SBI Clerk Mains Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2024 with Free PDF Download link Online

SBI Clerk Mains Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2024 with Free PDF Download link Online

SBI Clerk Mains 2024-25 Memory Based Paper- 10.04.2025- 1st shift

Q1. Which Indian Institute of Technology has recently commissioned Asia’s largest indigenously
developed shallow wave basin research facility to support advanced marine and coastal
engineering research? (January 2025)
Q2. Odisha has recently announced a landmark three-year sponsorship deal for the Indian
National Kho Kho team. What is the total amount committed by the state government to sponsor
the team over the three-year period? (January 2025)
(a) ₹5 crore
(b) ₹10 crore
(c) ₹12 crore
(d) ₹15 crore
(e) ₹20 crore
Q3. In which Indian state is the Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve located, which is known for its rich
biodiversity, UNESCO recognition, and cultural heritage?
(a) Chhattisgarh
(d) Jharkhand
(e) Odisha
Q4. As per the Network Readiness Index 2024 released by the Portulans Institute and the Saïd
Business School at the University of Oxford, which of the following countries is not ranked among
the top five economies globally?
(c) Sweden
Q5. What is the total value of defence exports recorded by India in the Financial Year 2024–25,
marking the highest-ever figure to date?
(a) ₹21,083 crore
(b) ₹15,233 crore
(c) ₹8,389 crore
(d) ₹23,622 crore
(e) ₹25,000 crore
Q6. The joint military exercise 'SURY A KIRAN', whose 18th edition recently concluded, was
conducted between the Indian Army and the army of which country?
(a) Bhutan
(d) Nepal
Q7. Which team won the 2024 edition of the Santosh Trophy, securing a record-extending 33rd
title by defeating Kerala in the final?
(a) Punjab
(c) West Bengal
(d) Karnataka
(e) Manipur
Q8. The 2025 World Economic Forum (WEF) Annual Meeting was held in Davos, Switzerland.
What was the official theme of this global gathering? (January 2025)
Q9. The intricate Kasuti embroidery, honoured with a Geographical Indication (GI) tag and
known for reflecting the traditions and customs of women through delicate handwork using
cotton thread, originates from which Indian state?
(b) Tamil Nadu
(d) Karnataka
(e) Kerala
Q10. Which country most recently joined the BRICS group as its 10th member, with membership
becoming effective from January 2025?
(a) Saudi Arabia
(c) Egypt
(d) Iran
Q11. Which Indian cricket legend was recently awarded honorary membership of the prestigious
Melbourne Cricket Club (MCC) during the India-Australia Boxing Day Test in 2024?
(a) Virat Kohli
(c) M.S. Dhoni
(e) Rohit Sharma
Q12. As part of its effort to boost space infrastructure for future human spaceflight missions and
Next Generation Launch Vehicles (NGLVs), what is the total financial outlay approved by the
Union Cabinet for setting up ISRO’s Third Launch Pad (TLP) at the Satish Dhawan Space Centre
in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh? (January 2025)
(a) ₹2,536 crore
(b) ₹3,291 crore
(c) ₹3,985 crore
(d) ₹4,500 crore
(e) ₹5,174 crore
Q13. The Drafting Committee of the Indian Constituent Assembly, set up on 29th August 1947,
had seven members including B.R. Ambedkar as Chairman. Which of the following was not a
member of this committee?
(a) K.M. Munshi
(e) D.P . Khaitan
Q14. Which country announced its withdrawal from the World Health Organization (WHO) in
January 2025?
(a) Brazil
(c) Germany
(d) France
Q15. LIC Bima Sakhi Yojana was launched in December 2024 to train rural women as insurance
agents with monthly stipends and commission-based income. What is the eligible age range for
women to apply under this scheme?
(a) 18 to 55 years
(b) 21 to 60 years
(c) 18 to 65 years
(d) 18 to 70 years
(e) 25 to 60 years
Q16. According to the 2024 Smart City Index released by the International Institute for
Management Development (IMD), which of the following cities ranked among the top 10
smartest cities in the world?
(d) Paris
(e) Beijing
Q17. On which date was the first Foundation Day of the Lokpal of India celebrated, marking the
establishment of the institution to combat corruption in public offices?
(a) March 1, 2025
(b) January 26, 2025
(c) December 27, 2024
(d) January 16, 2025
(e) February 10, 2025
Q18. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), chaired by Prime Minister Shri
Narendra Modi, has approved an infusion of equity for the Food Corporation of India (FCI) in the
financial year 2024-25 to strengthen the agricultural sector. What is the amount of capital
infusion approved for FCI in the year 2024-25?
(a) ₹9,157 Crores
(b) ₹10,700 Crores
(c) ₹12,496 Crores
(d) ₹21,388 Crores
(e) ₹25,000 Crores
Q19. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has introduced the SORR as a new benchmark for overnight
rupee transactions, aiming to improve transparency and better reflect market dynamics. What
does the "S" in SORR stand for?
(a) Secured
(b) System
(c) Standard
(d) Special
(e) Service
Q20. Where is the headquarters of the International Olympic Committee (IOC) situated?
Q21. In which year did the International Astronomical Union (IAU) reclassify Pluto from a planet
to a dwarf planet, marking the end of its status as the ninth planet in our solar system?
(a) 2005
(b) 2006
(c) 2007
(d) 2008
(e) 2009
Q22. ISRO recently signed an agreement with which international space agency to cooperate on
astronaut training, mission implementation, and research experiments, including collaboration
on the upcoming Axiom-4 mission?
(a) NASA
(b) JAXA
(d) ESA
(e) CNES
Q23. The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) had initially set a deadline of December
31, 2024, for third-party UPI apps to comply with a 30% market share cap. This deadline has
now been extended. What is the new deadline for compliance?
(a) December 31, 2025
(b) December 31, 2026
(c) December 31, 2027
(d) December 31, 2028
(e) December 31, 2029
Q24. Which Indian men’s hockey player was recently conferred with the prestigious Major Dhyan
Chand Khel Ratna Award for his leadership and performance, including guiding the team to a
historic Olympic bronze medal?
(b) P .R. Sreejesh
(e) Mandeep Singh
Q25. Which film won the Best Motion Picture – Drama award at the 2025 Golden Globe Awards?
(b) The Brutalist
Q26. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has constituted an eight-member committee named ‘FREE-
AI’ to develop a framework for responsible and ethical use of artificial intelligence in the
financial sector. Who is appointed as the head of this committee?
(b) Abhijeet Banerjee
(e) K. VijayRaghavan
Q27. As per the latest data from FY 2023–24 and early 2025, which country has emerged as the
largest importer of Indian coffee, primarily sourcing unroasted Arabica and Robusta beans?
(b) Russia
(c) Germany
(d) Italy
Q28. The National Income Committee, which was formed to prepare authoritative estimates of
India’s national income after independence, was established in which year?
(a) 1947
(b) 1948
(c) 1949
(d) 1950
(e) 1951
Q29. Who is the author of the novel The Safekeep, which was shortlisted for the 2024 Booker
Prize?
(a) Rajni George
(c) Elif Shafak
(d) Meg Mason
Q30. The "Glory of Allapalli," designated as a Biodiversity Heritage Site and known for its
preserved forest ecosystem, is located in which Indian state?
(a) Kerala
(b) Karnataka
(e) Chhattisgarh
Q31. As per the ongoing India-Australia Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement
(CECA) discussions, both countries aim to reach a bilateral trade target of AUD 100 billion by
which year?
(a) 2027
(b) 2028
(c) 2030
(d) 2032
(e) 2035
Q32. What is the total indicative financial outlay approved by the Government of India as the
Central share for the implementation of the Watershed Development Component of Pradhan
Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (WDC-PMKSY) 2.0 from 2021–22 to 2025–26?
(a) ₹6,598 crore
(b) ₹7,021 crore
(c) ₹8,134 crore
(d) ₹9,517 crore
(e) ₹10,236 crore
Q33. The Financial Sector Assessment Program (FSAP), which provides comprehensive
evaluations of a country’s financial system, is jointly conducted by which two international
organisations?
(a) World Bank and WTO
(b) IMF and WTO
(c) IMF and BIS
(d) OECD and World Bank
(e) IMF and World Bank
Q34. According to NABARD’s All India Rural Financial Inclusion Survey (NAFIS) 2021–22, by what
percentage did the average monthly income of rural households increase over the five-year
period from 2016–17 to 2021–22?
(a) 45.3%
(b) 50.2%
(c) 57.6%
(d) 60.8%
(e) 65.1%
Q35. As per the Cabinet’s latest approval for the ethanol supply year 2024–25, what is the revised
ex-mill price of ethanol derived from C-heavy molasses?
(a) ₹56.28
(b) ₹58.50
(c) ₹60.73
(d) ₹57.97
(e) ₹65.61
Q36. According to NITI Aayog’s Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) India Index 2023–24, which
of the following states emerged as the top performers with the highest score?
Q37. Which of the following products were granted the Geographical Indication (GI) tag in India
during the year 2023-2024?
(d) Andaman Karen Musley Rice (Andaman & Nicobar Islands)
(e) All of the above
Q38. What is the full form of ROC in the context of global financial market regulation involving
over 65 regulators and authorities from more than 50 countries?
Q39. The Union Minister for Fisheries recently inaugurated 50 key projects worth ₹50 crores
under the Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY), covering all North Eastern Region
(NER) states except Arunachal Pradesh and _________.
(a) Sikkim
(b) Manipur
(c) Tripura
(d) Mizoram
(e) Assam
Q40. What was the total value of wheat exported from India in the fiscal year 2024, following
restrictions imposed in May 2022 to prioritize domestic consumption?
Q41. According to the Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM), what
return percentage did the NSE CPSE Index register as of November 2024 since the launch of the
New PSE Policy in January 2021?
(a) 120.45%
(b) 146.92%
(c) 182.36%
(d) 165.78%
(e) 134.60%
Q42. Who has been elected as the Chairman of the Global System for Mobile Communications
Association (GSMA), making him the second Indian to hold this position after Sunil Mittal?
(a) Rajan Anandan
Q43. Which of the following Marine Protected Areas (MPAs) are located in Peninsular India and
play a vital role in conserving marine biodiversity and supporting coastal livelihoods?
(d) All of the above
Q44. Match the following ICC Men’s T20 World Cup years with their respective winning teams.
(a) A–3, B–2, C–4, D–1, E–5
(b) A–2, B–3, C–5, D–1, E–4
(c) A–3, B–1, C–2, D–4, E–5
(d) A–4, B–2, C–1, D–3, E–5
(e) A–1, B–4, C–3, D–2, E–5
Q45. Who was appointed as the Director General of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation
(DGCA) in January 2025?
(b) Dinesh Chand Sharma
(e) Shubman Gill
Q46. What is the minimum Net Owned Fund (NOF) requirement for an Infrastructure Finance
Company (IFC)?
Owned Fund, NOF) ?
(a) ₹ 100 crore
(b) ₹ 200 crore
(c) ₹ 300 crore
(d) ₹ 500 crore
(e) ₹ 1000 crore
Q47. What is the maximum contribution limit under the NPS Vatsalya Scheme introduced by the
Government of India?
(a) ₹50,000 per year
(b) ₹1,00,000 per year
(c) ₹1,50,000 per year
(d) ₹2,00,000 per year
Q48. In January 2025, which organization received a ₹500 crore capital infusion from the
Government of India through a preferential issue of equity shares?
(a) SIDBI
(b) IFCI
(c) NABARD
(d) REC
(e) IRFC
Q49. As per the First Advance Estimates of Kharif 2024–25 released by the Ministry of
Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare, which of the following states had 100% of their districts
covered under the Digital Crop Survey (DCS)?
(c) Odisha
(d) Gujarat
(e) All of the above
Q50. Under the revised Open Market Sale Scheme (Domestic) [OMSS(D)] Policy for 2024–25,
what is the fixed reserve price of rice (Pan-India) for sale to State Governments, State
Corporations, Community Kitchens, and ethanol distilleries?
(a) ₹2,250 per quintal
(b) ₹2,725 per quintal
(c) ₹3,290 per quintal
(d) ₹3,775 per quintal
(e) ₹4,300 per quintal
Directions (51-56): In the following passage, several blanks have been provided, each followed
by a set of options. Choose the word that is not suitable to fill the given blank.
Hate is not an _______________(A) emotion—it is cultivated through adverse experiences. Often, a single
painful incident can ignite a feeling of betrayal, injustice, or humiliation, which, if left unresolved,
transforms into _______________ (B) and eventually, hatred. For instance, a person who faces public ridicule
or emotional abandonment may begin to foster deep hostility not only toward the offender but also
toward similar individuals or situations.
This emotion, although reactive, is _____________ (C). Hatred distorts perception, clouds judgment, and
disrupts emotional stability. It narrows our capacity to trust, to empathize, and even to hope. Over time,
it can evolve into a _________________ (D) state of negativity, affecting relationships, productivity, and
mental well-being.
However, it is essential to recognize that hate often masks _____________ (E) pain. Rather than suppressing
it or allowing it to fester, individuals must confront its origin. Reflection, honest self-inquiry, and
emotional articulation are necessary steps toward healing. Forgiveness—though often
misunderstood—is not about excusing the wrong, but about releasing the emotional grip it holds over
us.
Understanding hate requires emotional maturity. It is a signal, not a solution. While it may arise
naturally, choosing to live with it is ______________ (F). The real strength lies in transforming that pain into
insight, and using it to cultivate resilience and compassion. Hate may expose our wounds, but it is
through acceptance and understanding that we begin to heal and reclaim our emotional freedom.
Q51. Which of the following words is not suitable for filling the blank (A)?
(a) inherent
(b) pandemic
(c) immanent
(d) essential
(e) all are suitable
Q52. Which of the following words is not suitable for filling the blank (B)?
(a) all are suitable
(b) grievance
(c) resentment
(d) endeavor
(e) ire
Q53. Which of the following words is not suitable for filling the blank (C)?
(a) destructive
(b) all are suitable
(c) corrosive
(d) incisive
(e) perceptive
Q54. Which of the following words is not suitable for filling the blank (D)?
(a) longing
(b) all are suitable
(c) resolute
(d) persistent
(e) obstinate
Q55. Which of the following words is not suitable for filling the blank (E)?
(a) deferred
(b) unaddressed
(c) deliberate
(d) untreated
(e) all are suitable
Q56. Which of the following words is not suitable for filling the blank (F)?
(a) detrimental
(b) noxious
(c) all are suitable
(d) altruistic
(e) obstructive
Q57. In the question below, few sentences have been given. Find out which of the following
sentence is error-free.
A. Not only did the manager approve the changes hastily, but he also neglected to inform the board,
causing unrest among stakeholders.
B. Were she to arrive earlier, she would had seen the presentation from the beginning.
C. No sooner had the news of the policy leaked than investors began pulling out their capital in haste.
(a) both B and C
(b) Both C and A
(c) Both A and B
(d) only C
(e) None is correct
Q58. In the question below, few sentences have been given. Find out which of the following
sentence is error-free.
A. The committee insisted that he leaves immediately, citing breaches of confidentiality and decorum.
B. Each of the dancers and singers was given an opportunity for showcasing their unique talent during
the gala.
C. It was neither her qualifications nor her connections that were questioned during the rigorous
interview process.
(a) both B and C
(b) Both C and A
(c) Both A and B
(d) only C
(e) None is correct
Directions (59-63): Rearrange the following sentences to form a logically coherent and
meaningful paragraph. Note: Sentence (G) is fixed in its position.
A. Sucrose, the last among the three, possesses the most complex chemical structure and is slightly
harder to digest, although it remains relatively easy to process.
B. These three types of sugars can be distinguished based on their content and chemical composition.
Glucose, which has the simplest structure, can be directly extracted from corn and is rapidly digested by
the human body.
C. Honey contains varying amounts of fructose and sucrose depending on its botanical source; however,
it also includes unique elements that set it apart from other sugars.
D. The enzymes present in honey originate either from the plants it is derived from or are secreted by
bees during the production process.
E. Fructose, the second type, features a slightly more complex chemical structure than glucose and
occurs naturally in fruits.
F. Glucose, fructose, and sucrose are three primary types of sugars, all of which offer nearly the same
caloric value per gram.
G. What sets it apart are the beneficial enzymes it contains, which aid in breaking down the two sugars
into glucose.
Q59. Which of the following is the first sentence in the sequence after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) H
(c) E
(d) F
(e) D
Q60. Which of the following is the second sentence in the sequence after the rearrangement?
(a) B
(b) H
(c) E
(d) F
(e) D
Q61. Which of the following is the third sentence in the sequence after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) H
(c) E
(d) F
(e) D
Q62. Which of the following is the sixth sentence in the sequence after the rearrangement?
(a) B
(b) H
(c) E
(d) F
(e) D
Q63. Which of the following is the fifth sentence in the sequence after the rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) H
(c) E
(d) F
(e) C
Directions (64-64): In the question below, few sentences have been given. Find out which of the
following sentence is grammatically and contextually correct.
Q64.A. Light-headedness can sometimes indicative an underlying medical condition, which can lead to
a higher chance of experiencing a fall.
B. The tickets for the movie will be available three weeks prior to its release.
C. People were demanding an independent probe and the suspense of several high-level officials.
(a) Only A
(b) Only A and B
(c) Only B
(d) Only B and C
(e) Only A and C
Directions (65-67): Complete the sentence meaningfully using the best possible starter. Choose
the option that most effectively conveys the sequence and impact described in the original
passage.
Q65. (I) The president issued a statement yesterday.
(II) Almost immediately following his announcement, the office was filled with a flurry of activity.
(III) The statement highlighted that the pressures of the job were beginning to significantly affect the
employees' mental well-being.
(A) As soon as...
(B) Not much time has passed...
(C) Reading the statements regarding...
(a) Only A
(b) Both A and C
(c) Only C
(d) Both A and B
(e) All A, B and C
Q66. (I) The business deal was finalised quite late, bringing in looming deadlines.
(II) The office atmosphere was tense due to the looming deadlines.
(III) The stress of the deadlines was causing employees to become irritable and exhausted.
A. As looming deadlines...
B. The stressed atmosphere of the deadlines...
C. The atmosphere among employees...
(a) Only A
(b) Both A and C
(c) Only C
(d) Both A and B
(e) All A, B and C
Q67. (I) The team received critical feedback during the quarterly performance review.
(II) The feedback pointed out inefficiencies in workflow and communication gaps.
(III) As a result, the team initiated several internal reforms to improve coordination and productivity.
(A) Despite the feedback clearly…
(B) The internal reforms implemented…
(C) After receiving strong feedback…
(a) Only A
(b) Both A and C
(c) Only C
(d) Both A and B
(e) All A, B and C
Directions (68-69): In the questions below, a sentence is divided into several parts. Select the
most appropriate sequence to rearrange the parts into a grammatically correct and contextually
coherent sentence.
