SBI Clerk Prelims Exam Previous Year Question Paper 2026 with Answer Key and Free PDF Download link Online
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SBI Clerk Pre Memory Based Paper (26th September 2026 S1)
Q1. Identify the sentence that is grammatically incorrect.
(a) The committee has finalized the agenda for tomorrow's meeting.
(b) Neither the manager nor the clerks was aware of the new policy.
(c) She has been working at this branch since 2019.
(d) The reports, along with the annexures, were submitted on time.
(e) The auditor verified every entry before signing the ledger.
Ans.(b)
Q2. Identify the sentence that is grammatically incorrect.
(a) The consignment, which arrived late, was inspected thoroughly by customs.
(b) He is one of the few officers who has never missed a deadline.
(c) By the time the auditor arrives, the accountant will have finished the ledger.
(d) The number of unresolved complaints has decreased over the last quarter.
(e) The manager approved the loan after reviewing the applicant's credit history.
Ans.(b)
Q3. Identify the sentence that is grammatically incorrect.
(a) The data shows a consistent rise in NPA figures over five years.
(b) Every employee must submit their identity proof by Friday.
(c) The manager insisted that the report be revised immediately.
(d) Not only he cleared the exam but also secured a top rank.
(e) The board approved the merger after months of negotiation.
Ans.(d)
Q4. Identify the sentence that is grammatically incorrect.
(a) If she would have applied earlier, she would have gotten the loan approved.
(b) The chairman, as well as the directors, is expected to attend the AGM.
(c) It was he who raised the objection during the board meeting.
(d) Scarcely had the market opened when prices began to fall.
(e) The regional office submitted its annual report ahead of schedule.
Ans.(a)
Q5. Identify the sentence that is grammatically correct.
(a) Neither the lead engineer nor the technicians was able to resolve the system error.
(b) The collection of rare coins, along with several ancient artifacts, were displayed at the museum.
(c) The board of directors have approved the annual budget after a lengthy discussion.
(d) Harder had he tried to explain the situation, the more confused everyone became.
(e) Either the branch manager or the account officers are required to sign the transaction log.
Ans.(e)
Directions (6-9): A sentence containing a highlighted phrasal verb is given below. Five phrasal verbs are provided as options. Select the phrasal verb that can correctly replace the highlighted phrasal verb to make the sentence contextually and grammatically correct.
Q6. The manager asked the staff to slow down the process before the deadline.
(a) turn down
(b) take up
(c) bring about
(d) speed up
(e) come across
Ans.(d)
Q7. After months of struggle, he finally decided to carry on his old habit of smoking.
(a) give up
(b) put off
(c) look up
(d) break down
(e) call off
Ans.(a)
Q8. The players had to go ahead the match due to heavy rain.
(a) cut down
(b) hold up
(c) call off
(d) look after
(e) fall behind
Ans.(c)
Q9. The company had to take on several employees due to the recession.
(a) drop out
(b) give in
(c) carry out
(d) set up
(e) lay off
Ans.(e)
Q10. Due to the garden club being (A) so new to me and only treated (B) once a month, everyone meeting (C) me as their acquaintance (D).
In the question given below four words are given in bold. These four words are may not be in their correct position. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that replace each other.
(a) A-D
(b) B-C
(c) A-D & B-C
(d) B-D
(e) No interchange required
Ans.(b)
Directions (11-13): In the question given below four words are given in bold. These four words are may not be in their correct position. The sentence is then followed by options with the correct combination of words that should replace each other in order to make the sentence grammatically and contextually correct. Find the correct combination of the words that replace each other.
Q11. Not saved (A) to energy (B) herself, the dancer wanting (C) her exhaust (D) for the performance.
(a) (A)-(C)
(b) (B)-(D)
(c) (A)-(C) and (B)-(D)
(d) (A)-(D) and (B)-(C)
(e) No interchange required
Ans.(c)
Q12. Now that the skins (A) is about to declare bankruptcy, (B) upper level managers are looking for a scapegoat (C) to save their own company (D).
(a) (A)-(B)
(b) (B)-(C)
(c) (A)-(D) and (C)-(B)
(d) (A)-(D)
(e) No interchange required
Ans.(d)
Q13. I hope I do not explain (A) across as readers (B) when I come (C) my new novel to my pompous (D).
