RBI Grade B 2022 Previous Year Question Papers with Free PDF Download Phase 2
RBI Grade B Previous Year Paper – Complete Plain Text
(Finance & Management + English Descriptive + Economics & Social Issues)
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### Finance & Management
2 Markers
I. (1-4) Read the following paragraph below and answer the questions.
India is the first country in the world to make corporate social responsibility (CSR) mandatory, following an amendment to the Companies Act, 2013 in April 2014. Businesses can invest their profits in areas such as education, poverty, gender equality, and hunger as part of any CSR compliance.
Amid the COVID-19 (coronavirus) outbreak, the Ministry of Corporate Affairs has notified that companies’ expenditures to fight the pandemic will be considered valid under CSR activities. Funds may be spent on various activities related to COVID-19 such as the promotion of healthcare including preventive healthcare and sanitation, and disaster management.
Q.1) According to section 135 of the Companies Act 2013, what should be the minimum net profit of an organization to constitute a CSR committee?
(a) Rs. 2 crores
(b) Rs. 3 crores
(c) Rs. 4 crores
(d) Rs. 5 crores
(e) Rs. 6 crores
Q.2) What should be the net worth as per the CSR provisions?
(a) Rs. 225 Crores
(b) Rs. 325 crores
(c) Rs. 400 crores
(d) Rs. 350 crores
(e) Rs. 500 crores
Q.3) What is the minimum number of the requirement of directors on the CSR committee?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5
Q.4) How many independent directors should be there on the CSR committee?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5
I. (5-8) Read the paragraph below and answer the following questions.
Fran began her job as supervisor of the training department of a metro bank and trust company almost 4 years ago. She was generally pleased with the 4 trainers and one secretary in her unit. Fran took pride in her ability to create a high morale and high-performance unit. This was particularly pleasing to Fran because they were constantly busy and barely able to keep up with the volume of training expected from them.
One day, Fran’s secretary, Judy, knocked on Fran’s door and asked to see her. Fran liked Judy and considered Judy to be one of her stars. In an effort to develop Judy’s talents and abilities, Fran had gone out of her way to give Judy special assignments. By now, Judy worked more as an administrative side than as a secretary.
It was clear that Judy was upset about something as she seated herself in the chair next to Fran’s desk. Slowly, Judy placed a job posting application form in front of Fran. She would not look Fran in the eyes.
Fran was surprised, to say the least. As far as Fran knew, Judy liked both her job and working in the training department. In turn, everyone in the department liked and respected Judy. Fran looked over the form and said casually, “so you want to post for the executive secretary job in the branch management division.” “Could I ask you for some additional information, Judy? I am kind of surprised.”
Judy looked up and said, “I noticed in last week’s job posting that the executive secretary position is graded as a 14. Now that’s 2 grades higher than my job.”
“You know my friend Mary Johnson works over there. She told me that half the time the secretary sits around doing nothing.” Judy continued, gathering some anger in her look and resentment in her voice. “Look, Fran, you know how hard I work, how hard we all work, around here. I mean, I’m always busy. I don’t see why I should work in a job graded at a 12 and work twice as hard and yet not be paid the same as that secretary. The job requirements for the job are just a little higher than mine, and the merit raises you gave me last month hardly helped at all.”
Fran listened; then she replied: “It sounds to me, Judy, that you are feeling angry because you think you should be paid more for the work you do and that you want to switch jobs rather than put up things as they are. Am I right?”
Judy nodded her head in agreement.
Fran knew, though, that the metro job evaluation system was up to date and that the executive secretary position to which Judy referred did require additional background experience, skills and responsibilities beyond what was needed in Judy’s current job. Because her secretary was such a good employee and a nice person, Fran was quite concerned. She felt strongly that moving to the executive secretary job would not be what Judy really wanted, and she hated to lose Judy, especially if her decision was based on faulty reasoning and the move would not be good for her.
Q.5) Money is acting as the motivator for Judy in the above case and therefore she is dissatisfied with the job under the supervision of Fran. Which of the following needs are not accomplished in the case of Judy as per the Herzberg Model?
