SBI Clerk Mains Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2026 with Answer Key and Free PDF Download link Online

SBI Clerk Mains Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2026 with Answer Key and Free PDF Download link Online

SBI Clerk Mains Memory Based Paper (29th October 2026 S1)- Backlog  
 
Q1. Which city is popularly known as the "Garden City of India"? 
(a) Mysuru 
(b) Bengaluru 
(c) Chandigarh 
(d) Pune 
(e) Kochi 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q2. What do the first two digits of a 15 -digit Goods and Services Tax Identification Number (GSTIN) 
represent? 
(a) Entity Type Code 
(b) PAN of the taxpayer 
(c) State Code 
(d) Registration serial number 
(e) Check code 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q3. Who among the following was appointed as India's first Chief of Defence Staff (CDS)? 
(a) General Manoj Mukund Naravane 
(b) General Anil Chauhan 
(c) General Bipin Rawat 
(d) Admiral Karambir Singh 
(e) Air Chief Marshal R. K. S. Bhadauria 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q4. In the acronym "NeVA", an initiative under the Digital India Programme for paperless state 
legislative proceedings, what does the letter 'V' stand for?  
(a) Vikas 
(b) Vidhan 
(c) Vichar 
(d) Vahini 
(e) Virtual 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q5. What is the mandatory lock-in period for investments made under an Equity Linked Savings Scheme 
(ELSS)? 
(a) 1 Year 
(b) 3 years 
(c) 5 Years 
(d) 7 Years 
(e) 10 Years 
Ans.(b) 

 
 
 
Q6. Which Union Ministry commissioned the National Family Health Survey (NFHS -6), coordinated by 
IIPS Mumbai as the nodal agency? 
(a) Ministry of Women and Child Development 
(b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare 
(c) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment 
(d) Ministry of Rural Development 
(e) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q7. In the banking acronym "EBLR", used for anchoring floating-rate loans, what does the letter 'B' stand 
for? 
(a) Bank 
(b) Base 
(c) Benchmark 
(d) Buffer 
(e) Borrowing 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q8. Mutual funds operating in India function under the regulatory oversight of which statutory 
authority? 
(a) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) 
(b) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) 
(c) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) 
(d) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) 
(e) Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q9. The global market -based approach known as the "Fair Trade movement" is designed to address 
systemic inequalities in traditional international commerce. In the context of global supply chains and 
agricultural trading, which of the following best describes the primary objective of this movement? 
(a) To eliminate all import tariffs between participating nations 
(b) To ensure fairer prices, better working conditions, and sustainability for producers in developing 
countries 
(c) To subsidize agricultural transport across global shipping lines 
(d) To enforce uniform minimum wage laws across all G20 nations 
(e) To regulate international commodity futures markets 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q10. In the Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) introduced by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, what 
does the letter ' A' stand for? 
(a) Assessment 
(b) Advancement 
(c) Accountability 
(d) Administration 
(e) Acceleration 
Ans.(b) 

 
 
 
Q11. Which agriculture -related scheme provides state governments with flexibility to execute crop 
diversification and infrastructure projects? 
(a) PM-RKVY 
(b) PM-KUSUM 
(c) PM-PRANAM 
(d) PM-FME 
(e) PM-DevINE 
Ans.(a) 
 
Q12. Where is the headquarters of the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) 
situated? 
(a) Mumbai 
(b) Bengaluru 
(c) Kolkata 
(d) Hyderabad 
(e) New Delhi 
Ans.(e) 
 
Q13. Which statutory authority regulates the functioning of Credit Rating Agencies (CRAs) in India? 
(a) RBI 
(b) IRDAI 
(c) SEBI 
(d) PFRDA 
(e) CCI 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q14. Which institution served as the principal regulator for the Unit Trust of India (UTI) during the 
period 1963 to 1978? 
(a) SEBI 
(b) Ministry of Finance 
(c) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) 
(d) NABARD 
(e) State Bank of India 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q15. At the Commonwealth Games, Indian athletes demonstrated remarkable multi-sport performance 
across various disciplines. In the final overall country-wise medal tally, which position did India secure? 
(a) 1st 
(b) 2nd 
(c) 4th 
(d) 7th 
(e) 9th 
Ans.(c) 

 
 
 
Q16. According to Article 170 of the Indian Constitution, what is the minimum prescribed member 
strength of a State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha)? 
(a) 30 
(b) 40 
(c) 50 
(d) 60 
(e) 80 
Ans.(d) 
 
Q17. How is interest calculated and disbursed under the Senior Citizens' Savings Scheme (SCSS)? 
(a) Monthly 
(b) Quarterly 
(c) Half-yearly 
(d) Annually 
(e) At maturity 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q18. What is the minimum annual contribution required to keep a National Pension System (NPS) Tier-
I account active? 
(a) ₹250 
(b) ₹500 
(c) ₹1,000 
(d) ₹2,000 
(e) ₹5,000 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q19. Who serves as the Chairman and Managing Director (CMD) of the Small Industries Development 
Bank of India (SIDBI)? 
(a) Manoj Mittal 
(b) S. Ramann 
(c) Dinesh Kumar Khara 
(d) K. V. Kamath 
(e) V. Anantha Nageswaran 
Ans.(a) 
 
Q20. The Central Government approved a major administrative reshuffle in financial and revenue 
oversight bodies. Under this bureaucrat appointment, which officer was appointed as the Director of 
the Financial Intelligence Unit–India (FIU-IND) under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance? 
(a) Vivek Aggarwal 
(b) Satyapal Kumar 
(c) Rahul Navin 
(d) Sanjay Kumar Agarwal 
(e) Nitin Gupta 
Ans.(b) 

 
 
 
Q21. Which committee appointed in 1991 recommended the setting up of the National Stock Exchange 
(NSE)? 
(a) Narasimham Committee 
(b) Pherwani Committee 
(c) Damodaran Committee 
(d) Tarapore Committee 
(e) Bimal Jalan Committee 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q22. The Index of Services Production (ISP) tracks performance across which service categories? 
(a) Trade and repair services 
(b) Transport and storage 
(c) Accommodation and food services 
(d) Financial and real estate activities 
(e) All of the above 
Ans.(e) 
 
Q23. Under the Ayushman Bharat PM -JAY health scheme, how many days of pre -hospitalisation 
expenses are covered? 
(a) 2 days 
(b) 3 days 
(c) 5 days 
(d) 7 days 
(e) 15 days 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q24. .Who among the following served as the first female Speaker of the Lok Sabha? 
(a) Pratibha Patil 
(b) Meira Kumar 
(c) Sumitra Mahajan 
(d) Sushma Swaraj 
(e) Najma Heptulla 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q25. Under Article 243 -I of the Constitution, who is required to cause the State Finance Commission 
report to be laid before the State Legislature? 
(a) Chief Minister 
(b) State Finance Minister 
(c) Governor of the State 
(d) Speaker of the Vidhan Sabha 
(e) Chief Secretary 
Ans.(c) 

 
 
 
Q26. How many parliamentary sessions are conventionally held in India during a calendar year? 
(a) 2 
(b) 3 
(c) 4 
(d) 5 
(e) 6 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q27. 'Sphoorti' is a specialized financial enablement initiative for women micro -entrepreneurs 
launched by which non-banking financial company? 
(a) Bajaj Finance 
(b) L&T Finance 
(c) Muthoot Finance 
(d) Tata Capital 
(e) Cholamandalam Investment 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q28. Projects sanctioned under the PM Surya Sarovar / Amrit Sarovar expansion framework align with 
deadlines extending up to which target year? 
(a) 2025–26 
(b) 2027–28 
(c) 2030–31 
(d) 2034–35 
(e) 2039–40 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q29. The world's highest motorable road over Umling La Pass (19,024 ft) is located in which country? 
(a) Nepal 
(b) China 
(c) India 
(d) Bhutan 
(e) Pakistan 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q30. The Border Roads Organisation (BRO), responsible for developing border infrastructure, functions 
under which Union Ministry? 
(a) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways 
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs 
(c) Ministry of Defence 
(d) Ministry of External Affairs 
(e) Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region 
Ans.(c) 

 
 
 
Q31. Which among the following Indian state has NO designated National Park within its borders? 
(a) Haryana 
(b) Punjab 
(c) Bihar 
(d) Goa 
(e) Sikkim 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q32. Revolving around our planet at an average distance of approximately 384,400 kilometres and 
exerting gravitational influences responsible for terrestrial ocean tides, what is Earth’s only permanent 
natural satellite? 
(a) Phobos 
(b) Deimos 
(c) Moon 
(d) Titan 
(e) Ganymede 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q33. India became the first country in the world to reach Mars orbit on its maiden attempt through 
which ISRO mission? 
(a) Chandrayaan-1 
(b) Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM / Mangalyaan) 
(c) Astrosat 
(d) Aditya-L1 
(e) Gaganyaan 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q34. Teejan Bai, a Padma Vibhushan recipient, is a renowned exponent of which traditional folk art 
form? 
(a) Nautanki 
(b) Pandavani 
(c) Bihu 
(d) Lavani 
(e) Yakshagana 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q35. At which Harappan site was the famous "Great Bath" structure excavated? 
(a) Harappa 
(b) Mohenjo-daro 
(c) Kalibangan 
(d) Lothal 
(e) Banawali 
Ans.(b) 

 
 
 
Q36. The Dadasaheb Phalke Award is India's highest award presented annually in which field? 
(a) Classical Dance 
(b) Indian Cinema 
(c) Literature 
(d) Journalism 
(e) Science & Technology 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q37. Which sports term is correctly matched with the game of Cricket? 
(a) Knockout 
(b) Duck 
(c) Deuce 
(d) Checkmate 
(e) Offside 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q38. A financial outlay of ₹23,731 crore was approved for which waste-to-energy and bio-gas scheme? 
(a) PM-PRANAM 
(b) GOBARdhan Scheme 
(c) PM-KUSUM 
(d) SATAT Initiative 
(e) Namami Gange 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q39. World Humanitarian Day is celebrated globally on which annual date? 
(a) 12th August 
(b) 19th August 
(c) 8th September 
(d) 24th October 
(e) 5th June 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q40. Representing India in the women's middleweight category, star boxer Lovlina Borgohain secured 
a historic gold medal by defeating China's Bao Ziyi at the 20th Asian Games 2026 held in Aichi-Nagoya, 
Japan. In which weight category did she achieve this victory? 
(a) 50 kg 
(b) 54 kg 
(c) 66 kg 
(d) 75 kg 
(e) 81 kg 
Ans.(d) 