(a) (A)-(C)
(b) (B)-(D)
(c) (A)-(B) and (C)-(D)
(d) (B)-(D) and (A)-(C)
(e) No interchange required
Ans.(d)
Q14. In the question below, a part is omitted which is then replaced by a blank. Choose the word from the given options that will fit into the blank most appropriately.
Unlike most houseplants, succulents are remarkably __________ and can survive for weeks without water.
(a) fragrant
(b) colourful
(c) hardy
(d) seasonal
(e) exotic
Ans.(c)
Q15. In the question below, a part is omitted which is then replaced by a blank. Choose the word from the given options that will fit into the blank most appropriately.
The candidate's speech was full of ____ promises, but voters noticed that it offered no concrete plan for achieving any of them.
(a) practical
(b) punctual
(c) legal
(d) grandiose
(e) secretive
Ans.(d)
Q16. In the question below, a part is omitted which is then replaced by a blank. Choose the word from the given options that will fit into the blank most appropriately.
Despite suffering a painful cramp at the halfway mark, the runner ____ and went on to finish among the top ten.
(a) persevered
(b) apologised
(c) complained
(d) collapsed
(e) relented
Ans.(a)
Q17. In the question below, a part is omitted which is then replaced by a blank. Choose the word from the given options that will fit into the blank most appropriately.
Much of the deep ocean remains ____, with scientists estimating that the majority of its species have yet to be discovered.
(a) polluted
(b) unexplored
(c) shallow
(d) crowded
(e) turbulent
Ans.(b)
Directions (18-22): Given below are five sentences. Rearrange them in the correct order to form a meaningful paragraph and answer the questions that follow.
(A) Meanwhile, the analyst focused on interpreting financial data and identifying patterns that had gone unnoticed in earlier studies.
(B) The journalist contributed by gathering firsthand accounts and media reports from the period surrounding the crash.
(C) Realizing the scale of research involved, he sought the support of a journalist and an analyst, both of whom were highly respected women in their fields.
(D) With their combined efforts, Arnav was able to complete a case study that offered a far more comprehensive picture than he could have achieved alone.
(E) Arnav, a well-known economist, decided to undertake a detailed case study on the causes and aftermath of the US market crash.
Q18. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Ans.(e)
Q19. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Ans.(c)
Q20. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Ans.(b)
Q21. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Ans.(a)
Q22. Which of the following will be the LAST sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E
Ans.(d)
Directions (23-30): Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
Ken made his international debut for the Australian national cricket team as a highly promising middle-order batsman, earning early praise for his natural strokeplay, elegant shot selection, and calm demeanor at the crease. However, his initial stint at the highest level proved short-lived and challenging. Following a frustrating string of low scores during a grueling home series, national selectors decided to drop him from the active playing squad. Rather than letting the sudden setback derail his professional career, Ken resolved to rebuild his batting technique and prove his true worth on foreign soil. He made the strategic decision to travel to England to compete in county cricket, seeking to test his skills against unfamiliar conditions, heavy swing, and seasoned international bowlers.
Playing on damp, seam-friendly English pitches required an exceptional level of resilience and mental discipline. Ken spent endless hours in the nets refining his defensive posture, working tirelessly to eliminate the minor technical flaws that had previously exposed him at the international level. During his long months away from home, he deeply missed the intense thrill and honor of representing his nation on the big stage, yet he stayed remarkably patient, composed, and dedicated to improving his craft.
His relentless hard work quickly bore fruit on the field. Match after match, Ken consistently transformed difficult, high-pressure starts into glorious, match-winning centuries, dominating opposition bowling attacks across the county circuit. His extraordinary run-scoring consistency soon made it virtually impossible for Australian selectors to overlook his claim. Having convincingly demonstrated his mental fortitude, technical adaptability, and matured game awareness, Ken earned a highly anticipated [____] to the national squad. His remarkable journey back to the top stands as an inspiring testament to perseverance, proving that a temporary setback can ultimately serve as the dynamic stepping stone toward long-term success.
Q23. Which of the following words fits grammatically and contextually into the blank [____] given in the passage?