(a) Esteem Needs
(b) Physiological and Security Needs
(c) Social and Security Needs
(d) Self-Actualization Needs
(e) Psychological Needs
Q.6) Judy is dissatisfied with the outcome that she is getting when compared to the efforts that she is putting into her job. Which of the following theories of motivation best depicts Judy’s state of mind in the above case?
(a) Equity Theory
(b) Theory X and Theory Y
(c) Porter and Lawler
(d) Self-Actualization Needs
(e) Herzberg Two Factor Theory
Q.7) Which of the following theories of motivation are directly affected in the above case?
I) Equity theory
II) Maslow’s need hierarchy theory
III) Herzberg’s Model of Motivation
IV) Alderfer’s ERG model
(a) I, II and IV
(b) I and III
(c) II and III
(d) II, III and IV
(e) I, II, III and IV
Q.8) Which of the following motivational decisions should Fran take in order to retain Judy in her present department, working as secretary to Fran?
(a) Since Judy is only considered with money, Fran can satisfy her physiological need to retain her in the present department.
(b) Since Judy is comparing her work, status, and perks with another department within the organisation, Fran must ensure equity among the compared jobs to retain Judy in the present job.
(c) Since Judy is only considered for the position (grade 12 vs grade 14), Fran should talk to the top management and get Judy’s present job graded 14
(d) Since Judy is acting in an amateur manner and not understanding the small differences between her job and the new job, Fran should make her understand that Judy is not capable or qualified enough to be able to work as an executive secretary.
(e) Not enough information provided
Q.9) Organisational behaviour is concerned with the understanding, prediction and control of human behaviour in organisations. It is primarily concerned with that aspect of human behaviour which is relevant to organisational performance. It studies human behaviour at which levels?
(a) Individual Level
(b) Group Level
(c) Organisational Level
(d) Both a) and b)
(e) a), b) and c)
Q.10) At which level of organisation behaviour does motivation, attitude, etc. affect the organisation behaviour?
(a) Individual Level
(b) Group Level
(c) Organisational Level
(d) Both a) and b)
(e) a), b) and c)
I. (11-14) Read the following paragraph below and answer the following questions.
Being able to communicate effectively is one of the most important life skills to learn. Communication itself is defined as transferring information to produce greater understanding. It can be done vocally (through verbal exchanges), through written media (books, websites, and magazines), visually (using graphs, charts, and maps), or non-verbally (body language, gestures, pitch of voice, and tone). All these means of communication skills are essential. Having strong communication skills aids in all aspects of life – from professional life to personal life and everything that falls in between. From a business standpoint, all transactions result from communication. Good communication skills are essential to allow others and yourself to understand information more accurately and quickly in contrast, poor communication skills lead to frequent misunderstandings and frustration. In a 2016 LinkedIn survey conducted in the United States, communication topped the list of the most sought-after soft skills among employers followed by Organisation and Teamwork.
Q.11) When communication is effective, it leaves all parties involved satisfied and feeling accomplished. By delivering messages clearly, there is no room for understanding or alteration of messages, which decreases the potential for conflict. Effective communication is measured by which of the following?
(a) Receiver
(b) Feedback
(c) Sender
(d) Channel
(e) Message
Q.12) Process of communication involves certain steps, which one among the following is the first step in the process of communication?
(a) Receiver
(b) Feedback
(c) Decoding the message
(d) Encoding the message
(e) Message
Q.13) What does it refer to here?
“It is the study of the body’s physical movements for the purpose of communication”.
(a) Kinesics
(b) Proxemics
(c) Chronemics
(d) Haptics
(e) Oculesics
Q.14) In which of the following types of communication networks can a person communicate only with adjoining people?
(a) Wheel
(b) Star
(c) Inverted V
(d) Inverted Y
(e) Circular
I.(15-16) Read the following passage and answer the questions
Outsourcing is defined as the NBFC’s use of a third party (either an affiliated entity within a corporate group or an entity that is external to the corporate group) to perform activities on a continuing basis that would normally be undertaken by the NBFC itself, now or in the future.