 
 
 
Q41. Which organization publishes the annual flagship research publication titled "State Finances: A 
Study of Budgets"? 
(a) NITI Aayog 
(b) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) 
(c) Ministry of Finance 
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) 
(e) Finance Commission 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q42. Which body operates the National Automated Clearing House (NACH) system for bulk electronic 
payments like dividends and salary credits? 
(a) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) 
(b) National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) 
(c) State Bank of India (SBI) 
(d) NSDL 
(e) Indian Banks' Association (IBA) 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q43. How many total mandated agricultural crops are covered under the Minimum Support Price (MSP) 
regime recommended by CACP and approved by CCEA? 
(a) 14 
(b) 18 
(c) 22 
(d) 25 
(e) 28 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q44. The Teesta River originates in the Himalayas and flows through which two Indian states before 
entering Bangladesh? 
(a) Assam & Meghalaya 
(b) Sikkim & West Bengal 
(c) Arunachal Pradesh & Assam 
(d) West Bengal & Bihar 
(e) Tripura & Mizoram 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q45. What is the name of the digital portal/application launched to empower women entrepreneurs 
from Self-Help Groups (SHGs)? 
(a) SHE-LEAPS 
(b) Sakhi App 
(c) Udyami Naari 
(d) Matru Shakti 
(e) SHG Digital Pay 
Ans.(a) 

 
 
 
Q46. Who wrote the internationally acclaimed psychological book "Man's Search for Meaning"? 
(a) Sigmund Freud 
(b) Carl Jung 
(c) Viktor E. Frankl 
(d) Erich Fromm 
(e) Abraham Maslow 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q47. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) approved loan assistance worth $850 million to accelerate 
which rooftop solar power program in India? 
(a) PM-KUSUM 
(b) PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana 
(c) National Solar Mission 
(d) Green Energy Corridor 
(e) Solar Park Scheme 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q48. The Integral Coach Factory (ICF), known for manufacturing passenger coaches and Vande Bharat 
trainsets, is located in which city? 
(a) Kapurthala, Punjab 
(b) Raebareli, Uttar Pradesh 
(c) Chennai, Tamil Nadu 
(d) Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh 
(e) Bengaluru, Karnataka 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q49. Under the Pradhan Mantri Surya Sarovar Yojana (PM-SSY) approved by the Union Cabinet in July 
2026 to promote floating solar photovoltaic (FSPV) capacity integrated with battery energy storage 
systems (BESS), what is the official sanction window during which projects must be sanctioned? 
(a) FY 2022–23 to FY 2025–26 
(b) FY 2024–25 to FY 2028–29 
(c) FY 2026–27 to FY 2030–31 
(d) FY 2025–26 to FY 2032–33 
(e) FY 2027–28 to FY 2031–32 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q50. Covering a diverse range of ecological zones across the country, India has established protected 
areas under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. Which among the following Indian States/Union 
Territories accounts for the highest total number of designated National Parks? 
(a) Assam 
(b) Kerala 
(c) Madhya Pradesh 
(d) Uttarakhand 
(e) Andaman & Nicobar Islands 
Ans.(c) 

 
 
 
Directions (51-58): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. 
Anthropological genetics has recently transformed our understanding of ancient human demographics, 
unraveling complex migration patterns through prehistoric eras. Three pioneering researchers have 
recently illuminated how Stone Age populations adapted, interacted, and survived across shifting global 
environments by leveraging (A) paleogenomic sequencing techniques. 
Dr. Aris Thorne led a landmark investigation into Upper Paleolithic hunter -gatherer communities in 
Eurasia. By extracting and analyzing ancient DNA recovered from petrified skeletal remains, Thorne’s 
team mapped the genomic shifts occurring after the Last Glacial Maximum. His findings demonstrated 
that ancient human groups possessed far greater genetic (B) continuety than previously assumed, 
successfully enduring extreme environmental stresses rather than suffering widespread demographic 
collapse. Thorne proved that these Stone Age foraging bands maintained expansive social networks, 
facilitating genetic exchange across vast geographical distances. 
Shifting the focus to post -glacial transitions, Dr. Elena Rostova investigated the genomic footprint of 
early Holocene populations in the Mediterranean basin. Rostova isolated high-quality ancient DNA from 
dental enamel retrieved at prehistoric burial sites. Her comparative genetic analysis revealed a complex 
tapestry of demographic turnover, showing that expanding Neolithic farming communities interbred 
with indigenous Stone Age hunter-gatherers rather than completely replacing them. Rostova’s research 
established that this genetic admixture significantly enhanced the  (C) imunological diversity of 
prehistoric societies, allowing ancient populations to build resilience against newly emerging pathogens 
as agricultural lifestyles took hold. 
Concurrently, Dr. Marcus Vance explored the deep genetic lineages of Pleistocene hominins across high-
altitude regions. Utilizing high-coverage whole-genome sequencing on fossilized bone fragments, Vance 
identified crucial (D) adaptive genetic mutations preserved in ancient populations. His research 
pinpointed specific genetic variants linked to hypoxia tolerance and cold adaptation, tracing how these 
ancient traits were passed down through generations. Vance demonstrated that the evolut ionary 
success of Stone Age communities relied heavily on rapid genetic adaptation to harsh topographies, 
forever altering our perception of prehistoric human (E) endurance. 
 
Q51. Consider the following statements regarding the socio -environmental dynamics of Stone Age 
populations: 
(I) Stone Age hunter -gatherers in Eurasia operated as open, connected networks rather than 
geographically isolated enclaves. 
(II) Environmental shifts after the Last Glacial Maximum forced Eurasian foraging bands into 
catastrophic population drops. 
(III) Geographical isolation was the primary evolutionary mechanism that enabled ancient groups to 
survive severe climate shifts. 
Which of the statements given above can be logically INFERRED from the passage? 
(a) Only (I) 
(b) Both (I) and (II) 
(c) Both (II) and (III) 
(d) Only (III) 
(e) All (I), (II), and (III) 

 
 
Ans.(a) 
 
Q52. Among the bold words marked as (A), (B), (C), (D), and (E) in the passage, identify the word(s) 
that is/are INCORRECTLY spelt. 
(a) Both (A) and (B) 
(b) Both (B) and (C). 
(c) Both (E) and (D) 
(d) Only (C) 
(e) Both (B) and (E) 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q53. From an analytical point of view, what does the evidence regarding genetic admixture between 
farmers and foragers suggest about prehistoric human adaptation? 
(a) Foraging societies lacked the biological capacity to adapt to changing environments without farming 
tech. 
(b) Sedentary agricultural lifestyles completely eliminated the spread of novel infectious pathogens in 
humans. 
(c) Migrating farming communities maintained total genetic isolation from native hunter -gatherer 
populations. 
(d) Biological resilience was strengthened when distinct ancient groups interbred and shared genetic 
traits. 
(e) Genetic replacement was the primary mechanism driving demographic transitions across 
prehistoric regions. 
Ans.(d) 
 
Q54. Match the researchers in Column I with their specific research contributions in Column II: 
Column I 
(Researcher) Column II (Research Focus / Discovery) 
(P) Dr. Aris Thorne (1) Genetic admixture in Mediterranean burial sites and enhanced 
immunological diversity. 
(Q) Dr. Elena 
Rostova 
(2) High-coverage sequencing revealing physiological adaptations to high-
altitude hypoxia. 
(R) Dr. Marcus 
Vance 
(3) Ancient skeletal DNA analysis showing post-glacial survival and long-
distance genetic exchange. 
(a) P-1, Q-2, R-3. 
(b) P-1, Q-3, R-2. 
(c) P-2, Q-1, R-3. 
(d) P-3, Q-2, R-1. 
(e) P-3, Q-1, R-2. 
Ans.(e) 
 

 
 
Q55. Which of the following statements regarding Pleistocene hominin adaptation is/are TRUE 
according to the passage? (I) Dr. Marcus Vance extracted high-quality genetic material exclusively from 
petrified dental enamel fragments. 
(II) The evolutionary success of high -altitude populations was significantly influenced by genetic 
adaptations associated with hypoxia tolerance and cold resistance. 
(III) Genetic variants conferring hypoxia tolerance were successfully transmitted across successive 
generations of ancient populations. 
(a) Only (I) 
(b) Both (I) and (III) 
(c) Both (II) and (III) 
(d) Only (III) 
(e) All (I), (II), and (III) 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q56. Consider the following statements based on the overarching details in the passage: (I) Advanced 
paleogenomic sequencing has demonstrated that Stone Age communities were fragile and genetically 
isolated. 
(II) Ancient DNA analysis reveals that Neolithic farming expansion involved a complete genetic 
replacement of hunter-gatherers. 
(III) Prehistoric human endurance was deeply tied to genetic adaptation across challenging geographic 
terrains. 
Which of the statements given above is/are FALSE? 
(a) Only (I) 
(b) Both (I) and (II) 
(c) Both (II) and (III) 
(d) Only (III) 
(e) All (I), (II), and (III) 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q57. In what way did the research methodology of Dr. Elena Rostova differ from that of Dr. Marcus Vance 
as described in the passage? 
(a) Rostova investigated Pleistocene hominin mutations, whereas Vance mapped post-glacial Holocene 
agricultural expansion. 
(b) Rostova evaluated ancient skeletal remains in Eurasia, whereas Vance examined prehistoric tooth 
enamel in Mediterranean. 
(c) Rostova utilized high -coverage sequencing on fossils, whereas Vance extracted ancient DNA from 
petrified tooth enamel. 
(d) Rostova analyzed dental enamel from burial sites, whereas Vance analyzed fossilized bone fragments 
from mountains. 
(e) Rostova studied climate adaptation traits in humans, whereas Vance analyzed long -distance social 
trade network ties. 
Ans.(d) 
 

 
 