(a) removal
(b) recall
(c) resignation
(d) rejection
(e) penalty
Ans.(b)
Q24. Which of the following words represents the OPPOSITE in meaning to the word "missed" as used in the passage?
(a) longed for
(b) ignored
(c) attended
(d) desired
(e) overlooked
Ans.(c)
Q25. Which of the following words is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word "stayed" as used in the passage?
(a) departed
(b) hesitated
(c) remained
(d) faltered
(e) ceased
Ans.(c)
Q26. Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the passage?
(a) Ken chose to play county cricket immediately after being awarded his national debut.
(b) The English pitches were dry and flat, favoring spin bowling over fast bowling.
(c) Ken turned difficult starts into match-winning centuries during his county cricket tenure.
(d) National selectors permanently banned Ken from returning to the Australian national team.
(e) Ken lost his motivation and retired from professional cricket while playing in England.
Ans.(c)
Q27. Consider the following three statements:
1. Ken was dropped from the national side following a series of low scores in an away tour.
2. English conditions offered heavy swing and seam movement for bowlers.
3. Australian selectors chose to ignore Ken's outstanding performances in county cricket.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are FALSE according to the passage?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) Only 2 and 3
(e) All 1, 2, and 3
Ans.(c)
Q28. Why did Ken choose to participate in county cricket in England after being dropped?
(a) He was offered a lucrative contract that paid more than the national board.
(b) He wanted to take a prolonged break from high-pressure competitive cricket.
(c) He wanted to switch his nationality and permanently play for the English team.
(d) The Australian selectors instructed him to retire from white-ball formats.
(e) He aimed to rebuild his technique and test his abilities under challenging foreign conditions.
Ans.(e)
Q29. What specific area of his game did Ken work tirelessly to refine during his net sessions in England?
(a) His fast bowling speed and seam position
(b) His physical stamina for long five-day Test matches
(c) His aggressive captaincy strategies on the field
(d) His defensive posture to eliminate minor technical flaws
(e) His fielding techniques in the slip cordon
Ans.(d)
Q30. Which of the following best describes the primary message or theme conveyed through Ken's journey in the passage?
(a) Talent alone guarantees continuous success at the international level.
(b) Playing in foreign leagues is essential for every international player.
(c) Temporary setbacks can be overcome through patience, resilience, and dedicated hard work.
(d) Selectors are frequently unfair when making decisions about player dropped status.
(e) English pitches are vastly superior to Australian home pitches for batsman development.
Ans.(c)
Directions (31-35): The line graph shows the total number of people (males + females) in five cities. Study the line Graph and answer the questions that follow.
(Data from graph: P=72, Q=60, R=59, S=47, T=84)
Q31. In city T, the number of males exceeds the number of females by 12. What is the number of females in city T?
(a) 34
(b) 36
(c) 38
(d) 48
(e) 42
Ans.(b)
Q32. What is the average number of people per city across all five cities?
(a) 62.4
(b) 63.8
(c) 64.4
(d) 65.2
(e) 66
Ans.(c)
Q33. The number of people in city Q is approximately what percent of the number of people in city T?
(a) 65%
(b) 68.5%
(c) 71.4%
(d) 74.2%
(e) 76%
Ans.(c)
Q34. In city S, the ratio of males to females is 7 : 5. What is the difference between the number of males and females in city S?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 12
(e) 4
Ans.(b)
Q35. What is the respective ratio of the combined population of cities P and S to the combined population of cities Q and R?
(a) 59 : 60
(b) 60 : 59
(c) 12 : 11
(d) 30 : 29
(e) 10 : 9
Ans.(b)
Q36. A shopkeeper allows two successive discounts of 20% and 25% on an article. If the selling price of the article is Rs 1,200, find the marked price of the article (in Rs).
(a) 1,800
(b) 1,950
(c) 2,050
(d) 2,000
(e) 2,400
Ans.(d)
Q37. Train A and Train B are moving in the same direction. The ratio of their speeds is 5 : 3. Train A crosses a pole in 12 seconds, while Train B crosses the same pole in 20 seconds. Find the ratio of their lengths.
