SBI PO Prelims 2026 Previous Year Question Paper with Free PDF Download Shift 3 Memory Based Paper (Aug 1, 2026)
SBI PO Prelims 2026 Memory Based Paper (Aug 02, 2026) (Shift 1)
In the following question, two columns are given, each with three parts. Column A contains three phrases labelled (1), (2), (3) and Column B contains three phrases labelled (P), (Q), (R). Combine a phrase from Column A with a phrase from Column B to form a grammatically correct and meaningful sentence.
Column A:
(1) The committee has decided to postpone the meeting
(2) Despite repeated warnings from the auditors
(3) It was only after the machinery broke down
Column B:
(P) that the management realised the urgency of regular maintenance
(Q) the finance department continued to ignore the discrepancies in the ledger
(R) until all the regional heads submit their quarterly reports
Q1. Which combination of phrases forms a correct and meaningful sentence?
(a) 1-R, 2-P, 3-Q
(b) 1-P, 2-Q, 3-R
(c) 1-P, 2-R, 3-Q
(d) 1-R, 2-Q, 3-P
(e) 1-Q, 2-P, 3-R
Q2. In the following sentence, a part is printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold part which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. If the sentence is correct as it is, choose ‘No replacement required’.
The manager insisted that every employee should submits the report before the deadline.
(a) must submitting
(b) will submits
(c) should submitted
(d) No replacement required
(e) should submit
Q3. Having finished with his homework, Rohan went out to play with his friends.
(a) finishing of his homework
(b) been finished his homework
(c) finished his homework
(d) finish with his homework
(e) No replacement required
Q4. The villagers, along with their livestock, were forced to leave their homes when the river overflowed.
(a) were forcing to leave
(b) has been forced to leave
(c) was forced to leave
(d) No replacement required
(e) were forced to leaving
Q5. Neither the principal nor the teachers was aware of the sudden change in the exam schedule.
(a) was aware about
(b) have been aware of
(c) No replacement required
(d) was being aware of
(e) were aware of
Q6. She is one of those candidates who always speaks confidently during interviews.
(a) always speaking
(b) No replacement required
(c) has always spoken
(d) always speak
(e) always spoke
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In the following question, six sentences are given, labelled A, B, C, D, E and F. These sentences, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph.
(A) As a result, several coastal towns began investing heavily in mangrove restoration projects to act as natural barriers.
(B) Coastal erosion had been steadily eating away at the shoreline for nearly two decades, forcing many fishing families to relocate inland.
(C) It was only when a marine biologist published a detailed survey linking mangrove loss to the erosion rate that policymakers took notice.
(D) Within five years, the restored mangrove belts had visibly slowed the erosion and revived local fish breeding grounds.
(E) Before this survey, most local authorities had dismissed the erosion as an unavoidable seasonal phenomenon.
(F) Encouraged by these early results, neighbouring districts soon requested funding for similar restoration efforts.
Q7. Which sentence should come FIRST after rearrangement?
(a) D (b) C (c) E (d) B (e) A
Q8. Which sentence should come SECOND after rearrangement?
(a) C (b) D (c) E (d) F (e) A
Q9. Which sentence should come THIRD after rearrangement?
(a) D (b) A (c) F (d) C (e) B
Q10. Which sentence should come FOURTH after rearrangement?
(a) C (b) F (c) D (d) B (e) A
Q11. Which sentence should come FIFTH after rearrangement?
(a) E (b) F (c) D (d) C (e) A
Q12. Which sentence should come SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement?
(a) A (b) F (c) C (d) D (e) E
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Q13. Select the pair of words that best fits both blanks in the sentence.
The board members were ____ about the new proposal, since it seemed ____ with the company’s long-term vision.
(a) enthusiastic; inconsistent
(b) skeptical; consistent
(c) hesitant; unrelated
(d) furious; identical
(e) indifferent; irrelevant
Q14. The negotiations remained ____ for months until both parties finally agreed to a ____ that satisfied their core demands.