NBFCs have been outsourcing various activities and are hence exposed to various risks Further, the outsourced activities are to be brought within regulatory purview to protect the interest of the customers of NBFCs and to ensure that the NBFC concerned, and RBI have access to all relevant books, records and information available with a service provider.
Some key risks in outsourcing are strategic risk, reputation risk, compliance risk, operational risk, legal risk, exit strategy Risk, counterparty risk, country risk, contractual risk, access risk, concentration and systemic Risk, etc. It is therefore imperative for the NBFC to outsource its activities to ensure sound and responsive risk management practices for effective oversight, due diligence and management of risks arising from such outsourced activities.
Q.15) Which of the following financial activity cannot be outsourced by an NBFC according to law?
(a) Loan Origination
(b) Supervision of loans
(c) Document processing
(d) Internal Audit and Compliance
(e) All can be outsourced
Q.16) Which of the following financial activity can be outsourced by an NBFC?
(a) Core Management Functions
(b) Sanctioning of Loans
(c) Data Processing
(d) Management of investment portfolio
(e) None of the Above
I.(17-20) Read the following case study and answer the following 4 questions.
Over the years, the role of the AIFIs (EXIM Bank, NABARD, NHB & SIDBI) in the Indian financial system has undergone significant change reflecting the changes in their business models. As the Indian economy grows further, AIFIs are increasingly being seen as key institutions to promote the flow of direct or indirect credit to the economic sectors they cater to. It has been decided, therefore, to extend the Basel III Capital framework to the AIFIs as detailed in the following paragraphs.
Q.17) What is the minimum Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) including capital buffer, proposed for All India Financial Institutions (AIFIs) by RBI?
(a) 10.5%
(b) 11.5%
(c) 12%
(d) 12.5%
(e) 15.0%
Q.18) Which among the following will not be considered tier 2 capital of AIFI according to the Basel III capital framework?
I) Revaluation Reserves
II) General Loan-loss Reserves
III) Capital Reserve
IV) Statutory Reserves
(a) I & II
(b) II & III
(c) III & IV
(d) I & IV
(e) All the Above
Q.19) PNCPS are allowed to be included in Tier 1 Capital under Basel Norms. What does ‘C’ in PNCPS stand for?
(a) Cumulative
(b) Capital
(c) Convertible
(d) Currency
(e) Called up
Q.20) As per recent guidelines by RBI for issuance of Share Capital by Rural Co-operative Banks, what is the limit of the outstanding amount of PNCPS and Perpetual Debt Instruments along with outstanding innovative Perpetual Debt Instruments (IPDI) of total Tier 1 capital at any point of time?
(a) 5%
(b) 10%
(c) 20%
(d) 35%
(e) 40%
1 Markers
Q.21) “Communication is the process of passing information and understanding from one person to another”
Everyone organization follows different communication channels/types. In which of the following types of communication flows from the top level to the lower level of the organisation whose purpose is to communicate policies, procedures, etc.?
(a) Downward Communication
(b) Upward Communication
(c) Horizontal Communication
(d) Crosswise Communication
(e) Informal Communication
Q.22) Overcoming resistance to change is a problem of greater importance in introducing planned change in the organisation. Kurt Lewin has introduced a model of planned change. In which of the following stages of Kurt Lewin’s model do we see reinforcement strategies practices by the management?
(a) Refreezing
(b) Moving to the new level
(c) Freeze to unfreeze
(d) Unfreezing
(e) Breaking the ice
Q.23) Under the Big Five Traits Model there are five basic dimensions of personality. Read the following statement and mark the option of a particular personality which is being discussed.
“Rohit works in an IT Co. Because of the complexity of his task, his work requires him to be more organized and disciplined. He has been a sincere student since his school time and his aim was clearly to become an engineer only for the same, he has done his graduation from IIT Delhi so that he can be placed in a good company.” Based on the above paragraph, which one of the personalities does Rohit have?
(a) Conscientiousness
(b) Emotional Stability
(c) Agreeableness
(d) Extroversion
(e) Openness to experience
Q.24) Which of the ethical terminology is being discussed in the following paragraph?