(a) 4 : 3
(b) 5 : 4
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 1 : 1
(e) 5 : 3
Ans.(d)
Q38. 4 men and 3 women can complete a piece of work in 12 days. If 1 man can do the same amount of work as 2 women, then in how many days will 6 men complete the same work?
(a) 11 days
(b) 10 days
(c) 5 days
(d) 12 days
(e) 13 days
Ans.(a)
Q39. A man invests Rs 7,000 at 20% per annum compound interest, compounded annually, for 2 years. Find the compound interest earned by him (in Rs).
(a) 2,800
(b) 3,080
(c) 3,120
(d) 3,360
(e) 3,500
Ans.(b)
Q40. A boat can travel 48 km downstream in 4 hours. If the speed of the boat in still water is 9 km/h, find the speed of the stream.
(a) 2 km/h
(b) 3 km/h
(c) 4 km/h
(d) 5 km/h
(e) 6 km/h
Ans.(b)
Q41. A and B start a business by investing the same amount. After 5 months, B withdraws Rs 2,000. At the end of the year, the ratio of their profits is 12:11. Find the initial investment of each (in Rs).
(a) 14,000
(b) 15,000
(c) 16,000
(d) 18,000
(e) 20,000
Ans.(a)
Q42. Car A covers 126 km in 2 hours. The ratio of the speeds of Car A to Car B is 7 : 6. How much time will Car B take to cover 135 km?
(a) 2 hours 15 minutes
(b) 2 hours 20 minutes
(c) 2 hours 30 minutes
(d) 2 hours 40 minutes
(e) 2 hours 45 minutes
Ans.(c)
Q43. Another student X secured 10% more marks than student E in History. What is the average of the marks obtained by X and E in History? The table given below shows the marks obtained by five students in two different subjects.
Student | Economics | History
A | 66 | 80
B | 50 | 51
C | 91 | 56
D | 89 | 69
E | 72 | 90
(a) 92.5
(b) 93
(c) 94.5
(d) 95
(e) 96.5
Ans.(c)
Q44. What is the average marks obtained by all five students in Economics? The table given below shows the marks obtained by five students in two different subjects.
Student | Economics | History
A | 66 | 80
B | 50 | 51
C | 91 | 56
D | 89 | 69
E | 72 | 90
(a) 72.4
(b) 73.6
(c) 74.2
(d) 75
(e) 71.8
Ans.(b)
Q45. The total marks obtained by C in both subjects is approximately what percent more than the total marks obtained by B in both subjects? The table given below shows the marks obtained by five students in two different subjects.
Student | Economics | History
A | 66 | 80
B | 50 | 51
C | 91 | 56
D | 89 | 69
E | 72 | 90
(a) 40.5%
(b) 42%
(c) 45.5%
(d) 48%
(e) 50.5%
Ans.(c)
Q46. What is the ratio of the total marks obtained by A and E in History to the total marks obtained by C and D in Economics? The table given below shows the marks obtained by five students in two different subjects.
Student | Economics | History
A | 66 | 80
B | 50 | 51
C | 91 | 56
D | 89 | 69
E | 72 | 90
(a) 18 : 17
(b) 17 : 18
(c) 16 : 17
(d) 17 : 19
(e) 19 : 18
Ans.(b)
Q47. If the maximum marks in each subject is 100, what is the overall percentage of marks obtained by D in both subjects together? The table given below shows the marks obtained by five students in two different subjects.
Student | Economics | History
A | 66 | 80
B | 50 | 51
C | 91 | 56
D | 89 | 69
E | 72 | 90
(a) 76%
(b) 78%
(c) 79%
(d) 81%
(e) 82%
Ans.(c)
Q48. The area of a rectangle is 180cm2 and its length is 18cm. The perimeter of the rectangle is equal to the perimeter of a square. Find the area of the square.
(a) 169cm2
(b) 196cm2
(c) 225cm2
(d) 256cm2
(e) 289cm2
Ans.(b)
Q49. The sum of 6 consecutive multiples of 5 is 135. If the difference between the 1st and 2nd numbers is 5, find the largest number.
(a) 25
(b) 30
(c) 35
(d) 40
(e) 45
Ans.(c)
Q50. If the fraction X / Y = 5 / 18 and Y is 13 more than X, find the value of X.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
(e) 7
Ans.(c)
Q51. A vessel contains 75 litres of a mixture of milk and water. The quantity of milk is 45 litres more than the quantity of water. If 15 litres of the mixture is removed from the vessel, find the final quantity of milk in the vessel (in litres).