Q58. What is the primary overarching message conveyed by the passage regarding prehistoric human 
ancestors? 
(a) Ancient human groups were highly interconnected, biologically resilient, and capable of adapting to 
severe environments. 
(b) Prehistoric societies survived primarily through geographic isolation and complete avoidance of 
outside genetic groups. 
(c) Neolithic agricultural expansion resulted in the total biological elimination of indigenous hunter -
gatherer lineages. 
(d) Evolutionary success in ancient populations was driven entirely by luck rather than physiological or 
genetic mutation. 
(e) Paleogenomic testing reveals that ancient populations suffered frequent demographic collapse 
during climatic shifts. 
Ans.(a) 
 
Directions ( 59-63): Rearrange the following seven sentences to form a contextually meaningful 
paragraph, then answer the follow-up questions. 
(A) Driven by aggressive promotional campaigns and improved connectivity, influxes of seasonal 
visitors into India’s iconic destinations have reached unprecedented heights. 
(B) This escalating friction between resident communities and transient visitors has led urban planners 
to warn that unchecked commercialization threatens to permanently destroy the cultural fabric of host 
regions. 
(C) These daily disruptions range from severe traffic gridlocks and acute water shortages to inflated 
living costs that squeeze native households out of their own neighborhoods. 
(D) To mitigate this mounting hostility, state tourism boards must transition from merely promoting 
volume to strictly regulating visitor carrying capacities. 
(E) The resulting overtourism drastically strain local infrastructure, transforming historically tranquil 
heritage towns and eco-sensitive hubs into zones of chronic congestion. 
(F) Such structural strains inevitably breed deep-seated resentment among locals, who find their quality 
of life systematically eroded for commercial gain. 
(G) Consequently, what was once viewed by residents as a welcoming economic opportunity is 
increasingly perceived as a destructive intrusion into daily life. 
 
Q59. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement? 
(a) Sentence E 
(b) Sentence A 
(c) Sentence C 
(d) Sentence G 
(e) Sentence B 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q60. Which of the following should be the LAST (SEVENTH) sentence after rearrangement? 
(a) Sentence B 
(b) Sentence F 

 
 
(c) Sentence D 
(d) Sentence G 
(e) Sentence C 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q61. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement? 
(a) Sentence E 
(b) Sentence C 
(c) Sentence F 
(d) Sentence G 
(e) Sentence B 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q62. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement? 
(a) Sentence F 
(b) Sentence B 
(c) Sentence G 
(d) Sentence D 
(e) Sentence C 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q63. Which of the following best summarizes the main conclusion or policy implication of the passage? 
(a) Tourism authorities must focus primarily on expanding municipal infrastructure to manage peak 
seasonal crowds. 
(b) Local governments should offer direct financial compensation to residents facing steeply rising 
living expenses. 
(c) Unchecked commercial expansion ultimately benefits heritage towns by driving long term economic 
growth opportunities. 
(d) Sustainable tourism policy must shift from boosting visitor volume toward enforcing strict carrying 
capacity regulations. 
(e) State officials should enforce complete temporary visitor bans on vulnerable towns during high 
density periods. 
Ans.(d) 
 
Q64. Fill in the blanks with the most suitable option. 
The rescue team worked ________ through the night and managed to ________ all the trapped villagers by 
dawn. 
(I) tirelessly, evacuate 
(II) relentlessly, pull out 
(III) ceaselessly, save 
(a) Only II 
(b) Both I and II 
(c) Only III 

 
 
(d) Both I and III 
(e) All I, II, III 
Ans.(e) 
 
Q65. Fill in the blanks with the most suitable option. 
The committee has ________ the proposal for further review, as several members ________ to its budget 
estimates. 
(I) delayed, disagreed 
(II) postponed, opposed 
(III) deferred, objected 
(a) Only II 
(b) Both I and II 
(c) Only III 
(d) Both I and III 
(e) All I, II, III 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q66. Fill in the blanks with the most suitable option. 
The sudden rise in fuel prices has ________ transport costs, and daily commuters are the ones ________ 
affected. 
(I) driven up, most 
(II) shot up, most 
(III) pushed up, worst 
(a) Only II 
(b) Both I and II 
(c) Only III 
(d) Both I and III 
(e) All I, II, III 
Ans.(d) 
 
Q67. Fill in the blanks with the most suitable option. 
The coach was ________ with the team’s performance and asked the players to ________ their weaknesses 
before the final. 
(I) disappointed, deal 
(II) dissatisfied, address 
(III) displeased, cope 
(a) Only II 
(b) Both I and II 
(c) Only III 
(d) Both I and III 
(e) All I, II, III 
Ans.(a) 
 

 
 
Q68. Fill in the blanks with the most suitable option. 
The new policy is ________ to benefit small traders, who have long ________ for simpler tax rules. 
(I) expected, pressed 
(II) likely, campaigned 
(III) probable, appealed 
(a) Only II 
(b) Both I and II 
(c) Only III 
(d) Both I and III 
(e) All I, II, III 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q69. In the sentence, five words are bolded. Identify the word that is CORRECTLY PLACED in its position. 
The minimal drought has forced farmers to adopt traditional crops and persistent hardy varieties that 
require abandon irrigation. 
(a) persistent 
(b) abandon 
(c) minimal 
(d) adopt 
(e) forced 
Ans.(e) 
 
Q70. In the sentence, five words are bolded. Identify the word that is CORRECTLY PLACED in its position. 
The sudden suspend of the bridge thorough authorities to inspect all ageing structures and collapse 
heavy traffic until prompted repairs were completed. 
(a) suspend 
(b) inspect 
(c) collapse 
(d) thorough 
(e) prompted 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q71. In the sentence, five words are bolded. Identify the word that is CORRECTLY PLACED in its position. 
The awaited author openly delaying the publisher for renowned the release of her eagerly criticised 
novel. 
(a) criticised 
(b) renowned 
(c) release 
(d) awaited 
(e) delaying 
Ans.(c) 
 

 
 
Q72. In the following question, a sentence is given with a highlighted phrase. Select the option that 
contains the phrase(s) among (I), (II), and (III) that are NOT suitable to replace the highlighted phrase 
without altering the core grammatical structure and intended meaning of the sentence. 
According to the revised timetable, the express train leaves at 6:15 tomorrow morning, so we must 
reach the station early. 
(I) left 
(II) is scheduled to leave 
(III) has left 
(a) Only III 
(b) Both I and III 
(c) Only I 
(d) Both II and III 
(e) All I, II, III 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q73. In the following question, a sentence is given with a highlighted word. Select the option that 
contains the word(s) among (I), (II), and (III) that are NOT suitable to replace the highlighted word 
without altering the core grammatical structure and intended meaning of the sentence. 
The project manager cautioned that the product launch would fail unless the quality assurance team 
completed all critical compliance tests by Friday. 
(I) provided that 
(II) except if 
(III) in case 
(a) Only I 
(b) Both I and III 
(c) Only III 
(d) Both II and III 
(e) All I, II, III 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q74. In the following question, a sentence is given with a highlighted word. Select the option that 
contains the word(s) among (I), (II), and (III) that are NOT suitable to replace the highlighted word 
without altering the core grammatical structure and intended meaning of the sentence. 
The cyber security expert advised employees to maintain strict data protocols while working remotely 
on unsecured home networks. 
(I) during 
(II) whilst 
(III) as long as 
(a) Only III 
(b) Both I and III 
(c) Only I 
(d) Both II and III 
(e) All I, II, III 

 
 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q75. In the following question, a sentence is given with a highlighted phrase. Select the option that 
contains the phrase(s) among (I), (II), and (III) that are NOT suitable to replace the highlighted phrase 
without altering the core grammatical structure and intended meaning of the sentence. 
After months of deliberation, the selection committee has submitted its final report to the board. 
(I) has handed in 
(II) have submitted 
(III) have presented 
(a) Only III 
(b) Both I and III 
(c) Only I 
(d) Both II and III 
(e) All I, II, III 
Ans.(d) 
 
Q76. In the following question, a sentence is given with a highlighted phrase. Select the option that 
contains the phrase(s) among (I), (II), and (III) that are NOT suitable to replace the highlighted phrase 
without altering the core grammatical structure and intended meaning of the sentence. 
Hardly had the board meeting begun when the power went off across the entire building. 
(I) had gone off 
(II) failed 
(III) went out 
(a) Only III 
(b) Both I and III 
(c) Only I 
(d) Both II and III 
(e) All I, II, III 
Ans.(c) 
 
Directions (77-85): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. 
The militarization of northern polar latitudes has fundamentally reshaped global geopolitical discourse, 
transforming the Arctic from a zone of peaceful scientific collaboration into a volatile theater of systemic 
rivalry. Historically insulated by extreme environmental barriers, the Arctic Ocean’s rapidly melting ice 
sheets have unlocked lucrative marine routes and unexploited biological resources, triggering intense 
friction among three key sovereign powers: Nation M, Nation W, and Nation C. 
At the epicenter of this escalating regional instability lies the contested management of Arctic Sea 
fisheries. As warming sea temperatures cause major commercial fish stocks —such as Atlantic cod, 
capelin, and Greenland halibut—to shift poleward, marine economic zones have become primary sites 
of territorial unilateral (A). Nation M, leveraging its extensive northern coastline, has expanded 
encroachment (B) deep-sea trawling quotas, provoking sharp backlash from Nation W, which relies 
heavily on sustainable maritime yields to bolster its fragile domestic seafood export sector. 
Simultaneously, Nation C—a non-littoral distant-water fishing giant—has asserted its historical right to 

 
 
operate within international high-seas pockets, heavily subsidizing its industrial fleets under the guise 
of freedom of navigation. 
This unchecked competition over marine bio -resources has triggered a critical economic depreciation 
across the littoral state economies. Overfishing and unregulated catch volumes have destabilized marine 
ecosystems, drastically depressing commercial yield forecasts and devaluing key maritime equities. 
Consequently, the severe devaluation of regional blue -economy assets has amplified fiscal 
vulnerabilities, forcing neighboring governments to drastically subsidize domestic fleets while 
grappling with shrinking national revenues and inflated supply-chain costs. 
Compounding these resource disputes is the hyper -militarization of the Arctic maritime theater. What 
began as localized economic friction over commercial fisheries has rapidly depreciation (C) into 
strategic posturing, marked by aggressive naval maneuvers, deep-water sonar reconnaissance, and the 
establishment of fortified forward -operating bases. Nation M’s deployment of heavy icebreakers 
alongside nuclear-capable submarine patrols has drawn co unter-deployments from Nation W and its 
regional partners, escalating troop concentrations along sensitive maritime borders. Nation C’s parallel 
naval presence —ostensibly deployed to protect its merchant and fishing fleets —has heightened 
paranoia among neighboring Nordic states, who view this creeping military projection as an existential 
threat to regional sovereignty. 
As sovereign states balance national security interests against fragile marine ecosystems, the 
convergence of economic spiraled (D) and systemic military expansion threatens to plunge the high 
north into an irreversible spiral of conflict, permanently extinguishing the post-Cold War ideal of Arctic 
exceptionalism. 
 