(a) resolved; dispute
(b) smooth; conflict
(c) deadlocked; compromise
(d) productive; stalemate
(e) cordial; breakdown
Q15. Her ____ approach to fieldwork often ____ her colleagues, who preferred sticking to established methods.
(a) meticulous; bored
(b) rigid; delighted
(c) careless; impressed
(d) unconventional; unsettled
(e) traditional; inspired
Q16. The startup’s revenue grew at a ____ pace initially, but soon became ____ once bigger competitors entered the market.
(a) sluggish; rapid
(b) steady; volatile
(c) brisk; stagnant
(d) erratic; predictable
(e) modest; identical
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Q17. The following sentence has been split into five parts...
A) had been postponed twice B) owing to unforeseen circumstances C) the annual sports meet D) much to the disappointment of the students E) which was scheduled for March
(a) No rearrangement required
(b) CADBE
(c) ACEBD
(d) CEADB
(e) CEABD
Q18. A) to the surprise of the organisers B) despite the heavy rainfall C) turned up in large numbers D) for the charity walkathon E) the volunteers
(a) BCEAD
(b) No rearrangement required
(c) EBCDA
(d) EBCAD
(e) BEACD
Q19. A) is often regarded B) among urban planners C) as the most sustainable solution D) for reducing traffic congestion E) a well-connected metro network
(a) EADCB
(b) No rearrangement required
(c) EACBD
(d) EACDB
(e) ABECD
Q20. A) the new policy B) most of the small vendors C) welcomed D) since it reduced their tax burden significantly E) in the local market
(a) BECAD
(b) EBCAD
(c) BECDA
(d) BCADE
(e) No rearrangement required
Q21. A) the researchers concluded B) had a measurable effect on sleep quality C) that reducing screen time before bed D) after analysing data from E) over two thousand participants
(a) ACBDE
(b) ACBED
(c) DEACB
(d) CBADE
(e) No rearrangement required
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Idiom: “to burn the midnight oil”
(A) The students had to burn the midnight oil to finish the project before the submission date.
(B) He burned the midnight oil across the busy street to catch his train.
(C) After years of burning the midnight oil, she finally cracked the entrance examination.
Q22. Which sentence(s) use the idiom/phrase correctly?
(a) Only C (b) A and C (c) Only B (d) A, B and C (e) Only A
Idiom: “to be at loggerheads”
(A) The two departments have been at loggerheads over the allocation of the annual budget.
(B) She was at loggerheads to finish her assignment before the deadline.
(C) The two business partners were at loggerheads regarding the company’s expansion plans.
Q23. Which sentence(s) use the idiom/phrase correctly?
(a) B and C (b) A and C (c) Only B (d) A, B and C (e) Only A
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Q24. (A) The government has announced / (B) a new scheme for the farmers / (C) which will help them to increasing / (D) their income substantially.
(a) A (b) C (c) B (d) D (e) No error
Q25. (A) Each of the employees / (B) were given a certificate / (C) of appreciation for their / (D) outstanding performance this year.
(a) D (b) No error (c) B (d) A (e) C
Q26. (A) Neither of the two proposals / (B) submitted by the vendors / (C) were found to be / (D) satisfactory by the panel.
(a) C (b) D (c) No error (d) A (e) B
Q27. (A) The teacher advised the students / (B) to not waste their time / (C) on trivial matters / (D) before the final exams.
(a) No error (b) D (c) A (d) C (e) B
Q28. (A) By the time the fire brigade arrived / (B) the entire warehouse / (C) has already been / (D) reduced to ashes.
(a) C (b) A (c) B (d) No error (e) D
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Urban farming has (A) into a viable solution...
Q29. Select the most appropriate word for blank (A).
(a) evolved (b) diminished (c) retreated (d) wandered (e) collapsed
Q30. Select the most appropriate word for blank (B).