(a) 42 litres
(b) 45 litres
(c) 48 litres
(d) 50 litres
(e) 52 litres
Ans.(c)
Q52. The cost price of an article is Rs (2800 + x). If the article is sold at a 20% profit for Rs 3,600, find the value of x.
(a) 200
(b) 150
(c) 205
(d) 250
(e) 300
Ans.(a)
Q53. What will come in the place of question (?) mark in following the question:
45.2 + 12.3 - 44.1 + 32.7 = ?
(a) 33.5
(b) 46.1
(c) 39.2
(d) 54.7
(e) 23.2
Ans.(b)
Q54. What will come in the place of question (?) mark in following the question:
12.5% of 400 - 40 + ? = 16²
(a) 246
(b) 250
(c) 233
(d) 210
(e) 267
Ans.(a)
Q55. What will come in the place of question (?) mark in following the question:
√625 + 20% of 200 - ? = 40% of 450
(a) 124
(b) 115
(c) -106
(d) -124
(e) -115
Ans.(e)
Q56. What will come in the place of question (?) mark in following the question:
84 ÷ (7 × 2) + 9 × 3 - 5 = ?
(a) 22
(b) 29
(c) 28
(d) 23
(e) 31
Ans.(c)
Q57. What will come in the place of question (?) mark in following the question:
72 × (9 ÷ 3) + 15 = ? - 3
(a) 144
(b) 211
(c) 234
(d) 129
(e) 235
Ans.(c)
Q58. What will come in the place of question (?) mark in following the question:
5³ - 12 + 7 / 8th of 80 = ?
(a) 145
(b) 203
(c) 199
(d) 183
(e) 112
Ans.(d)
Q59. What will come in the place of question (?) mark in following the question:
∛1728 - 5.4 + 33.33% of 99 = ?
(a) 39.6
(b) 22.3
(c) 32.5
(d) 20.1
(e) 42.7
Ans.(a)
Q60. What will come in the place of question (?) mark in following the question:
(50 + 30) ÷ 8 × 6 - 10 = ?
(a) 50
(b) 40
(c) 30
(d) 60
(e) 70
Ans.(a)
Q61. What will come in the place of question (?) mark in following the question:
200% of 25 + 60 ÷ 3 = ?
(a) 70
(b) 45
(c) 50
(d) 60
(e) 30
Ans.(a)
Q62. 450 + 2.5 × 320 - 40% of 70 ÷ 7/4 = ?
What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
(a) 1243
(b) 1234
(c) 1245
(d) 1233
(e) 1351
Ans.(b)
Q63. 52% of 350 + 7/8 of ? = ∛1728 + 18²
What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
(a) 156
(b) 168
(c) 192
(d) 176
(e) 147
Ans.(d)
Q64. √(1225 × 28 + 203 × 7) = (?)²
What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
(a) 47
(b) 45
(c) 49
(d) 51
(e) 53
Ans.(c)
Q65. 65% of 280 + 17² - 4 / 7 of 714 = ? ÷ 2 / 3
What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
(a) 94.5
(b) 87.5
(c) 42
(d) 72
(e) 72.5
Ans.(c)
Directions (66-70): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight boxes -P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are kept one above another in the different shelves (but not in the same given order) such that the bottommost shelf is numbered as one, the shelf just above it is numbered as 2 and so on till the topmost shelf is numbered as eight.
Box Q is kept two boxes below box S. Only three boxes are kept between boxes T and Q which is kept above box T. Only three boxes are kept between boxes S and W. The number of boxes kept above box W is the same as the number of boxes kept below box V. Box P is kept above box R but below box U. Box U is not kept in the top most shelf.
Q66. Which among the following statement(s) is/are true?
I. No box is kept between box R and box P
II. Odd number of boxes are kept below box V
III. Box S is kept at the topmost shelf
(a) Both I and II
(b) Both II and III
(c) Only I
(d) Only III
(e) All I, II and III
Ans.(d)
Q67. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which of the following does not belong to that group?