Q77. In the passage above, four words have been marked in bold as (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the 
correct pair(s) of words that must be interchanged to make the passage grammatically correct and 
contextually meaningful. 
(a) Only A-B 
(b) Only C-D 
(c) A-B and C-D 
(d) A-D and B-C 
(e) No interchange required 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q78. When applied to Nation C, the phrase "distant-water fishing giant" specifically denotes: 
(a) A coastal sovereign state operating exclusively within its designated two -hundred-nautical-mile 
Exclusive Economic Zone. 
(b) A nation commanding heavy naval forces that enforce strict prohibitions on commercial trawling 
across global waters. 
(c) An entity with an industrial fishing fleet capable of operating in high-seas regions far outside its own 
boundaries. 
(d) A landlocked sovereign nation relying entirely on international seafood imports to satisfy its 
domestic market demands. 
(e) A global scientific research coalition dedicated to tracking the poleward migration of endangered 
commercial species. 

 
 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q79. Based on the provided passage, which of the following statements best synthesizes the causal 
chain that leads from environmental change to regional military destabilization in the High North? 
(a) Industrial overfishing by distant fleets caused rapid polar ice-sheet degradation, compelling coastal 
states to construct bases for protecting routes. 
(b) Polar ice melting opened lucrative routes and shifting fish stocks, triggering economic competition 
that escalated into strategic militarization. 
(c) Nuclear-capable submarine deployments accelerated marine ecosystem collapse, forcing non -
littoral nations to establish sustainable trawling quotas. 
(d) Military expansion by regional alliances disrupted global supply chains, causing commercial fish 
species to alter their migration southward. 
(e) Devaluation of regional blue -economy assets forced non -littoral states to construct forward bases 
for securing contested maritime borders. 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q80. Consider the following statements based on the provided passage: 
1. Nation W's domestic seafood export sector is structurally vulnerable and faces increased competitive 
pressure due to Nation M's expanded trawling quotas 
2. The poleward migration of Atlantic cod and Greenland halibut has effectively dissolved all 
international high-seas pockets in the High North. 
3. Over-exploitation of Arctic marine ecosystems has led to simultaneous fiscal pressure on littoral state 
budgets and increased supply-chain costs. 
4. Nation C relies exclusively on non -military vessels to maintain its operational footprint in Arctic 
international waters. 
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are INCORRECT? 
(a) Only 1 and 3 
(b) Only 2 and 4 
(c) Only 1, 2, and 4 
(d) Only 2, 3, and 4 
(e) All 1, 2, 3, and 4 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q81. Which of the following represents an underlying assumption made by the author in concluding 
that Arctic exceptionalism is being "permanently extinguished"? 
(a) Resolving sovereign disputes requires completely excluding non-littoral distant-water fishing fleets 
from all international polar high-seas pockets. 
(b) Competitive national security interests and military expansion are fundamentally incompatible with 
sustained peaceful, collaborative regional governance. 
(c) Restoring the region's environmental stability will naturally rebuild historical ice barriers once all 
unilateral naval maneuvers cease. 
(d) Devaluation of blue -economy assets will inevitably force littoral states to permanently terminate 
domestic commercial seafood consumption. 

 
 
(e) Nuclear submarine patrols are inherently incapable of maintaining long -term operational 
capabilities beneath melting polar ice formations. 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q82. With reference to the militarization and economic dynamics detailed in the passage, analyze the 
following statements: 
1. Rapidly melting ice sheets removed historical environmental barriers, converting the Arctic Ocean 
into an accessible domain for marine route exploitation. 
2. Subsidies provided by Nation C to its distant-water industrial fleets are framed under the justification 
of exercising freedom of navigation. 
3. The deployment of heavy icebreakers and nuclear-capable submarine patrols by Nation M prompted 
defensive counter-deployments by Nation W and its regional allies. 
4. Nordic states interpret Nation C’s naval presence primarily as a benign scientific mission aimed at 
mitigating ecosystem degradation. 
Which of the statements given above are CORRECT? 
(a) Only 1, 2, and 3 
(b) Only 2, 3, and 4 
(c) Only 1 and 4 
(d) Only 1, 3, and 4 
(e) All 1, 2, 3, and 4 
Ans.(a) 
 
Q83. Which of the following assertions regarding the economic and fiscal ramifications of the Arctic 
resource dispute is TRUE, based strictly on the text?  
(a) Depressed commercial yield forecasts forced littoral governments to eliminate domestic fleet 
subsidies to offset shrinking national revenues. 
(b) The devaluation of blue -economy equities alleviated fiscal pressure on neighboring states by 
significantly lowering maritime logistics costs. 
(c) Unchecked resource exploitation destabilizes ecosystems and devalues equities, amplifying fiscal 
vulnerabilities and inflating supply-chain costs. 
(d) Nation W's robust seafood export sector successfully insulated its domestic economy from volatility 
caused by expansionist trawling quotas. 
(e) High-seas pockets remain completely insulated from ecosystem destabilization due to strict 
compliance with global fishing catch limits. 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q84. In structurally organizing the text, how does the author construct the logical transition from the 
localized disputes over Arctic fisheries outlined in the second paragraph to the broader systemic crises 
presented in the third and fourth paragraphs? 
(a) By transitioning from abstract geopolitical theories to a chronological historical record of Cold War 
maritime governance treaties. 
(b) By asserting that naval troop deployments serve as the primary direct cause of warming sea 
temperatures and shifting species patterns. 

 
 
(c) By refuting claims of dwindling bio -resources before introducing naval sonar reconnaissance 
operations across international high-seas pockets. 
(d) By contrasting sustainable yield policies in Nation W with an absence of forward-operating military 
installations across coastal territories. 
(e) By establishing local fisheries disputes as an economic catalyst that drives macro-fiscal devaluation 
and strategic militarization. 
Ans.(e) 
 
Q85. Evaluate the validity of the following statements regarding the geopolitical and macroeconomic 
transformations described in the High North: 
1. Strategic posturing in the Arctic theater manifested in forms such as deep -water sonar 
reconnaissance and fortified forward-operating bases. 
2. Devaluation of regional blue -economy equities reduced the necessity for littoral governments to 
provide state subsidies to domestic fishing fleets. 
3. The convergence of military expansion and economic distress threatens to dismantle the post -Cold 
War framework of peaceful scientific cooperation. 
4. Nation M possesses a limited northern coastline, forcing it to operate primarily within Nation W’s 
marine economic zones. 
Which of the statements given above are TRUE? 
(a) Only 1 and 2 
(b) Only 2 and 4 
(c) Only 1 and 3 
(d) Only 1, 3, and 4 
(e) All 1, 2, 3, and 4 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q86. In the question below, a few sentences have been given. Find out which of the following sentence(s) 
is/are INCORRECT . 
A. Had the manager communicated the revised targets earlier, the delay could have been avoided. 
B. The expert committee comprises of five senior members drawn from different departments. 
C. Neither the director nor the employees was informed about the change in the reporting schedule. 
(a) Only A 
(b) Both A and B 
(c) Both A and C 
(d) Both B and C 
(e) All A, B and C 
Ans.(d) 
 
Q87. In the question below, a few sentences have been given. Find out which of the following sentence(s) 
is/are ERROR-FREE. 
A. Being a seasoned negotiator, the deal was closed by Rohit within a few hours. 
B. The company’s profits have risen steadily since it had introduced the new pricing model. 
C. Not only did the committee reject the proposal, but it also demanded a thorough revision. 

 
 
(a) Only A 
(b) Both A and C 
(c) Only C 
(d) Both B and C 
(e) All A, B and C 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q88. In the question below, a few sentences have been given. Find out which of the following sentence(s) 
is/are ERROR-FREE. 
A. The board has decided to dispense with the services of the consultant who had failed to meet the 
targets. 
B. Hardly had the auditor finished the report when the management raised objections. 
C. The new policy is more superior to the previous one in terms of transparency. 
(a) Only A 
(b) Only B 
(c) Both A and B 
(d) Both B and C 
(e) All A, B and C 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q89. In the question below, a few sentences have been given. Find out which of the following sentence(s) 
is/are ERROR-FREE. 
A. She prefers working independently to being supervised at every step. 
B. There is less number of applicants this year compared to the previous year. 
C. Despite his repeated requests, the loan was not sanctioned until the documents were verified. 
(a) Only A 
(b) Only C 
(c) Both A and B 
(d) Both A and C 
(e) Both B and C 
Ans.(d) 
 
Q90. In the following question, a word is highlighted in the sentence given. Followed by few sentences 
are given using that word. Identify the sentences that have use the given word in the same meaning as 
used in the question statement. 
Analysts expect the company’s quarterly profits to dip sharply due to rising input costs. 
(A) Share prices are likely to dip slightly after the announcement of the new tax rules. 
(B) She had to dip the brush into the paint before touching up the wall. 
(C) Temperatures are expected to dip below freezing in the northern region tonight. 
(a) Only A 
(b) Both A and C 
(c) Only B 
(d) Both B and C 

 
 
(e) All A, B, C 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q91. In each of the following questions two equations are given. Solve these equations and give answer: 
I. (2x² + 11x + 15)/4 = 0 
II. 3y² + 13y + 14 = 0 
(a) x > y 
(b) x ≤ y 
(c) x = y or no relation can be established 
(d) x < y 
(e) x ≥ y 
Ans.(d) 
 