(a) shrunk (b) paused (c) vanished (d) declined (e) expanded
Q31. Select the most appropriate word for blank (C).
(a) deny (b) withhold (c) discard (d) supply (e) postpone
Q32. Select the most appropriate word for blank (D).
(a) neglect (b) establish (c) dismantle (d) criticise (e) abandon
Q33. Select the most appropriate word for blank (E).
(a) ignore (b) abandon (c) avoid (d) dissolve (e) enter
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Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
*(Behavioural Economics passage – full text as provided earlier)*
Q34. According to the passage, why did economists begin to question the assumption of purely rational decision-making?
(a) Because psychologists documented systematic deviations from rational behaviour
(b) Because cafeterias reported falling revenues
(c) Because investors stopped trusting the stock market
(d) Because mathematical models became too complex to use
(e) Because governments demanded new policy tools
Q35. What does ‘loss aversion’ explain, as per the passage?
(a) Why governments introduce automatic enrolment schemes
(b) Why healthier food options are placed at eye level
(c) Why people prefer immediate rewards over long-term ones
(d) Why nudge experiments fail in diverse populations
(e) Why investors continue to hold onto declining stocks
Q36. Which of the following best describes a ‘nudge’ as used in the passage?
(a) A legal restriction that eliminates undesirable choices
(b) A financial penalty imposed on irrational behaviour
(c) A statistical model used to predict market crashes
(d) A subtle change in choice presentation that steers behaviour without removing options
(e) A mandatory training programme for policymakers
Q37. What is the main criticism of behavioural economics mentioned in the passage?
(a) It ignores the concept of loss aversion entirely
(b) It has had no influence on public policy
(c) It contradicts the findings of traditional economics completely
(d) It relies too heavily on mathematical precision
(e) Its experimental findings may not scale across diverse populations and could distract from structural reform
Q38. Which of the following statements is TRUE according to the passage?
(a) Present bias refers to overvaluing immediate rewards over long-term benefits
(b) Automatic enrolment in retirement plans decreased participation rates
(c) Behavioural economics has had no impact on academic economic models
(d) Critics believe nudges are the best substitute for structural reform
(e) All unhealthy food options were removed from cafeterias in the nudge experiments
Q39. The word ‘sidestep’ as used in the passage is closest in meaning to
(a) avoid (b) endorse (c) confront (d) amplify (e) investigate
Q40. Which of the following can be inferred about the retirement savings example mentioned in the passage?
(a) It demonstrates that employees dislike saving for retirement
(b) It contradicts the idea of loss aversion entirely
(c) It was later abandoned due to poor results
(d) It shows that default choice architecture can significantly influence participation without removing choice
(e) It proves that opt-out schemes are illegal in most countries
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Table: Number of students (boys and girls) in five classes
| Class | Boys | Girls |
|-------|------|-------|
| VI | 180 | 150 |
| VII | 210 | 140 |
| VIII | 160 | 200 |
| IX | 240 | 180 |
| X | 190 | 170 |
Q41. What is the total number of students studying in classes VIII and IX together?
(a) 800 (b) 780 (c) 740 (d) 820 (e) 760
Q42. Girls in class VII are what percentage of the total students in class VII?
(a) 45.71% (b) 41.17% (c) 38.46% (d) 40.00% (e) 42.86%
Q43. Find the ratio of boys in classes VI, VIII and X taken together to girls in the same classes taken together.
(a) 52:53 (b) 54:53 (c) 55:54 (d) 53:52 (e) 53:52
Q44. Boys (all classes together) form what percentage more/less than girls (all classes together)? (approx.)
(a) 16.67% more (b) 17.67% less (c) 11.67% more (d) 19.67% more (e) 14.67% less
Q45. Quantity I: Average number of girls per class (all five classes)
Quantity II: Average number of boys in classes IX and X together
(a) Quantity I > Quantity II (b) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II (c) Relation cannot be determined (d) Quantity I = Quantity II (e) Quantity I < Quantity II
Q46. What is the difference between the total number of students in class IX and the total number of students in class VI?