Q68. (A) hit its smooth, shiny surface,
(B) bouncing back light rays that
(C) allowing your eyes to see an image that
(D) appears reversed from left to right
(E) a mirror creates your reflection by
(a) DCBAE
(b) DBCEA
(c) EBADC
(d) EBACD
(e) No rearrangement required
Q69. (A) detox become the new luxury
(B) unhurried mornings, and digital
(C) the art of rest lies in choosing
(D) holidays that truly rejuvenate the
(E) sleep-deprived—where quiet landscapes,
(a) CDEBA
(b) BDECA
(c) BCEDA
(d) CBDEA
(e) No rearrangement required
Q70. In the question below, few sentences have been given. Find out which of the following sentence is
error-free.
A. The government website provide accurate information about policies and regulations.
B. All attendees were mandated to adhere to the official dress code.
C. It is important to analyse market trends before making any decisions.
(a) Only C
(b) Both C and A
(c) Both A and B
(d) Both B and C
(e) Only A
Q71. In the question below, few sentences have been given. Find out which of the following sentence is
grammatically and contextually incorrect.
A. The implementation of this application has simplified multiple work processes, thus save us a
significant amount of time.
B. Neither the team leader not his colleagues managed to complete the project within the deadline.
C. Drinking warm water after waking up in the morning helps strengthen your immune system.
(a) both B and C
(b) both A and B
(c) only C
(d) only A
(e) None is incorrect
Q72. In the question below, few sentences have been given. Find out which of the following sentence is
incorrect.
A. A day after experiencing moderate rainfall, the city encountered intense downpours that lasted to the
weekend.
B. Several universities strive to ensure that scientists are rewarded based on the quality of their work
and the number of new insights they generation.
C. Many people are experimenting with chatbots in the hope let artificial intelligence (AI) can enhance
their daily lives.
(a) both B and C
(b) only C
(c) both A and B
(d) only A
(e) All are incorrect
Directions (73-80): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
India’s electric vehicle (EV) industry is undergoing a profound transformation. Once marred by
scepticism, financial constraints, and infrastructural shortcomings, the sector is now accelerating
toward a cleaner, technology-driven future. The most notable momentum is observed in the electric
two-wheeler (E2W) segment, where sales have reached a significant 18 million units. This surge is
fuelled by a combination of factors: evolving consumer preferences, cost-efficiency, and concerted policy
interventions aimed at mainstreaming e-mobility.
The industry’s initial journey was fraught with economic setbacks. High battery costs, limited product
availability, and nascent infrastructure impeded early adoption. Traditional automotive giants exercised
caution, while start-ups and new entrants struggled with scalability and profitability. However,
technological breakthroughs, particularly in battery design, have ushered in a phase of renewed
optimism. Enhanced energy density, reduction in dependency on expensive raw materials such as
cobalt, and advances in battery recycling have significantly curtailed production costs.
Parallelly, the incorporation of artificial intelligence (AI) and machine learning (ML) is revolutionising
vehicle intelligence. Features like adaptive cruise control, predictive maintenance, and advanced driver
assistance systems (ADAS) are redefining user experience, especially among Gen Z consumers who
demand innovation, sustainability, and digital integration in mobility solutions.
Government initiatives like FAME-II, EMPS 2024, and Battery-as-a-Service (BaaS) are playing a pivotal
role in ecosystem development. With the rollout of over 74,000 EV chargers, including 48,400 fast
chargers, India is rapidly addressing range anxiety and enhancing user confidence. These developments
are not only catalysing EV adoption but also compelling legacy automakers to pivot, innovate, and invest
in electrification.
The ______________ are unmistakable. The traditional internal combustion engine (ICE) sector is being
redefined as manufacturers embrace hybrid models, enter EV joint ventures, and realign long-term
strategies. The discourse has shifted from “if and why” to “how and when,” reflecting an irreversible
momentum.
While challenges persist—especially in rural connectivity, component dependency, and grid
readiness—the trajectory is promising. With E2W sales projected to reach 7–9 million by 2030, and
electric three-wheelers expected to command up to 75% of market share, India is poised to become a
global leader in sustainable mobility.
Q73. Which of the following statements can be logically inferred from the passage?
(I) The Indian government’s infrastructural and fiscal policies are not only supporting existing EV
manufacturers but are also influencing traditional automobile companies to shift strategies.
(II) Technological innovations have not only made EVs cheaper to produce but have also contributed to
features that align with changing consumer demands.
(III) The growth of electric vehicles in India has primarily been driven by rural demand and local
manufacturing incentives.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (I) and (III)
(e) All (I), (II), and (III)
Q74. Identify the statement(s) that is/are factually and contextually CORRECT based on the
passage.
(I) The EV industry in India initially faced setbacks due to cautious investment by established
companies and the high cost of batteries.
(II) Artificial intelligence in EVs has been used primarily to enhance battery lifespan and reduce energy
consumption during idle periods.
(III) Government policies like FAME-II and EMPS 2024 have been instrumental in overcoming consumer
hesitation about switching to electric mobility.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Only (II)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
(e) All (I), (II), and (III)
Q75. Which of the following statement(s) present an incorrect interpretation of the ideas
conveyed in the passage?
(I) The integration of artificial intelligence in electric vehicles caters primarily to the operational needs
of logistics and fleet companies rather than individual consumers.
(II) The decline in dependency on materials like cobalt has completely eliminated supply chain issues
in EV manufacturing.
(III) The Indian EV market's rapid growth is largely a result of rural consumers adopting two- and three-
wheelers for agricultural use.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
(e) Only (II)
Q76. Identify the statement(s) that correctly infer the nature of challenges faced by India’s EV
sector according to the passage.
(I) The EV industry continues to be hindered primarily by a lack of technological advancement in vehicle
software and battery chemistry.
(II) Although much of the ecosystem has matured, rural infrastructure gaps and grid limitations remain
significant barriers to full-scale adoption.
(III) High initial costs of EVs and lack of market competition remain the biggest reasons for low
consumer interest in electric vehicles.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Only (II)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
(e) Only (III)
Q77. Which of the following statement(s) reflect an incorrect or skewed interpretation of the
role of government policies in India’s EV transition, based on the passage?
(I) The Indian government’s initiatives are mainly focused on subsidising vehicle buyers and offer
minimal support for infrastructure development or battery recycling.
(II) Policies like EMPS 2024 are aimed at shifting consumer behaviour through digital education and
awareness campaigns rather than providing any material infrastructure.
(III) FAME-II and Battery-as-a-Service are part of an integrated policy framework aimed at increasing
EV adoption through financial, infrastructural, and operational support.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
(e) Only (II)
Q78. Which of the following phrases is most suitable to fill the given blank?
(a) technological criticisms
(b) ripple effects
(c) infrastructure failures
(d) operational loopholes
(e) manufacturing oversights
Q79. Which of the following words is most similar in meaning to “fraught” as used in the passage?
(a) equipped
(b) composed
(c) neutral
(d) aligned
(e) burdened
Q80. Which of the following words is most similar in meaning to “ushered” as used in the passage?
(a) obstructed
(b) eliminated
(c) initiated
(d) delayed
(e) dissolved
Q81. In each of the questions, two words are omitted, which are replaced by blanks. Choose the best
combination of the words that can fit into the given blank in the same order so to make a grammatically
and logically correct statement.
Although the diplomatic overtures appeared conciliatory on the surface, they barely managed to ______
the deep-seated mistrust between the two nations, making the entire engagement seem more like a
performative gesture than a genuine attempt to ______ longstanding hostilities.
(a) mask, perpetuate
(b) address, rekindle
(c) mitigate, dismantle
(d) conceal, ignite
(e) fabricate, intensify
Q82. In each of the questions, two words are omitted, which are replaced by blanks. Choose the best
combination of the words that can fit into the given blank in the same order so to make a grammatically
and logically correct statement.
The recent economic survey reveals a worrying trend in which rising urban consumption has failed to
______ corresponding gains in rural productivity, thereby risking a policy vacuum that could eventually
______ into a chronic structural imbalance in the national economy.
(a) catalyse, escalates
(b) justify, collapse
(c) translate, ossify
(d) induce, fade
(e) inflect, evolve
Q83. In each of the questions, two words are omitted, which are replaced by blanks. Choose the best
combination of the words that can fit into the given blank in the same order so to make a grammatically
and logically correct statement.
The opposition leader’s fiery rhetoric, though electrifying to the base, failed to ______ the broader
electorate that the party could govern effectively and, according to analysts, may have even begun to
______ the party’s appeal among centrist voters seeking stability.
(a) persuade, erode
(b) distract, amplify
(c) mitigate, dismantle
(d) dissuade, bolster
(e) impress, enshrine
Q84. In the following question, a sentence with a highlighted phrase is given which may or may not be
correct. Choose the correct option to replace the highlighted phrase.
No Sooner have employees, burdened by unrealistic expectations and deprived of support, thrived in
environments where empathy is neither practiced nor prioritized.
(I) Rarely have employees
(II) Employees have rarely
(III) Employees have been scarcely
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (III)
(c) Only (II)
(d) Both (I) and (II)
(e) No replacement required
Q85. Read the following sentences carefully and identify which of them use the word "sprig" correctly
in context.
A. She tucked a sprig of rosemary behind her ear before stepping into the kitchen to prepare the festive
roast.
B. The officer handed over a sprig of medals to the soldier during the ceremonial parade.
C. As the first rays of sunlight touched the soil, a delicate sprig emerged from the ground, promising the
arrival of spring.
(a) Only A
(b) Both A & B
(c) Both A & C
(d) All A, B & C
(e) None are correct
Q86. In the following question, a sentence with a highlighted phrase is given which may or may not be
correct. Choose the correct option to replace the highlighted phrase.
If the team would have submitted the proposal on time, they could have secured the funding for the
project.
(I) If the team had submitted
(II) Had the team submitted
(III) If the team have submitted
(a) Only (I)
(b) Both (I) and (II)
(c) Only (III)
(d) Both (II) and (III)
(e) No replacement required
Directions (87-90): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
The traditional interview process often relies on the candidate’s ability to describe their prior
experiences, qualifications, past work duties, and skillsets — an approach that creates a larger barrier
to recruitment and selection for most non-native speakers. Managers should consider whether
candidates should be tested on their ability to talk or write about their skills, or on their ability to
demonstrate these skills in practice. To this end, rather than testing oral or written communication
aptitude, companies can adopt innovative ways to test practical and technical on-the-job skills, in which
candidates are asked to perform a task and are _______________ on their proficiency in execution rather
than language fluency.
For example, specific skills assessments such as coding tasks in IT , computational challenges in finance,
or portfolio reviews in creative professions or construction would allow candidates to demonstrate
their potential contribution to the role. Additionally, some employers work with bilingual managers and
assigned mentors who can support refugees in their work transition when needed. Others rely on
technology, using language apps designed specifically to teach workers the technical vocabulary
required for a given job. In the long term, the investment in language development could allow
companies to capitalize on the skills of their multicultural and multilingual workforce, who can better
serve their increasingly diverse customer base.
Q87. Which of the following best summarizes the central argument presented in the passage?
(a) Traditional interviews are universally effective in assessing a candidate’s communication and job
performance skills, especially for native speakers.
(b) The interview process should continue to prioritize oral and written communication to maintain
professional standards across industries.
(c) Recruitment strategies must evolve to emphasize candidates' practical demonstration of skills over
their verbal articulation, especially to support non-native speakers and promote inclusivity.
(d) All organizations must adopt a single standardized skill assessment model that eliminates
interviews altogether to ensure fairness in selection.
(e) Language proficiency tests should be made more rigorous in interviews to ensure only well-spoken
professionals are recruited.
Q88. What assumption does the author make about the relationship between language skills and job
performance?
(a) High language proficiency always results in high job productivity, particularly in technical roles.
(b) Language skills are irrelevant in all professional fields and should not be a consideration in
recruitment.
(c) Fluency in communication may not accurately reflect a candidate’s job capabilities, and
overemphasis on it can limit access for capable non-native speakers.
(d) Multilingual individuals automatically outperform monolingual individuals due to broader
vocabulary and cultural awareness.
(e) Employees with poor communication skills will struggle regardless of their technical competency.
Q89. According to the passage, which of the above statements is/are correct?
(I) The traditional interview process disadvantages non-native speakers by emphasizing language
proficiency over job-related capabilities.
(II) Companies that invest in developing the language skills of non-native employees may be better
equipped to serve a diverse clientele in the future.
(III) Replacing traditional interviews with standardized language tests is the most effective method to
promote inclusivity in hiring.
(a) Only (I) is correct
(b) Only (II) is correct
(c) Both (I) and (III) are correct
(d) Both (I) and (II) are correct
(e) All (I), (II), and (III) are correct
Q90. Choose the appropriate word to fill the given blank.
(a) commanded
(b) regulated
(c) fostered
(d) declined
(e) evaluated
Directions (91-94): The table given below show total number of fruits (Apples & Mangoes) sold
by three shops and the ratio of apples to mangoes sold by these three shops. Read the data
carefully and answer the questions given below.
Note: The difference between mangoes and apples sold by shops A is 16.
Q91. Find the difference between total number of mangoes sold by shops A & C together and total
number of apples sold by shops A & B together?
(a) 56
(b) 89
(c) 68
(d) 87
(e) 97
Q92. The average number of apples sold by A, C and D is 32. If the ratio of total number of apples
to mangoes sold by D is p : q and total mangoes sold by D are of total mangoes sold by C, then
find the value of ‘q’?
(a) 0.5
(b) 3
(c) 1.5
(d) 2
(e) 1
Q93. Shop C sold 40% of total available fruits (Apples & Mangoes) and the ratio of total unsold
mangoes to sold mangoes by shop C is 5 : p+2, then find the total unsold apples by shop C is what
percent of more than total sold mangoes by shop A?
(a) 40%
(b) 30%
(c) 20%
(d) 15%
(e) 25%
Q94. Shops C purchased each apple and mango at Rs 10 & Rs. 15, and he sold all fruits at profit
of 40%. Find the total profit of received by C (C sold all purchased fruits)?
(a) 612 Rs.
(b) 556 Rs.
(c) 672 Rs.
(d) 652 Rs.
(e) 692 Rs.
Directions (95-99): Read the following pie chart carefully and answer the questions given below.
The pie chart shows the percentage distribution of total students (boys and girls) in five different
schools.
Q95. The total number of students in schools B and D together is what percentage more or less
than the total number of students in school E?
(a) 12.5%
(b) 66.67%
(c) 33.33%
(d) 25%
(e) 50%
Q96. The difference between the total number of boys and girls in school C is 170 (boys < girls).
If the total number of boys in school B is 230 more than that of school C, then find the ratio of
boys to girls in school B.
(a) 7:8
(b) 4:7
(c) 7:9
(d) 9:7
(e) 8:3
Q97. The total number of students in school F is 25% more than that in C. The ratio of the number
of boys to the number of girls in school F is 19:12. If the number of girls in schools F and E
together is 1935, then find the difference between the number of boys in schools E and F.
(a) 285
(b) 305
(c) 325
(d) 270
(e) 245
Q98. 25% of the total number of students in school A who participated in dance, and the rest
participated in chess. The number of students who participated in chess in school E is 40 more
than half of the students who participated in chess in school A. Find the average number of
students who participated in dance.
(a) 1200
(b) 920
(c) 510
(d) 540
(e) 870
Q99. Find the central angle corresponding to the total number of students in B and D together
(in degree)?
(a) 90
(b) 108
(c) 120
(d) 135
(e) 160
Q100. Two roots of equation x2 – Px + 84 = 0 is ‘a’ and ‘b’ , and a-b = 5.
Quantity I: Value of 2P
Quantity II: Value of b2 – a + 1
(a) I >  II
(b) I <  II
(c) I ≥  II
(d) I ≤  II
(e) I =  II
Q101. A bag contains x black marbles, x+10 white marbles and x+20 yellow marbles. The
probability of drawing one white marble randomly is 1/6 more than probability of drawing one
black marble randomly.
Quantity I: Total number of yellow marbles in the bag.
Quantity II: 40
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
Directions (102-104): There are two series I and II given below, and both series follows the same
pattern. Find the missing terms of series II and answer the following questions.
Q102. I: 386, 194, 98, 50, 26, 14, 8
II: 834, 418, P, Q, R, S, 15
Which of the following statement/s is or are definitely true?
(a) Only I and II
(b) Only I
(c) Only II
(d) All I, II and III
(e) Only I and III
Q103. Find the 50% of Q + R?
(a) 80
(b) 75
(c) 60
(d) 107
(e) 100
Q104. Which of the following statement/s is or are definitely true?
I. Sum of P and R is odd number
II. Sum of P and R is completely divisible by 4
III. Sum of R and S is less than 4th term of series I
(a) Only II and III
(b) Only I
(c) Only II
(d) All I, II and III
(e) Only I and III
Directions (105-107): There are two series I and II given below, and both the series follow
different patterns. A and B are missing terms of I & II respectively. Find the value of A and B, and
answer the questions given below.
I: 16, A, 10, 21, 85, 681
II: 44, 52, 64, 80, B, 124
Q105. Which of the following statement/s is or are correct?
(i) A is a perfect square
(ii) B = 10A
(iii) B÷(A+1) = 10
(ii) B = 10A
(iii) B÷(A+1) = 10
(a) Only (ii) and (iii)
(b) Only (i) and (ii)
(c) Only (i)
(d) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(e) Only (i) and (iii)
Q106. Find the value of 4A+2B?
(a) 218
(b) 418
(c) 236
(d) 136
(e) 256
Q107. Which of the following statement/s is or are true?
(i) When 69 added in B, then the resultant becomes perfect square
(ii) Value of A is a prime number
(iii) 25 is a factor of (B+25)
(a) Only (ii) and (iii)
(b) Only (i) and (iii)
(c) Only (i)
(d) All (i), (ii) and (iii)
(e) Only (i) and (ii)
Directions (108-111): The bar graph given below shows percentage distribution of total students
(boys + girls) appeared in three exams A, B and C. The bar graph also shows percentage of
students (boys + girls) passed in these three exams out of total students (boys + girls) appeared
in particular exam. Read the data carefully and answer the questions given below.
Note: Total number of students appeared in three exams A, B and C = 900
Total number of students appeared in any exam = students passed + students did not pass.
Q108. Find the average number of students who did not pass all three exams?
(a) 136
(b) 156
(c) 168
(d) 148
(e) 126
Q109. Which of the following statement/s is or are correct?
I. Total number of students who did not pass the exam B are multiple of 9.
II. Total students who passed the exam A & B together > Total students who passed the exam B & C
together
III. 50% of students who did not pass the exam A are equal to of number of students who did not
pass the exam B
(a) Only III
(b) Only II
(c) Only I and III
(d) Only I and II
(e) All I, II and III
Q110. The average number of students passed in exam A, B and D is 150, and 70% of total
students appeared in exam D are not pass the exam. If boys and girls who did not pass the exam
D are equal and girls who passed the exam D are 40% of students who passed exam B, then find
the total boys who appeared in exam D?