“It refers to the minimization of one’s role in harm or the displacement of the blame onto others. For example, a government-employed torturer or killer might refer to himself as simply following the order of his higher-ups.”
(a) Displacement of responsibility
(b) Diffusion of responsibility
(c) Ethical Dilemma
(d) Illusion by respect
(e) Euphemistic Labeling
Q.25) What is the investment and annual turnover criteria for an enterprise as a ‘small enterprise’?
(a) Rs.5 crore and Rs.20 crore respectively
(b) Rs.5 crore and Rs.50 crore respectively
(c) Rs.10 crore and Rs.25 crore respectively
(d) Rs.10 crore and Rs.50 crore respectively
(e) Rs.20 crore and Rs.50 crore respectively
Q.26) Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs) is a common way to invest in overseas economies. It includes securities and financial assets held by investors in another country. What is the limit for FPI investment in corporate bonds for FY 2022-23 in India?
(a) 2%
(b) 6%
(c) 15%
(d) 18%
(e) 20%
Q.27) Which of the following is a 20-character global reference number conceived by G 20 that uniquely identifies every entity or structure that is a party to a financial transaction, in any jurisdiction?
(a) IEC
(b) LEI
(c) UPI
(d) TAN
(e) PAN
Q.28) Fill in the blank with correct option. RBI created the Payments Infrastructure Development Fund (PIDF) which intends to subsidise the development of payment acceptance infrastructure in the country. The PIDF targets to add ______ touch points for digital payment acceptance every year.
(a) 5 lakh
(b) 20 lakh
(c) 30 lakh
(d) 50 lakh
(e) 1 Crore
Q.29) Read the following statement and fill it with correct option.
Commercial bank credit to NBFCs for on-lending to the priority sector is allowed up to ______ of the bank’s total PSL, as per RBI regulations?
(a) 1%
(b) 2.5%
(c) 5%
(d) 7.5%
(e) 15%
Q.30) What does it refer to here?
I) It involves communication between people who are neither in the same department nor on the same level of organizational structure.
II) It is the least used channel of communication.
III) It generally takes place when members cannot communicate effectively through other channels.
(a) Downward Communication
(b) Upward Communication
(c) Horizontal/Lateral Communication
(d) Crosswise/Diagonal Communication
(e) Informal Communication
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### FM - Descriptive
15 Markers
Q.1) What is communication? What are the common barriers to interpersonal communication in an organization? How can these barriers be reduced by a manager?
Q.2) Why is change resisted in an organization? What can the management do to overcome it?
Q.3) What do you understand by blockchain technology. In the current era, where blockchain is at its peak, will it disrupt banking?
10 Markers
Q.1) What is targeted long-term repo operations (TLTRO)?
Q.2) Describe India’s response to the Global Financial Crisis 2008.
Q.3) What is the importance of ethical behaviour in society and throw some light on the manager’s role in encouraging ethical behaviour in an organization.
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### English Descriptive
Q.1) Write an essay on any one of the following topics in about 600 Words. (40 Marks)
• “Peace cannot be kept by force, it can only be achieved by understanding” – Elaborate.
• Role of female entrepreneurs in India
• Advantages and disadvantages of renewable energy. How the OSOWOG initiative will help in eliminating these disadvantages.
• India has become a medical destination for the world.
Q.2) Write a precis from the given paragraph in about 180 words. (30 Marks)
[Full paragraph about space exploration, consequences of exploring space, applications satellites, Age of Space, etc. as given in the PDF]
Q.3) Read the following comprehension and answer the questions that follow (5×6 = 30 Marks)
[Full paragraph about Financial derivatives, hedgers, speculators, arbitrageurs, Forwards, Futures, offsetability, etc.]
(a) Who participates in the derivative market?
(b) Discuss the three uses of the derivative.
(c) What is the difference between forward and the future market?
(d) What is offsetability?
(e) From where do financial derivatives derive their price?