(a) 70 (b) 100 (c) 90 (d) 80 (e) 110
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Sales Table (Rs. lakh)
| Month | Electronics | Furniture | Apparel | Grocery |
|-------|-------------|-----------|---------|---------|
| April | 45 | 30 | 25 | 60 |
| May | 55 | 35 | 40 | 50 |
| June | 60 | 25 | 35 | 70 |
Q47. What is the total sales (in Rs. lakh) of all four categories in the month of May?
(a) 160 (b) 200 (c) 190 (d) 180 (e) 210
Q48. What is the percentage increase in Apparel sales from April to May?
(a) 70.00% (b) 55.00% (c) 60.00% (d) 66.67% (e) 50.00%
Q49. Find the ratio of (Electronics + Grocery) sales in June to (Furniture + Apparel) sales in June.
(a) 13:6 (b) 11:6 (c) 13:6 (d) 10:7 (e) 12:7
Q50. What is the average monthly sales (in Rs. lakh) of the Electronics category over the three months?
(a) 56.67 (b) 53.33 (c) 51.67 (d) 50.00 (e) 53.33
Q51. Quantity I: Average monthly sales of Electronics (Apr-Jun)
Quantity II: Average monthly sales of Furniture (Apr-Jun)
(a) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II (b) Cannot be determined (c) Quantity I = Quantity II (d) Quantity I > Quantity II (e) Quantity I < Quantity II
Q52. Total sales of Furniture across April, May and June is approximately what percentage of the grand total sales of all categories across all three months?
(a) 16.98% (b) 22.35% (c) 20.00% (d) 25.10% (e) 18.61%
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Q53. Find the wrong number in the series: 5, 8, 14, 26, 51, 98
(a) 51 (b) 98 (c) 8 (d) 26 (e) 14
Q54. Find the wrong number in the series: 2, 3, 8, 28, 112, 565
(a) 28 (b) 112 (c) 3 (d) 565 (e) 8
Q55. Find the wrong number in the series: 7, 10, 16, 30, 52, 100
(a) 10 (b) 52 (c) 30 (d) 100 (e) 16
Q56. The circumference of a circular field is equal to the perimeter of a square field. If the radius of the circular field is 14 m, find the area of the square field. (Use π = 22/7)
(a) 484 sq. m (b) 512 sq. m (c) 400 sq. m (d) 441 sq. m (e) 616 sq. m
Q57. A boat’s speed in still water is 15 km/h and the speed of the stream is 3 km/h. The boat travels 36 km upstream and then returns to the starting point. Find the total time taken for the round trip.
(a) 5 hours (b) 5.5 hours (c) 4.5 hours (d) 6 hours (e) 4 hours
Q58. Two trains of lengths 150 m and 120 m are running in opposite directions on parallel tracks at speeds of 54 km/h and 36 km/h respectively. Find the time taken by the trains to cross each other.
(a) 10.8 seconds (b) 9 seconds (c) 12 seconds (d) 10 seconds (e) 11.5 seconds
Q59. The average age of 30 students in a class is 12 years. The average age of 20 teachers in the same school is 40 years. Find the average age of all the students and teachers put together.
(a) 20.8 years (b) 23.2 years (c) 25 years (d) 22 years (e) 24.5 years
Q60. The prices of two movie tickets, A and B, are in the ratio 5:7. If the price of ticket A is increased by 20% and the price of ticket B is decreased by 10%, find the new ratio of the price of A to the price of B.
(a) 4:5 (b) 20:21 (c) 10:11 (d) 5:6 (e) 6:7
Q61. The incomes of A and B are in the ratio 4:5. A spends 80% of his income while B spends 75% of his income. Find the ratio of the savings of A to the savings of B.