(a) 282
(b) 308
(c) 316
(d) 318
Q111. 40% of total students who appeared in exam B are girls and 80 girls did not pass the exams
out of total girls appeared in exam B. Find the difference between number of girls who passed
the exam B and number of boys who did not passed the exam B?
(a) 100
(b) 90
(c) 80
(d) 60
(e) 110
Q112. Four years ago, the ratio of ages of Sonam and Niharika was 5:7. 12 years hence, the ratio
between the ratio of ages of Sonam and Niharika will be 9:11. The present age of Sonam and
Niharika are X years and Y years respectively.
Quantity I:
Quantity II: 0.2Y+ 1.5X
II: 0.2Y+ 1.5X
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
Q113. Given, ‘a’ and b are two distinct positive integers such that 4b + 2a = 24 and
Quantity I: value of 2a
Quantity II: value of b
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
Q114. The average of three numbers P, Q, and R is 16, and another number S is 9 more than the
average of Q and R. Find the value of 2S + P.
(a) 58
(b) 48
(c) 66
(d) 56
Q115. I: 3x² - 16x + 5 = 0
II: 2y² - 7y + 3 = 0
(a) x < y
(b) x > y
(c) x ≤ y
(d) x ≥ y
Q116. 50% of the solid sphere is melted to form cubes of sides (64/336)th of the radius of the
sphere. If the curved surface area of the sphere is 5544 sq. cm. Find the maximum number of
cubes that can be formed.
(a) 321
(b) 278
(c) 289
(d) 309
(e) 303
Q117.
(a) x < y
(b) x > y
(c) x ≤ y
(d) x ≥ y
Q118.
I: 3x2 -5x -2 = 0
II: 2y2 -3y +1 = 0
(a) x < y
(b) x > y
(c) x ≤ y
(d) x ≥ y
Q119. Vessel P contains 56 liters of a mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 3:1, and vessel Q
contains 40% water and the rest milk. 25% of mixture Q and 60% of mixture P are taken out and
poured into empty vessel R. If the ratio of water to milk in vessel R is 52:141, respectively, then
find how much milk was taken out from vessel Q (in liters).
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 4
(e) 5
Q120. is a mixed fraction and the whole number P is prime number. The denominator is Q,
which is a multiple of 2. The product of the whole number and the denominator is 18. If the
product of the denominator and numerator is 24, then find the value of b.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 1
(e) 5
Q121. P and Q can complete 3/2 times the work in 9 days. R (working twice of efficiency) and P
together can complete the work in 5 days. Find the time (in days) taken by P, Q, and R (working
twice of efficiency) together to complete 20% more of the work.
(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 18
(d) 8
Q122.
Quantity I: Find the value of y.
Quantity II: Find the value of x.
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation
Q123. A train can cross half of a platform with 0.4 of its initial speed in 30 seconds. If the length
of the platform had been three times the length of the train, then the train could cross the whole
platform with its initial speed in 24 seconds. Find the ratio of the original length of the platform
(in meters) and the initial speed of the train (in m/sec).
(a) 11:2
(b) 12:1
(c) 4:5
(d) 5:9
(e) 1:9
Directions (124-128): Read the following table carefully and answer the questions given below.
The table shows the percentage or number of visas granted by country A out of the total number
of visa applications received from P, Q, and R. The table also shows the percentage of visas
granted to males out of the total number of visas granted.
Note: Total number of applications received = Number of applications granted + Number of applications
rejected.
Q124. In Q, the total number of females rejected for visas is 66.67% more than that of males. If
the difference between the males and females rejected visas from Q is 16.67% of the total
number of visas granted from R, then find the applications received from Q.
(a) 12500
(b) 8000
(c) 10000
(d) 11000
(e) 14500
Q125. In P, the total number of visas granted to females is 7200. Find the difference between the
total number of visas rejected from P and the total number of visas granted to males from Q.
(a) 6000
(b) 3000
(c) 5000
(d) 7000
(e) 4000
Q126. There are two types of visas granted from R, i.e., X and Y. The ratio of X to Y types of visas
granted to males is 7:5, and the Y types of visas granted to females is one-fifth that of males. Find
the ratio of the total X types to total Y types of visas granted from R.
(a) 1:4
(b) 2:1
(c) 1:2
(d) 2:3
(e) 3:2
Q127. The total number of visas granted from S is 500 more than the average number of visas
granted from Q and R. The number of visas granted to males from S is twice the difference
between the number of visas granted to males and females from Q. Find the number of visas
granted to females from S.
(a) 1800
(b) 1200
(c) 1500
(d) 2000
(e) 1400
Q128. The total number of visas granted from all three countries is 3.5 times the total number of
visas granted to males from R. The total number of visas granted to females in P is how many
more or less than Q?
(a) 3080
(b) 2450
(c) 3120
(d) 2990
(e) 2840
Directions (129-133): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given
below.
The total number of boys who played hockey and the total number of girls who played football are in
the ratio of 5:3, and the total number of boys who played volleyball is twice the number of girls who
played football. The number of girls who played volleyball is 30 less than that of boys. The total number
of boys and girls who played hockey together is 160, and the total number of boys who played football
is 25% more than the total number of girls who played hockey. The total number of boys who played all
three sports is 295.
Q129. The number of girls who played volleyball is what percentage more or less than the total
number of boys played football?
(a) 20%
(b) 12.5%
(c) 16.67%
(d) 18%
(e) 10%
Q130. Find the ratio of the total number of boys and girls together who played volleyball to the
total number of boys who played hockey and football together.
(a) 5:7
(b) 6:5
(c) 7:4
(d) 4:3
(e) 4:9
Q131. Find the difference between the total number of girls who played all three sport and the
total number of boys and girls together who played football.
(a) 50
(b) 80
(c) 75
(d) 60
(e) 100
Q132. The total number of boys who played chess is 20% more than the total number of girls
who played hockey. If the total number of girls who played chess is twice the number of boys who
played football, then find the difference between the total number of boys and girls who played
chess.
(a) 92
(b) 88
(c) 78
(d) 110
(e) 75
Q133. The ratio of the total number of girls who played cricket to the total number of boys who
played football is 11:15. If the total number of boys and girls together who played cricket is 60%
of those who played volleyball, then find the number of boys who played cricket.
(a) 72
(b) 79
(c) 74
(d) 71
(e) 77
Directions (134-138): What comes at the place of question (?) mark. You are not required to
calculate the exact value.
Q134.
(a) 12
(b) 33
(c) 42
(d) 23
(e) 52
Q135.
(a) 1
(b) 7
(c) 5
(d) 11
(e) 14
Q136.
(a) 14
(b) 32
(c) 20
(d) 8
(e) 42
Q137.
(a) 35
(b) 25
(c) 20
(d) 15
(e) 40
Q138. √?+24.987% of 96.10×14.98=19.022
√?+96.10 24.987%×14.98=19.022
(a) 81
(b) 1
(c) 9
(d) 25
(e) 49
Directions (139-140): The following questions are accompanied by two statements (A) and (B).
You have to determine which statements(s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the questions.
Q139. What is the value of a two–digit number?
A. The sum of its digits is 21 and product of its digits is 110.
B. The sum of its digits is 5 and on reversing the digits of the original number, new number obtained is
less than the original value.
(a) Statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement B alone is not sufficient to
(b) Statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement A alone is not sufficient to
(c) Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions.
(d) Either statement A or statement B by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
(e) Statements A and B taken together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Q140. What is the ratio of father’s age to his son’s age after 5 years.
A. The ratio of present age of father to his son is 8:5 and 12 years before it was 5: 2.
B. Father is 24 years older than his son and the product of their ages is 256.
(a) Statement A alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement B alone is not sufficient to
(b) Statement B alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement A alone is not sufficient to
(c) Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions.
(d) Either statement A or statement B by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
(e) Statements A and B taken together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Q141. Statement: In a recent national policy announcement, the government mandated that all private
companies with over 100 employees must ensure at least 30% female representation in their leadership
roles by 2027. This move is expected to reduce the gender gap in corporate governance. However, some
critics argue that without structural support like affordable childcare and safe transportation, achieving
this target may be difficult.
Based on the above statement, which of the following can be inferred?
I. The government is taking measures to promote gender equality in corporate leadership.
II. Private companies are not currently required to ensure any female representation.
III. Supporting infrastructure is crucial for the success of gender-related policy goals.
(a) Only I is correct
(b) Only III is correct
(c) Both I and III are correct
(d) Both II and III are correct
(e) All I, II, and III are correct
Q142. The National Digital Strategy 2025 includes major investments in AI research and its
ethical use. It supports transparent algorithms and AI applications in sectors like healthcare and
education. Civil rights groups, however, worry about weak regulations against AI misuse.
Which of the following statements can be inferred?
(a) AI integration has already led to widespread improvements in all public sectors across the country.
(b) The strategy includes clear and strict regulations to address AI-related ethical concerns.
(c) The public has fully accepted AI, and there are no major concerns about its misuse.
(d) The government is expanding AI use, while concerns over regulations reflect awareness of risks.
(e) The strategy promotes AI in services, ensures strong regulations, and reflects stakeholder concern.
Directions (143-145): Here, a question is followed by two statements numbered I and II given
below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer
the question. Read both statements carefully and give answer:
Q143. Six persons F, K, M, N, O, P - sit in a row facing north. What is the position of F with respect
to O?
Statement I: Three persons sit between N and M. P sits second to the right of O. K sits immediate left of
P.
Statement II: M sits second from an extreme end. One person sits between M and N. P sits adjacent to
M but to the right of O. F sits third to the right of K.
(a) Data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer.
(b) Data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer.
(c) Data given in both statements I and II together are sufficient to answer.
(d) Data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer.
(e) Data given in either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Q144. Six persons A, B, C, D, E, F – sit around a circular table facing inside. Who sits immediate
right of F?
Statement I: C sits second to the right of B. D sits immediate left of B. E and F are immediate neighbors.
Statement II: A sits immediate left of C. D sits second to the left of A. One person sits between B and F.
(a) Data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer.
(b) Data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer.
(c) Data given in both statements I and II together are sufficient to answer.
(d) Data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer.
(e) Data given in either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Q145. Six persons K, L, M, N, O, P – live on different floors of a six-floor building where lowermost
floor is numbered as 1, above it is 2 and so on. Who lives on 4th floor?
Statement I: P lives just below M. L lives above M and O. M lives on odd numbered floor. Two persons
live between K and L. N lives just below O.
Statement II: M lives three floors above L. Number of persons above M and below P are same. Two
persons live between K and N.
(a) Data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer.
(b) Data given in statement I alone is sufficient to answer.
(c) Data given in both statements I and II together are sufficient to answer.
(d) Data given in statement II alone is sufficient to answer.
(e) Data given in either statement I or statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Directions (146-150): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions:
Nine persons K, L, M, N, O, P, Q, R, S go to different cities on three different dates - 7, 14, 28 of three
different months – January, April and October. The cities are – Delhi, Pune, Surat, Ambala, Patna, Shimla,
Jaipur, Lucknow, Agra.
M goes on an even date in April. Three persons go between M and the one who goes to Jaipur. P goes just
before the one who goes to Jaipur. Five persons go between P and K. Number of persons go before K is
same as the number of persons go after the one who goes to Shimla. Four persons go between S and the
one who goes to Shimla. K and R go in the same month. Q goes just after the one who goes to Surat. P
does not go to Surat. Three persons go between Q and the one who goes to Lucknow. One person goes
between O and the one who goes to Delhi. One person goes between the persons who go to Lucknow
and Pune. The one who goes to Ambala goes just before the one who goes to Patna. L goes after O.
Q146. Four of the following five are similar in a certain a certain way and belong to a group, which
of the following is dissimilar to others?
(a) P – Shimla
(b) L – Patna
(c) S – Delhi
(d) K – Lucknow
(e) Q – Pune
Q147. Which of the following is true about L?
(a) 7th April
(b) 28th January
(c) 28th April
(d) 14th January
(e) 7th October
Q148. O goes to which of the following city?
(b) Patna
(c) Agra
(d) Surat
(e) Shimla
Q149. Which of the following is correct?
I. K goes to Pune
II. M goes before N
III. S goes on 14th October
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only III
(d) Only I and II
(e) Only I and III
Q150. How many persons go between N and R?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(d) Six
Directions (151-155): Study the given information carefully and answer the related questions:
In a certain code language
" Are Base Boost Plant" is coded as “$5T #6U $7U $6P”
"Light on Ease Stops" is coded as “$6J #3Q #7U $6R”
"Wisdom players shine high" is coded as “#8Q $9T $7P #5I”
"Time Think Learn Tech" is coded as “#6O $6P $7T #5E”
"Wisdom players shine high" “#8Q $9T $7P #5I”
Q151. What is the code of the word “Energetic”?
(a) $7K
(b) $13R
(c) #13K
(d) #7K
(e) $13K
Q152. What is the code for word pair “Brave Knight”?
(a) #7X #7J
(b) $8Y #8J
(c) $6X #7J
(d) $7X #7J
Q153. Which among the following word can be coded as “$6T”?
(a) Games
(b) Grand
(c) Glory
(d) Gloves
Q154. What is the code of the word “Guests”?
(a) #8V
(b) $7V
(c) #8S
(d) $7X
Q155. Which among the following statement is/are correct?
I. Playful is coded as “$9W”
II. “On place” is coded as “#3Q $8E”
III. “#8G” is the code of “Manner”
(a) Only I
(b) Both I and II
(c) Both I and III
(d) Only III
(e) Only II
Q156. If we pick the third letter from left end from each word of an option, and this is done for
all options, then from which of the following options, a four-letter meaningful word can be
formed?
(a) PLANT , BRAVE, STONE, QUICK
(b) LIGHT , SHINE, SWEET , SPICE
(c) CRANE, FRAME, GIANT , FLAME
(d) SPINE, PAPER, EVERY , PARTY
(e) TRACK, SPEAR, GLASS, WATER
Q157. Statement: A recent survey by the State Education Board revealed that students in rural areas
showed a noticeable improvement in academic performance after the introduction of mobile learning
vans equipped with digital content. These vans provided interactive lessons, subject-wise quizzes, and
career guidance sessions in regions where schools lacked basic infrastructure.
What could be the possible reason for the improvement in students' performance?
(a) Students in rural areas were already performing better than urban students.
(b) The mobile vans offered personalized coaching by reputed private tutors.
(c) Interactive digital content made learning more accessible and engaging.
(d) The State Board introduced new textbooks for the academic year.
(e) None of these
Q158. In the question below, two statements are provided. Examine these statements carefully
and determine whether there is a cause-and-effect relationship between them. Choose your
answer from the options provided.
Statements:
I. Global temperatures have risen sharply over the past few decades.
II. Melting of polar ice caps and rising sea levels have been observed across the globe.
(a) Statement I is the cause, and Statement II is its effect
(b) Statement II is the cause, and Statement I is its effect
(c) Both statements are independent causes
(d) Both statements are effects of a common cause
(e) None of these
Directions (159-163): Read the given information carefully and answer the given questions:
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H sit around a square table in a such a way that four persons sit at
the corners of the table and four sit at the middle of each side of the table. The persons sit at the corners
face inside and the persons sit at the sides face outside. They all related to each other as a family.
B’s spouse sits third to the right of B. B faces inside. One person sits between B’s spouse and C (from
either side). A ’s only daughter sits immediate left of C. Three persons sit between A’s only daughter and
A ’s sister (from either side). G’s father sits third to the left of A. A does not face inside. Both the immediate
neighbors of G are married to each other. Two persons sit between G and E(from either side). G’s brother
sits third to the right of E. H is not father of G. D sits third to the left of G’s sibling.
Q159. Who among the following is sister-in-law of G?
I. The one who sits second to the left of F
II. The one who sits opposite to E
III. H’s sister
(a) Only III
(b) Only I and II
(c) Only I
(d) Only II and III
Q160. Who among the following is daughter-in-law of F?
(a) B
(b) A
(c) H
(d) E
(e) D
Q161. Four of the following five are similar in a certain group and related to a group, which of
the following is not related to the group?
(a) F-C
(b) B-A
(c) E-D
(d) G-H
(e) C-A
Q162. What is the relation of F with respect to the one who sits second to the right of B?
(a) Son-in-law
(b) Brother-in-law
(c) Sister
(d) Daughter
(e) Wife
Q163. How many persons sit between D and B’s sister (from either side)?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Directions (164-165): In the following questions, the symbols @, #, $, %, & are used with the
following meaning as illustrated below:
A@B means A is not greater than B
A#B means A is not smaller than B
A$B means A is neither greater nor smaller than B
A%B means A is neither greater nor equal to B
A&B means A is neither smaller nor equal to B
Now, assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the three conclusions I, II, and III
is/are definitely true, and give your answer accordingly.
Q164. Statements: P @ Q % M % R $ G; T % R @ V % E @ S; V $ C # B & N
Conclusions:
I. S & Q
II. E # B
III. P % C
: P @ Q % M % R $ G; T % R @ V % E @ S; V $ C # B & N
I. S & Q
II. E # B
III. P % C
(a) Only I and II
(b) Only II and III
(c) Only I
(d) Only I and III
(e) All I, II, III
Q165. Statements: A $ O # W # H & B; B & Y # T $ K # L; F % N @ C $ L
Conclusions:
I. F @ O
II. C & H
III. N @ L
: A $ O # W # H & B; B & Y # T $ K # L; F % N @ C $ L
I. F @ O
II. C & H
III. N @ L
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) Only III
(d) Only I and II
(e) Only II and III
Q166. In the numbers ‘865499’ and ‘761829’ , if even digits are decreased by 2 and odd digits are
decreased by 1, then find the sum of non-repeated digits across the two numbers.
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 0
(e) 8
Directions (167-171): Study the following information and answer the questions given below:
In Edtech Adda247, Different YouTube classes scheduled viz. Two Banking, One SSC and Two UPSC with
each session being for 1 hour. Also 2 hours of celebration scheduled on this day on completing 5m
subscribers of SSCADDA. These sessions are scheduled from 9am to 6pm. Two breaks are there between
these sessions with each of 1 hour. None of the same classes are scheduled consecutively including
breaks like- If Banking class is scheduled at 11am then next banking class is neither scheduled at 10am
or 12noon slot. Lunch break is held before Tea break. No breaks taken consecutively.
The numbers of slots are scheduled before Tea is same as the numbers of slots are scheduled after one
of the UPSC classes. No breaks are scheduled at first and last hour slot. Sourav left the office in
celebration hour at 3:15pm for few minutes. Banking class is scheduled just before lunch but after 2
slots of SSC class. None of the UPSC class is scheduled after Tea.
Q167. How many slots are held between the both banking classes?
(a) Four
(c) One
(d) Three
(e) Two
Q168. Which of the following class is scheduled from 10am to 11am?