Directions (92-): The table below shows the ratio of male to female employees in four companies P , Q, 
R and S. It also shows the difference between the total number of males (males of P + Q + R + S) and the 
males of that particular company. Study the table carefully and answer the questions. 
Company Male : Female Total males – Males of that company 
P 4 : 5 540 
Q 3 : 2 750 
R 5 : 4 650 
S 7 : 3 760 
 
Q92. In company P , 40% of the males and 60% of the females are permanent employees. In company R, 
30% of the males and x% of the females are permanent employees. If the number of permanent 
employees in company R is 239 less than that in company P , find the value of x. 
(a) 40 
(b) 45 
(c) 50 
(d) 55 
(e) 60 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q93. 20% of the male employees of company P are transferred to company S, and 25% of the female 
employees of company R are transferred to company Q. Find the ratio of the total employees of company 
S to the total employees of company Q after these transfers. 
(a) 68 : 75 
(b) 75 : 68 
(c) 17 : 25 
(d) 34 : 45 
(e) None of these 
Ans.(a) 
 

 
 
Q94. The average number of female employees in all four companies together is what percent more 
than the average number of male employees in companies Q, R and S together? 
(a) 10% 
(b) 12.5% 
(c) 15% 
(d) 20% 
(e) 25% 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q95. Next year, the number of male employees in company P increases by 25% and the number of 
female employees decreases by 20%. In company Q, the number of male employees increases by x% and 
the number of female employees increases by 50%. If the total employees of Q next year are 40% of the 
total employees of P next year, find the value of x. 
(a) 12 
(b) 14 
(c) 16 
(d) 18 
(e) 20 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q96. Company S hires some new employees. The number of females hired is twice the number of males 
hired, and after hiring the ratio of male to female employees in S becomes 4 : 3. The total number of new 
employees hired by S is what percent of the female employees of company R? 
(a) 45% 
(b) 50% 
(c) 54% 
(d) 60% 
(e) 64% 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q97. In the following number series, find the positive value of q. 
220, q² + 20, 294, 415, 584, 873 
(a) 12 
(b) 13 
(c) 15 
(d) 16 
(e) 18 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q98. In each of the following questions two equations are given. Solve these equations and give answer: 
I. 7x²/5 + 3x/5 + 4 = 0 
II. y² – 26y + 169 = 0 
(a) x > y 
(b) x ≤ y 
(c) x = y or no relation can be established 
(d) x < y 
(e) x ≥ y 
Ans.(c) 
 

 
 
Directions ( 99-103): The first pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the total number of 
employees (Male + Female) in four companies P , Q, R and S. The second pie chart shows the number of 
female employees in these four companies. 
 
Notes: 
1. Total number of employees (Male + Female) in all four companies together = 1,600. 
2. The value of x is the same in both the pie charts. 
 
Q99. In company P , three-sevenths of the male employees and one-third of the female employees work 
in the night shift. In company Q, 25% of the male employees and 50% of the female employees work in 
the night shift. Find the ratio of night-shift employees in P to those in Q. 
(a) 4 : 5 
(b) 5 : 4 
(c) 3 : 4 
(d) 2 : 3 
(e) 5 : 6 
Ans.(a) 
 
Q100. The number of female employees in company S is what percent more than the total number of 
male employees in companies P and R together? 
(a) 9.09% 
(b) 10% 
(c) 11.11% 
(d) 12.5% 
(e) 14.28% 
Ans.(c) 

 
 
 
Q101. The average number of male employees in all four companies together is what percent of the 
total number of employees in company R? 
(a) 120% 
(b) 122.5% 
(c) 125% 
(d) 126.25% 
(e) 130% 
Ans.(d) 
 
Q102. In company P , 50% of the male employees and 60% of the female employees are married. In 
company S, 40% of the male employees and y% of the female employees are married. If the married 
employees in S are 45 more than those in P , find the value of y. 
(a) 35 
(b) 40 
(c) 45 
(d) 50 
(e) 55 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q103. 20% of the male employees of company Q and 10% of the female employees of company S are 
transferred to company R. Find the new ratio of male to female employees in company R. 
(a) 117 : 50 
(b) 50 : 117 
(c) 13 : 6 
(d) 9 : 4 
(e) 21 : 10 
Ans.(a) 
 
Q104. In each of the following questions two equations are given. Solve these equations and give 
answer: 
I. 12x² – 4x² + √(64x²) – 10 = 0 
II. y² – 15y + 56 = 0 
(a) x > y 
(b) x ≤ y 
(c) x = y or no relation can be established 
(d) x < y 
(e) x ≥ y 
Ans.(d) 
 
Q105. In the following number series, find the difference between the 4th term of the series and 4P . 
P , (P + 1)², 53, 88, 130 
(a) 64 
(b) 68 
(c) 72 
(d) 76 
(e) 80 
Ans.(c) 

 
 
 
Q106. ₹3,200 is invested in scheme A at 20% per annum compound interest (compounded annually) 
for 2 years. The amount received from scheme A is equal to the simple interest earned on a sum invested 
in scheme B at 15% per annum for 5 years. Find the sum invested in scheme B. 
(a) ₹5,824 
(b) ₹6,144 
(c) ₹6,400 
(d) ₹6,048 
(e) ₹6,256 
Ans.(b) 
 
Directions (107-111): The line graph shows the total number of bags manufactured by five companies 
A, B, C, D and E. The table shows the percentage of manufactured bags sold by each company. 
 
Company Sold bags (%) 
A P% 
B 5Q% 
C (90 – P)% 
D 45% 
E K% 
Notes: 
1. Total bags manufactured = Bags sold + Bags unsold. 
2. Q is the smallest two-digit prime number. 
3. The number of bags sold by company C is equal to the number of bags unsold by company A. 

 
 
 
Q107. The number of bags unsold by company E is equal to the number of bags sold by company A. Find 
the value of K. 
(a) 45 
(b) 50 
(c) 55 
(d) 60 
(e) 65 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q108. The total number of bags sold by companies A, C and D together is what percent of the total 
number of bags manufactured by company D? 
(a) 110% 
(b) 120% 
(c) 100% 
(d) 125% 
(e) 130% 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q109. Find the ratio of the total number of bags unsold by companies B and D together to the total 
number of bags sold by companies A and C together. 
(a) 37 : 30 
(b) 30 : 37 
(c) 11 : 9 
(d) 6 : 5 
(e) 7 : 6 
Ans.(a) 
 
Q110. The average number of bags unsold by companies A, B and D together is how much more than 
the average number of bags sold by companies A, C and D together? 
(a) 9 
(b) 10 
(c) 12 
(d) 11 
(e) 14 
Ans.(d) 
 
Q111. Company B sells each bag at Rs. 250. Company D sells each sold bag at Rs. 300 and later sells all 
its unsold bags at a 40% discount on Rs. 300. Find the difference between the total revenue of company 
D and that of company B. 
(a) Rs. 26,860 
(b) Rs. 27,660 
(c) Rs. 28,660 
(d) Rs. 29,460 
(e) Rs. 30,160 
Ans.(c) 
 

 
 
Q112. When digits of a first two-digit number are reversed, then the resulting number will become 75% 
of second two-digit number. The difference of squares of tens digit and units digit of the second number 
is 20. Find the first number. 
(a) 75 
(b) 81 
(c) 63 
(d) 84 
(e) 51 
Ans.(d) 
 
Q113. A wire is bend to form a circle, which enclosed an area of 154 cm². If the same wire bent in to 
form of square, then find the diagonal of the square. 
(a) 7√2 cm 
(b) 9√2 cm 
(c) 12√2 cm 
(d) 11√2 cm 
(e) 8√2 cm 
Ans.(d) 
 
Q114. An alloy of Zinc and nickel contains 35% of Nickel. A second alloy contains Nickel and Zinc in the 
ratio 3: 17. Find in what ratio should these two alloys be mixed so that the new mixture contains Nickle 
to Zinc in ratio of 1:4. 
(a) 2:3 
(b) 5:1 
(c) 3:5 
(d) 2:1 
(e) 1:3 
Ans.(e) 
 
Q115. What is the total number of cookies sold by shop Q? Three shops P , Q and R sell three types of 
cookies: Chocolate, Butterscotch and Almond. The total number of cookies sold by the three shops 
together is 1800. The numbers of Chocolate cookies sold by P , Q and R are in the ratio 4 : 6 : 3. The total 
number of Almond cookies sold by the three shops is 30 more than the total number of Butterscotch 
cookies. Shop P sold 216 Almond cookies, which is 30% of the total Almond cookies, and shop Q sold 
25% more Almond cookies than shop P . Shop P sold 150 Butterscotch cookies, while shop R sold one -
third of the total Butterscotch cookies. 
(a) 720 
(b) 740 
(c) 760 
(d) 780 
(e) 554 
Ans.(c) 
 

 
 
Q116. What is the ratio of Butterscotch cookies sold by shop Q to Almond cookies sold by shop R? Three 
shops P , Q and R sell three types of cookies: Chocolate, Butterscotch and Almond. The total number of 
cookies sold by the three shops together is 1800. The numbers of Chocolate cookies sold by P , Q and R 
are in the ratio 4 : 6 : 3. The total number of Almond cookies sold by the three shops is 30 more than the 
total number of Butterscotch cookies. Shop P sold 216 Almond cookies, which is 30% of the total 
Almond cookies, and shop Q sold 25% more Almond cookies than shop P . Shop P sold 150 Butterscotch 
cookies, while shop R sold one-third of the total Butterscotch cookies. 
(a) 155 : 117 
(b) 31 : 23 
(c) 155 : 108 
(d) 5 : 4 
(e) 117 : 155 
Ans.(a) 
 