(a) Box Q
(b) Box T
(c) Box R
(d) Box W
(e) Box S
Ans.(c)
Q68. How many boxes are kept between box U and box R?
(a) Three
(b) Four
(c) Two
(d) One
(e) More than four
Ans.(e)
Q69. If all the boxes are kept in alphabetical order from top to bottom, then the position of how many boxes remains unchanged?
(a) None
(b) One
(c) Two
(d) Three
(e) Four
Ans.(a)
Q70. Which box is kept three boxes below box W?
(a) Box U
(b) Box P
(c) Box R
(d) Box T
(e) Box Q
Ans.(c)
Directions (71-73): In this question, the relationship between different elements is shown in the statements. The statements are followed by two conclusions. Study the conclusions based on the given statements and select the appropriate answer:
Q71. Statements: S = M > N ≥ L ≥ K < R = O > P
Conclusions:
I. K < P
II. S ≥ L
(a) If only conclusion I is true
(b) If only conclusion II is true
(c) If either conclusion I or II is true
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) If both conclusion I and II are true
Ans.(a)
Q72. Statements: J < K = L > M ≥ N < A = B
Conclusions:
I. L > B
II. K ≤ A
(a) If only conclusion I is true
(b) If only conclusion II is true
(c) If either conclusion I or II is true
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) If both conclusion I and II are true
Ans.(c)
Q73. Statements: T = N > O ≥ P = Q < R
Conclusions:
I. Q ≤ N
II. T > P
(a) If only conclusion I is true
(b) If only conclusion II is true
(c) If either conclusion I or II is true
(d) If neither conclusion I nor II is true
(e) If both conclusion I and II are true
Ans.(d)
Directions (74-78): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight persons—A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H—are going to attend an event one after another, but not necessarily in the same order.
H attends the event four persons after C. As many persons attend event before C as after A. A attends the event before H. Three persons attend event between A and G. E attends the event immediately after B. B attends the event before A. D attends the event after F but not at the last position.
Q74. Who among the following attends the event at sixth position?
(a) A
(b) C
(c) F
(d) E
(e) G
Ans.(c)
Q75. Which of the following pairs represents the persons who attend the event at second and seventh position, respectively?
(a) F and B
(b) D and B
(c) F and D
(d) B and D
(e) E and H
Ans.(d)
Q76. How many persons attend the event between H and A?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) Five
Ans.(b)
Q77. Who among the following attends the event immediately before the person who attends fourth position?
(a) A
(b) C
(c) E
(d) F
(e) G
Ans.(c)
Q78. If F is related to E and D is related to C in a certain manner based on their positions in the event, then which of the following is related to A?
(a) C
(b) B
(c) A
(d) G
(e) H
Ans.(e)
Directions (79-81): In the question below, some statements are given followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Q79. Statements:
Only a few oceans are beaches
All beaches are river
No river is mountain
Conclusions:
I. Some oceans are not mountain
II. All beaches being mountain is a possibility
(a) If only II follows
(b) If only I follows
(c) If neither I nor II follows
(d) If both I and II follow
(e) If either I or II follows
Ans.(b)
Q80. Statements:
Only star is moon
Some clouds are star
Only a few sun is clouds
Conclusions:
I. All star being sun is a possibility
II. Some clouds are moon
(a) If only II follows
(b) If only I follows
(c) If neither I nor II follows
(d) If both I and II follow
(e) If either I or II follows
Ans.(c)
Q81. Statements:
Only a few boys are teachers
All students are girls
No boys are students
Conclusions:
I. No teachers being students is a possibility
II. Some girls are not boys
(a) If only II follows
(b) If only I follows
(c) If neither I nor II follow
(d) If both I and II follow
(e) If either I or II follow
Ans.(d)
Q82. Find the odd one out.
(a) NLO
(b) OKN
(c) PJL
(d) QIL
(e) RHK
Ans.(c)
Q83. How many such pairs of letters are there in the given word "TOURISM", each of which has as many letters between them as they have in the English alphabetical series (In forward and backward direction)?