(b) SSC
(c) UPSC
(d) Either Banking or SSC
(e) Either SSC or UPSC
Q169. Which of the following class is scheduled just before Lunch?
(a) Either Banking or SSC
(b) Banking
(c) UPSC
(d) SSC
(e) Either SSC or UPSC
Q170. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which of the
following does not belong to that group?
(b) 11am-12pm – UPSC
(e) 3pm-5pm – Celebration
Q171. How many hours gap between SSC class and UPSC class (from their starting time)?
(a) 2 hours
(b) 3 hours
(c) 4 hours
(d) 5 hours
Directions (172-176): A word arrangement machine when given an input line of Words,
rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The example of input and its
rearrangement, is given below:
Input: AIR PIN HAT FAN GUN NET
Step I: AIR PIN HAT GUN NET FAN
Step II: HAT AIR PIN NET GUN FAN
Step III: PIN HAT AIR NET GUN FAN
Step IV: PINHAT AIRNET GUNFAN
Step V: AHINPT AEINRT AFGNNU
Step VI: BGJMQS BDJMSS BEHMOT
Step VI is the last step of the given example. Illustrate the above input arrangement and obtain
the steps for the asked input given below:
Input: LEN DEN BAT CER JAM TIL
: AIR PIN HAT FAN GUN NET
I: AIR PIN HAT GUN NET FAN
II: HAT AIR PIN NET GUN FAN
III: PIN HAT AIR NET GUN FAN
IV: PINHAT AIRNET GUNFAN
V: AHINPT AEINRT AFGNNU
VI: BGJMQS BDJMSS BEHMOT
: LEN DEN BAT CER JAM TIL
Q172. Which of the following is fifth word from right end in step III?
(a) LEN
(b) TIL
(c) JAM
(d) CAR
(e) DEN
Q173. Which of the following is fourth word from left end in step II?
(a) JAM
(b) CAR
(c) DEN
(d) TIL
Q174. In which of the following step, “EDFKOM BAJKUS” is found exactly in this order?
(a) Step III
(b) Step II
(c) Step VI
(d) Step V
(e) Step IV
Q175. Which of the following is the penultimate step?
(a) DEELNN BCIL TT ACEJMR
(b) DEELNN ABIL TT ACEJMR
(c) CEDLNN ABIL TT ACEJMR
(d) DEELMN BBIL TT ACEJMR
(e) DEELNN NBIL TT BCEJMR
Q176. Which of the following element is second to the left of the word which is fifth from left end
in first step?
(a) BAT
(b) CER
(c) LEN
(d) DEN
(e) TIL
Directions (177-180): There are two/three rows given, and to find out the resultant of a
particular row, follow the conditions mentioned:
I. If an even number is followed by another even number (not prime), the resultant will be the difference
of both the numbers.
II. If an even number is followed by an odd number (not prime), the resultant will be the difference of
the both the numbers multiplied by 2.
III. If an even number is followed by a prime number, the resultant will be the sum of both
the numbers.
IV . If an odd number is followed by another odd number (not a perfect square), the resultant will be the
difference of both the numbers added by the greater number.
V. If an odd number is followed by another even number (not a perfect square), the resultant will be the
sum of both the numbers.
VI. If an odd number is followed by perfect square number, the resultant will be the sum of both
the numbers divided by 2.
Q177. What will be the value of X, if the sum of resultant of both the rows is 53?
R1: 4 3 25
R2: 8 7 X
R1: 4 3 25
R2: 8 7 X
(a) 32
(b) 24
(c) 23
(d) 22
(e) 29
Q178. What will be the value if the difference between the resultants of Row I and Row II, will be
added by resultant of Row III?
R1: 15 17 12
R2: 12 11 25
R3: 13 10 9
R1: 15 17 12
R2: 12 11 25
R3: 13 10 9
(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 23
(d) 13
(e) 14
Q179. What will be the value of the sum of the resultants of all rows?
R1: 21 49 15
R2: 14 9 4
R3: 11 5 8
R1: 21 49 15
R2: 14 9 4
R3: 11 5 8
(a) 87
(b) 84
(c) 80
(d) 82
(e) 86
Q180. What will be the value, if the difference between the resultant of Row I and Row II is
multiplied by the resultant of Row III?
R1: 8 2 25
R2: 13 5 12
R3: 21 9 24
R1: 8 2 25
R2: 13 5 12
R3: 21 9 24
(a) 107
(b) 106
(c) 117
(d) 112
(e) 125
Directions (181-185): Read the given information carefully and answer the questions based on
it:
Seven persons named T, G, H, Y, D, K and L deposit some amount of money (in rupees; integer value)
(but not in the same order as given) on different days of the week from Monday to Sunday to their bank
accounts. No person deposit same amount of money.
More than three persons deposit between K and D and one of them deposits the lowest money. Average
of the highest and lowest sum of money is rupees 1625 which is rupees 25 more than the money
deposited by T who deposits just after K. Equal number of persons deposited the money before and
after T and G respectively and ratio between the money of T and G is 10:7. The money deposited on
Friday is highest but not deposited by Y and H. Money deposited on Monday is thrice the difference
between the money deposited on Wednesday and Saturday. The number of persons deposit money
before H is less than the number of persons deposit money after H and his money is rupees 20 less than
the money deposited on Tuesday. One of the persons deposits rupees 1050. Ratio between the money
deposited on Thursday and Sunday is 6:5 respectively.
Q181. What is the difference between the money deposited by Y and K?
(a) Rupees 480
(b) Rupees 220
(c) Rupees 120
(d) Rupees 210
Q182. On which of the following day, the third highest amount of money is deposited?
(b) Thursday
(c) Monday
(d) Wednesday
Q183. Which of the following persons deposited money just before H?
(a) T
(b) G
Q184. Four of the following five are similar in a certain manner and related to a group, which
among the following does not belong to the group?
(a) K-H
(b) Y-G
(c) L-D
(d) T-Y
(e) K-Y
Q185. Who among the following deposit the second highest money?
(a) T
(b) H
(c) G
(d) L
(e) D
Q186. In the question below, two statements are provided. Examine these statements carefully
and determine whether there is a cause-and-effect relationship between them. Choose your
answer from the options provided.
Statements:
I. Several government schools across rural India have adopted smart classrooms and digital learning
tools.
II. The government launched a national program to enhance digital infrastructure in education.
(a) Statement I is the cause, and Statement II is its effect
(b) Statement II is the cause, and Statement I is its effect
(c) Both statements are independent causes
(d) Both statements are effects of a common cause
(e) None of these
Q187. Statement: To tackle rising electronic waste, the government has enforced strict e-waste rules
for mobile phone brands and retailers. These include mandatory recycling and penalties for non-
compliance. The goal is to promote sustainable disposal of mobile devices.
Which of the following are not in line with the given statement?
(I) A leading smartphone brand started a drive to collect used handsets for recycling.
(II) A tech portal launched a tool to compare discounts on smartphones.
(III) Several retailers were fined for not following the new e-waste guidelines.
(a) Only I and II
(b) Only II
(c) Only III
(d) Only I
Q188. India has committed to achieving net-zero carbon emissions by 2070 and is actively investing in
clean energy solutions such as solar parks, green hydrogen, and electric mobility. The government is
also promoting public-private partnerships to reduce dependence on fossil fuels.
Which of the following statements is not in line with the above context?
(a) India is encouraging the use of electric vehicles by offering subsidies and developing charging
infrastructure.
(b) Solar power generation is being expanded to reduce the load on coal-based power plants.
(c) The government is planning to increase coal production to ensure uninterrupted power supply till
2100.
(d) Public sector companies are collaborating with private firms to explore clean hydrogen fuel.
(e) India aims to reduce its carbon intensity and promote sustainable development.
Q189. Statement: Company X and Company Y are competitors in the smartphone market. Last year,
Company Y overtook Company X in sales, despite Company X launching a highly rated flagship device.
Analysts attribute Company Y’s growth to rural expansion, attractive exchange offers, and effective
customer loyalty programs.
What could be the possible reason for Company Y’s increase in market share over Company X?
(a) Company X’s high-end model was unaffordable for most users.
(b) Company Y offered targeted incentives and expanded its rural presence.
(c) Company Y collaborated with global brands for premium devices.
(d) Company X reduced production of budget phones to focus on innovation.
(e) None of these
Q190. With the rising air pollution levels in metro cities, many residents have started using air
purifiers at home. Sales of indoor plants have also increased as people try to improve indoor air
quality naturally.
Which of the following can be inferred from the given statement?
(a) People are becoming more health-conscious due to worsening air quality
(b) The sale of air purifiers is declining due to the popularity of indoor plants
(c) Metro cities are now free from air pollution due to these measures
(d) Only natural ways are effective to fight air pollution
(e) None of these
Solutions
S1. Ans.(c)
Sol. The Indian Institute of Technology Madras (IIT-M) has commissioned Asia’s largest
indigenously developed shallow wave basin research facility to support both academic research
and the evolving needs of the maritime industry. The facility is located at Discovery Campus in
Thaiyur, a suburban area of Chennai, Tamil Nadu.
Important Features of the Facility
1. The facility has been established by the National Technology Centre for Ports, Waterways and
Coasts (NTCPWC), the technology arm of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
2. It is designed to simulate complex wave and current interactions, addressing key challenges in
coastal engineering, port development, and waterway management.
3. It is equipped with a mobile wave maker, making it one of the few such advanced research
facilities in the world.
4. Most of the components, especially the wavemaker, were fabricated indigenously at IIT Madras,
reducing the country’s dependence on imported technology.
Applications of the Facility
• Testing of coastal infrastructure designs
• Analysis of climate change impacts on coastal areas
• Study of floating solar plants
• Post-impact analysis of port and coastal structures
• Supporting multi-disciplinary marine and ocean engineering research
S2. Ans.(d)
Sol. Odisha has recently announced a landmark three-year sponsorship deal for the Indian
National Kho Kho team, highlighting its continuous support for indigenous sports in India. This
initiative marks a significant investment in traditional athletics, aimed at uplifting Kho Kho on the
national and international stage.
Sponsorship Duration and Value
• The sponsorship will span from January 2025 to December 2027.
• The Odisha government will contribute ₹5 crore per year for three consecutive years.
• Thus, the total sponsorship amount is ₹15 crore.
Funding Source
• The funding will be provided through the Odisha Mining Corporation (OMC), a state-owned
enterprise.
• This move strengthens the state’s commitment to channel corporate and government resources
toward sports development.
Objective of the Initiative
• To elevate the status of Kho Kho as a nationally recognized sport.
• To support the Indian National Kho Kho team with adequate financial backing for training,
infrastructure, and exposure.
• To encourage grassroots participation in traditional sports by boosting visibility and resources.
Odisha’s Track Record in Sports
• This sponsorship comes after Odisha’s highly successful partnership with Indian hockey, where
the state played a crucial role in reviving the sport.
• The current move reflects Odisha's long-term vision to nurture indigenous sports and expand
India's sporting ecosystem.
S3. Ans.(b)
Sol. Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve is located in the state of Madhya Pradesh, in central India. It is
one of the most significant protected areas in the country, recognized both nationally and
internationally for its ecological, biological, and cultural importance.
Key Details about Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve
Location and Size
• Located in the Satpura Range of Madhya Pradesh.
• Spread across 4,926 square kilometers, it is the largest biosphere reserve in the state.
Protected Areas Within the Reserve
• Includes three key conservation zones:
1. Satpura National Park
2. Bori Wildlife Sanctuary
3. Pachmarhi Wildlife Sanctuary
Ecological Significance
• Hosts over 1,000 plant species, 50 mammal species, and 250 bird species.
• The region contains species typical of both the Himalayas and the Western Ghats, making it uniquely
diverse.
• Features a mix of forests, grasslands, and river systems, ideal for wildlife and vegetation.
Cultural Importance
• Inhabited by indigenous tribal communities like the Baiga, Gond, and Korku tribes.
• These communities are known for their traditional ecological knowledge and sustainable way of life.
Recognition
• Declared a Biosphere Reserve by the Government of India in 1999.
• Recognized as a UNESCO Biosphere Reserve in 2009 for its outstanding natural and cultural value.
S4. Ans.(d)
Sol. Switzerland is not in the top five countries in the Network Readiness Index 2024 rankings.
Top 5 Countries in Network Readiness Index 2024
1. United States – Ranked 1st with a score of 78.96
2. Singapore – Ranked 2nd with a score of 76.94
3. Finland – Ranked 3rd with a score of 75.76
4. Sweden – Ranked 4th with a score of 74.99
5. Republic of Korea (South Korea) – Ranked 5th with a score of 74.85
Details about the Index
• The Network Readiness Index (NRI) 2024 was released on November 21, 2024, by the Portulans
Institute in collaboration with the Saï d Business School, University of Oxford.
• The index ranks 133 economies based on citizens' access to and effective use of Information and
Communications Technology (ICT).
• It is one of the leading global indices for assessing the digital readiness and impact of ICT .
India’s Performance in 2024
• Rank: 49th globally (up from 60th in 2023)
• Score: 53.63
• Ranked 2nd among lower-middle-income countries, after Vietnam
• Ranked 1st globally in:
o AI scientific publications
o AI talent concentration
o ICT services exports
S5. Ans.(d)
Sol. India recorded defence exports worth ₹23,622 crore in the Financial Year 2024–25, the highest
ever achieved to date.
Export Growth Highlights
• In FY 2024–25, India achieved record defence exports of ₹23,622 crore (approximately US$ 2.76
billion).
• This represents an increase of ₹2,539 crore or 12.04% growth over the previous financial year.
• In FY 2023–24, the defence exports stood at ₹21,083 crore.
Sector-Wise Contribution in FY 2024–25
• Private Sector: ₹15,233 crore
• Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs): ₹8,389 crore
o DPSUs saw a notable growth of 42.85%, rising from ₹5,874 crore in FY 2023–24.
Significance
• This record performance reflects the growing international acceptance of Indian defence products.
• It also shows India’s increasing integration into the global defence supply chain, showcasing
capability, reliability, and competitiveness.
S6. Ans.(d)
Sol. Exercise SURYA KIRAN is a bilateral military exercise between India and Nepal. The 18th
edition of the exercise recently concluded in Saljhandi, Nepal.
Key Highlights of the 18th Edition
• Participating Nations: India and Nepal
• Duration: Held from 31st December 2024 to 13th January 2025
• Location: Saljhandi, Nepal
• Indian Army Representation: Led by a battalion of the 11th Gorkha Rifles
• Nepal Army Representation: Srijung Battalion
Objectives of the Exercise
• Strengthen interoperability in jungle warfare and counter-terrorism operations in mountainous
terrain
• Practice joint operations for Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief (HADR) under the UN
Charter
• Focus on aviation support, medical training, environment conservation, and overall combat
readiness
S7. Ans.(c)
Sol. West Bengal won the 2024 edition of the Santosh Trophy, claiming their record-extending
33rd title by defeating Kerala 1-0 in a thrilling final.
Key Highlights of the Final
• Winning Team: West Bengal
• Runner-Up: Kerala
• Final Score: 1-0
• Match Venue: Gachibowli Stadium
• Top Scorer of the Tournament: Robi Hansda, with 12 goals
About the Santosh Trophy
• Founded: 1941
• Named After: Sir Manmatha Nath Roy Chowdhury, Maharaja of Santosh (now in Bangladesh)
• Organised by: Initially the Indian Football Association (IFA), now managed by the All India
Football Federation (AIFF)
• Created to promote inter-state football competition and nurture national talent
Trophies for Runner-Up and Third Place
• Kamla Gupta Trophy: Awarded to the runner-up, in memory of Dr . S.K. Gupta’s wife
• Sampangi Cup: Awarded to the third-placed team, in honor of Mysore footballer Sampangi
S8. Ans.(d)
Sol. The theme of the 2025 World Economic Forum (WEF) Annual Meeting was “Collaboration for the
Intelligent Age.”
Event Details
• Location: Davos, Switzerland
• Organized by: World Economic Forum (WEF), headquartered in Geneva
• Founded by: Klaus Schwab in 1971 (then called the European Management Forum)
• Recognized as an international organization: Since 2015
Theme Explanation
• The theme "Collaboration for the Intelligent Age" emphasized the need for global partnerships
and cooperation to navigate the opportunities and challenges presented by emerging
technologies, especially Artificial Intelligence (AI) and green tech.
• It called for responsible innovation, sustainability, and inclusive solutions through multi-sectoral
collaboration.
Key Focus Areas of WEF 2025
1. Sustainability – Promoting business growth aligned with global sustainability goals
2. Emerging Technologies – Leveraging AI and green tech for global good
3. Climate Action – Ensuring fair and urgent decarbonization
4. Global Partnerships – Unlocking massive market opportunities through collaboration
S9. Ans.(d)
Sol. Kasuti embroidery originates from the state of Karnataka, the sixth-largest state in India, and
has been awarded the Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
About Kasuti Embroidery
• The name ‘Kasuti’ is derived from the Kannada words Kai (meaning hand) and Suti (meaning
cotton thread), symbolizing handcrafted threadwork.
• It is a traditional form of embroidery practiced by women in Karnataka, reflecting the region’s
customs, rituals, and rich heritage.
• The embroidery is known for its geometric patterns, religious motifs, and labor-intensive
craftsmanship.
Cultural Significance
• Kasuti is often used to embellish bridal sarees, blouses, and traditional garments in Karnataka.
• The patterns usually include temples, chariots, lamps, and floral motifs, all stitched without knots so
that the design looks the same on both sides.
S10. Ans.(e)
Sol. Indonesia became the latest and 10th member to officially join the BRICS group, with its
membership effective from January 2025.
About BRICS
• BRICS is an intergovernmental informal grouping initially formed by Brazil, Russia, India,
China, and later South Africa (joined in 2010).
• The acronym BRICS represents the original five founding countries.
• In 2024, the grouping expanded to include Iran, United Arab Emirates (UAE), Egypt, and
Ethiopia.
Indonesia’s Entry
• Indonesia’s membership was formally announced by Brazil, the BRICS presiding nation for 2024,
on January 6, 2024.
• The country’s candidacy was endorsed in August 2023 by BRICS leaders.
Additional Information
• Saudi Arabia was invited to join BRICS in 2024 but has not yet formalised its membership.
• Indonesia, being the world’s fourth-most populous nation, adds significant geopolitical and
economic weight to the BRICS group.
S11. Ans.(d)
Sol. Sachin Tendulkar was recently awarded honorary membership of the Melbourne Cricket
Club (MCC), one of the oldest and most prestigious sporting institutions in Australia.
Key Highlights
• Event: The announcement was made during the Boxing Day Test match between India and Australia,
held at the Melbourne Cricket Ground (MCG).
• Honorary Membership: The MCC has honoured Tendulkar in recognition of his remarkable
contribution to international cricket and his enduring legacy in the sport.