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### Economics & Social Issues
2 Markers
I.(1-3) Read the passage and answer the questions that follow
This scheme has been launched to ensure that anyone can take their share of food grains from any district of any state of the country. It is considered to be key to the success of the public distribution system (PDS). It empowers its eligible beneficiaries with the choice to lift their entitled foodgrain from any Fair Price Shop (FPS) of their choice, anywhere in the country, by using their existing ration card with biometric authentication on an electronic Point of Sale (e-PoS) device. Through this facility, a migrant beneficiary will be able to get ration at the destination he or she is working in. Even his/her family back home will be also allowed to get their part of the entitled ration to support itself. Every fifth family in India is still unaware about the benefits of the portability facility provided by this scheme.
Q.1) How many states/UTs have implemented this scheme mentioned in the passage till February 2022?
(a) 28
(b) 30
(c) 32
(d) 35
(e) 38
Q.2) If a person does not get food grains under the above-mentioned scheme in the passage, then how does Government compensate the beneficiary?
(a) Provides double foodgrains from allocated quota in next month
(b) Provides Food Security Allowance to beneficiary under food security allowance rules 2015
(c) Penalises the Fair Price Shop.
(d) Delivers the allocated food grains at beneficiary’s home
(e) No action is taken from Government side.
Q.3) Who are the eligible beneficiaries under this landmark scheme mentioned in above passage that can claim either full or part foodgrains from any Fair Price Shop (FPS) of their choice in the country through existing ration card with biometric/Aadhaar authentication in a seamless manner?
(a) State/UT identified BPL families
(b) 6-15 years school children
(c) National Food Security Act Beneficiaries
(d) Unorganised Sector Workers
(e) None of the above
I.(4-7) Read the passage and answer the questions that follow
Human capital is at the centre of World Bank Group’s global strategy for development. Human Capital consists of the knowledge, skills, and health that people invest in and accumulate throughout their lives, enabling them to realize their potential as productive members of society. Investing in people through nutrition, health care, quality education, jobs and skills helps develop human capital, and this is key to ending extreme poverty and creating more inclusive societies. Human Capital Project was launched to accelerate more and better investments in people for greater equity and economic growth. World Bank Group annually releases an index that benchmarks key components of human capital across countries. The index covers 98% of world’s population based on their potential to mobilise the economic and professional potential of its citizens.
Q.4) What was India’s rank in 2020 edition of the index mentioned in the passage?
(a) 38
(b) 51
(c) 73
(d) 97
(e) 116
Q.5) India’s score in 2018 edition of the index mentioned in the passage was 0.44. It has increased to ______ in 2020 edition. Fill the gap.
(a) 0.49
(b) 0.53
(c) 0.59
(d) 0.64
(e) 0.67
Q.6) Which of the following data parameters/components are used by the index mentioned in the passage to assess the countries?
(a) Health
(b) Education
(c) Environment
(d) A and B
(e) A, B and C
Q.7) As on February 2022, how many countries have participated in the Human Capital Project of World Bank Group?
(a) 77
(b) 80
(c) 83
(d) 87
(e) 90
I.(8-10) Read the passage and answer the questions that follow
India recently signed Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) with this country in April 2022. It is India’s 17th largest trading partner and India is its 9th largest trading partner. Bilateral trade between both countries for both merchandise and services is valued at US$ 27.5 billion in 2021. India’s merchandise exports to this country have grown by 135% between 2019 and 2021. India’s exports consist primarily of a broad-based basket largely of finished products and were US$ 6.9 billion in 2021. India’s merchandise imports from this country were US$ 15.1 billion in 2021, consisting largely of raw materials, minerals and intermediate goods.
Q.8) Identify the country with which India has signed the agreement mentioned in the passage.
(a) South Korea
(b) Britain
(c) Germany
(d) United States
(e) Australia
Q.9) India has signed various free trade agreements with a number of countries. How many FTAs have been signed by India till April 2022?
(a) 13
(b) 17
(c) 21
(d) 24
(e) 28
Q.10) Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about agreement mentioned in the passage?
I) It will enhance the economic cooperation between two countries.