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Two
(d) Four
(e) None of these
Ans.(a)
Directions (84-86): An uncertain number of persons sit in a row and face north. Three persons sit between G and T. C sits second to the right of T. Four persons sit between C and N. N sits to the left of C. Two persons sit between B and N. B sits fourth from one of the extreme ends of the row. P sits two places away from B. The number of persons sit to the left of P is one less than the number of persons sit to the right of C. G doesn't sit at the extreme end of the row. Not more than 14 persons sit in the row.
Q84. What is the position of P with respect to T? Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
(a) Fourth to the left
(b) Seventh to the left
(c) Eighth to the left
(d) Fifth to the left
(e) Fourth to the right
Ans.(c)
Q85. How many persons sit in this row? Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
(a) 12
(b) 11
(c) 13
(d) 14
(e) Can't be determined
Ans.(d)
Q86. How many persons sit between N and G in this row? Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:
(a) Five
(b) Six
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None
Ans.(e)
Directions (87-91): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below: Eight persons R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y are going to attend different events (but not necessarily in the same order) on two different dates i.e., 5 or 26 of four given months viz. September, October, November and December.
R attends an event on odd date in the month which has even numbers of days. Two persons are attending an event between S and R. No one attend an event between S and W. S and W does not attend event in same month. There are as many persons attend event before T is same as attend after Y. V attend event just after Y but not on odd date. U does not attend an event after X.
Q87. Who among the following attends the event on 5th of November?
(a) W
(b) T
(c) S
(d) U
(e) None of these
Ans.(a)
Q88. Who among the following attend event immediately before T?
(a) W
(b) X
(c) S
(d) U
(e) None of these
Ans.(e)
Q89. How many persons attend an event between V and W?
(a) One
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Two
(e) None of these
Ans.(d)
Q90. S goes in which of the following month?
(a) November
(b) September
(c) December
(d) October
(e) Either October or December
Ans.(d)
Q91. Which of the following pair attend event in the same month?
(a) S and U
(b) X and V
(c) U and V
(d) T and Y
(e) U and Y
Ans.(a)
Directions (92-96): Study the following word series carefully and answer the questions given below: HUG RIM WEB BAD FOX
Q92. If the last letter of each of the given words is changed to its previous letter according to the English alphabet, how many words thus formed will end with a vowel?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None
Ans.(a)
Q93. If N is inserted immediately after the second letter of each word from the left end, then how many meaningful English words can be formed?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
(e) None
Ans.(b)
Q94. In which of the following words is the letters between the first and third letters the maximum according to the English alphabet?
(a) HUG
(b) RIM
(c) WEB
(d) BAD
(e) FOX
Ans.(c)
Q95. If the words are arranged in alphabetical order from left to right, then which word will be exactly in the middle?
(a) HUG
(b) RIM
(c) WEB
(d) BAD
(e) FOX
Ans.(a)
Q96. If the letters in each word are arranged in alphabetical order within themselves, then what is the sum of the alphabetical values of the second letter of the second word from left end and second letter of the third word from right end?
(a) 20
(b) 21
(c) 22
(d) 17
(e) 18
Ans.(e)
Directions (97-99): Read the following information carefully and answer the following questions.
D needs to travel to E's house using her car. She starts from her own house and drives 10km towards the south. Here, she meets Z. After meeting Z, she takes a right turn and drives 6km. Then, she turns to her left and drives for another 8km, where she meets L. She then takes another left turn and drives for 5km. She then makes a right turn and drives for 12km, meeting M on the way. Finally, she takes a right turn again and drives 8km to reach E's house.
Q97. How far and in which direction is E's house from D's starting point?
(a) √918km North-East
(b) √981km South-West
(c) √189km North-West
(d) 121km South-East
(e) None of these
Ans.(b)
Q98. If Q's house is 8km west of L meet point then what is the total distance from D's house to Q's house?
(a) 32km
(b) 22km
(c) 18km
(d) 16km
(e) 26km
Ans.(a)
Q99. What is the direction of Z with respect to L?
(a) North-East
(b) South-West
(c) North-West
(d) South-East
(e) At the starting point
Ans.(a)
Q100. In the number 58372416, if all the digits at odd positions (from the left end) are increased by 2 and all the digits at even positions are decreased by 2, then all the resulting digits are arranged in descending order. Which digit will be fifth from the left end?
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) 7
Ans.(c)
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