Q117. Chocolate cookies sold by shop R are what percentage of the total cookies sold by shop R? 
(approx.) Three shops P , Q and R sell three types of cookies: Chocolate, Butterscotch and Almond. The 
total number of cookies sold by the three shops together is 1800. The numbers of Chocolate cookies 
sold by P , Q and R are in the ratio 4 : 6 : 3. The total number of Almond cookies sold by the three shops 
is 30 more than the total number of Butterscotch cookies. Shop P sold 216 Almond cookies, which is 
30% of the total Almond cookies, and shop Q sold 25% more Almond cookies than shop P . Shop P sold 
150 Butterscotch cookies, while shop R sold one-third of the total Butterscotch cookies. 
(a) 14.2% 
(b) 16.25% 
(c) 18.5% 
(d) 20.1% 
(e) 12.8% 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q118. What is the average number of Butterscotch cookies sold per shop, and by how much does it 
differ from the average number of Almond cookies sold per shop? Three shops P , Q and R sell three types 
of cookies: Chocolate, Butterscotch and Almond. The total number of cookies sold by the three shops 
together is 1800. The numbers of Chocolate cookies sold by P , Q and R are in the ratio 4 : 6 : 3. The total 
number of Almond cookies sold by the three shops is 30 more than the total number of Butterscotch 
cookies. Shop P sold 216 Almond cookies, which is 30% of the total Almond cookies, and shop Q sold 
25% more Almond cookies than shop P . Shop P sold 150 Butterscotch cookies, while shop R sold one -
third of the total Butterscotch cookies. 
(a) 230, 10 
(b) 240, 10 
(c) 230, 20 
(d) 240, 0 
(e) 220, 10 
Ans.(a) 
 

 
 
Q119. By what percent is the total number of cookies sold by shop Q more than that sold by shop P? 
(approx.) Three shops P , Q and R sell three types of cookies: Chocolate, Butterscotch and Almond. The 
total number of cookies sold by the three shops together is 1800. The numbers of Chocolate cookies 
sold by P , Q and R are in the ratio 4 : 6 : 3. The total number of Almond cookies sold by the three shops 
is 30 more than the total number of Butterscotch cookies. Shop P sold 216 Almond cookies, which is 
30% of the total Almond cookies, and shop Q sold 25% more Almond cookies than shop P . Shop P sold 
150 Butterscotch cookies, while shop R sold one-third of the total Butterscotch cookies. 
(a) 48.6% 
(b) 52.4% 
(c) 56.4% 
(d) 60.2% 
(e) 44.8% 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q120. What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? 
(You are not expected to calculate the exact value.) 
24.98 × 16.02 + 399.6 ÷ 20.05 = ? 
(a) 400 
(b) 410 
(c) 420 
(d) 430 
(e) 440 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q121. What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? 
(You are not expected to calculate the exact value.) 
7.98 × 5.02 + 12.05 = 6.01 × ? − 8.12 
(a) 10 
(b) 12 
(c) 15 
(d) 18 
(e) 20 
Ans.(a) 
 
Q122. What comes in place of the question mark (?) in the following equations? You are not required to 
calculate the exact value. 
?% of 1499.95 − 1/8 of 71.99 = 21.02² 
(a) 14 
(b) 30 
(c) 20 
(d) 16 
(e) 42 
Ans.(b) 

 
 
 
Q123. What approximate value will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions (You 
are not expected to calculate the exact value). 
 
(a) 908 
(b) 811 
(c) 837 
(d) 987 
(e) 766 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q124. What approximate value will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? 
(You are not expected to calculate the exact value.) 
39.98% of 250.12 + 199.85% of 40.05 = 79.92% of ? 
(a) 180 
(b) 200 
(c) 225 
(d) 240 
(e) 260 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q125. Calculate Quantity I and Quantity II on the basis of the given information then compare them and 
answer the following questions accordingly. 
 
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II 
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II 
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II 
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II 
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q126. Each equation below contains a statement followed by Quantity I and Quantity II. You have to 
study the information along with question and compare the value derived from Quantity I and Quantity 
II, give the answer. 
A vessel contains 7.5 liters of water and 30 liters of milk. When 20% of the mixture from the vessel 
remove and x liters of water is added in the remaining mixture, then the ratio of milk to water reverse 

 
 
in resulting mixture. If y liters of milk are added again, then the ratio of water and milk in final mixture 
again reverse. 
 
(a) Quantity I = Quantity II or No relation 
(b) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II 
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II 
(d) Quantity I < Quantity II 
(e) Quantity I > Quantity II 
Ans.(a) 
 
Q127. A cube of side x meters is placed inside a room such that one face touches the ground and one 
vertical face touches a wall. The remaining four faces are painted at the rate of Rs. 15 per square meter. 
If the total cost of painting is Rs. 2160, find the side length of the cube. 
Quantity I: (x + 3) 
Quantity II: 9 
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II 
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II 
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II 
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II 
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation 
Ans.(e) 
 
Q128. In the given questions, two quantities are given, one as ‘Quantity I’ and another as ‘Quantity II’. 
You have to determine relationship between two quantities and choose the appropriate option. 
Compare only numerical values 
Quantity-l: S invested Rs. P at 18% p.a. simple interest. After 8 years, total amount accumulated with 
him is Rs. 8784. Find the value of P . 
Quantity-II: A invested Rs. (Q+1200) at 15% p.a. simple interest for 4 years and Rs. (Q-1600) at 20% p.a. 
compound interest (compounded annually) for 2 years. If total interest earned by A is Rs. 4176, then 
find the value of Q. 
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II 
(b) Quantity I < Quantity II 
(c) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II 
(d) Quantity I ≤ Quantity II 
(e) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q129. In each question, two groups I and II are given. Match the statements to determine sufficient 
combinations. 
What is the speed of boat X in still water? 
Group I 

 
 
A. Speed of boat X and Y in still water are in ratio 3 : 2. 
B. Boat Y covers 176 km downstream in 8 hours 
Group II 
P . Sum of downstream speed of boat Y and upstream speed of boat X is 40 km/h 
Q Upstream speed of boat X is 8 km/h more than that of boat Y 
(a) AP , BQ 
(b) BP 
(c) AQ 
(d) AP , AQ 
(e) BP , BQ 
Ans.(d) 
 
Q130. Shobhit and Naman were travelling from point P to point Q, simultaneously. Find the distance 
between point P and point Q. 
Statement I: The time taken by Shobhit to reach point Q was 72 minutes more than the time taken by 
Naman and the ratio of the speed of Shobhit and Naman was 4:5, respectively. 
Statement II: The ratio of the speed of Shobhit and Naman was 4: 5, respectively and the distance 
between Shobhit and Naman was 57.6 km at the time when Naman had reached point Q. 
The following questions are accompanied by two statements i.e. statement (I) and statement (II). You 
have to determine which statement (s) is/are sufficient/necessary to answer the questions. 
(a) Neither statement (I) nor statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question. 
(b) Statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (I) alone is not sufficient to 
answer the question. 
(c) Either statement (I) or statement (II) by itself is sufficient to answer the question. 
(d) Both the statements taken together are necessary to answer the questions, but neither of the 
statements alone is sufficient to answer the question. 
(e) Statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement (II) alone is not sufficient to 
answer the questions 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q131. If 16 men and 24 women together can complete a work in 20 days, then to find number of days 
in which 24 men and 24 women together can complete the same work which of the following statement 
or statements is/ are required. 
I. 12 men and 30 women together can complete the same work in 20 days. 
II. Total work done by two men is equal to the total work done by three women. 
III. 32 men can do 50% of the same work in 10 days. 
(a) Any one of them 
(b) Only III alone or either I and II together 
(c) Only II alone or either I and III together 
(d) Any two statements out of three 
(e) Either I or II 
Ans.(a) 
 

 
 
Q132. Veer and Ayush starts a business with the initial capital of Rs. 5000 and Rs. 6000 respectively. 
After four months, Shivam joined them with the capital of Rs. (P) and at the same time Veer withdrew 
Rs. 3000 from his initial investment. After four more months, Ayush left the business. If, at the end of 1 
year from the beginning, total profit from the business is Rs.3200 and share of Shivam is Rs.800, then 
find Rs. (1000 + P). 
(a) 4000 Rs. 
(b) 5500 Rs. 
(c) 4500 Rs. 
(d) 4200 Rs. 
(e) None of these 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q133. Salary of B is 166.67% of his brother A. A and B gave their salary of "x" months and "y" months 
respectively to their father. Their father distributed the total amount equally between them such that 
each of them receives Rs. 126000. If the ratio of x and y is 5:4, what is the difference of the total amount 
(in Rs) given A and B to their father? 
(a) 32000 
(b) 22000 
(c) 36000 
(d) 28000 
(e) 39000 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q134. The average score obtained by A, B and C is 60. B’s score is 20 more than that of C and A score 16 
less than B. If average score of A & D is ‘P’ (where, 69 < P < 77) and score of D is X% more than B, then 
which of the following option/s is/are true. (Note: P is a prime number. X is multiple of five and integer) 
(a) P-X= 7² -1 
(b) P < X 
(c) 0.5X + 8.5 < P 
(d) Both (a) and (c) 
(e) Both (a) and (b) 
Ans.(d) 
 
Q135. A vessel contains 160 liters’ mixture of milk and water and the quantity of water is 60%. If 40 
liters of mixture is taken out and 8 liters of water is added into the vessel, then find the ratio of milk to 
water in the new mixture. 
(a) 3:5 
(b) 3:4 
(c) 5:3 
(d) 5:4 
(e) 1:1 
Ans.(a) 
 

 
 
Q136. The ratio of the lengths of train 'Z' to 'Y' is 3:7. The speed of train 'Z' is 36 km/hr and the speed 
of train 'Y' is 72 km/hr. If both trains are running towards each other and cross one another in 24 
seconds, then find the length of train 'Y'? 
(a) 560 meters 
(b) 490 meters 
(c) 420 meters 
(d) 504 meters 
(e) 500 meters 
Ans.(d) 
 
Q137. The speed of stream is 10 km/hr and speed of a boat is 

5th of the speed of stream. The boat travels 280 km downstream with its usual speed, after that it’s 
increased speed by ‘x’ km/hr and travelled for another 280 km then it returns and covers 560 km in 
upstream. The boat takes 45 hours to complete whole journey downstream and upstream. If speed of a 
bus is ‘5x’ km/hr and it takes ‘0.5x’ hours to cover ‘d+60’ km distance, then find value of ‘d’? 
(a) 240 
(b) 400 
(c) 320 
(d) 300 
(e) 200 
Ans.(d) 
 