About MCC and MCG
• Melbourne Cricket Club (MCC): Established in 1838, it is one of Australia’s most prominent sports
organizations.
• It is responsible for the management of the MCG, which has hosted some of the most iconic
moments in cricket history.
• MCC honorary membership is a rare and respected accolade, granted to individuals who have made
an extraordinary impact on the game.
S12. Ans.(c)
Sol. The Union Cabinet has approved a total outlay of ₹3,985 crore for the establishment of ISRO’s
Third Launch Pad (TLP) at Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.
Project Overview
• Location: Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh
• Announced by: Union Minister Ashwini Vaishnaw
• Timeline: To be completed within 48 months
• Total Approved Budget: ₹3,985 crore
Purpose and Significance
• The TLP will provide essential infrastructure for launching Next Generation Launch Vehicles
(NGLVs) and will also serve as a standby launch platform.
• It will support multiple configurations, including LVM3 vehicles with semi-cryogenic stages.
• This universal and flexible launch pad is a critical step toward enhancing India’s capability for human
spaceflight, lunar missions, and future space station deployment.
S13. Ans.(c)
Sol. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constituent
Assembly.
Members of the Drafting Committee (29th August 1947):
1. Dr . B.R. Ambedkar – Chairman
2. Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
3. N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar
4. K.M. Munshi
5. Mohammad Saadulla
6. B.L. Mitter
7. D.P . Khaitan
Key Points
• The first meeting of the committee was held on 30th August 1947.
• The purpose of the committee was to scrutinize and finalise the draft of the Indian Constitution
based on decisions taken by the Constituent Assembly.
• Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, who later came to be known as the principal architect of the Indian
Constitution, was elected as the Chairman of the committee.
S14. Ans.(e)
Sol. The United States announced its withdrawal from the World Health Organization (WHO) in
January 2025.
Background
• On January 20, 2025, President Donald Trump signed an executive order initiating the United
States' withdrawal from the WHO.
• This action marked the second attempt by the Trump administration to exit the organization,
following a similar move in 2020 that was later reversed by President Joe Biden in 2021.
Reasons for Withdrawal
• The executive order cited the WHO's alleged mishandling of the COVID-19 pandemic, failure to
implement necessary reforms, and susceptibility to political influence from member states.
• The order also criticized the financial contributions demanded from the U.S., stating they were
disproportionately high compared to other countries.
Implications
• The withdrawal process requires a 12-month notice period, meaning the U.S. is set to officially
leave the WHO in January 2026.
• During this period, the U.S. plans to halt funding, recall personnel, and seek alternative partners
for global health initiatives previously coordinated through the WHO.
S15. Ans.(d)
Sol. Under the LIC Bima Sakhi Yojana, women aged between 18 and 70 years are eligible to apply.
About the Scheme
• Launched on: 9 December 2024 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi
• Implemented by: Life Insurance Corporation (LIC)
• Objective: To empower rural women by training them to become insurance agents (Bima
Sakhis), thereby improving insurance penetration in rural India.
Eligibility Criteria
• Gender: Only women are eligible
• Age Limit: Must be between 18 and 70 years
• Minimum Education: Should have passed 10th grade
• Residency: Preference to women from rural areas
Stipend Structure
• 1st Year: ₹7,000 per month
• 2nd Year: ₹6,000 per month
• 3rd Year: ₹5,000 per month
Training Duration
• 3-year structured training program on LIC’s products, financial literacy, and insurance awareness
• After 3 years, trained women can work as LIC insurance agents, earning through commissions and
incentives
S16. Ans.(b)
Sol. Zurich, Switzerland, was ranked 1st in the 2024 Smart City Index, making it the smartest city
in the world as per the rankings released by the International Institute for Management
Development (IMD) in April 2024.
Top 10 Smartest Cities in the World – 2024 (IMD Smart City Index)
1. Zurich – Switzerland
2. Oslo – Norway
3. Canberra – Australia
4. Geneva – Switzerland
5. Singapore – Singapore
6. Copenhagen – Denmark
7. Lausanne – Switzerland
8. London – United Kingdom
9. Helsinki – Finland
10. Abu Dhabi – United Arab Emirates
What Makes a City “Smart”?
• According to IMD, a smart city is defined as an urban setting that applies technology to improve
infrastructure, citizen services, and quality of life, while minimizing the challenges of
urbanization.
Trends Noted in the 2024 Index
• European and Asian cities gained dominance in the top ranks.
• Several North American cities slipped in the global rankings.
• The focus was on how infrastructure and technology impact performance and citizen experience.
S17. Ans.(d)
Sol. The first Foundation Day of the Lokpal of India was celebrated on January 16, 2025, at the
Manekshaw Centre, New Delhi.
• Historical Context:
o The Lokpal of India was established on January 16, 2014, under Section 3 of the Lokpal and
Lokayuktas Act, 2013, following a significant civil society movement demanding an
Ombudsman to combat corruption.
• Significance of the Event:
o This day symbolizes the establishment of an autonomous and independent institution
committed to ensuring corruption-free governance at all levels.
• Mission of Lokpal:
o The Lokpal serves as a vital instrumentality in eradicating corruption and addressing
challenges arising from the evolving nexus between politicians, bureaucrats, and business
interests.
S18. Ans.(b)
Sol.
• Infusion of Equity for FCI (2024-25):
o The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), under the leadership of Prime Minister
Shri Narendra Modi, approved the infusion of ₹10,700 Crores for the Food Corporation of
India (FCI) as part of the working capital for the financial year 2024-25.
o This move aims to strengthen the agricultural sector and ensure the welfare of farmers.
• Purpose of the Capital Infusion:
o The capital infusion is intended to bolster FCI's operational capabilities and provide a boost
to initiatives aimed at the transformation of FCI.
o FCI plays a crucial role in ensuring food security through procurement, distribution, and
maintaining strategic food stocks.
• FCI's Role in India's Agricultural Economy:
o FCI's Key Responsibilities:
▪ Procurement of food grains at the Minimum Support Price (MSP).
▪ Distribution of food grains for welfare measures.
▪ Stabilization of food grain prices in the market to ensure food security.
• Historical Overview of FCI's Capital and Operations:
o FCI began its operations in 1964 with an initial authorised capital of ₹100 Crores and equity of
₹4 Crores.
o Over the years, FCI’s operations increased, leading to a rise in its authorised capital to ₹21,000
Crores by February 2024.
o The equity of FCI was ₹4,496 Crores in the financial year 2019-20 and increased to ₹10,157
Crores in 2023-24.
• Impact of the Infusion:
o The infusion of ₹10,700 Crores will strengthen FCI financially and reduce its dependency on
short-term borrowings, lowering interest burdens.
o This will result in a reduction in the subsidy provided by the Government of India.
S19. Ans.(a)
Sol.
• What is SORR?
o SORR is the Secured Overnight Rupee Rate, a benchmark interest rate introduced by the
Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
o It is based on secured money market transactions, including repo and tri-party repo (TREP)
transactions.
• Purpose of SORR:
o The SORR aims to improve transparency in the market.
o It is designed to better reflect market dynamics for overnight rupee transactions in the Indian
financial system.
• Components of SORR:
o The rate is calculated using secured transactions, which ensures that it reflects the market's true
cost of borrowing, with collateral in place, making it less prone to market fluctuations.
S20. Ans.(e)
Sol.
• Headquarters of the IOC:
o The International Olympic Committee (IOC) has its headquarters in Lausanne, Switzerland.
• Significance of Lausanne:
o Lausanne is known as the Olympic Capital, housing the IOC and several other Olympic-related
organizations, making it a global hub for the Olympic movement.
• Role of the IOC:
o The IOC plays a key role in organizing the Olympic Games, overseeing the promotion of Olympic
values, and ensuring the continued growth and development of the global sports community.
S21. Ans.(b)
Sol.
• Reclassification of Pluto:
o Pluto was reclassified as a dwarf planet by the International Astronomical Union (IAU) in
2006.
• Reason for Reclassification:
o The reclassification was based on a new definition of what constitutes a planet. Pluto was found
not to meet all the criteria, particularly its inability to clear its orbit of other debris.
• Impact of the Decision:
o This decision removed Pluto from its position as the ninth planet in our solar system, which had
been its status since its discovery in 1930. The shift in classification sparked debates and
changed the way we understand the solar system.
S22. Ans.(d)
Sol. ISRO signed an agreement with the European Space Agency (ESA) to enhance cooperation in
human space exploration, including astronaut training, mission implementation, and joint research
experiments.
Key Highlights of the Agreement
• Purpose of the Agreement:
o Astronaut training
o Support for Indian research experiments
o Use of ESA facilities on the International Space Station (ISS)
o Human and biomedical research
o Educational and outreach activities
Axiom-4 Mission Collaboration
• ISRO and ESA are jointly working on the Axiom-4 mission, where:
o An Indian astronaut (Gaganyatri) and an ESA astronaut will be part of the crew.
o They will implement experiments proposed by Indian Principal Investigators aboard the ISS.
S23. Ans.(b)
Sol. The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has extended the deadline for third-party UPI
apps to adhere to the 30% market share cap by two years, moving it from the original date of December
31, 2024, to December 31, 2026.
Background:
• In November 2020, NPCI introduced a regulation to limit any single third-party app provider's share
of UPI transactions to 30%, aiming to prevent market dominance and ensure a competitive
ecosystem.
• The initial compliance deadline was set for December 31, 2022, but was later extended to December
31, 2024.
• As of November 2024, major players like PhonePe and Google Pay held significant market shares,
with PhonePe at approximately 47.8% and Google Pay at 37%.
• Considering the current market dynamics and to avoid disruption in the UPI ecosystem, NPCI
decided to further extend the deadline to December 31, 2026.
S24. Ans.(c)
Sol. Harmanpreet Singh, captain of the Indian Men’s Hockey Team, was recently awarded the Major
Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, which is the highest sporting honour in India.
Key Highlights
• Award: Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award
• Sport: Hockey
• Role: Captain and ace drag-flicker of the Indian team
• Achievement: Led India to a bronze medal at the Paris Olympics, marking a historic moment as
India won back-to-back Olympic medals in hockey for the first time since the 1972 Munich
Games.
S25. Ans.(b)
Sol. At the 82nd Golden Globe Awards held in January 2025; The Brutalist won the award for Best
Motion Picture – Drama. The film, directed by Brady Corbet, is a historical drama that follows the life of
La szlo To th, a Hungarian-born Jewish architect and Holocaust survivor. Adrien Brody starred in the lead
role and also won the Best Actor in a Motion Picture – Drama award for his performance.
S26. Ans.(c)
Sol. Pushpak Bhattacharyya, Professor at the Department of Computer Science and Engineering, IIT
Bombay, has been appointed as the head of the FREE-AI Committee set up by the Reserve Bank of
India (RBI).
About the FREE-AI Committee
• Full Form: Framework for Responsible and Ethical Enablement of Artificial Intelligence
• Constituted by: Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
• Purpose: To develop a framework for the responsible and ethical use of AI in the financial sector
Mandate and Timeline
• The committee will:
o Study current AI adoption in financial services
o Review global regulatory and supervisory approaches on AI in finance
• It is expected to submit its report within six months from the date of its first meeting.
S27. Ans.(d)
Sol. Italy is the largest importer of Indian coffee, consistently topping the list of countries that source
unroasted Arabica and Robusta beans from India.
Key Highlights
• Export Growth:
o India’s coffee exports reached $1.29 billion in FY 2023–24, nearly double the $719.42 million
in 2020–21.
o In January 2025, India exported over 9,300 tonnes of coffee, reflecting strong global demand.
• Main Varieties Exported:
o India primarily exports Arabica and Robusta beans, which together account for three-fourths
of the total coffee production.
o These are mostly exported in unroasted (green bean) form, though exports of roasted and
instant coffee are also on the rise.
• Top Importers of Indian Coffee:
1. Italy – Largest importer
2. Germany
3. Russia
4. Belgium
S28. Ans.(c)
Sol. The National Income Committee was formed in the year 1949, specifically in August 1949, by
the Government of India to provide reliable and consistent estimates of the national income after
independence.
Key Details
• Chairman: Prof. P .C. Mahalanobis, renowned statistician and founder of the Indian Statistical
Institute
• Members:
o Prof. D.R. Gadgil
o Dr. V .K.R.V . Rao
Reports Published
• First Report: 1951
• Final Report: 1954
Significance
• Prior to this committee, national income estimates were scattered and varied.
• The committee helped lay the foundation for national income accounting in India.
• It also played a key role in shaping India’s economic planning and policy-making in the early
years of independence.
S29. Ans.(b)
Sol. Yael van der Wouden, a Dutch writer born in 1987, is the author of the novel The Safekeep, which
was shortlisted for the 2024 Booker Prize.
About the Author
• Nationality: Dutch
• Debut Novel: The Safekeep
• The novel earned critical acclaim for its literary depth, emotional narrative, and historical
resonance.
• The Safekeep has positioned Yael van der Wouden as a notable new voice in contemporary fiction,
gaining recognition on a prestigious international platform.
S30. Ans.(c)
Sol. The "Glory of Allapalli" is located in the state of Maharashtra, specifically within the Allapalli
Forest Range in the Gadchiroli district.
Key Facts about Glory of Allapalli
• Location: Gadchiroli, Maharashtra
• Area: Spread over six hectares
• Established: In 1953 as a permanent preservation plot
• Designation: Declared a Biodiversity Heritage Site for its ecological significance
Purpose and Importance
• Created to preserve natural forest conditions and serve as a reference site for ecological and
botanical studies.
• Supports the study of forest dynamics, native flora, and natural regeneration without human
interference.
• Recognized for its rich biodiversity and undisturbed forest ecosystem, contributing to
environmental research and conservation efforts.
S31. Ans.(c)
Sol. India and Australia have set a bilateral trade target of AUD 100 billion by the year 2030 under
the framework of the Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA).
Key Highlights
• CECA is an advanced trade agreement under negotiation, building on the earlier Economic
Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECT A) signed in 2022.
• So far, 10 formal rounds and multiple inter-sessional discussions have been held to finalize CECA.
Objective of CECA
• To deepen trade and investment ties between India and Australia
• To enhance cooperation across goods, services, investments, and critical sectors
• To achieve the AUD 100 billion trade goal by 2030
S32. Ans.(c)
Sol. The Government of India has approved an indicative financial outlay of ₹8,134 crore as the Central
share for the WDC-PMKSY 2.0 scheme, to be implemented over the period 2021–22 to 2025–26.
About WDC-PMKSY 2.0
• Full Form: Watershed Development Component of Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana
• Objective: To address land degradation, water scarcity, soil erosion, and climatic uncertainties
through watershed-based planning
• Period of Implementation: 2021–22 to 2025–26
• Central Financial Outlay: ₹8,134 crore
• Target Area: 49.5 lakh hectares
S33. Ans.(e)
Sol. The Financial Sector Assessment Program (FSAP) is jointly conducted by the International
Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank.
About FSAP
• Launched: In 1999, in response to the Asian financial crisis
• Purpose: To assess the stability and development needs of a country's financial system
• Organisations Involved:
o International Monetary Fund (IMF) – focuses on financial stability and systemic risk
o World Bank – focuses on financial development and inclusion
Key Objectives
• Identify vulnerabilities and risks in the financial system
• Review the regulatory and supervisory frameworks
• Provide policy recommendations for improving financial sector resilience
• Promote financial deepening and access to finance
S34. Ans.(c)
Sol. The average monthly income of rural households increased by 57.6% over the five-year period
from 2016–17 to 2021–22, as per NABARD’s NAFIS 2021–22 report.
Key Highlights from the Survey:
• Average Monthly Income (All Households):
o 2016–17: ₹8,059
o 2021–22: ₹12,698
o Growth: 57.6% rise over five years
o Nominal CAGR: 9.5%
o Comparable Nominal GDP Growth: 9% (financial year basis)
• Agricultural Households Income: ₹13,661/month
• Non-Agricultural Households Income: ₹11,438/month
Primary Sources of Income:
• For All Households:
o Government/private sector jobs contributed the largest share: 37%
• For Agricultural Households:
o Cultivation: ~33%
o Government/private sector employment: ~25%
o Wage labour: 16%
o Own enterprises: 15%
• For Non-Agricultural Households:
o Government/private sector employment: 57%
o Wage labour: 26%
S35. Ans.(d)
Sol. The ex-mill price of ethanol derived from C-heavy molasses has been revised to ₹57.97 per
litre for the ethanol supply year 2024–25 (November–October).
Details of Ethanol Pricing (2024–25):
• C-heavy molasses-based ethanol:
o New price: ₹57.97/litre
o Increased by: ₹1.69/litre
o % Increase: 3% hike approved by the Cabinet
• B-heavy molasses-based ethanol:
o Price unchanged at ₹60.73/litre
• Sugarcane juice/sugar/sugar syrup-based ethanol:
o Price unchanged at ₹65.61/litre
• Other ethanol sources (paid by OMCs):
o From rice: ₹58.50/litre
o From maize: ₹71.86/litre
Background Note:
• Ethanol prices were last revised in the 2022–23 ethanol supply year.
• These pricing decisions aim to promote biofuel blending in petrol, reduce oil imports, and boost
farmers’ income by creating demand for agricultural by-products.
S36. Ans.(c)
Sol. Kerala and Uttarakhand were the top-performing states in the SDG India Index 2023–24,
each securing a score of 79 points, as released by NITI Aayog.
Key Highlights from SDG India Index 2023–24:
• Overall National Score: Improved to 71 in 2023–24 (from 66 in 2020–21 and 57 in 2018)
• Top Performers:
o Kerala – Consistent leadership in areas like health, education, and gender equality
o Uttarakhand – Strong performance in climate action, clean water, and infrastructure
• Lowest Performer:
o Bihar with 57 points
o Followed by Jharkhand at 62 points
Categories of Performance Based on Scores:
• Aspirant: 0–49
• Performer: 50–64
• Front-Runner: 65–99
• Achiever: 100
S37. Ans.(e)
Sol. In 2024, several distinctive regional products across India were awarded the prestigious
Geographical Indication (GI) tag, recognizing their unique qualities and cultural significance:
• Lakadong Turmeric (Meghalaya): Renowned for its high curcumin content and vibrant color.
• Badlapur Jamun (Maharashtra): This jamun variety, cultivated in the Badlapur region of
Maharashtra, is known for its unique taste and was granted the GI tag in March 2024.
• Koraput Kalajeera Rice (Odisha): Often referred to as the 'Prince of Rice' due to its aromatic flavor
and small grain size, this rice from Odisha's Koraput district received the GI tag in January 2024.
• Andaman Karen Musley Rice (Andaman & Nicobar Islands): This aromatic rice variety,
traditionally cultivated by the Karen community in the Andaman Islands, was awarded the GI tag in
December 2024.
S38. Ans.(e)
Sol. ROC stands for Regulatory Oversight Committee.