(a) 2:3 (b) 3:5 (c) 1:2 (d) 4:5 (e) 16:25
Q62. A can complete a piece of work in 15 days. B is 50% more efficient than A. If A and B work together, they can complete the work in T days. Find T.
(a) 5 days (b) 10 days (c) 7.5 days (d) 6 days (e) 9 days
Q63. Pipe A can fill a tank in 10 hours, Pipe B can fill it in 15 hours, while Pipe C (an outlet pipe) can empty the full tank in 20 hours. If all three pipes are opened together, in how many hours will the tank be filled?
(a) 7 hours (b) 8 hours (c) 60/7 hours (approx. 8 4/7 hours) (d) 9 hours (e) 10 hours
Q64. A mixture of milk and water contains milk and water in the ratio 3:1. If the total quantity of the mixture is 40 litres, how much water must be added to the mixture so that the new ratio of milk to water becomes 3:2?
(a) 10 litres (b) 15 litres (c) 12 litres (d) 6 litres (e) 8 litres
Q65. A, B and C started a business by investing Rs. 8,000 for 12 months, Rs. 12,000 for 8 months and Rs. 6,000 for 10 months respectively. If the total profit at the end of the year is Rs. 42,000, find B’s share of the profit.
(a) Rs. 20,000 (b) Rs. 12,000 (c) Rs. 16,000 (d) Rs. 18,000 (e) Rs. 14,000
Q66. Quantity I: Compound interest on Rs. 20,000 at 10% p.a. for 2 years (compounded annually)
Quantity II: Simple interest on Rs. 25,000 at 12% p.a. for 2 years
(a) Cannot be determined (b) Quantity I ≥ Quantity II (c) Quantity I = Quantity II (d) Quantity I < Quantity II (e) Quantity I > Quantity II
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Articles Table
| Article | Cost Price (Rs.) | Profit % |
|---------|------------------|----------|
| X | 800 | 25% |
| Y | 1200 | 15% |
| Z | 1500 | 20% |
Q67. What is the selling price of article Y?
(a) Rs. 1,320 (b) Rs. 1,380 (c) Rs. 1,250 (d) Rs. 1,440 (e) Rs. 1,400
Q68. What is the overall profit percentage earned on selling all three articles together?
(a) 20.00% (b) 17.25% (c) 18.00% (d) 19.43% (approx.) (e) 21.50%
Q69. What is the difference between the selling prices of article Z and article X?
(a) Rs. 850 (b) Rs. 800 (c) Rs. 900 (d) Rs. 750 (e) Rs. 700
Q70. A shopkeeper marks an article 40% above its cost price and then allows a discount of 15% on the marked price. Find his profit percentage.
(a) 25% (b) 15% (c) 19% (d) 17% (e) 21%
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Q71. Statements: All squares are rectangles. All rectangles are parallelograms. No parallelogram is a triangle.
Conclusions: I. No rectangle is a triangle. II. Some squares are parallelograms.
(a) Only conclusion I follows (b) Neither conclusion follows (c) Either I or II follows (d) Only conclusion II follows (e) Both conclusions follow
Q72. Statements: Some cups are plates. No plate is a spoon.
Conclusions: I. No cup is a spoon. II. Some cups are not spoons.
(a) Only conclusion II follows (b) Either I or II follows (c) Only conclusion I follows (d) Neither conclusion follows (e) Both conclusions follow
Q73. Statements: All coins are notes. Some notes are wallets. No wallet is a purse.
Conclusions: I. Some coins are wallets. II. No note is a purse.
(a) Only conclusion I follows (b) Only conclusion II follows (c) Either I or II follows (d) Neither conclusion follows (e) Both conclusions follow
Q74. If the letters at the 5th, 6th, 7th and 8th positions of the word ‘GENERATE’ are taken in that order, they form a meaningful English word. What is the 2nd letter of that word (from the left)? If no such meaningful word can be formed, mark ‘Z’; if more than one such word can be formed, mark ‘X’.