Q138. A and B started the work alternatively starting with A. On last day, A completed the work by doing 
12.5% of the whole work. Which of the following can be the possible value of time taken by B alone to 
do that work if A alone can do the whole work in 6 days? 
(a) 15 days 
(b) 8 days 
(c) 10 days 
(d) 6 days 
(e) 12 days 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q139. A boat covers ______ km upstream in 6 hours and 68 km downstream in 4 hours. The difference 
between the downstream speed and the upstream speed of the boat is 6 km/h. Find the value that will 
come in the blank. 
(a) 60 
(b) 64 
(c) 66 
(d) 72 
(e) 78 
Ans.(c) 
 

 
 
Q140. If one series is 4.5, 12, 40, 165, 831, 4993 and another series which follows same pattern as given 
series is 7.5, __, __, __, __, a, then find value of 2a 
(a) 14308 
(b) 7153 
(c) 14306 
(d) 14310 
(e) 14318 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q141. In the following questions, the symbols ‘@’, ‘$’, ‘*’ and ‘#’ are used with the meanings given below. 
Study the information carefully and answer the questions. 
In the relation ‘ A $ B * C # D $ E’, how is E related to C? 
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’ 
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’ 
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’ 
‘P # Q’ means ‘Q is daughter of P’ 
(a) Mother 
(b) Aunt 
(c) Sister 
(d) Grandchild 
(e) Cousin 
Ans.(d) 
 
Q142. In the following questions, the symbols ‘@’, ‘$’, ‘*’ and ‘#’ are used with the meanings given below. 
Study the information carefully and answer the questions. 
If K is the husband of C, then how is K related to B in the expression ‘G @ C * H # F * B’?  
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’ 
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’ 
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’ 
‘P # Q’ means ‘Q is daughter of P’ 
(a) Father 
(b) Brother 
(c) Uncle 
(d) Grandfather 
(e) Cousin 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q143. In the following questions, the symbols ‘@’, ‘$’, ‘*’ and ‘#’ are used with the meanings given below. 
Study the information carefully and answer the questions. 
In the relation ‘J # H $ C * Y @ Z, how many female members are there in the family?  
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is father of Q’ 
‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’ 
‘P * Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’ 

 
 
‘P # Q’ means ‘Q is daughter of P’ 
(a) Three 
(b) Four 
(c) Two 
(d) Five 
(e) Can’t be determined 
Ans.(e) 
 
Directions (144-148): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. 
Seven boxes, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are kept one above another in seven different shelves. Each box has a 
different colour: Red, Blue, Green, Yellow, Pink, White and Violet, but not necessarily in the same order. 
More than four boxes are kept above the box which is Red. There are three boxes kept between the boxes 
which are Red and Blue. One box is kept between the box which is Blue and Box G. Box G is kept two 
boxes above Box D. More than two boxes are kept betwee n Box D and Box E which is kept two boxes 
below the box which is Green. The White box is kept four boxes above Box A. Box B is kept below Box A. 
Box B is neither Pink nor Yellow and is kept two boxes below Box C. Box C is not of Pink colour. 
 
Q144. Which box is Violet in colour? 
(a) Box A 
(b) Box B 
(c) Box C 
(d) Box F 
(e) Box G 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q145. Which box is kept three boxes below yellow box? 
(a) Pink box 
(b) Box G 
(c) Red box 
(d) Box F 
(e) Box C 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q146. How many boxes are kept between Box F and the green box? 
(a) None 
(b) One 
(c) Two 
(d) Three 
(e) Four 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q147. Which of the following combinations is correct? 
(a) G – Pink 

 
 
(b) B – Yellow 
(c) A – Violet 
(d) E – Green 
(e) D – Blue 
Ans.(e) 
 
Q148. As many boxes are kept above Box E as below ______ coloured box. 
(a) Yellow 
(b) Violet 
(c) Green 
(d) Pink 
(e) White 
Ans.(e) 
 
Directions (149-151): In the following questions, the symbols #, , ^, @, and $ represent the meanings 
explained below: 
‘P#Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’ 
‘P*Q’ means ‘P is neither equal to nor smaller than Q’ 
‘P^Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’ 
‘P@Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor greater than Q’ 
‘P$Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’ 
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statement to be true, find which of the 
conclusions given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly. 
 
Q149. Statements: K # H @ G ^ D * F $ C 
Conclusions: 
I. K $ F 
II. D * K 
(a) If only conclusion I follows. 
(b) If only conclusion II follows. 
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows. 
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. 
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow. 
Ans.(d) 
 
Q150. Statements: Z # X @ U * Q @ R $ Y 
Conclusions: 
I. Q * Z 
II. Y * Q 
(a) If only conclusion I follows. 
(b) If only conclusion II follows. 
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows. 
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. 

 
 
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow. 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q151. Statements: S # V @ T ^ U $ W * O 
Conclusions: 
I. V * W 
II. V # W 
(a) If only conclusion I follows. 
(b) If only conclusion II follows. 
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows. 
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows. 
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow. 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q152. In a certain code “MONDAY” is coded as “NPMCBZ” and “SUNDAY” is coded as “TVMCBZ” , then 
what will be the code for the word “FRIDAY”? 
(a) ESHCBZ 
(b) GSHCBZ 
(c) FSHDBZ 
(d) ESICBZ 
(e) EQHCBZ 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q153. In the word CONVERSATION, the letters to the left of S are changed to the immediately preceding 
letter and the letters to the right of S are changed to the immediately succeeding letter. Then, in the new 
arrangement, remove the repeated letters. How many letters are left in the new word thus formed? 
(a) Seven 
(b) Six 
(c) Nine 
(d) Eight 
(e) Ten 
Ans.(d) 
 
Directions ( 154-159): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given 
below. 
Eight persons, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, were born in eight different months, viz. January, March, April, 
May, June, August, October and December, but not necessarily in the same order. Each of them likes a 
different flower, viz. Rose, Lily, Jasmine, Lotus, Tulip, Marigold, Orchid and Sunflower, but not necessarily 
in the same order. 
F was born three months before A. The one who likes Orchid was born immediately before F. More than 
three persons were born between the ones who likes orchid and rose. As many persons were born after 
the one who likes rose as before G who likes sunflower. G was born four persons before D. D was born 
two months before the one who likes lily. E was born seven months before C who was born immediately 

 
 
after the one who likes lotus. A doesn’t like lotus. The one who likes tulip was born immediately after 
the one who likes jasmine. B was born before the one who likes marigold. 
 
Q154. How many months are there between the months in which B and the one who likes Jasmine were 
born? 
(a) None 
(b) One 
(c) Two 
(d) Three 
(e) Four 
Ans.(d) 
 
Q155. Who among the following likes Rose? 
(a) A 
(b) C 
(c) E 
(d) F 
(e) H 
Ans.(e) 
 
Q156. Which among the following statements is true? 
(a) E was born before B. 
(b) The one who likes Orchid was born in June. 
(c) C likes Lily and was born in December. 
(d) F was not born before A 
(e) H likes Marigold 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q157. Which among the following combinations is correct? 
(a) G – Lily – August 
(b) D – Jasmine – June 
(c) H – Rose – May 
(d) E – Jasmine – May 
(e) B – Tulip – October 
Ans.(d) 
 
Q158. In which month was A born? 
(a) January 
(b) March 
(c) June 
(d) August 
(e) October 
Ans.(c) 

 
 
 
Q159. F was born in which month and likes which flower?  
(a) January. Rose 
(b) March, Lily 
(c) March, Marigold 
(d) May, Jasmine 
(e) None of these 
Ans.(c) 
 
Directions (160-164): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. 
Input: Owl Tub Gym Ink Rod Van Elm Yak Nut Lap 
Step I: Yak Owl Tub Gym Ink Rod Van Nut Lap Elm 
Step II: Van Yak Owl Tub Ink Rod Nut Lap Elm Gym 
Step III: Tub Van Yak Owl Rod Nut Lap Elm Gym Ink 
Step IV: Rod Tub Van Yak Owl Nut Elm Gym Ink Lap 
Step V: Owl Rod Tub Van Yak Elm Gym Ink Lap Nut 
Step V is the last step of the given example. Illustrate the above input arrangement and obtain the steps 
for the asked input given below: 
Input: Pig Win Axe Urn Box Fig Hub Kit Sky Dew 
 
Q160. Which of the following is the fifth element from the left end in Step V? 
(a) Urn 
(b) Win 
(c) Sky 
(d) Axe 
(e) Pig 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q161. Which element is exactly between ‘Urn’ and ‘ Axe’ in Step IV? 
(a) Sky 
(b) Kit 
(c) Win 
(d) Pig 
(e) Hub 
Ans.(e) 
 
Q162. What is the position of ‘Sky’ with respect to ‘Kit’ in Step III? 
(a) Third to the left 
(b) Sixth to the left 
(c) Fourth to the right 
(d) Fifth to the left 
(e) Third to the right 
Ans.(b) 

 
 
 
Q163. Which of the following pairs of elements are present in the same sequence and in the same 
manner in Step I and Step V? 
(a) Pig – Urn 
(b) Kit – Sky 
(c) Box – Dew 
(d) Fig – Hub 
(e) Win – Pig 
Ans.(d) 
 
Q164. Which of the following is third from the right end in Step II? 
(a) Axe 
(b) Sky 
(c) Box 
(d) Kit 
(e) Dew 
Ans.(e) 
 
Directions ( 165-168): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given 
below: 
A ★ B means All A are B 
B ◆ A means No A are B 
A ▲ B means Only a few A are B 
A ● B means Some A are B 
Assume the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. 
Read all the conclusions carefully and decide which conclusion logically follows. 
 