About the ROC:
• The Regulatory Oversight Committee (ROC) is an international body comprising over 65
financial market regulators and public authorities along with 19 observers from more than 50
countries.
• It provides oversight to the Global Legal Entity Identifier System (GLEIS), which promotes
transparency and standardization in global financial markets.
• The ROC plays a key role in ensuring accountability, regulatory coordination, and the effective use of
Legal Entity Identifiers (LEIs) in financial transactions.
Purpose:
• To enhance transparency in financial systems
• To reduce systemic risk
• To promote global financial stability
S39. Ans.(d)
Sol. Mizoram was one of the two North Eastern Region states not covered under the 50 key projects
inaugurated under PMMSY during the regional meet held in Guwahati, Assam.
Key Highlights:
• Event Date & Venue: 2025, Guwahati, Assam
• Projects Launched: 50
• Total Investment: ₹50 crores
• Implemented Under: Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY)
• States Covered: All North Eastern states except Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram
Additional Development:
• The first-of-its-kind Organic Fisheries Cluster was launched in Soreng District, Sikkim,
promoting sustainable and eco-friendly aquaculture aligned with the state's broader organic
development vision.
S40. Ans.(c)
Sol. India exported wheat worth just over USD 56 billion in the fiscal year 2024.
Key Points:
• This represented a notable decline compared to the previous fiscal year, largely due to
government-imposed restrictions on wheat exports.
• The export limitations were introduced in May 2022, aiming to ensure domestic food security
amid rising global demand and domestic inflation concerns.
• India, a major wheat producer, shifted focus to stabilizing internal supply and prices, resulting in
reduced international shipments.
S41. Ans.(c)
Sol. The NSE CPSE Index registered a return of 182.36% as of November 2024, following the launch
of the New Public Sector Enterprise (PSE) Policy in January 2021.
Key Highlights:
• NSE CPSE Index Return: 182.36%
• BSE CPSE Index Return: 146.92%
• The returns reflect strong value creation in CPSEs, bolstered by reforms and strategic
disinvestment under DIPAM.
S42. Ans.(d)
Sol. Gopal Vittal, Vice Chairman and Managing Director of Bharti Airtel, has been elected as the
Chairman of GSMA (Global System for Mobile Communications Association).
Key Highlights:
• Tenure: Gopal Vittal’s term as GSMA Chairman will continue until the end of 2026.
• Acting Chair: He served as the Acting Chair of GSMA from February 2025 before being formally
elected.
• Predecessor: He succeeds José Maria Álvares-Pallete, former CEO of Telefónica, who stepped
down from the role.
• Second Indian: Gopal Vittal is the second Indian to be appointed GSMA Chairman, after Sunil
Mittal.
About GSMA:
• Represents the global telecommunications industry, with over 1,100 member companies, including
mobile operators, handset manufacturers, software providers, equipment vendors, and internet
companies.
• Plays a key role in industry collaboration, mobile innovation, and policy advocacy on a global scale.
S43. Ans.(d)
Sol. All of the above marine protected areas are located in Peninsular India and are recognized for
their ecological significance and role in supporting sustainable coastal development.
Details:
1. Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park – Located in Tamil Nadu, this MPA is known for its coral
reefs, seagrasses, and marine fauna like dugongs and sea turtles.
2. Sundarbans National Park – While primarily in the deltaic region of West Bengal, it lies within the
eastern coastal stretch of Peninsular India. It supports rich estuarine biodiversity and mangrove
ecosystems.
3. Gulf of Kachchh Marine National Park – Located along the coast of Gujarat, this was India’s first
marine national park, hosting coral reefs, mangroves, and several marine species.
S44. Ans.(a)
Sol.
• A. 2007 – India (3)
• B. 2010 – England (2)
• C. 2016 – West Indies (4)
• D. 2021 – Australia (1)
• E. 2024 – India (5)
Correct Matching: A–3, B–2, C–4, D–1, E–5
S45. Ans.(c)
Sol.
• Faiz Ahmed Kidwai, a 1996-batch Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer, was appointed as the
Director General of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) in January 2025.
• Kidwai is currently serving as the additional secretary in the Department of Agriculture and Farmers
Welfare.
• He took over from Vikram Dev Dutt, who served as DG from February 28, 2023, until his
appointment as the coal secretary in October 2024.
• The appointment was made by the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC).
S46. Ans.(c)
Sol. The minimum Net Owned Fund (NOF) required for an Infrastructure Finance Company (IFC) is ₹
crore.
Eligibility Criteria for IFC
1. The company must deploy at least 75% of its total assets in infrastructure loans.
2. It must maintain a minimum Net Owned Fund (NOF) of ₹ 300 crore.
3. It should have a minimum credit rating of ‘ A ’ or equivalent.
4. It must maintain a Capital to Risk-Weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR) of 15%.
Definition of Infrastructure Loans
• Loans given to sectors such as power, roads, ports, airports, telecom, urban infrastructure, and other
government-notified infrastructure sectors.
Role of RBI
• The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) regulates IFCs as a special category under NBFCs to ensure stability
and growth in infrastructure financing.
Key Points
• IFCs are NBFCs that primarily lend to infrastructure projects.
• They are critical in funding long-term capital-intensive infrastructure sectors.
• Only companies meeting all prescribed norms are classified as IFCs by RBI.
S47. Ans.(e)
Sol. The NPS Vatsalya Scheme was proposed by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman in the Union
Budget 2024–25 speech and was officially launched on 18 September 2024. It is a National Pension
Scheme (NPS) for minors, allowing parents or guardians to open an NPS account in the name of their
children and contribute regularly towards building their retirement corpus.
Key Features of NPS Vatsalya Scheme
1. The scheme is exclusively designed for minors (below 18 years).
2. Parents or guardians can contribute monthly or yearly until the child turns 18.
3. The minimum contribution required is ₹1,000 per year.
Contribution Rules
• Minimum Contribution: ₹1,000 per annum
• Maximum Contribution: No limit (unrestricted contributions allowed)
Exit and Withdrawal Rules
• Joining Age: Below 18 years
• Exit Age: 60 years (with an early exit option at 18 years)
• Partial Withdrawal: Allowed up to 25% of the contributed amount
• Exit at 18 years: 20% of the corpus can be withdrawn as a lump sum and 80% must be invested in
an annuity plan
Regulatory Authority
• The scheme is regulated and administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development
Authority (PFRDA).
S48. Ans.(b)
Sol. In January 2025, the Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI) received a ₹500 crore capital
infusion from the Government of India through a preferential issue of equity shares. The board approved
issuing 8,07,23,280 equity shares to the government, which was expected to increase the
government's stake beyond the existing 71.72% as of September 2024.
S49. Ans.(e)
Sol. All of the above states — Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Odisha — had 100%
of their districts covered under the Digital Crop Survey (DCS) during the Kharif 2024 season.
Key Highlights:
• The Digital Crop Survey (DCS) is part of the Digital Agriculture Mission and aims to replace the
traditional manual Girdawari system.
• For the first time, DCS data was used to prepare area estimates for major crops in Kharif 2024.
• The survey provided more accurate and validated crop area data, contributing to improved
production estimates.
• Uttar Pradesh notably saw a substantial rise in rice cultivation area as a result of DCS coverage.
S50. Ans.(a)
Sol. As per the updated OMSS(D) policy for 2024–25, the reserve price of rice has been fixed at
₹2,250 per quintal (Pan-India) for sale to:
• State Governments
• State Government Corporations
• Community Kitchens
• Ethanol distilleries for ethanol production
Key Points:
• The price applies uniformly across India, ensuring consistent access for eligible institutions.
• These entities are not required to participate in e-auctions to procure rice at this rate.
• This move supports the government’s dual goals of food security and biofuel production, particularly
under the ethanol blending programme.
S51. Ans.(b)
Sol. The sentence discusses hate as an emotion that is not naturally present but developed through
negative experiences.
• (a) inherent – Meaning “existing as a natural part of something.” This fits well because the sentence
is arguing that hate is not something we are born with—i.e., it is not inherent.
• (b) pandemic – Refers to a disease prevalent over a whole country or the world. This is not suitable
for the blank, as it describes a widespread occurrence, usually of disease or social behavior, and not
the nature of an emotion. Saying “hate is not a pandemic emotion” is contextually inappropriate and
shifts the meaning.
• (c) immanent – Means “existing or operating within,” particularly in philosophical or spiritual
contexts. It fits with the meaning of something internal or naturally present, which the sentence
negates.
• (d) essential – Means “absolutely necessary or fundamental.” The idea that hate is not essential
aligns well with the passage’s theme of hate being a learned or developed response.
Since (b) pandemic stands out as the only option that does not describe the inherent nature or
internal quality of an emotion, it is the least appropriate for the blank.
S52. Ans.(d)
Sol. The blank refers to an emotional progression toward hate.
• (b) grievance refers to a real or imagined cause for complaint, fitting well.
• (c) resentment is bitter indignation, perfectly apt.
• (d) endeavor means an attempt or effort, which is not an emotion and does not fit in the emotional
progression described.
• (e) ire means anger, making sense here.
• Therefore, (d) endeavor is not suitable.
S53. Ans.(e)
Sol. The sentence suggests that hatred has a damaging effect.
• (a) destructive directly conveys damage.
• (c) corrosive implies a gradual harmful impact—fitting metaphorically.
• (d) incisive may appear odd, but it can be used figuratively to mean sharp or acute in effect, and
sometimes intense emotions are described this way.
• (e) perceptive means showing insight or understanding, which is a positive trait and does not align
with the description of hatred’s impact.
• Thus, (e) perceptive is not appropriate.
S54. Ans.(a)
Sol. The blank describes a negative and enduring emotional state caused by hatred.
• (a) longing means a yearning or desire, which is a positive or neutral emotional state and doesn't
fit the tone of persistent negativity.
• (c) resolute and (e) obstinate both imply firmness or stubbornness, which metaphorically suit a
hardened state of hatred.
• (d) persistent matches the idea of an ongoing emotional state.
• Hence, (a) longing is unsuitable.
S55. Ans.(c)
Sol. The sentence talks about hidden pain that is not dealt with.
• (a) deferred (postponed) suits the idea.
• (b) unaddressed clearly fits.
• (c) deliberate means done on purpose, which implies intention—opposite to the idea of hidden or
unacknowledged pain.
• (d) untreated also matches well.
• So, (c) deliberate is contextually inappropriate.
S56. Ans.(d)
Sol. The sentence suggests that living with hate is harmful.
• (a) detrimental, (b) noxious, and (e) obstructive all imply harm or negativity, which suit the
context.
• (d) altruistic means selflessly concerned for the well-being of others, which is positive and
contradicts the meaning of harboring hate.
• Thus, (d) altruistic is not suitable.
S57. Ans.(b)
Sol. Both C and A
Sentence A:
"Not only did the manager approve the changes hastily, but he also neglected to inform the board,
causing unrest among stakeholders."
• This is CORRECT . The structure "Not only did...but also..." is used properly with parallel structure
and correct verb forms.
Sentence B:
"Were she to arrive earlier, she would had seen the presentation from the beginning."
• INCORRECT: "would had seen" should be "would have seen" (conditional perfect tense requires
"have" not "had").
• Correct version: "she would have seen..."
Sentence C:
"No sooner had the news of the policy leaked than investors began pulling out their capital in haste."
• This is CORRECT . The inversion structure "No sooner had...than..." is used properly with correct verb
forms.
S58. Ans.(d)
Sol. only C
Sentence A:
"The committee insisted that he leaves immediately, citing breaches of confidentiality and decorum."
• Error: After verbs like "insist" that take the subjunctive mood, we use the base form of the verb
without "s".
• Correction: "that he leave immediately"
• Status: Incorrect
Sentence B:
"Each of the dancers and singers was given an opportunity for showcasing their unique talent during
the gala."
• Error 1: "for showcasing" is awkward phrasing - better as "to showcase"
• Error 2: "their" doesn't agree with singular "Each" (should be "his or her")
• Correction: "an opportunity to showcase his or her unique talent"
• Status: Incorrect
Sentence C:
"It was neither her qualifications nor her connections that were questioned during the rigorous
interview process."
• Analysis:
o "neither...nor" construction is correct
o Verb agreement ("were") is correct because the nearest noun ("connections") is plural
• Status: Correct
S59. Ans.(d)
Sol. The correct sequence is FBEACDG.
Sentence F introduces the three primary types of sugars, setting the base for elaboration.
Sentence B then describes Glucose, the simplest form, aligning with the order of discussion.
Sentence E follows naturally, discussing Fructose, the second sugar.
Sentence A completes the trio by covering Sucrose, the third type.
Sentence C shifts focus to Honey, which contains a combination of these sugars and introduces its
complexity.
Sentence D elaborates on the source of enzymes in honey, leading directly into:
Sentence G, which is fixed, explaining the role of enzymes and what makes honey distinct.
S60. Ans.(a)
Sol. The correct sequence is FBEACDG.
Sentence F introduces the three primary types of sugars, setting the base for elaboration.
Sentence B then describes Glucose, the simplest form, aligning with the order of discussion.
Sentence E follows naturally, discussing Fructose, the second sugar.
Sentence A completes the trio by covering Sucrose, the third type.
Sentence C shifts focus to Honey, which contains a combination of these sugars and introduces its
complexity.
Sentence D elaborates on the source of enzymes in honey, leading directly into:
Sentence G, which is fixed, explaining the role of enzymes and what makes honey distinct.
S61. Ans.(c)
Sol. The correct sequence is FBEACDG.
Sentence F introduces the three primary types of sugars, setting the base for elaboration.
Sentence B then describes Glucose, the simplest form, aligning with the order of discussion.
Sentence E follows naturally, discussing Fructose, the second sugar.
Sentence A completes the trio by covering Sucrose, the third type.
Sentence C shifts focus to Honey, which contains a combination of these sugars and introduces its
complexity.
Sentence D elaborates on the source of enzymes in honey, leading directly into:
Sentence G, which is fixed, explaining the role of enzymes and what makes honey distinct.
S62. Ans.(e)
Sol. The correct sequence is FBEACDG.
Sentence F introduces the three primary types of sugars, setting the base for elaboration.
Sentence B then describes Glucose, the simplest form, aligning with the order of discussion.
Sentence E follows naturally, discussing Fructose, the second sugar.
Sentence A completes the trio by covering Sucrose, the third type.
Sentence C shifts focus to Honey, which contains a combination of these sugars and introduces its
complexity.
Sentence D elaborates on the source of enzymes in honey, leading directly into:
Sentence G, which is fixed, explaining the role of enzymes and what makes honey distinct.
S63. Ans.(e)
Sol. The correct sequence is FBEACDG.
Sentence F introduces the three primary types of sugars, setting the base for elaboration.
Sentence B then describes Glucose, the simplest form, aligning with the order of discussion.
Sentence E follows naturally, discussing Fructose, the second sugar.
Sentence A completes the trio by covering Sucrose, the third type.
Sentence C shifts focus to Honey, which contains a combination of these sugars and introduces its
complexity.
Sentence D elaborates on the source of enzymes in honey, leading directly into:
Sentence G, which is fixed, explaining the role of enzymes and what makes honey distinct.
S64. Ans.(c)
Sol.
• Sentence A is incorrect due to the use of the word "indicative". The correct word should be
"indicate" (verb), not "indicative" (adjective). The correct sentence should be:
• "Light-headedness can sometimes indicate an underlying medical condition..."
• Sentence B is correct. It is grammatically sound and logically coherent. It clearly states the
availability of tickets before the movie release.
• Sentence C is incorrect due to inappropriate word usage. The word "suspense" is wrongly used in
place of "suspension".
• The correct sentence should be:
• "People were demanding an independent probe and the suspension of several high-level officials."
Hence, only sentence B is both grammatically and logically correct.
S65. Ans.(a)
S66. Ans.(b)
Sol. A. As looming deadlines...
As looming deadlines emerged from the delayed business deal, the office atmosphere grew tense, and
employees became increasingly irritable and exhausted.
B. The stressed atmosphere of the deadlines...
The stressed atmosphere of the deadlines affected the employees’ mood.
(This is grammatically awkward; "stressed atmosphere of the deadlines" is unclear and unidiomatic.)
C. The atmosphere among employees...
The atmosphere among employees became increasingly tense due to the pressure of the looming deadlines
that followed the delayed business deal.
S67. Ans.(c)
Sol. Option (C) is correct as it logically follows the passage’s sequence—feedback was received,
inefficiencies were identified, and reforms were then initiated. This option maintains clarity and
consistency.
• Option (A) contradicts the passage by stating that no action was taken, whereas the original states
that reforms were initiated.
• Option (B) incorrectly suggests that the reforms happened before the feedback and were unrelated,
which again conflicts with the stated cause-effect relationship.
• Hence, only Option C is valid and accurately represents the sequence and impact outlined in the
passage.
S68. Ans.(d)
Sol. Correct Answer: (d) EBACD
Sequence Breakdown:
(E) "a mirror creates your reflection by"
Introduces the main subject and verb – the sentence must start here.
(B) "bouncing back light rays that"
Continues the action started in (E) – explains how the mirror creates a reflection.
(A) "hit its smooth, shiny surface,"
Modifies "light rays" – these rays bounce after hitting the surface.
(C) "allowing your eyes to see an image that"
Shows the result of the previous process – your eye sees an image.
(D) "appears reversed from left to right"
Final detail – describing the characteristic of the image.
Final Reconstructed Sentence:
"A mirror creates your reflection by bouncing back light rays that hit its smooth, shiny surface,
allowing your eyes to see an image that appears reversed from left to right."
S69. Ans.(a)
Sol. Correct Answer: (a) CDEBA
Sequence Breakdown:
(C) "the art of rest lies in choosing"
This introduces the main idea: selecting how to truly rest.
(D) "holidays that truly rejuvenate the"
What should one choose? → Rejuvenating holidays.
(E) "sleep-deprived—where quiet landscapes,"
Further defines who needs this and where rejuvenation happens.
(B) "unhurried mornings, and digital"
Continues the imagery from (E) – describing peaceful experiences.
(A) "detox become the new luxury"
Final conclusion – digital detox is now seen as a luxury.
Final Reconstructed Sentence:
"The art of rest lies in choosing holidays that truly rejuvenate the sleep-deprived—where quiet
landscapes, unhurried mornings, and digital detox become the new luxury."
S70. Ans.(d)
Sol. Sentence A is incorrect. The subject "The government website" is singular, so the verb should be
"provides" (not "provide"). Also, “inform” should be “information,” though that was corrected in a
previous version. As it stands, this sentence has a subject-verb agreement error.
✗ Incorrect: The government website provide...
✓ Correct: The government website provides...
• Sentence B is correct. The sentence is both grammatically sound and logically coherent. "Mandated
to adhere" is a valid formal usage, especially in official or institutional contexts.
• ✓ Correct: All attendees were mandated to adhere to the official dress code.
• Sentence C is correct. It clearly conveys the intended meaning. " Analysing" is correctly used as a
gerund, and the structure of the sentence is error-free.