II) It is such an agreement which India has signed with a developed country after more than a decade
III) India and this signatory country are part of trilateral Supply Chain Resilience Initiative (SCRI) arrangement along with Japan
(a) I and II Only
(b) II and III Only
(c) I and III Only
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above
Q.11) Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme was launched in 2015 by the Ministry of Finance for substituting physical gold with Gold-bond with a fixed interest rate. Under the scheme, Gold Bonds are issued by Reserve Bank of India on behalf of the Government of India. These bonds are restricted for sale to resident individuals, HUFs, Trusts, Universities and Charitable Institutions. Minimum limit of holding under the scheme is 1gram for individuals and Hindu Undivided Families (HUF). Though the tenor of the bond is 8 years, early encashment/ redemption of the bond is allowed.
Given below are the cases of three bond holders who have invested in the scheme. In which of the following cases, the early redemption is possible if the beneficiary wants to redeem the bonds on 2nd April 2022?
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
I) Person from HUF who has invested 12kg in SGB in 2017 series 1
II) Person who has bought 20 gm in SGB in the name of her minor daughter in 2017 series 2
III) Person who has bought 50 gm in SGB in 2016 series.
(a) Only I
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only III
(d) Only I and III
(e) Only II and III
I.(12-14) Read the passage and answer the questions that follow
Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has launched this Central Sector scheme. This umbrella scheme has been designed to provide welfare measures to the Transgender community and the people engaged in the act of begging. It has two sub-schemes - ‘Central Sector Scheme for Comprehensive Rehabilitation for Welfare of Transgender Persons’ and ‘Central Sector Scheme for Comprehensive Rehabilitation of persons engaged in the act of Begging’. It focuses extensively on rehabilitation, provision of medical facilities, counseling, education, skill development, economic linkages etc with the support of State Governments/UTs/Local Urban Bodies, Voluntary Organizations, Community Based Organizations (CBOs) and institutions and others. It is being implemented across the country.
Q.12) Under Sub-scheme - ‘Central Sector Scheme for Comprehensive Rehabilitation for Welfare of Transgender Persons’, beneficiaries are provided ______ shelter homes, were food, clothing, recreational facilities, skill development opportunities, recreational activities, medical support etc.
(a) Swadar Greh
(b) Matritava Chaya Shelter Homes
(c) Housing for All-Transgender
(d) Garima Greh
(e) None of the above
Q.13) The scheme mentioned in the passage has been allocated ______ from 2021-22 to ______.
(a) Rs. 555 Crore, 2024-25
(b) Rs. 365 Crore, 2025-26
(c) Rs. 231 Crore, 2026-27
(d) Rs. 769 Crore, 2027-28
(e) Rs. 934 Crore, 2028-29
Q.14) Consider the following statements about the scheme mentioned in the passage and identify the correct statements.
I) Skill Development and Livelihood is provided under PM-DAKSH scheme.
II) Begging Protection Cell is established for timely rehabilitation of beneficiaries.
III) Scholarships is given to beneficiary students studying in IX and till post-graduation to enable them to complete their education.
IV) Survey and Identification of beneficiaries is carried out by private NGOs
V) Housing under it, does not cover provision of food, clothing, skill development opportunities, recreational activities, medical support etc.
(a) I and IV Only
(b) I and III Only
(c) II, IV and V Only
(d) III, IV and V Only
(e) I, II, III and V Only
Q.15) Ministry of Civil Aviation’s UDAN Scheme was awarded the PM’s Award for Excellence in Public Administration 2020 under the category “Innovation (General)- Central”. On which day the scheme was awarded?
(a) International Civil Aviation Day (7th December)
(b) National Science Day (28th February)
(c) Civil Services Day (21st April)
(d) Good Governance Day (25th December)
(e) National Panchayati Raj Day (24th April)
I. (16-18) Direction- Read the passage and answer the questions that follow
The 7th Edition of the “X” Dialogue was inaugurated on 25 April 2022. Last year, it was held in a virtual format due to exceptional circumstances necessitated by the Covid-19 pandemic. This year it was held in an in-person format over three days 25-27 April 2022 with main theme “Terra Nova- Impassioned, Impatient, and imperilled”. It is India’s premier conference on geopolitics and geoeconomics committed to addressing the most challenging issues facing the global community. It is organised annually since 2016 by the Ministry of External Affairs in collaboration with the Observer Research Foundation (ORF). Every year, leaders in politics, business, media, and civil society converge in New Delhi to discuss the state of the world and explore opportunities for cooperation on a wide range of contemporary matters. This Dialogue has been structured as a multi-stakeholder, cross-sectoral discussion, involving heads of state, cabinet ministers and local government officials, who are joined by thought leaders from the private sector, media and academia.