(a) Z (b) R (c) T (d) A (e) X
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Six people – A, B, C, D, E and F – appeared for six different exams...
(A – Maths, B – History, C – Computer, D – English, E – Economics, F – Science)
Q75. On which day did D take the exam?
(a) Thursday (b) Friday (c) Wednesday (d) Monday (e) Tuesday
Q76. Who took the exam on Wednesday?
(a) B (b) D (c) C (d) A (e) F
Q77. How many people took their exam after B’s exam?
(a) Two (b) One (c) Four (d) None (e) Three
Q78. Which subject did the person who took the exam on Friday study?
(a) Science (b) Economics (c) History (d) English (e) Computer
Q79. Who took the exam immediately before B?
(a) A (b) C (c) E (d) F (e) D
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Seven people – P, Q, R, S, T, U and V – live on seven different floors...
Q80. On which floor does P live?
(a) Floor 5 (b) Floor 6 (c) Floor 2 (d) Floor 4 (e) Floor 3
Q81. Who lives immediately below T?
(a) U (b) P (c) S (d) Q (e) V
Q82. How many people live between S and T?
(a) One (b) None (c) Two (d) Three (e) Four
Q83. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Q lives on floor 3. (b) P lives on floor 6. (c) T lives on floor 5. (d) U lives on floor 6. (e) R lives on floor 6.
Q84. Who lives on the topmost floor?
(a) T (b) U (c) V (d) P (e) R
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Eight people – J, K, L, M, N, O, P and Q – are sitting around a circular table...
Q85. Who sits third to the right of L?
(a) P (b) N (c) O (d) M (e) Q
Q86. How many people sit between K and O, when counted from K to O in clockwise direction?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Four (d) Three (e) Five
Q87. Who sits immediately to the left of Q?
(a) P (b) J (c) O (d) M (e) N
Q88. What is N’s position with respect to J?
(a) Fourth to the right (b) Third to the right (c) Immediately to the right (d) Second to the right (e) Fifth to the right
Q89. Who sits exactly opposite to M?
(a) P (b) Q (c) J (d) L (e) K
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Seven boxes – P, Q, R, S, T, U and V – are kept one above another...
Q90. Which box is kept immediately above V?
(a) U (b) Q (c) P (d) T (e) S
Q91. How many boxes are kept between T and S?
(a) Four (b) None (c) One (d) Two (e) Three
Q92. Which box is kept at the bottommost position?
(a) Q (b) V (c) S (d) T (e) U
Q93. What is Q’s position from the top?
(a) 3rd (b) 5th (c) 6th (d) 7th (e) 4th
Q94. If all the boxes are rearranged in alphabetical order from top to bottom, how many boxes will remain in the same position as before?
(a) Four (b) None (c) Two (d) One (e) Three
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Ages (Current year 2026)
Q95. What is B’s present age?
(a) 28 years (b) 32 years (c) 30 years (d) 26 years (e) 24 years
Q96. Who is the second oldest among the five?
(a) B (b) A (c) D (d) C (e) E
Q97. What is the difference between the ages of D and C?
(a) 25 years (b) 22 years (c) 20 years (d) 18 years (e) 15 years
Q98. What is the average age of A, B and C?
(a) 30 years (b) 27 years (c) 28 years (d) 29 years (e) 31 years
Q99. In the number 5827364, if all digits smaller than 5 are multiplied by 2 and all digits greater than 5 are increased by 1 (digit 5 remains unchanged), what is the sum of the digits of the new number so formed?
(a) 43 (b) 47 (c) 51 (d) 45 (e) 49
Q100. Four of the following five number-pairs are alike in a certain way based on a common pattern and hence form a group. Find the one that does NOT belong to the group.
(a) 8-72 (b) 4-16 (c) 9-90 (d) 6-42 (e) 7-56
SBI PO Prelims 2026 Previous Year Question Paper with Free PDF Download Shift 3 Memory Based Paper (Aug 1, 2026)
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