• ✓ Correct: It is important to analyse market trends before making any decisions.
Hence, both B and C are correct, making option (d) the correct answer.
S71. Ans.(b)
Sol. both A and B
Sentence A:
"Walking through the dim hallway, the paintings on the walls seemed to whisper stories from a forgotten
era."
• Error: Dangling modifier - "Walking through the dim hallway" incorrectly modifies "the paintings"
(paintings can't walk).
• Correction: " As I walked through the dim hallway, the paintings..."
• Status: Incorrect
Sentence B:
"The CEO decided to stand his ground on the new policy, but the board members stood him up during
the vote, leaving him isolated."
• Error: Wrong phrasal verb - "stood him up" means to fail to meet someone (like a date), not to
oppose someone.
• Correction: "stood against him" or "turned against him"
• Status: Incorrect
Sentence C:
"Had she studied the patterns more closely, she might have predicted the market reversal with
remarkable accuracy."
• Analysis: Perfect use of third conditional (past unreal condition).
• Status: Correct
S72. Ans.(e)
Sol. Sentence A is incorrect because the preposition "to" should be replaced with "through" or "into"
to show the duration extending until the weekend.
Correct: "...that lasted through the weekend."
Sentence B is incorrect due to the incorrect use of the word "generation", which should be "generate"
to maintain the correct verb form.
Correct: "...new insights they generate."
Sentence C is incorrect as the phrase "in the hope let" is grammatically incorrect. It should be "in the
hope that" to convey the intended meaning.
Correct: "...in the hope that artificial intelligence (AI) can enhance their daily lives."
S73. Ans.(b)
Sol.
• Statement I is correct. This can be inferred from:
• “These developments are not only catalysing EV adoption but also compelling legacy automakers to
pivot, innovate, and invest in electrification.”
• This implies that government and ecosystem changes are influencing even traditional players.
• Statement II is correct. It aligns with:
• “Technological breakthroughs... have significantly curtailed production costs” and
• “Features like adaptive cruise control, predictive maintenance... are redefining user experience,
especially among Gen Z consumers.”
• This shows cost-effectiveness and alignment with evolving demands.
• Statement III is incorrect. The passage clearly states:
• “While challenges persist—especially in rural connectivity...”
• This indicates that rural demand is not a primary driver and remains a challenge.
Thus, only statements I and II are logically inferred.
S74. Ans.(b)
Sol.
• (I) is correct.
• From the passage:
• “High battery costs, limited product availability, and nascent infrastructure impeded early adoption.
Traditional automotive giants exercised caution...”
• This directly supports the claim of initial setbacks due to cautious legacy players and expensive
batteries.
• (II) is incorrect.
• The passage mentions AI features like:
• “adaptive cruise control, predictive maintenance, and advanced driver assistance systems (ADAS)”
• There is no mention of AI enhancing battery lifespan or energy efficiency during idle states,
making this factually inaccurate.
• (III) is correct.
• From:
• “Government initiatives like FAME-II, EMPS 2024... are playing a pivotal role in ecosystem
development... addressing range anxiety and enhancing user confidence.”
• Clearly, policies helped consumers adopt EVs by reducing hesitation.
Hence, only (I) and (III) are correct.
S75. Ans.(d)
Sol.
• (I) is misleading but not entirely incorrect. While the passage doesn’t explicitly talk about logistics
companies, it does say:
• “ ...user experience, especially among Gen Z consumers who demand innovation, sustainability, and
digital integration...”
• This focuses on individuals, not businesses. However, it doesn’t outright contradict the idea of
business application. So, it’s debatable, but not provably wrong.
• (II) is a flawed interpretation. The passage says:
• “Reduction in dependency on expensive raw materials such as cobalt...”
• However, this doesn’t mean supply chain issues have been "completely eliminated". That’s an
exaggeration.
• (III) is incorrect. The passage clearly states:
• “challenges persist—especially in rural connectivity...”
• This means rural areas are lagging, not driving growth. So attributing the rapid rise to rural
adoption is an error.
Hence, (II) and (III) are incorrect interpretations.
S76. Ans.(c)
Sol. (I) is incorrect. The passage highlights technological breakthroughs:
“Enhanced energy density, reduction in dependency on expensive raw materials such as cobalt...” and “ AI
and ML are revolutionising vehicle intelligence...”
So lack of tech advancement is no longer a major challenge.
(II) is accurate. Direct from the passage:
“challenges persist—especially in rural connectivity... and grid readiness.”
This is a correct interpretation of ongoing structural barriers.
(III) is incorrect. The passage no longer emphasizes high costs or market competition as dominant
issues. Instead, it shows how those are being addressed, and that sales are already surging:
“sales have reached a significant 18 million units...”
So this misrepresents the current state of consumer interest and pricing.
S77. Ans.(b)
Sol. (I) is incorrect. The passage says:
“Government initiatives like FAME-II, EMPS 2024, and Battery-as-a-Service (BaaS) are playing a pivotal
role in ecosystem development.”
This includes infrastructure (“rollout of over 74,000 EV chargers”) and battery solutions, contradicting
the idea that support is only for buyers.
• (II) is incorrect. The passage does not say EMPS 2024 is about digital education or awareness
campaigns. It’s grouped with other operational and infrastructural initiatives, suggesting it
provides more tangible support.
• (III) is accurate. These policies are “catalysing EV adoption” and enhancing user confidence via
financial, infrastructural, and operational means — as stated in multiple parts of the passage.
Thus, (I) and (II) are incorrect interpretations.
S78. Ans.(b)
Sol. The sentence fragment appears in the passage as:
“The ripple effects are unmistakable. The traditional internal combustion engine (ICE) sector is being
redefined...”
Let’s evaluate each option for contextual fit:
• (a) technological criticisms – Incorrect. The tone of the passage is positive and forward-looking,
not critical.
• (b) ripple effects – Correct. This fits perfectly with the chain reaction described in the passage:
tech improvements, policy shifts, and changing consumer habits cascading into changes in the ICE
sector.
• (c) infrastructure failures – Incorrect. The passage acknowledges past challenges but highlights
progress in infrastructure, not failures.
• (d) operational loopholes – Incorrect. There's no mention of loopholes; the tone is about
solutions, not system flaws.
• (e) manufacturing oversights – Incorrect. The passage discusses advances and adaptation, not
oversights.
Thus, "ripple effects" logically completes the sentence, capturing the broad-reaching impact of EV
adoption on traditional sectors.
S79. Ans.(e)
Sol. The word "fraught", in this context, means filled with or burdened by something undesirable,
such as difficulties or tension.
Let’s analyze the options:
• (a) equipped – Incorrect. This means “well-prepared or provided with tools,” which is the opposite
of being burdened.
• (b) composed – Incorrect. Means calm or put together, which clashes with the idea of struggle and
obstacles.
• (c) neutral – Incorrect. Doesn’t fit the tone or meaning; it implies lack of bias or emotion, not
difficulty.
• (d) aligned – Incorrect. Suggests harmony or agreement, which doesn’t reflect the challenges
described.
• (e) burdened – Correct. “Burdened with setbacks” aligns with “fraught with setbacks.” Both imply
being weighed down by problems.
Thus, "burdened" is the closest in meaning to “fraught” in this usage.
S80. Ans.(c)
Sol. In this context, the word “ushered” means to lead or cause the beginning of something,
especially something new or important. It conveys a sense of starting or introducing.
Let’s examine each option:
• (a) obstructed – Incorrect. This means to block or hinder — the opposite of facilitating something
new.
• (b) eliminated – Incorrect. Means to remove or get rid of, which does not match the idea of starting
something.
• (c) initiated – Correct. This means to begin, set in motion, or launch something, which fits
perfectly.
• (d) delayed – Incorrect. Implies slowing down or postponing — again, the opposite of ushering in
progress.
• (e) dissolved – Incorrect. Means to disintegrate or end something, not to start or introduce.
Thus, the best synonym for “ushered” in this context is initiated.
S81. Ans.(c)
Sol. Explanation:
The sentence highlights how the diplomatic efforts failed to reduce mistrust or genuinely resolve the
underlying hostility.
Mitigate fits because it means to lessen the intensity or seriousness of something harmful, like mistrust.
Dismantle works well to describe a deliberate and systematic process of breaking down deeply rooted
hostility.
This combination is often found in editorials on peace talks and international diplomacy.
Vocabulary Meanings:
• Mask: To cover or disguise something so it is not easily seen or understood ().
• Perpetuate: To make something continue indefinitely, especially something negative like a conflict
• Address: To think about and begin to deal with a problem or issue in a practical or serious way
• Rekindle: To revive or reignite something that was previously diminished or extinguished, often
• Mitigate: To make something bad less severe, serious, or painful, such as risk, conflict, or mistrust
• Dismantle: To take something apart methodically, especially systems or organizations, often to end
or eliminate them ( ).
• Conceal: To hide or keep something secret deliberately so it is not discovered or known ().
• Ignite: To set off or provoke something strongly, especially emotions, violence, or debate ().
• Fabricate: To invent or make up something falsely, usually with the intent to deceive ().
• Intensify: To increase in degree or strength, especially something negative like conflict or effort (
S82. Ans.(c)
Sol. Explanation:
The sentence refers to how economic benefits in urban areas are not resulting in corresponding rural
gains.
Translate here means to convert or result in a practical outcome, which hasn’t happened.
Ossify metaphorically refers to a dynamic problem becoming permanent and resistant to change — a
term frequently used in economic and institutional analysis.
Vocabulary Meanings:
• Catalyse: To cause or accelerate a change or reaction, especially a significant one in a process or
• Escalate: To increase or intensify rapidly, often used for conflicts, prices, or problems (
• Justify: To show or prove something to be right or reasonable, especially decisions or actions (
• Collapse: To fall down or break down completely due to failure or pressure, often referring to
• Translate: To turn one form of outcome into another, such as converting ideas into action or growth
• Ossify: To become rigid or fixed, especially in attitude, structure, or system, implying loss of
• Induce: To cause something to happen or to bring about a particular effect, often used for actions,
feelings, or processes ( ).
• Fade: To gradually lose brightness, strength, or visibility, typically used for colors, hopes, or
• Inflect: To change the form of a word (especially in grammar) to express tense, mood, number, etc.,
or to alter the tone or pitch of voice slightly. ( / ).
• Evolve: To gradually develop or change into a more advanced or different form over time (
S83. Ans.(a)
Sol. Explanation:
This sentence discusses how the leader’s speech failed to convince a wider audience and may have
reduced the party’s credibility.
Persuade is suitable because it refers to attempting to convince people of one’s capability.
Erode fits because it describes a slow decline or weakening — in this case, of political appeal. This pair
reflects how editorial writers critique rhetorical excess and its electoral consequences.
Vocabulary Meanings:
• Persuade: To convince someone to believe or do something through reasoning or appeal (
• Erode: To gradually wear away or diminish something, especially reputation, support, or credibility
• Distract: To divert someone’s attention away from something important or central ( ).
• Amplify: To increase the strength, volume, or intensity of something, including messages or effects
• Polarise: To cause a division into two sharply contrasting groups or opinions, especially in politics
• Consolidate: To strengthen or bring together elements into a single more effective or coherent
• Dissuade: To persuade someone not to take a particular course of action ( ).
• Bolster: To support, reinforce, or strengthen something physically or emotionally (
• Impress: To make a strong positive impact on someone through actions, words, or appearance
• Enshrine: To preserve or protect something as sacred or important, often used in laws or principles
S84. Ans.(d)
Sol. The original sentence begins incorrectly with "No Sooner", which is a correlative conjunction
typically used with "than" (e.g., No sooner had he arrived than the meeting began), and therefore it is
grammatically incorrect in this context.
• Option (I): "Rarely have employees" – This is correct. It follows the rule of inversion after negative
adverbs (e.g., rarely, seldom, never), which is a formal structure.
• Option (II): "Employees have rarely" – This is also correct. It uses a standard word order and
places the adverb of frequency appropriately. It is less formal but still grammatically sound.
• Option (III): "Employees have been scarcely" – This is incorrect. "Scarcely" generally modifies the
verb directly and is often used with perfect tense in an inverted structure (e.g., Scarcely had they
left when the storm began). Here, the phrase is awkward and unidiomatic.
Hence, both (I) and (II) are acceptable, making option (d) the correct answer.
S85. Ans.(c)
Sol.
• "Sprig" is a noun that refers to a small stem or twig of a plant, often with leaves or flowers. It can
also metaphorically or decoratively be used in expressions referring to a small part of a plant used
in cooking, rituals, or nature.
• Sentence A – Correct
A sprig of rosemary is a common phrase in cooking and home decor. The word sprig here correctly
refers to a small stem of the rosemary herb.
✓ Usage: She garnished the soup with a sprig of thyme.
• Sentence B – Incorrect
Medals are not plant-based or natural growths; using sprig here is incorrect. A group of medals is not
called a "sprig"; words like "set", "collection", or "row" would be accurate.
Incorrect metaphor: a sprig of medals (doesn’t make sense)
• Sentence C – Correct
Describing a young shoot or growth emerging from the soil is a textbook use of sprig. It reflects the
idea of new life, which aligns perfectly with both literal and poetic language.
✓ Usage: Tiny sprigs poked through the cracked earth after the monsoon rains.
Additional Examples of Correct Usage:
1. Culinary Context:
2. He added a sprig of mint to the lemonade for a fresh aroma.
3. (Here, sprig refers to a small piece of a mint plant — correct usage.)
4. Decorative/Nature Context:
5. The bride’s hair was adorned with a sprig of lavender tucked behind her ear.
6. (Again, sprig means a small stem of a flower — used correctly.)
S86. Ans.(b)
Sol. The sentence is an example of a third conditional sentence, used to express a hypothetical
situation in the past that did not happen. In standard grammar, the correct structure is:
If + past perfect, would have + past participle
• The original sentence incorrectly uses “If the team would have submitted,” which is
grammatically incorrect.
• (I) “If the team had submitted” — Correct structure of third conditional.
• (II) “Had the team submitted” — Correct, this is an inverted form of the third conditional and is
also grammatically accurate.
• (III) “If the team have submitted” — Incorrect, this is present perfect, which is incompatible with
the conditional structure required here.
Hence, both (I) and (II) are valid corrections.
S87. Ans.(c)
Sol. The central argument revolves around the need to shift recruitment away from language fluency
and towards demonstrable job skills, especially to include non-native speakers.
• (a) is incorrect because it ignores the passage’s critique of traditional interviews.
• (b) contradicts the author’s suggestion to minimize dependence on language.
• (d) goes too far—eliminating interviews entirely is not suggested.
• (e) is the opposite of the passage’s recommendation.
S88. Ans.(c)
Sol. The author implies that language fluency is not necessarily a true indicator of competence,
especially in technical or hands-on roles, and that an overreliance on communication skills can be a
barrier.
• (a) is rejected in the passage.
• (b) is extreme; language still plays a role but should not be overemphasized.
• (d) is not supported by the text.
• (e) oversimplifies and contradicts the solution-focused tone.
S89. Ans.(d)
Sol. Statement (I) is correct as the passage explicitly critiques traditional interviews for depending
heavily on communication skills, which creates a barrier for non-native speakers.
Statement (II) is also correct. The passage suggests that investing in language development helps
companies leverage their multilingual workforce to serve a diverse customer base.
Statement (III) is incorrect because the passage opposes reliance on language testing, advocating
instead for task-based skill assessments.
S90. Ans.(e)
Sol. The sentence discusses assessing candidates based on how well they perform a task. The word
"evaluated" fits best in this context, as it means assessed or judged, which aligns with the idea of
measuring proficiency in execution.
• (a) commanded means ordered or directed, which doesn’t make sense here.
• (b) regulated means controlled or governed by rules, not appropriate in the context of assessment.
• (c) fostered means encouraged or nurtured, not suitable when referring to assessment.
• (d) declined means rejected or reduced, which is contextually incorrect.
• (e) evaluated correctly completes the sentence as it implies assessment of performance.
S91. Ans.(e)
Sol.
Total number of mangoes sold by shops A & C = 48+96 = 144
Total number of apples sold by shops A & B = 32+15= 47
Required difference = 144 – 47 = 97
S92. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S93. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S94. Ans.(c)
Sol.
Total cost price of all apples and mangoes sold by C = 24×10+96×15 = 1680 Rs.
Total selling price of all apples and mangoes sold by C =
Required profit = 2352 – 1680 = 672 Rs.
S95. Ans.(e)
Sol.
The total number of students in schools B and D together = (1360 + 1640) = 3000
S96. Ans.(d)
Sol.
Let the number of boys in C be g
And the number of girls in C = g + 170
Given, g + g + 170 = 1240
2g = 1070
g = 535
The number of boys in C = 535
And the number of girls in C = 535 + 170 = 705
The number of boys in B = 230 + 535 = 765
The number of girls in B = 1360 – 765 = 595
Required ratio = 765 : 595 = 9:7
S97. Ans.(a)
Sol.
The total number of students in school F = 1.25×1240=1550
The number of boys in school F =
The number of girls in school F = 1550 – 950 = 600
The number of girls in school E = 1935 – 600 = 1335
The number of boys in school E = 2000 – 1335 = 665
Required difference = 950 – 665 = 285
S98. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S99. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S100. Ans.(e)
Sol. Only root of 84 which follow a-b = 5 are 12 and 7
So, equation, x2 – 19x + 84 = 0
So, P = 19
Quantity I: 2×19 = 38
Quantity II: 72 – 12 + 1 = 49-12+1= 38
So, Quantity I = Quantity II
S101. Ans.(b)
Sol.