Q.16) Which of the following is referred as “X” in the passage?
(a) Indo-Pacific Security Dialogue
(b) New Delhi Dialogue
(c) Shangri-La Dialogue
(d) Raisina Dialogue
(e) None of the above
Q.17) Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about 2022 edition of “X” Dialogue?
I) President of the European Commission, Ursula Von der Leyen was the Chief Guest of inaugural session of “X”.
II) During this “X” Dialogue, leaders of QUAD also met.
III) Of the six thematic pillar of this edition of “X” was Re-thinking democracy- Trade, Tech and Ideology.
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above
Q.18) Where did the side event of the 2022 edition of “X” Dialogue mentioned in the passage take place?
(a) Berlin
(b) Washington DC
(c) Paris
(d) A and B
(e) A, B and C
I. (19-20) Read the passage and answer the questions that follow
Pradhan Mantri Kisan Maan Dhan Yojna (PMKMY) is being implemented in order to provide social security net for the Small and Marginal Farmers (SMF) by way of pension. Under this scheme, provision has been made for payment of a minimum fixed pension of Rs. 3,000/- to the eligible small and marginal farmers, subject to certain exclusion clauses, on attaining the age of 60 years. The eligible beneficiary can opt to become member of the Scheme by subscribing to a Pension Fund.
Q.19) Who of the following are the eligible beneficiaries of this scheme?
I) SMF covered under any statutory social security schemes such as National Pension Scheme (NPS), Employees’ State Insurance Corporation scheme etc
II) SMF who has attained age of 35 and owns cultivable land up to 1.5 acres.
III) SMF who have opted for PM Shram Yogi Maan Dhan and PM Laghu Vyapari Maan Dhan
(a) I and II Only
(b) II and III Only
(c) II Only
(d) I and III Only
(e) I Only
Q.20) If a person enters the scheme at the age of 18 years, how much amount he shall contribute to get Rs.3000 as pension on attaining the age of 60 years?
(a) Rs.42
(b) Rs.210
(c) Rs.55
(d) Rs.112
(e) Rs.312
1 Markers
Q.21) Which of the following objectives are incorrectly matched with the respective schemes –
| Objective of Scheme | Name of the Scheme |
|---------------------|--------------------|
| A person wants to enhance productivity of indigenous breeds and increase economic returns from animal products in a sustainable manner | Stand up India |
| Entrepreneur from women, Scheduled Castes (SC) & Scheduled Tribes (ST) category who wants to start greenfield enterprise in manufacturing, services or the trading sector and activities allied to agriculture | Rashtriya Gokul Mission |
Q.22) Consider the following statements with respect to Bhoomi Rashi Portal.
I) It is major e-Governance initiative of the Ministry of the Road Transport & Highways.
II) It has made entire land acquisition process for National Highways digitized and paperless.
III) With the adoption of Bhoomi Rashi portal, all the draft Land Acquisition notifications are submitted online by the concerned revenue official of the State Government.
Identify the correct statements
(a) Only I and II
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only I and III
(d) None are correct
(e) All are correct
Q.23) Which of the following statement/s is/are correct with respect to Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana?
I) It aims to enhance fish production to 220 lakh metric tons by 2024-25 from 137.58 lakh metric tons in 2018-19.
II) It will result in doubling export earnings to Rs.1,00,000 crore.
III) It will generate about 55 lakhs direct and indirect employment opportunities in fisheries sector over a period of 5 years.
IV) It envisages investment of Rs. 10,050 crores comprising Central share of Rs. 9,407 crore, State share of Rs 4,880 crores and Beneficiaries contribution of Rs. 5,763 crores.