Q165. Statements: 
Apple ★ Fruits 
Fruits ▲ Basket 
Basket ◆ Plate 
Plate ● Table 
Conclusions: 
I. Some fruits are not plate 
II. Some apple being table is a possibility 
(a) If only conclusion I follows 
(b) If only conclusion II follows 
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows 
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows 
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow 
Ans.(e) 
 

 
 
Q166. Statements: 
Car ● Road 
Road ★ Path 
Path ◆ Lane 
Conclusions: 
I. Some cars are path 
II. All lane being road is a possibility. 
(a) If only conclusion I follows 
(b) If only conclusion II follows 
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows 
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows 
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow 
Ans.(a) 
 
Q167. Statements: 
Tea ▲ Cup 
Cup ★ Glass 
Glass ● Jug 
Conclusions: 
I. All Jug can never be Tea 
II. Some Tea is not Glass 
(a) If only conclusion I follows 
(b) If only conclusion II follows 
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows 
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows 
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow 
Ans.(d) 
 
Q168. Statements: 
Lion ▲ Animal 
Animal ◆ Stone 
Stone ◆ Rock 
Conclusions: 
I. No Lion are Rock 
II. Some Lion are Rock 
(a) If only conclusion I follows 
(b) If only conclusion II follows 
(c) If either conclusion I or II follows 
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II follows 
(e) If both conclusions I and II follow 
Ans.(c) 
 

 
 
Directions (169-174): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below. 
Eight persons, i.e. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H, live in two different flats, i.e. Flat P and Flat Q, of a four -floor 
building. The lowermost floor is numbered 1 and the floor just above it is numbered 2, and so on till the 
topmost floor is numbered 4. Flat P is to the west of Flat Q, whereas Flat P of floor 2 is immediately 
above Flat P of floor 1, and Flat Q of floor 2 is immediately above Flat Q of floor 1. 
Each of them likes a different colour: Red, Blue, Green, Yellow, Pink, White, Violet and Black, but not 
necessarily in the same order. 
The one who likes red lives two floors below the one who likes Blue. The one who likes blue lives on an 
even-numbered floor. E lives to the south -west of the one who likes red. C lives to the west of the one 
who likes green colour. C lives two floors above the one who likes pink. E doesn’t like pink. H lives three 
floors above A. H doesn’t like blue. H lives two floors above the one who likes white. B lives immediately 
above the one who likes white colour. D lives three floors above the one who likes black colour. Yellow 
lives two floors above G who doesn’t like white. The one who likes Yellow doesn’t live in Flat P . 
 
Q169. Four of the following five pairs are alike in a certain way and form a group. Which one does not 
belong to the group? 
(a) D – Blue 
(b) C – Violet 
(c) F – White 
(d) E – Black 
(e) H – Yellow 
Ans.(e) 
 
Q170. Who lives south-east of F? 
(a) The one who likes red 
(b) B 
(c) The one who likes yellow 
(d) Both (b) and (c) 
(e) G 
Ans.(d) 
 
Q171. G lives on which floor and flat? 
(a) Floor 3, Flat P 
(b) Floor 2, Flat P 
(c) Floor 2, Flat Q 
(d) Floor 4, Flat Q 
(e) Floor 3, Flat Q 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q172. E likes which colour? 
(a) Pink 
(b) Black 
(c) Red 

 
 
(d) Violet 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q173. Which of the following statements is/are true? 
I. The one who likes Red lives immediately above the one who likes Pink. 
II. The one who likes Green lives in Flat Q. 
III. The one who likes White lives immediately south-west of C. 
(a) Only I 
(b) Only I and II 
(c) Only II and III 
(d) All I, II and III 
(e) None is true 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q174. Who lives immediately north-east of the one who likes Black? 
(a) The one who likes Blue 
(b) The one who lives to the east of E 
(c) The one who likes Violet 
(d) C 
(e) G 
Ans.(e) 
 
Q175. Six people have different weights. D is not the heaviest among all. A is heavier than N but lighter 
than D. The weight of S is thrice of A. M is heavier than T , neither of them has more weight than N. Who 
among the following is fourth heaviest? 
(a) D 
(b) S 
(c) N 
(d) M 
(e) Can’t be determined 
Ans.(c) 
 
Directions (176-179): Read the given information carefully and answer the related questions: 
In a certain code language: 
“Clock Mango Fork” is coded as “28Z@, 17L#, 14O#” 
“Bottle Milk Window” is coded as “24R#, 7L@, 46R@” 
“Chair Lamp Spoon” is coded as “33K@, 21S@, 28Z#” 
“Pencil Bus Rice” is coded as “23R@, 28V@, 21F#” 
 
Q176. What is the code for “Staircase” in the given code language? 
(a) 24T@ 
(b) 29G@ 
(c) 24G@ 

 
 
(d) 46L@ 
(e) None of these 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q177. “9Z#” is coded for which of the following words? 
(a) Cup 
(b) Door 
(c) Bag 
(d) Book 
(e) Fan 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q178. What is the code for “Pillow” in the given code language? 
(a) 39R# 
(b) 39L@ 
(c) 37R@ 
(d) 39R@ 
(e) 39I@ 
Ans.(d) 
 
Q179. What is the code for “Sofa Tree”? 
(a) 20L#, 25I@ 
(b) 20L@, 25I@ 
(c) 20L@, 25R@ 
(d) 25L@, 20I@ 
(e) 20Z@, 25I@ 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q180. In each number, first arrange all the digits in descending order from the left end. Then multiply 
the third digit and the sixth digit of the new number from left end. In which option is this product the 
second highest? 
(a) 4829163 
(b) 7068254 
(c) 7461953 
(d) 5936728 
(e) 6794235 
Ans.(d) 
 
Q181. Five persons A, B, C, D and E were born in five different years: 1988, 1991, 1993, 1996 and 1999, 
all in the same year. Their ages are measured from 2026. All information is not necessarily in the same 
order. 
D's age is divisible by 3. D is elder than B. Two persons were born between B and C. A was born before 
C. E was not born before D. What is the sum of ages of E and A? 

 
 
(a) 70 
(b) 73 
(c) 68 
(d) 72 
(e) 65 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q182. In the following question, a few statements have been given. Analyze the given statements and 
answer whether the data given in the statements are sufficient to answer the question or not. 
Five patients (P , Q, R, S, and T) have appointments on different days of the week from Monday to Friday. 
On which day does patient R have an appointment? 
Statement I: Patient P's appointment is two days before patient Q's. Patient R's appointment is just after 
patient Q's appointment. 
Statement II: Patient T's appointment is on Friday and patient S's appointment is three days before 
patient T's appointment. Patient R's appointment is not on Wednesday. 
(a) If statement I alone is sufficient 
(b) If both statements I and II are sufficient 
(c) If neither statement I nor II is sufficient 
(d) If either statement I or II is sufficient 
(e) If only statement II is sufficient 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q183. The following question below, consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given 
below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the 
question. Read both the statements and give answer. 
Six boxes A, B, C, D, E and F are placed one above the other but not necessarily in the same order . Which 
box is placed at the bottommost position? 
Statement I: Two boxes are placed between box D and box B. No box is placed between box A and box E. 
Box E is placed above the box F. 
Statement II: One box is placed between box E and box C. The numbers of boxes are placed above box C 
is same as the numbers of boxes are placed below box A. No box is placed above the box D. 
(a) If the data in statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II 
alone are not sufficient in answer the question. 
(b) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 
(c) If either the data in statement I alone or in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question. 
(d) If the data in both the statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. 
(e) If the data in statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I 
alone are not sufficient to answer the question. 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q184. The question below consists of a question and two statements numbered as I and II given below 
it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. 
Read both statements and give answers of the questions given below. 

 
 
What is the direction of A with respect to G? 
Statement I: Point H is to the west of point A which is to the north of point F. Point D is to the south of 
point E. Point C is to the south of point A. 
Statement II: Point C is to the southwest of point G and to the north of point F. Point H is to the northwest 
of point G. Point E is to the west of point G. 
(a) If the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II 
alone is not sufficient to answer the question. 
(b) If the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I 
alone is not sufficient to answer the question. 
(c) If the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question. 
(d) If the data given in both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question. 
(e) If the data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question. 
Ans.(e) 
 
Directions (185-190): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions. 
A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Each of them is a manager of 
different departments HR, Sales, Marketing, Finance, Operations, IT , Production, and Research (not 
necessarily in the same order). 
A sits 2nd to the left of F who is the manager of Marketing. The manager of Finance and the manager of 
IT sit opposite to each other. The one who is manager of production sits 3rd to the right of C. The one 
who is manager of research faces C but not an imm ediate neighbour of F. F is not an immediate 
neighbour of the manager of Finance and the manager of IT . The one who is a manager of sales faces the 
one who sits just right of H. B sits 2nd to the right of the one who is a manager of operation. B is not a 
manager of research. The manager of HR and the manager of IT are not an immediate neighbour. D is 
not an immediate neighbour of G and A. 
 
Q185. Which manager sits between the Manager of Sales and the Manager of Operation when counted 
clockwise direction from the manager of Operation? 
(a) The Manager of Finance 
(b) The Manager of Marketing 
(c) None of these 
(d) The Manager of Production 
(e) The Manager of IT 
Ans.(b) 
 
Q186. If the Manager of Finance sits 3rd to the left of the Manager of Operation, then who sits immediate 
right of the one who is a Manager of Finance? 
(a) B 
(b) C 
(c) D 
(d) E 
(e) G 
Ans.(e) 

 
 
 
Q187. Which of the following statement is true? 
I. A faces the one who sits just right of C 
II. E is not a manager of operation 
III. Two persons sit between A and H 
(a) Only II 
(b) All I, II and III 
(c) Both I and II 
(d) Both II and III 
(e) Only I 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q188. The Manager of HR faces which of the following managers? 
(a) The Manager of Finance 
(b) The Manager of Operations 
(c) The Manager of Sales 
(d) The Manager of Research 
(e) The Manager of IT 
Ans.(c) 
 
Q189. _____ is the manager of ______ and sits 2nd to the right of the one who is a manager of _____. 
(a) A, IT , Marketing 
(b) C, Finance, IT 
(c) E, HR, Sales 
(d) D, Production, Finance 
(e) None of these 
Ans.(d) 
 
Q190. Choose the correct combination. 
(a) A - Research 
(b) G - Marketing 
(c) H - Finance 
(d) H - Operation 
(e) D - HR 
Ans.(c)

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