ATQ,
Quantity I: Total number of yellow marbles in the bag = 10+20 = 30
Quantity II: 40
So, Quantity I < Quantity II
S102. Ans.(e)
Sol. Pattern of series I:
÷2+1 = 194
÷2+1 = 98
÷2+1 = 50
÷2+1 = 26
÷2+1 = 14
÷2+1 = 8
Series II:
÷2+1 = 418
P = 418 ÷2+1 = 210
Q = 210 ÷2+1 = 106
R = 106 ÷2+1 = 54
S = 54 ÷2+1 = 28
÷2+1 = 15
S103. Ans.(d)
Sol. Pattern of series I:
÷2+1 = 194
÷2+1 = 98
÷2+1 = 50
÷2+1 = 26
÷2+1 = 14
÷2+1 = 8
Series II:
÷2+1 = 418
P = 418 ÷2+1 = 210
Q = 210 ÷2+1 = 106
R = 106 ÷2+1 = 54
S = 54 ÷2+1 = 28
÷2+1 = 15
S104. Ans.(c)
Sol. Pattern of series I:
÷2+1 = 194
÷2+1 = 98
÷2+1 = 50
÷2+1 = 26
÷2+1 = 14
÷2+1 = 8
Series II:
÷2+1 = 418
P = 418 ÷2+1 = 210
Q = 210 ÷2+1 = 106
R = 106 ÷2+1 = 54
S = 54 ÷2+1 = 28
÷2+1 = 15
For I: 210 + 54 = 264 is not an odd number (false)
For II: 210 + 54 = 264 which is completely divisible by 4 (true)
For III: 54+28 < 50 (false)
S105. Ans.(e)
Sol. Pattern of series I:
× 0.5 + 1= 9 = A
× 1 + 1 = 10
× 2 + 1 = 21
× 4 + 1 = 85
× 8 + 1 = 681
Pattern of series II:
For (i): A = 9 is perfect square (correct)
For (ii): 100 > 10×9
> 90 (incorrect)
For (iii): 100 ÷ (9+1) = 10 (correct)
S106. Ans.(c)
Sol. Pattern of series I:
× 0.5 + 1= 9 = A
× 1 + 1 = 10
× 2 + 1 = 21
× 4 + 1 = 85
× 8 + 1 = 681
Pattern of series II:
Required value = 4 × 9 + 2 × 100
= 36 + 200 = 236
S107. Ans.(b)
Sol. Pattern of series I:
× 0.5 + 1= 9 = A
× 1 + 1 = 10
× 2 + 1 = 21
× 4 + 1 = 85
× 8 + 1 = 681
Pattern of series II:
For (i): 100+69 = 169 is a perfect square (true)
For (ii): 9 is not a prime number (false)
For (iii): 100+25 =125
is factor of 125 (true)
S108. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S109. Ans.(c)
Sol.
For I. Total number of students who did not pass the exam B = 450 – 180 = 270
And 270 is multiple of 9 (correct)
S110. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S111. Ans.(b)
Sol.
Total girls appeared in exam B =
Total boys appeared in exam B = 450 – 180 = 270
Total passed girls in exam B = 180 – 80 = 100
Total passed boys in exam B = 180 – 100 = 80
So, boys who did not pass the exam B = 270 – 80 = 190
Required difference = 190 – 100 = 90
S112. Ans.(b)
Sol. Let the present ages of Sonam and Niharika be 5x + 4 and 7x + 4 years respectively.
Given,
Quantity II: 0.2Y+ 1.5X
= 0.2×32+1.5×24
= 6.4 + 36
= 42.4
So, Quantity I < Quantity II
S113. Ans.(b)
Sol.
4b + 2a = 24….(i)
And
6b – a = 28
6b – 28 = a
a value put in (i)
4b + 2(6b – 28) = 24
4b + 12b – 56 = 24
16b = 80
b = 5
6b – 28 = a
– 28 = a
= a
Quantity I: 2a = 4
Quantity II: b = 5
So, Quantity I < Quantity II
S114. Ans.(c)
Sol. Given,
P + Q + R = 48…(i)
And
2S – 18 = Q + R
Q + R value put in (i)
P + 2S – 18 = 48
2S + P = 66
S115. Ans.(e)
Sol.
I: 3x² - 16x + 5 = 0
3x² - 15x - x + 5 = 0
3x (x - 5) – 1(x – 5) = 0
(x – 5) (3x -1) = 0
x = 5, 1/3
II: 2y² - 7y + 3 = 0
2y² - 6y - y + 3 = 0
2y(y – 3) -1( y – 3) = 0
(2y - 1) (y - 3) = 0
y = 1/2, 3
So, relation cannot be determined.
S116. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S117. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S118. Ans.(e)
Sol.
I: 3x2 -5x -2 = 0
3x2 - 3x -2x -2 = 0
3x(x-1) -2(x-1) = 0
(x-1) (3x-2)
x = 1, 2/3
II: 2y2 -3y +1 = 0
2y2 -2y - y +1 = 0
2y(y-1)- 1(y-1) = 0
(2y-1) (y-1) =0
y = 1/2, 1
So, relation cannot be determined
S119. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S120. Ans.(b)
Sol. Q = c = multiple of 2
P = a = prime number
Given, P × Q = 18
Possible values of P = 2, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13 & 17
Only P = 3 and Q = 6 is satisfy the condition
Also given, product of the denominator and numerator is 24.
b = 24/6 = 4
S121. Ans.(e)
Sol.
P and Q together can complete the work
R (working twice of efficiency) and P together can complete the work = 5 days
We have no more information
So, can’t be determined
S122. Ans.(a)
Sol.
Quantity I: The value of y = 7/5 & 11/5
Quantity II: The value of x = 6/5 & 2/5
So, Quantity I > Quantity II
S123. Ans.(b)
Sol. Let the length of the train and length of the platform be l meter and p meters respectively.
Also let the speed of the train be 5x m/sec.
S124. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S125. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S126. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S127. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S128. Ans.(a)
Sol.
The total number of visas granted from all three countries = 3.5×4800
=16800
The total number of visas granted from P = 16800-4000-6000=6800
Total number of visas granted to females in
Required difference = 4080 – 1000 = 3080
S129. Ans.(a)
Sol. Let the total number of boys who played hockey and the total number of girls who played football
be 5x and 3x respectively.
The total number of boys who played volleyball = 2×3x=6x
The number of girls who played volleyball = 6x-30
The total number of boys and girls who played hockey together is 160
The total number of girls who played hockey = 160 – 5x
The total number of boys who played football = 1.25×(160-5x)
= 200 – 6.25x
Given,
5x + 6x + 200 – 6.25x = 295
4.75x = 95
x = 20
S130. Ans.(b)
Sol. Let the total number of boys who played hockey and the total number of girls who played football
be 5x and 3x respectively.
The total number of boys who played volleyball = 2×3x=6x
The number of girls who played volleyball = 6x-30
The total number of boys and girls who played hockey together is 160
The total number of girls who played hockey = 160 – 5x
The total number of boys who played football = 1.25×(160-5x)
= 200 – 6.25x
Given,
5x + 6x + 200 – 6.25x = 295
4.75x = 95
x = 20
Required ratio = 210 : (100 + 75)
= 210 : 175
= 6:5
S131. Ans.(c)
Sol. Let the total number of boys who played hockey and the total number of girls who played football
be 5x and 3x respectively.
The total number of boys who played volleyball = 2×3x=6x
The number of girls who played volleyball = 6x-30
The total number of boys and girls who played hockey together is 160
The total number of girls who played hockey = 160 – 5x
The total number of boys who played football = 1.25×(160-5x)
= 200 – 6.25x
Given,
5x + 6x + 200 – 6.25x = 295
4.75x = 95
x = 20
Required difference = (60+60+90)-135=75
S132. Ans.(c)
Sol. Let the total number of boys who played hockey and the total number of girls who played football
be 5x and 3x respectively.
The total number of boys who played volleyball = 2×3x=6x
The number of girls who played volleyball = 6x-30
The total number of boys and girls who played hockey together is 160
The total number of girls who played hockey = 160 – 5x
The total number of boys who played football = 1.25×(160-5x)
= 200 – 6.25x
Given,
5x + 6x + 200 – 6.25x = 295
4.75x = 95
x = 20
The total number of boys who played chess = 1.2×60=72
The total number of girls who played chess = 2×75=150
Required difference = 150 – 72 = 78
S133. Ans.(d)
Sol. Let the total number of boys who played hockey and the total number of girls who played football
be 5x and 3x respectively.
The total number of boys who played volleyball = 2×3x=6x
The number of girls who played volleyball = 6x-30
The total number of boys and girls who played hockey together is 160
The total number of girls who played hockey = 160 – 5x
The total number of boys who played football = 1.25×(160-5x)
= 200 – 6.25x
Given,
5x + 6x + 200 – 6.25x = 295
4.75x = 95
x = 20
S134. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S135. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S136. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S137. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S138. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S139. Ans.(b)
Sol. Let the unit and tens digit be y and x respectively.
Original number=10x+y
From A:
x+y=21and xy=110
From B:
x+y=5 and
10x+y-(10y+x)=27
From B alone, it can be solved
S140. Ans.(d)
Sol. Let the present age father and his son be x years and y years respectively.
From A,
Therefore, either statement A or statement B by itself is sufficient.
S141. Ans.(c)
Sol. I is correct because the policy's aim is to increase female leadership, indicating a move toward
gender equality.
III is correct as critics highlight the need for childcare and transportation to make the policy feasible.
II is not directly supported by the statement — it doesn't say companies previously had no requirement
at all.
S142. Ans.(d)
Sol. Explanation:
(d) is the only accurate inference. It reflects the government’s push for AI and highlights ongoing
concerns about weak regulations.
(a) is incorrect: The statement only mentions a focus, not actual widespread improvements.
(b) is incorrect: The passage clearly states there’s a lack of strong regulations.
(c) is incorrect: Civil rights groups’ concerns prove that not everyone is fully convinced.
(e) is incorrect: Because it wrongly implies regulations are already strong.
S143. Ans.(d)
Sol. From II: F is second to the right of O.
S144. Ans.(c)
Sol. From both I and II: D sits immediate right of F.
S145. Ans.(b)
Sol. From I: P lives on 4th floor.
S146. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S147. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S148. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S149. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S150. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S151. Ans.(e)
Sol. Logic Explanation:
Symbol: If number of letters in the word is odd, then it will be coded as $
If the number of letters in the word are even, then it will be coded as #
Numbers: Total number of letters in the word + Number of vowels in that word
Letters: Second succeeding letter of second letter from right end of the word
$13K
S152. Ans.(d)
Sol. Logic Explanation:
Symbol: If number of letters in the word is odd, then it will be coded as $
If the number of letters in the word are even, then it will be coded as #
Numbers: Total number of letters in the word + Number of vowels in that word
Letters: Second succeeding letter of second letter from right end of the word
$7X #7J
S153. Ans.(c)
Sol. Logic Explanation:
Symbol: If number of letters in the word is odd, then it will be coded as $
If the number of letters in the word are even, then it will be coded as #
Numbers: Total number of letters in the word + Number of vowels in that word
Letters: Second succeeding letter of second letter from right end of the word
Glory
S154. Ans.(a)
Sol. Logic Explanation:
Symbol: If number of letters in the word is odd, then it will be coded as $
If the number of letters in the word are even, then it will be coded as #
Numbers: Total number of letters in the word + Number of vowels in that word
Letters: Second succeeding letter of second letter from right end of the word
#8V
S155. Ans.(c)
Sol. Logic Explanation:
Symbol: If number of letters in the word is odd, then it will be coded as $
If the number of letters in the word are even, then it will be coded as #
Numbers: Total number of letters in the word + Number of vowels in that word
Letters: Second succeeding letter of second letter from right end of the word
Both I and III are correct
S156. Ans.(d)
Sol. Meaningful word formed – Ripe, Pier
S157. Ans.(c)
Sol. (c) matches the statement about “interactive lessons and digital content” improving learning. (a),
(b), and (d) are not mentioned or are outside the scope of the information given.
S158. Ans.(a)
Sol. Rising global temperatures (Statement I) are directly responsible for the melting of ice caps and sea
level rise (Statement II). Hence, Statement I is the cause, and Statement II is the effect.
S159. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S160. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S161. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S162. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S163. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S164. Ans.(d)
S165. Ans.(c)
S166. Ans.(a)
Sol. 865499 = 644288; 761829 = 640608
Sum = 0 + 2 = 2
S167. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S168. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S169. Ans.(b)
Sol.
S170. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S171. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S172. Ans.(e)
Sol. Step I to Step III: Words are picked based on dictionary order.
Break the input in two parts: first three words and last three words.
Step I: Pick the word which comes first in dictionary order among these three words (from left end)
and place it at extreme left end, then pick the word which comes first in dictionary order among these
three words (from right end) and place it at second position from right end.
The same step will be followed in Step II and III.
In step III, we get first three letters arranged in reverse dictionary order from left end, and then next
three letters are arranged in dictionary order from the right end.
Step IV – From left end, join first and second letter, third and fourth letter, fifth and sixth letter.
Step V – Arrange the letters within the word in alphabetical order.
Input: LEN DEN BAT CER JAM TIL
Step I: BAT LEN DEN JAM TIL CER
Step II: DEN BAT LEN TIL JAM CER
Step III: LEN DEN BAT TIL JAM CER
Step IV: LENDEN BATTIL JAMCER
Step V: DEELNN ABIL TT ACEJMR
Step VI: EDFKOM BAJKUS BBFINQ
DEN is fifth word from right end in step III.
S173. Ans.(d)
Sol. Step I to Step III: Words are picked based on dictionary order.
Break the input in two parts: first three words and last three words.
Step I: Pick the word which comes first in dictionary order among these three words (from left end)
and place it at extreme left end, then pick the word which comes first in dictionary order among these
three words (from right end) and place it at second position from right end.
The same step will be followed in Step II and III.
In step III, we get first three letters arranged in reverse dictionary order from left end, and then next
three letters are arranged in dictionary order from the right end.
Step IV – From left end, join first and second letter, third and fourth letter, fifth and sixth letter.
Step V – Arrange the letters within the word in alphabetical order.
Input: LEN DEN BAT CER JAM TIL
Step I: BAT LEN DEN JAM TIL CER
Step II: DEN BAT LEN TIL JAM CER
Step III: LEN DEN BAT TIL JAM CER
Step IV: LENDEN BATTIL JAMCER
Step V: DEELNN ABIL TT ACEJMR
Step VI: EDFKOM BAJKUS BBFINQ
TIL is fourth word from left end in step II.
S174. Ans.(c)
Sol. Step I to Step III: Words are picked based on dictionary order.
Break the input in two parts: first three words and last three words.
Step I: Pick the word which comes first in dictionary order among these three words (from left end)
and place it at extreme left end, then pick the word which comes first in dictionary order among these
three words (from right end) and place it at second position from right end.
The same step will be followed in Step II and III.
In step III, we get first three letters arranged in reverse dictionary order from left end, and then next
three letters are arranged in dictionary order from the right end.
Step IV – From left end, join first and second letter, third and fourth letter, fifth and sixth letter.
Step V – Arrange the letters within the word in alphabetical order.
Input: LEN DEN BAT CER JAM TIL
Step I: BAT LEN DEN JAM TIL CER
Step II: DEN BAT LEN TIL JAM CER
Step III: LEN DEN BAT TIL JAM CER
Step IV: LENDEN BATTIL JAMCER
Step V: DEELNN ABIL TT ACEJMR
Step VI: EDFKOM BAJKUS BBFINQ
Step VI
S175. Ans.(b)
Sol. Step I to Step III: Words are picked based on dictionary order.
Break the input in two parts: first three words and last three words.
Step I: Pick the word which comes first in dictionary order among these three words (from left end)
and place it at extreme left end, then pick the word which comes first in dictionary order among these
three words (from right end) and place it at second position from right end.
The same step will be followed in Step II and III.
In step III, we get first three letters arranged in reverse dictionary order from left end, and then next
three letters are arranged in dictionary order from the right end.
Step IV – From left end, join first and second letter, third and fourth letter, fifth and sixth letter.
Step V – Arrange the letters within the word in alphabetical order.
Input: LEN DEN BAT CER JAM TIL
Step I: BAT LEN DEN JAM TIL CER
Step II: DEN BAT LEN TIL JAM CER
Step III: LEN DEN BAT TIL JAM CER
Step IV: LENDEN BATTIL JAMCER
Step V: DEELNN ABIL TT ACEJMR
Step VI: EDFKOM BAJKUS BBFINQ
DEELNN ABIL TT ACEJMR
S176. Ans.(d)
Sol. Step I to Step III: Words are picked based on dictionary order.
Break the input in two parts: first three words and last three words.
Step I: Pick the word which comes first in dictionary order among these three words (from left end)
and place it at extreme left end, then pick the word which comes first in dictionary order among these
three words (from right end) and place it at second position from right end.
The same step will be followed in Step II and III.
In step III, we get first three letters arranged in reverse dictionary order from left end, and then next
three letters are arranged in dictionary order from the right end.
Step IV – From left end, join first and second letter, third and fourth letter, fifth and sixth letter.
Step V – Arrange the letters within the word in alphabetical order.
Input: LEN DEN BAT CER JAM TIL
Step I: BAT LEN DEN JAM TIL CER
Step II: DEN BAT LEN TIL JAM CER
Step III: LEN DEN BAT TIL JAM CER
Step IV: LENDEN BATTIL JAMCER
Step V: DEELNN ABIL TT ACEJMR
Step VI: EDFKOM BAJKUS BBFINQ
DEN
S177. Ans.(d)
Sol. R1: 4+3 = 7; (7+25) ÷ 2 = 16
R2 = 53-16 = 37
R2: 8+7 = 15; 15+22= 37
S178. Ans.(c)
Sol. R1: (17-15) + 17= 19; 19+12= 31
R2: 12+11 = 23; (23+25) ÷ 2 = 24
R3: 13+10= 23; (23+9) ÷ 2 = 16
31-24 = 7; 7+16 = 23
S179. Ans.(e)
Sol. R1: (21+49) ÷ 2 = 35; 35-15= 20; 20+35 = 55
R2: 14-9 = 5; 5×2 = 10; 10-4 = 6
R3: (11-5) +11 = 17; 17+ 8= 25
55+6+25= 86
S180. Ans.(c)
Sol. R1: 8+2 = 10; 25-10 = 15; 15×2 = 30
R2: (13-5) + 13 = 21; 21+12 = 33
R3: (21+ 9) ÷ 2 = 15; 15+24 = 39
Difference of Row I and Row II = 33-30 = 3;
Multiplication = 39×3 = 117
S181. Ans.(c)
Sol.
S182. Ans.(d)
Sol.
S183. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S184. Ans.(e)
Sol.
S185. Ans.(a)
Sol.
S186. Ans.(b)
Sol. The launch of a national digital infrastructure program in education (Statement II) led to the
adoption of smart classrooms and digital tools in rural schools (Statement I). So, Statement II is the
cause, and Statement I is its effect.
S187. Ans.(b)
Sol. Statement I aligns with the recycling effort
Statement III reflects penalties under the new rules
Statement II is unrelated—it discusses discounts, not e-waste
S188. Ans.(c)
Sol. Statement (c) contradicts the central idea of transitioning to clean energy and reducing reliance on
fossil fuels. Increasing coal production till 2100 goes against the objective of achieving net-zero
emissions by 2070.
S189. Ans.(b)
Sol. Option (b) directly aligns with the statement: “rural expansion, exchange offers, and loyalty
programs.”
The other options are either assumptions or unrelated to the facts provided.
S190. Ans.(a)
Sol. Explanation: The statement clearly mentions that due to rising air pollution, residents are buying
air purifiers and indoor plants to improve indoor air quality. This indicates that people are becoming
more health-conscious.
Option (a) is correct as it logically follows from the actions of the people in the statement.
Option (b) is incorrect because there's no mention of declining sales of air purifiers.
Option (c) is incorrect because pollution still exists; no mention is made of cities being pollution-free.
Option (d) is incorrect as both natural and artificial methods (air purifiers) are being used.
Hence, only option (a) is inferred.

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