V) It is being implemented over a period of 5 years from FY 2020-21 to FY 2024-25 in all States/Union Territories
(a) I, II, III and IV
(b) I, III, IV and V
(c) II, III, IV and V
(d) 1, 2, 3 and V
(e) All of the above
Q.24) To cater to the needs and aspirations of the youth, the National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) has come up with a youth-friendly scheme for attracting them to cooperative business ventures. This Scheme aims to promote young entrepreneurs in cooperatives and encourage cooperatives to venture into new and innovative areas.
Identify the scheme mentioned in the above passage.
(a) Sahakar Mitra
(b) Yuva Sahakar
(c) Sahakar Bandhu
(d) Ayushman Sahakar
(e) None of the above
I.(25-26) Read the passage and answer the questions that follow
It is a centrally sponsored scheme being implemented since 2009-10 for integrated development of Scheduled Castes (SCs) in majority villages. Since 2018-19, the scheme implementation guidelines were comprehensively revised. During 2021-22, this scheme has been merged with two other existing schemes to be known as Pradhan Mantri Anusuchit Jaati Abhyuday Yojana (PM-AJAY). The principal objective of the ‘Adarsh Gram’ component of the merged scheme of PM-AJAY is integrated development of SC majority villages.
Q.25) Which of the following state is not amongst those states where the scheme mentioned in the passage is being implemented?
(a) Kerala
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Punjab
(e) Uttar Pradesh
Q.26) Which district has bagged the first spot in the country for successful implementation of welfare and infrastructure development under the scheme mentioned in the passage?
(a) Chengalpattu
(b) Erode
(c) Hamirpur
(d) Araria
(e) Gorakhpur
Q.27) Consider the following statements with respect to PM Vaya Vandana Yojana and identify the correct statement/s.
I) A person of 65 years of age is not eligible to invest in the scheme
II) The tenure of policy taken under the scheme is 10 years
III) The implementing agency for the scheme is Life Insurance corporation of India
(a) Only I and II
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only I and III
(d) Only I
(e) Only II
Q.28) X is a unique 10-digit alpha numeric code issued on the basis of PAN of an entity. It is mandatory for every entity to obtain this code if it is engaged in the business of export and import. It is issued in electronic form by directorate general of foreign trade.
Identify X.
(a) Import-Export Code
(b) EXIM Code
(c) IMEX Code
(d) Export Code
(e) Import Code
Q.29) Which of the following initiative/s is/are included under PM e-Vidya scheme? 42 Swayam Prabha channels are devoted to telecast high quality educational programmes.
I) Online MOOC courses relating to NIOS (grades 9 to 12 of open schooling) are uploaded on SWAYAM porta
II) The e-textbooks can be accessed using m-Pathshala web portal and mobile app
(a) Only I
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only I and III
(d) Only II
(e) Only III
Q.30) Which of the following is/are applicable on imports in India?
(a) Custom
(b) IGST
(c) Excise
(d) a & b
(e) b & c
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### ESI - Descriptive
15 Markers
Q.1) Despite spread of urbanization in villages, challenges such as race, caste, gender discrimination still persist. In this context, what are the challenges faced by protective discriminatory policy?
Q.2) What is meant by economic reforms? Discuss the Economic reforms in India from 1990s till date.
Q.3) “Financial stability is essential to any financial institution/ business.” Discuss in the light of financial stability report of RBI and economic reforms in view of COVID outbreak in India.
10 Markers
Q.1) What are the challenges associated with rural entrepreneurship? How young enterprises can solve these problems?
Q.2) Write a short note on current monetary policy framework in India
Q.3) What is NBFC? How is it different from banks? What are the five types of NBFCs registered with RBI?
RBI Grade B 2022 Previous Year Question Papers with Free PDF Download Phase 2
RBI Grade B Other Previous Year Question Paper:
RBI Grade B 2022 Previous Year Question Papers with Free PDF Download Phase 1
RBI Grade B 2023 Previous Year Question Papers with Free PDF Download Phase 2
RBI Grade B 2023 Previous Year Question Papers with Free PDF Download Phase 1