14 be 49 density 74 understood
Step 7: weight 84 to 56 concept 34 and 14 be 49 density 74 understood 93
Step 7 is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is obtained.
As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the given output.
Input: 36 24 maintain 87 safe distance 60 12 with other 98 cars
Q.191) In which step of the given arrangement are the elements '24 cars 87' found in the same order?
(a) Step 6
(b) Step 5
(c) Step 3
(d) Step 2
(e) Step 1
Q.192) Which of the following is the second last step of the given arrangement?
(a) 98 safe 60 maintain 24 cars 12 distance 36 other 87 with
(b) 24 cars 36 maintain 87 safe 60 with other 98 12 distance
(c) 60 maintain 24 cars 87 safe with 98 12 distance 36 other
(d) maintain 24 cars 87 safe 60 with other 98 12 distance 36
(e) safe 60 maintain 24 cars with 98 12 distance 36 other 87
Q.193) What is the position of 'distance' from the right end of the third last step of the given arrangement?
(a) Fifth
(b) Third
(c) Second
(d) Fourth
(e) Sixth
Q.194) Which element is exactly between '87' and '60' in the third step of the given arrangement?
(a) distance
(b) with
(c) other
(d) safe
(e) cars
Q.195) Which element is sixth to the right of the element which is tenth from the right end of the last step of the given arrangement?
(a) 36
(b) other
(c) distance
(d) 87
(e) 12
Instruction for Q.196 to Q.200
Read the given information carefully and answer the questions given beside:
Seven friends namely – Anand, Balaji, Chakor, Darpak, Easharjot, Falak and Girik are living in a building of seven floors, ground floor numbered 1, first floor numbered 2 and so on till the top-most floor which is numbered 7. Each person lives on a single floor. Total number of members in their family including themselves is – one, six, one, two, four, three and two but not necessarily in the same order.
Girik's family has 1 more person than Anand's family. Chakor does not live on 6th floor. Balaji with his family lives exactly below one of the couples but above the two people who live alone. There is only one floor between the two people who live alone. There are three floors between Chakor and Girik. Chakor lives above Girik. Easharjot lives on 3rd floor with his wife only. There are total 4 persons in Balaji's family including him.
Q.196) Which one of the following lives on fifth floor?
(a) Chakor
(b) Darpak
(c) Falak
(d) Girik
(e) None of these
Q.197) How many members are there in Anand's family?
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 6
(e) None of these
Q.198) Whose family consists of total three members?
(a) Anand
(b) Chakor
(c) Easharjot
(d) Girik
(e) None of these
Q.199) How many person(s) live(s) between Easharjot and Girik?
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 4
(e) None of these
Q.200) Which one of the following combinations of 'floor number - person - family members' is the correct one?
(a) 2 - Girik - 1
(b) 3 - Easharjot - 5
(c) 6 - Chakor - 4
(d) 7 - Anand - 2
(e) None of these
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